VMED REMOVALS REVIEWER (1) PDF

1. A fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep the animal in balance. A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Borh A and B 2. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume is returned to normal A. Replacement B. Maintenance C....

1. A fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep the animal in balance. A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Borh A and B 2. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume is returned to normal A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Both A and B 3. Fluid type indicated for diarrhea A. Isotonic colloid B. Isotonic crystalloid C. Hypertonic colloid D. Hypertonic crystalloid 4. Fluid type for the correction of hyponatremia A. Isotonic colloid B. Isotonic crystalloid C. Hypertonic colloid D. Hypertonic crystalloid 5. A low molecular substance produce by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kill other microorganisms. A. Antibiotic B. Antimicrobial C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents 6. Polymyxin B and colistin are example of drugs that are A. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis B. Inhibitors of protein synthesis C. Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis D. Inhibitors of cell membrane function 7. They are bactericidal by interfering with cell wall synthesis A. Aminoglycosides B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Glycopeptides D. Fluoroquinolones 8. A solution which exerts a lower osmotic pressure than that of body fluid A. Hypertonic solution B. Isotonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Colloid solution 9. The route of administration for maintenance fluid therapy in small animals is A. Intravenous B. Oral  C. Subcutaneous D. Intraperitoneal 10. The shock dosage of synthesis colloids is A. 20ml/kg for dogs and 10 to 15 ml/kg for cats B. 20ml/kg for cats and 10 to 15 ml/kg for dogs C. 20ml/kg for dogs and 15 to 20 ml/kg for cats D. 20ml/kg for dogs and 20 to 30 ml/kg for cats 11. Dehydrated patients require sustained administration of crystalloids fluids for to replace fluid losses from interstitial and intracellular spaces. A. 12 to 24 hours B. 12 to 36 hours C. 12 to 48 hours D. 12 to 72 hours 12. It is an extremely useful diagnostic method for diseases of bones and joints and soft tissue swelling of lines, which cannot be easily defined by physical examination A. CT Scan B. MRI C. Radiography D. Nuclear scintigraphy 13. Any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism but causes little or no damage to the host is called A. Antibiotic B. Antimicrobial C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents 14. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics acts only to inhibit both Gram + and Gram – bacteria. A. True B. False 15. Organisms are resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobials and is dependent on drug concentration A. True B. False 16. Antibiotic resistance is reversible A. True B. False 17. Non-invasive technique good for soft tissue structure like… and joint capsules A. CT Scan B. MRI C. Ultrasound D. Endoscopy 18. Core vaccines for sheep/goat A. Cas… lymphadenitis and foot rot B. Clostridium perfringens A and D and … C. Rabies and Tetanus D. Campylobacter and Chlamydia 19. Feline and Canine core vaccine A. Feline Panleukopenia and Canine Parvovirus  B. Feline Calicivirus and Canine Panleukopenia C. Feline leukemia and Canine Parainfluenza D. Feline Immunodeficiency and Canine Parainfluenza 20. Main cation of extracellular fluid A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Potassium D. Phosphorus 21. Also known as replacement fluids, … to replace fluid deficits that may have developed from excessive loss A. Hypertonic crystalloids B. Isotonic crystalloids C. Hypotonic crystallization D. Colloid crystallization 22. Antibiotic which has some gram-positive activity against staphylococci but not streptococci. A. Macrolides B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Aminoglycosides D. Sulfonamides 23. A very useful technique for veterinary physical therapy, decreases muscle tension, reducing pain and increases local blood flow providing better tissue oxygenation A. Thermotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Massage D. Tapotement 24. A simple and very effective method to control acute inflammation following orthopedic surgery icepacks may be applied to the surgical site for 20 minutes every 6 hours, for up to 48-72 hours. This … helps in pain control but it should be avoided with chronic pain and inflammation. A. Thermotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Massage D. Tapotement 25. All farm visitors and employees should wear clean clothing or disposable outer coveralls as part of which biosecurity measures A. Elimination B. Sanitation C. Resistance D. Isolation 26. In dogs, this drug has been effectively used in the treatment of systemic blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, and coccidioidomycosis. A. Fluconazole B. Voriconazole C. Itraconazole D. Thiabendazole 27. The main organisms usually sensitive to flucytosine includes the following, EXCEPT:  A. Aspergillus spp. B. Candida albicans C. Dermatophytes D. Cryptococcus neoformans 28. Dermatophytes can be made resistant to this drug in vitro A. Flucytosine B. Amphotericin B C. Griseofulvin D. Nystatin 29. A sodium-based electrolytes solution of a composition similar to that of plasma water is also called crystalloid solution A. True B. False 30. This is the preparation of antigenic material, which are … to induce active immunity in the recipient animal against… bacterial, parasitic, or viral infection A. Vaccination B. Vaccine C. Immunization D. Antibody 31. Falling from a height causes long bone and facial bone fractures as well as thoracic and abdominal injuries where the… to apply is A. Trauma medicine B. Shock therapy C. Physical therapy D. Massage therapy 32. Products from the production of spirits such as brewer’s grains and/or distiller’s grains can make excellent animal feedstuffs A. True B. False 33. Biotechnologically produced ________ are available to enhance the digestive capacity especially of young or ill animals as well as to increase the digestibility of the feed A. Buffers B. Pellet binders C. Enzymes D. Antimicrobials 34. Antiparasitic drug which are effective against a wide range of… species and development stages, but have no activity against… or cestodes A. Imidazothiazoles B. Benzimidazoles C. Avermectin D. Tetrahydropyrimidine 35. Cats are most sensitive to A. Aspirin toxicity B. Acetaminophen toxicity C. Meloxicam toxicity D. Etodolac 36. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume returned to normal A. Rehydration B. Replacement C. Maintenance D. Both A and B 37. In animals with hypoadrenocorticism who lack both cortisol and aldosterone will result to A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 38. The most common intracellular ion A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Potassium D. Phosphorus 39. Solutions given only when intravascular deficit is present in combination with crystalloids to replace interstitial fluid A. Colloids B. Plasma proteins C. Gelatin D. Dextran-70 40. The means to provide nutrients by a method other than the GI tract is called ____ A. Parenteral nutrition B. Enteral nutrition C. Partial parenteral nutrition D. Total parenteral nutrition II. identification Replacement: Maintenance: Small animals: /kg/day Large animals: /kg/day Ongoing loses: Rate of fluid administration: DI KO MAINTINDIHAN Type of Drip: Pediatric Drip: Adult Drip: FINALS (SECTION 2) 1. Trauma that can result in a pneumothorax. PENETRATING THORACIC TRAUMA 2. Vaccines which contain only essential antigens and not all the other molecules that make up the microscope. SUBUNIT VACCINE 3. Non invasive technique and good for soft tissue structures like ligaments and joint capsules. THERAPEUTIC ULTRASOUND or ultrasonography 4. Abdominal pain clinical signs include colic, distended intestines on rectal examination, gastric reflux, and occasionally diarrhea in what animal? HORSE 5. They are bactericidal by interfering with cell wall synthesis. BETA-LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS 6. Fluid type indicated for diarrhea. ISOTONIC CRYSTALLOID 7. Core vaccines for sheep/goat. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGENS A and D and TETANUS 8. Core vaccine for cattle. INFECTIOUS BOVINE RHINOTRACHEITIS 9. A transfusion that affects the production of clotting proteins. PLATELET TRANSFUSION 10. Non-invasive form of treatment that may act as a form of pain relief in chronic degenerative conditions, and which can speed the patient's recovery from traumatic injuries. MAGNETIC FIELD THERAPY 11. Polymixin B and eolistin are examples drugS that are: INHIBITORS OF THE CELL MEMBRANE 12. Nutritional disorders in farm animals are associated with all of the following. SWALLOWING FOREIGN OBJECTS. SUDDEN  SHIFTS FROM HIGH ROUGHAGE TO HIGH CONCENTRATE DIETS. MINERAL IMBALANCES. EXCEPT: FREQUENCY OF FEEDING 13. Test involves incubating donor and recipient serum and red blood cells and looking for the body that indicates an increased risk of reaction inside the body if the transfusion is given. CROSS-MATCH 14. Fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep the animal in balance. MAINTENANCE 15. A buildup of gas which occurs when the gullet is obstructed (often by foreign objects such as potatoes) or when the animal cant burp (such as with milk fever/ tetanus). GRASSY BLOAT 16. Hydrotherapy is indicated among the following, except:SPONDYLOSIS 17. Fluid requirement for maintenance of small animals. 40-60 ml/kg/day 18. Type of acupuncture where injection of water, vit B solution or some other liquid substance to stimulate an acupuncture point for a longer period of time while also getting the benefit of the effect of the liquid. AQUAPUCTURE 19. The use of immunization is discouraged in this type of alternative medicine practice. HOMEOPATHY 20. Feline and canine core vaccines. FELINE PANLEUKOPENIA AND CANINE PARVOVIRUS 21. Main cation of ECF. SODIUM 22. Used to kill fleas, lice, ticks, and mites. It has fast “knock down” action on all arthropods with little persistence. ROTENONES 23. Fluid type for the correction of hyponatremia. HYPOTONIC CRSTALLOID  24. Therapy applied to an are of chronic, non-haling, tissue may enable acute cytokines to be released and stimulate healing. ANAPHYLACTIC THERAPY 25. Horses with this type of shock might demonstrate clinical features of sepsis, anaphylaxis, spinal shock or adrenal shock. DISTRIBUTIVE Multiple choice: 1. A fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep the animal in balance. A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Borh A and B 2. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume is returned to normal A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Both A and B 3. Fluid type indicated for diarrhea A. Isotonic colloid B. Isotonic crystalloid C. Hypertonic colloid  D. Hypertonic crystalloid 4. Fluid type for the correction of hyponatremia A. Isotonic colloid B. Isotonic crystalloid C. Hypertonic colloid D. Hypertonic crystalloid 5. A low molecular substance produce by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kill other microorganisms. A. Antibiotic B. Antimicrobial C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents 6. Polymyxin B and colistin are example of drugs that are A. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis B. Inhibitors of protein synthesis C. Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis D. Inhibitors of cell membrane function 7. They are bactericidal by interfering with cell wall synthesis A. Aminoglycosides B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Glycopeptides  D. Fluoroquinolones 8. A solution which exerts a lower osmotic pressure than that of body fluid A. Hypertonic solution B. Isotonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Colloid solution 9. The route of administration for maintenance fluid therapy in small animals is A. Intravenous B. Oral C. Subcutaneous D. Intraperitoneal 10. The shock dosage of synthesis colloids is A. 20ml/kg for dogs and 10 to 15 ml/kg for cats B. 20ml/kg for cats and 10 to 15 ml/kg for dogs C. 20ml/kg for dogs and 15 to 20 ml/kg for cats D. 20ml/kg for dogs and 20 to 30 ml/kg for cats 11. Dehydrated patients require sustained administration of crystalloids fluids for to replace fluid losses from interstitial and intracellular spaces. A. 12 to 24 hours B. 12 to 36 hours C. 12 to 48 hours  D. 12 to 72 hours 12. It is an extremely useful diagnostic method for diseases of bones and joints and soft tissue swelling of lines, which cannot be easily defined by physical examination A. CT Scan B. MRI C. Radiography D. Nuclear scintigraphy 13. Any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism but causes little or no damage to the host is called A. Antibiotic B. Antimicrobial C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents 14. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics acts only to inhibit both Gram + and Gram – bacteria. A. True B. False 15. Organisms are resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobials and is dependent on drug concentration A. True B. False 16. Antibiotic resistance is reversible  A. True B. False 17. Non-invasive technique good for soft tissue structure like… and joint capsules A. CT Scan B. MRI C. Ultrasound D. Endoscopy 18. Core vaccines for sheep/goat A. Cas… lymphadenitis and foot rot B. Clostridium perfringens A and D and … C. Rabies and Tetanus D. Campylobacter and Chlamydia 19. Feline and Canine core vaccine A. Feline Panleukopenia and Canine Parvovirus B. Feline Calicivirus and Canine Panleukopenia C. Feline leukemia and Canine Parainfluenza D. Feline Immunodeficiency and Canine Parainfluenza 20. Main cation of extracellular fluid A. Sodium B. Chloride  C. Potassium D. Phosphorus 21. Also known as replacement fluids, … to replace fluid deficits that may have developed from excessive loss A. Hypertonic crystalloids B. Isotonic crystalloids C. Hypotonic crystallization D. Colloid crystallization 22. Antibiotic which has some gram-positive activity against staphylococci but not streptococci. A. Macrolides B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Aminoglycosides D. Sulfonamides 23. A very useful technique for veterinary physical therapy, decreases muscle tension, reducing pain and increases local blood flow providing better tissue oxygenation A. Thermotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Massage D. Tapotement 24. A simple and very effective method to control acute inflammation following orthopedic surgery icepacks may be  applied to the surgical site for 20 minutes every 6 hours, for up to 48-72 hours. This … helps in pain control but it should be avoided with chronic pain and inflammation. A. Thermotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Massage D. Tapotement 25. All farm visitors and employees should wear clean clothing or disposable outer coveralls as part of which biosecurity measures A. Elimination B. Sanitation C. Resistance D. Isolation 26. In dogs, this drug has been effectively used in the treatment of systemic blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, and coccidioidomycosis. A. Fluconazole B. Voriconazole C. Itraconazole D. Thiabendazole 27. The main organisms usually sensitive to flucytosine includes the following, EXCEPT: A. Aspergillus spp.  B. Candida albicans (fungus ni nga sa human lang) C. Dermatophytes D. Cryptococcus neoformans 28. Dermatophytes can be made resistant to this drug in vitro A. Flucytosine B. Amphotericin B C. Griseofulvin D. Nystatin 29. A sodium-based electrolytes solution of a composition similar to that of plasma water is also called crystalloid solution A. True B. False 30. This is the preparation of antigenic material, which are … to induce active immunity in the recipient animal against… bacterial, parasitic, or viral infection A. Vaccination B. Vaccine C. Immunization D. Antibody 31. Falling from a height causes long bone and facial bone fractures as well as thoracic and abdominal injuries where the… to apply is A. Trauma medicine  B. Shock therapy C. Physical therapy D. Massage therapy 32. Products from the production of spirits such as brewer’s grains and/or distiller’s grains can make excellent animal feedstuffs A. True B. False 33. Biotechnologically produced ________ are available to enhance the digestive capacity especially of young or ill animals as well as to increase the digestibility of the feed A. Buffers B. Pellet binders C. Enzymes D. Antimicrobials 34. Antiparasitic drug which are effective against a wide range of… species and development stages, but have no activity against… or cestodes A. Imidazothiazoles B. Benzimidazoles C. Avermectin (feeling ko Ivermectin ni) D. Tetrahydropyrimidine 35. Cats are most sensitive to A. Aspirin toxicity  B. Acetaminophen toxicity C. Meloxicam toxicity D. Etodolac 36. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume returned to normal A. Rehydration B. Replacement C. Maintenance D. Both A and B 37. In animals with hypoadrenocorticism who lack both cortisol and aldosterone will result to A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia **Addison's disease dapat??** kalemia-potassium calcemia- calcium 38. The most common intracellular ion A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Potassium  D. Phosphorus 39. Solutions given only when intravascular deficit is present in combination with crystalloids to replace interstitial fluid A. Colloids B. Plasma proteins C. Gelatin D. Dextran-70 40. The means to provide nutrients by a method other than the GI tract is called ____ A. Parenteral nutrition B. Enteral nutrition C. Partial parenteral nutrition D. Total parenteral nutrition II. identification Replacement: Body Weight x % dehydration Maintenance: Body Weight x estimated fluid rate Small animals: 40-60/kg/day Large animals: 40/kg/day Ongoing loses:4 x BW x #of vomit or diarrhea = ml of water Rate of fluid administration: Small Animals = 90ml/kg/hr Hypovolemic shock = rapid IV Large animals  Anesthesia 4.4-6.6 ml/kg/hr Shoch 12-20L/hr then reduce to 3-5L/hr Type of Drip: Pediatric Drip: 60 drops/ml Adult Drip:20 drops/ml Hi tak an nko mag tuon -enzo MIDTERM (SECTION 2)  MIDTERM (SECTION 1) 1. Method of recording data about the health status of a patient in a problem-solving system POVMR 2. The aim of this plan is to confirm or rule out conditions which appear either at the top of the list or as differentials for more than one problem. Diagnostic plan 3. This consist of problems which have been identified from the history, clinical examination and result of preliminary laboratory screening tests. Initial problem list 4. This is a condensed version of the initial problem list since it may list diagnoses rather than separate problems. Master’s problem list 5. This plan involves keeping the owner fully informed on the animal’s progress (response to therapy, results of tests, diagnosis, prognosis), and /or new problems which ay have arisen. Client education 6. This plan states the goal of therapy and whether the therapy is specific, symptomatic, supportive, or simply palliative. Therapeutic Plan  7. The detailed items of information in developing the minimum database History 8. The format where record history obtained from the owner and subjective observations such as changes in mental attitude, activity, appetite, etc. Is the animal’s condition improving, remaining stable or deteriorating. Subjective plan 9. The interpretation of paying particular attention to new abnormalities or complications which may have arisen. If appropriate re-evaluate to prognosis. Assessment 10. The identification number, breed, age, sex, color and production class of animal. Signalment 11. The technique of physical examination where there is changes in shape, size, consistency, position, temperature and sensitivity to touch ( pain response) Palpation 12. The Technique of observing the animal from a distance Clinical examination 13. The resonance of an object can be determined by the vibrations produced within it by the application of a sharp force. The sound produced provides information regarding the shape, size and density of the object. Percussion 14. The assessment by inspection of the eyes for evidence of dehydration and evaluating the elasticity of the skin Skin turgor 15. The rate and character of respiration by watching the movement of the thoracic wall at the thoracic arch. Respiratory rate 16. This type of physical examination record the rate, character, rhythm, tension and type of wave. Pulse and heart rate 17. Changes in the frequency, rhythm, and intensity of normal sounds can be detected in this techniue of physical examination. Auscultation 18. A drum-like not emitted by an organ containing gas under pressure such as tympanic rumen or cecum Tympani tic 19. The examination which consist of checking for the presence of absence of all the clinical abnormalities nd predisposing disease risk factors. -clinical examination 20. A form of inspection used to identify and characterize abnormal smells which may be associated with disease -Olfactory inspection 1. Technique used to examine the larynx, trachea and thorax * A. ausculatation B. auscultation, palpation C. auscultation, percussion D. auscultation, palpation, and percussion 2. Pulse rate in cattle is taken from all of the following, except: * A. median artery B. caudal artery C. digital artery D. femoral artery 3. Normal capillary time in horse is : * A. 1.5 seconds B. 2 seconds C. 3 seconds D. 4 seconds 4. What is the most frequent palpable artery to obtain the pulse rate in horse? *  A. Facial artery ventral to the mandible B. Transverse facial artery C. Digital arterty D. Median artery 5. The capillary refill time in goat can be observed by the: * A. vulvar mucosa B. dental pad C. dental pad and vulvar mucosa D. Conjunctiva 6. Pulse rates for small dogs/cats * A. 70-90 B. 80-120 C. 80 -110 D. 110-115 7. The first heart sound (SI) corresponds to the vibration which occurs during closure of the * A. Pulmonic and aortic valves B. Pulmonic and mitral valve  C. Atrioventricular valve D. Bronchovesicular 8. A form of inspection used to identify and characterize abnormal smells which may be associated with disease. * A. Manipulation B. Olfaction C. Ballottment D. Visual 9. Palpation described when the structure pits on pressure, as in edema A. Firm B. Hard C. Doughly D. Tense 10. The first heart sound (SI) corresponds to the vibration which occurs during closure of the * A. Pulmonic and aortic valves B. Pulmonic and mitral valve  C. Atrioventricular valve D. Bronchovesicular 11. Previously referred as ronchi A. Crackles B. Rales C. Vesicular D. Wheezes 12. In tounge diagnosis, it has a special realtionship A. Liver B. Small Intestines C. Heart D. Pancreas 13. The sound emitted by organs containing air A. Tympanitic B. Resonant C. Rebound D. Ballotement 14. Checking the color and moistness of oral mucous membranes for normal capillary refill time is less than A. 2 seconds B. 3 seconds C. 5 seconds D. 6 seconds 15. Respiratory sounds which is the result of air passing through larger airways A. Bronchial B. Vesicular C. Bronchovesicular D. Adventitious 16. Respiratory sounds which indicate the presence of a pathological process. They may originate from the Bronchi, lungs, and pleura. A. Bronchial B. Vesicular C. Bronchovesicular D. Adventitious 17. A pathologically increased respiratory effort A. Coughing B. Dyspnea C. Sneezing D. Hemoptysis 18. Record clinical information, I.e” clinical findings (include normal findings if necessary) and the results of laboratory tests and special examination A. Objective data B. Assessment C. Subjective data D. plan 19. Respiratory noises or stridor due to paralysis of the vocal cords A. Grunting B. Roaring C. Snoring D. wheezing 20. The pulse in cattle should be taken at the A. Femoral artery B. Facial artery C. Middle coccygeal D. Middle coccygeal or facial arteries 21. The pulse should be counted for atleast A. 15, but preferably 20 seconds B. 15, but preferably 30 seconds C. 15, but preferably 40 seconds D. 15, but preferably 50 seconds 22. A comfortable pig,s housing should have an ambient temperature A. 16 degrees celcius B. 17 degrees celcius C. 18 degrees celcius D. 19 degrees celcius 23. A condition in pig with acute myopathy associated with vitamin E and/or selenium deficiency  A. Muscle swelling B. Subcutaneous abscess C. Lateral deviation of the spine and swelling of the longissimus dorsi muscles D. Lameness 24. In measuring the pulse rate of pigs, most accurate method is taken through A. Palpation of femoral artery B. Palpation of middle coccygeal or facial arteries C. Palpation of the saphenous artery D. Auscultation of the heart 25. A vacutainer blood tube most frequently used for complete blood count A. Purple B. Green C. Red and Black stripes D. Turquoise 26. A vacutainer blood tube contains heparin, indicative for blood smear to avoid cell clumping  A. Purple B. Green C. Red and Black stripes D. Turquoise 27. The normal color of mucous membrane of horse is A. Pale pink B. Pink roseate C. Reddish D. Pale roseate 28. Abnormalities in mucous membrane may indicate anemia caused by direct blood loos or by haemolysis A. Pallor B. Blue-tinge C. Yellow D. Bright-red 29. Which among the following is a primary lesion? A. Patch  B. Scale C. Fissure D. Comedo 30. The history of the group relative to addition is of particular importance. Is the affected animal an established member of the group, or has it been introduced, if so how long age? A. Present history B. Prior treatment C. Past history D. Previous exposure Sites of Pulse taking in domestic animals Horse Median artery External maxillary artery Transverse facial artery Cow and pig Facial artery Median artery Middle coccygeal artery Sheep, goat, and calf Femoral artery Piglet, dog and cat Femoral artery Examination of the Heart Location 1. Horse nd th 2 to 6 rib 2. Cow rd th R-3 to 5 rib, L-3rd to th 6 rib 3. Pig Shoulder joint at the lvl of th 5 rib 4. Sheep nd th 2 to 5 rib 5. Goat nd th 2 to 5 rib The structures that can be applied with the technique of physical examination Organs Techniques 1. Superficial artery Palpation 2. Stomach Palpation, percussion 3. Rumen palpation 4. Esophagus palpation 5. Lungs auscultation 6. Heart Auscultation, palpation 7. Thoracic wall Palpation, percussion, auscultation VMed Quiz 1 1. This consist of problems which have been identified 17. – 17. Useful functions of physical examination from the history, clinical examination and result of a. To detect congenital abnormalities preliminary laboratory screening tests. b. To establish the seriousness of a problem in a INITIAL PROBLEM LIST sick animal 2. This plan involves keeping the owner fully informed on 18. – 21. List the components of POVMR the animal’s progress (response to therapy, results of tests, diagnosis, prognosis), and/or any new problems a. Collection of baseline information (database) which may have arisen. b. Initial problem lists CLIENT EDUCATION c. Formulating a plan d. Assessment and progress note 3. The aim of this plan is to confirm or rule out conditions 22. – 25. List the management that should be obtained in which may appear either at the top of the list or as history taking differentials for more than one problem. DIAGNOSTIC PLAN a. Nutrition b. Reproductive management and performance 4. The detailed items of information in developing the c. Climate minimum database. d. General management HISTORY 5. This plan states the goal of therapy and whether the therapy is specific, symptomatic, supportive, or simply 6. palliative. THERAPEUTIC PLAN 7. List of diseases that may be responsible for the clinical and laboratory findings in a particular circumstance. DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS 8. Identifying disease in the patient by its characteristic signs, symptoms, and test findings. DIAGNOSIS 9. This plan includes the diagnosis or tentative diagnosis, details of therapy (and response to therapy), prognosis, and advice concerning the short-term and long-term management of the patient. DISCHARGE SUMMARY 10. The method of recording data about the health status of the patient. PROBLEM ORIENTED VETERINARY RECORD 11. Record objective clinical information, i.e. clinical findings, and the results of laboratory tests and special examinations OBJECTIVE DATA 12. Primary complaint is what part of history taking? PRESENT HISTORY 13. Questions like treatments and control measures used and the results obtained are part of what history PREVIOUS HISTORY 14. The animal’s description for identification purposes SIGNALMENT 15. This list is a condensed version of the initial problem list since it may list diagnosis rather than separate problems MASTER PROBLEM LIST 16. What part of history taking if drug withdrawal regulations are now require that animals were treated and their products such as milk is withheld for slaughter or market. PRIOR TREATMENT Quiz 2 1. Diagnostic methods which are sensitive indicators of muscle cell damage Creatinine kinase (CK) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 2. A valuable diagnostic method for bone diseases such as osteomyelitis of the vertebral column in adult horses and cattle when the lesion is surrounded by a large mass of superimposing muscle. Nuclear Scintigraphy 3. It is an extremely useful diagnostic method for diseases of bones and joints and soft tissue swelling of limbs which cannot be easily defined by physical examination Radiography 4. They are dark-staining RBCs that lack central pallor. They are easiest to detect in the dog because dog RBCs have the most central pallor normally, their presence suggests immune mediated hemolytic anemia. Spherocytes 5. Refers to decrease in concentration of circulating platelets. Thrombocytopenia 6. Normal hemoglobin level is called. Normochromic 7. Refers to deficiency of blood cells in circulation in general. Cytopenia 8. These are fat molecules in the blood stream. Triglycerides 9. Unpredictable resistance to antibiotic is called? Mutational resistance 10. Four (4) examples of drugs that inhibit the nucleic acid synthesis or function. Fluoroquinolones, Nitroimidazoles, Nitrofurans, Rifampin) 11. Any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism but causes little or no damage to the host is called? Antimicrobial 12. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics acts only to inhibit both Gram + and Gram – bacteria. True 13. Organisms are resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobials and is dependent on drug concentration. True 14. Antibiotic resistance is reversible. True 15. The 2 classifications of musculoskeletal disease Degenerative and Inflammatory 16. Techniques in musculoskeletal examination. Observation, Palpation, Manipulation 17. Defective red cell growth is also known as Microcytic 18. The stacking of RBCs. This is normal in horses and is enhanced when plasma protein concentration in increased. Rouleaux Formation 19. It is a disease characterized by finding increased numbers of white blood cells, particularly neutrophils, in the joint fluid. Inflammatory Joint Disease  MIDTERMS VMED 101 1st SEM, AY: 2022-2023 4. What is the most frequent palpable artery to obtain the pulse rate in horse? 1. Technique used to examine the larynx, trachea and thorax a. facial artery ventral to mandible a. Auscultation b. transverse facial artery b. Auscultation and palpation c. digital artery b. Auscultation and percussion d. femoral artery d. Auscultation, palpation and percussion 5. The capillary refill time in goat can be observed by the: 2. Pulse rate in cattle is taken from all of the following, except: a. vulvar mucosa a. Median artery b. dental pad b. caudal artery c. conjunctival d. femoral artery d. dental pad and vulvar mucosa b. Digital artery 6. Pulse rates for small dogs/cats 3. Normal capillary time in horse is: a. 70-90 a. 1.5 seconds b. 80-110 b. 2.seconds c. 80-120 b. 3 seconds d. 110-115 d. 4 seconds 7.The first heart sound (SI) corresponds to the vibration 10. The first heart sound (SI) corresponds to the vibration which occurs during closure of the? which occurs during closure of the: a. pulmonic and aortic valve a. Pulmonic and aortic valves b. pulmonic and mitral valve b. Pulmonic and mitral valve c. Atrioventricular valve c. Atrioventricular valve d. brochovesicular valve d. Bronchovesicular 8. A form of inspection used to identify and characterize abnormal smells which may be associated with disease. 11. Previously referred to as ronchi a. manipulation a. Crackles b. ballottement b. Rales c. olfaction c. Vesicular d. visual d. Wheezes 9. Palpation describe when the structure pits on pressure, as in edema 12. In tongue diagnosis, it has a special relationship with the a. Firm a. Liver b. Hard b. Small intestines c. Doughy c. Heart d. Tense d. Pancreas 13. The sound emitted by organs containing air 16. Respiratory sounds which indicate the presence of a pathological process. They may originate from the bronchi, a. Resonant lungs and pleura. b. Tympanitic a. Bronchial d. Ballotement b. Vesicular c. Rebound c. Brochovesicular d. Adventitious 14. Checking the color and moistness of oral mucous membranes for normal capillary refill time is less than 17. A pathologically increased respiratory effort b. 3 seconds a. Coughing a. 2 seconds b. sneezing" c. 5 seconds c. dyspnea d. 6 seconds d. hemoptysis 15. Respiratory sounds which is the result of air passing through larger airways 18.Record clinical information, i.e.". clinical findings (include normal findings if necessary) and the results of a. Bronchial laboratory tests and special examinations b. Vesicular a. objective data c. Brochovesicular c. subjective data d. Adventitious b. assessment d. plan 19. Respiratory noises or stridor due to paralysis of the 22. A comfortable pig's housing should have an ambient vocal cords temperature a. grunting of: b. roaring a. 16°C c. snoring b. 17°C d. wheezing c.18°C d. 19°C 20. The pulse in cattle should be taken at the a. femoral artery 23. A condition in pigs with acute myopathy associated with vitamin E and/or selenium deficiency c. middle coccygeal a. Muscle swelling b. facial artery b. Subcutaneous abscess d. middle coccygeal or facial arteries c. Lateral deviation of the spine and swelling of the longissimus dorsi muscles d. lameness 21. The pulse should be counted for at least a. 15, but preferably 20 seconds 24. In measuring the pulse rate of pig, the most accurate method is taken through: b. 15, but preferably 30 seconds a. Palpation of femoral artery c. 15, but preferably 40 seconds b. Palpation of middle coccygeal or facial arteries d. 15, but preferably 50 seconds c. Palpation of the saphenous artery c. pink roseate d. Auscultation of the heart d. pale roseate 25.A vacutainer blood tube most frequently used for complete 28. Abnormalities in mucous membrane may indicate anemia blood count is: caused by direct blood loss or by haemolysis a. Purple a. pallor b. Green c. yellow c. Red and Black strips b. blue-tinge d. Torquise d. bright-red 26.A vacutainer blood tube contains heparin, indicative for 29. Which among the following is a primary lesion? blood smear to avoid cell clumping a. patch a.Purple b. scale b. Green c. fissure c. Red and Black strips d. comedo d. Turquoise 30. The history of the group relative to additions is of 27. The normal colour of mucous membrane of horse is: particular importance. Is the affected animal an established member of the group, or has it been introduced, and if so how a. pale pink long ago? b. reddish a. present history c. past history CLIENT EDUCATION b.prior treatment 6. This plan states the goal of therapy and whether the therapy is specific, symptomatic, supportive, or simply d. previous exposure palliative THERAPEUTIC PLAN. IDENTIFICATION 7. The detailed items of information in developing the minimum database 1. Method of recording data about the health status of a patient in a problem-solving system HISTORY PROBLEM ORIENTED VETERINARY MEDICAL RECORD 8. The format where record history obtained from the owner and subjective observations such as changes in mental attitude, 2. The aim of this plan is to confirm or rule out conditions activity, appetite, etc. Is the animal's condition improving, which appear either at the top of the lost or as differentials remaining stable or deteriorating. for more than one problem. SUBJECTIVE Data DIAGNOSTIC PLAN 9. The interpretation of paying particular attention to new 3. This consist of problems which have been identified from abnormalities or complications which may have arisen. If the history, clinical examination and result of preliminary appropriate re-evaluate the prognosis. laboratory screening tests ASSESSMENT INITIAL PROBLEM LIST 10. The identification number, breed, age, sex, color and 4. This list is a condensed version of the initial problem production class of animal list since may list diagnoses rather than separate problems SIGNALMENT. MASTER PROBLEM LIST 11. The technique of physical examination where there is 5. This plan involves keeping the owner fully informed on the changes in shape, size, consistency, position, temperature and animal's progress (response to therapy, results of tests, sensitivity to touch (pain response). diagnosis, prognosis), and/or any new problems which may have arisen. PALPATION 12. The technique of observing the animal from a distance 19. The examination which consist of checking for the presence of absence of all the clinical abnormalities and predisposing OBSERVATION FROM A Distance disease risk factors. 13. The resonance of an object can be determined by the CLINICAL EXAMINATION vibrations produced within it by the application of a sharp force. The sound produced provides information regarding the 20. This is used to identify and characterize abnormal smells shape, size and density of the object. which may be associated with disease. OLFACTORY INSPECTION PERCUSSION 14. The assessment by inspection of the eyes for evidence of III. Fill in the Table. (20 Points) dehydration and evaluating the elasticity of the skin. A. Site of pulse taking in domestic animals. SKIN TURGOR 15. The rate and character of respiration by watching the Horse 1.Greater metatarsal movement of the thoracic wall at the thoracic arch. artery RESPIRATORY RATE 2. EXTERNAL MAXILLARY 16. This type of physical examination record the rate, ARTERY character, m, tension and type of wave. PULSE AND HEART RATE 3. Median ARTERY 17. Changes in the Frequency, rhythm and intensity of normal sounds can be detected in this technique of physical examination. Cow and pig 1. FACIAL ARTERY AUSCULTATION 18. A drum-like note emitted by an organ containing gas under 2. COCCYGEAL ARTERY pressure such as a tympanitic rumen or cecum. TYMPANITIC  3. Median artery 5. Goat Left hemithorax, 2nd to 5th intercostal spaces Sheep, goat, 1.FEMORAL and calf C. The structures that can be applied with the technique of physical examination Piglet, dog, 1. FEMORAL and cat ORGAN TECHNIQUES B. Examination of the Heart Location 1. Superficial artery Palpation 1. Horse left cranial ventral thorax 2.Stomach Palpation 2. Cow left thorax, below elbow 3. Rumen Percussion, palpation 3. Pig shoulder joint at the level 4. Esophagus Endoscopy, Palpation of the 5th rib 5. Lungs Auscultation, palpation, 4. Sheep Left hemithorax, 2nd to 5th percussion intercostal spaces 6. Heart Auscultation, Percussion  7. A fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep 7. Thoracic wall Palpation, percussion, the animal in balance MAINTENANCE auscultation 8. Fluid suitable as initial choice for the hyperkalemic patient. Physiologic (0.9%) NaCl contains no potassium 9. A transfusion of BLOOD Product maybe needed if there is severe bleeding such as after surgery, trauma or during giving birth FINALS VMED 101 10.A laboratory test done to discover an animal's blood type by looking into the particular antigens on the surface of the 1st SEM, AY: 2022-2023 red blood cells Blood typing IDENTIFICATION. Supply the correct answer. Write in full your 11. The most serious risk of blood transfusion ACUTE HEMOLYSIS answers. Strictly, CORRECT SPELLING! 2 points each 12. An IV fluid mixture that can provide roughly half of a 1. A deficit of body water and is often accompanied by loses hospitalized animal's caloric requirements. PARTIAL PARENTERAL of body electrolytes and changes in acid-base balance - NUTRITION (PPN) DEHYDRATION 13. An IV solution formulated with a far higher dextrose 2. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal's concentration, about 50% dextrose in the standard solution. fluid volume is returned to normal – REPLACEMNT AND TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITION (TPN) REHYDRATION Phase Colloid administration requires continuous, diligent 3.A solution containing large particles which do not easily monitoring. Negative side effects associated with colloid the vascular space COLLOIDS administration includes 4. A solution which exerts a lower osmotic pressure than that 14. ANAPHYLACTOID REACTIONS of body fluid ,15. VOLUME OVERLOAD to oncotic pressure, but Hypotonic solution and 16. VOMITING AND HYPOTENSION 5.A solution that do not contribute to osmotic pressure CRYSTALLOIDS 17. These antiparasitic has drug toxicity typical of 6. Fluid therapy for severe blood loss Whole blood acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and include evidence of excessive acetvicholine at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors NSAID such as 18. ASPIRIN , 19, ACETAMINOPHEN 2. Antiparasitic drug which are effective against a wide range of nematode species and developmental stages, but have no 20. IBUPROFEN activity against trematodes or cestodes and 22. INDOMETHACIN B. benzimidazoles , 21. NAPROXEN A. imidazothiazoles used in human medicine can cause poisoning in animals D. tetrahydropyrimidines 23. The inhibition of this COX-2/Cyclooxygenase 2 by NSAIDs is c. avermectins thought to be for the antipyretic, analgesic, and anti- inflammatory 3. The condition is diagnosed by the presence of eosinophils (a type of white blood cell) in the nasal discharge, a 24. Tests that can be run at cage side and provide preliminary favorable response after treatment with antihistamines, the information pertaining to the patient's hydration and volume disappearance of signs when the offending antigen is removed, status Quick Analysis Tests (QUATS) and its seasonal nature 25. Laser is an acronym for LIGHT AMPLIFICATION BY STIMULATED B. Chronic Allergic Bronchitis EMISSION OF RADIATION A. Allergic rhinitis D. Atopy C. Hives II.MULTIPLE CHOICE: Select the letter that corresponds to the correct answer in BIG LETTER. Strictly, NO ERASURES! 4. Idiosyncratic reactions have been reported in Chihuahuas from the use of this ectoparasitides 1. There is concern about the increasing resistance of certain bacteria to this drug which include some zoonotic organisms B. avermectins such as Salmonella spp., Campylobacter spp. and E. coli. A. amitraz A. nitrofurans C. fipronil B. fluoroquinolones D. lufenuron C. potentiated sulfonamides 5. Dipping is the most common method of applying an D. tylosin ectoparasiticide to sheep. A. true D. Thiabendazole B. false 10. The main organisms usually sensitive to flucytosine includes the following, EXCEPT: 6. Acetaminophen is safe to use in small animals A. Aspergillus spp, A. true C. Dermatophytes B. false B. Candida albicans 7. It is used orally in horses for soft tissue problems and inflammatory swelling associated with lameness but is too D. Cryptococcus neoformans toxic to be used in small animals. 11, Dermatophytes can be made resistant to this drug in vitro. A. meloxicam A. Plucytosine B. naproxen c. Griseofulvin C. aspirin B. Amphotericin B D. flunixin meglumine D. Nystatin 8. Cats are most sensitive to: 12. A sodium-based electrolyte solution of a composition A. aspirin toxicity similar to that of plasma water is also called crystalloid solution B. acetaminophen toxicity A. true C. meloxican toxicity B. false D. etodolac 12. A sodium based electrolyte solution of a composition 9. In dogs, this drug has been effectively used in the similar to that plasma water is also called crystalloid treatment of systemic blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, solution cryptococcosis, and coccidioidomycosis. A. true A. Fluconazole B. false B. Voriconazole 13. They may be needed in special circumstances such as for an C. Itraconazole animal with rapid hemorrhage when blood products are unavailable, an animal with a high ICP, or a patient with A. intaosseous hyponatremia. D. Oral A. Isotonic solutions C. intravenous C. Hypertonic solutions 17. Isotonic crystalloid solutions can be administered through B. Hypotonic solutions thig route to treat mild dehydration in animals with vomiting and diarrhea. D. Replacement crystalloids B. subcutaneous 14. The shock dosage of synthetic colloids is: A. intaosseous A. 20 ml/kg for dogs and 10 to 15 ml/kg for cats D. Oral B. 20 ml/kg for cats and 10 to 15 ml/kg for dogs C. intravenous C. 20 ml./kg for dogs and 15 to 20 ml/kg for cats 18. This route is useful for patient that require rapid fluid D. 20 ml/kg for dogs and 20 to 30 ml/kg for cats crystalloid and drug administration when intravenous access is not fluids for possible. 15. Dehydrated patients require sustained administration of A. intraosseous to replace fluid losses from interstitial and intracellular B. subcutaneous space. C. intravenous A. 12 to 24 hours D. Oral B. 12 to 36 hours 19. Solution of choice for patients that have suffered from D. 12 to 72 hours pure water C. 12 to 48 hours loss, but it is rarely indicated as the prime replacement solution during anesthesia and surgery. 16. A fluid administration used to correct hypovolemia and A. 2.58 DEXTROSE INHALF- STRENGTH IONICSOLUTION moderate to severe dehydration because it allows precise B. LACTATED RINGER'S SOLUTION (HARTMANN'S SOLUTION) titration of fluids to meet fluid requirement C. 5% DEXTROSE B. subcutaneous D. NORMAL SALINE 24. Organisms are resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobials and is dependent on drug concentration. 20. Colloids are fluids that contain large molecular weight particles. When administered into the intravascular space A. True colloids remain unlike crystalloids eventually move into other compartments. B. False A. True 25.Antibiotic resistance is reversible B. False A. True B. False 26. Parasites are paralyzed and expelled alive is the effect 21. A low molecular substance produce by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kill other microorganisms of this A. Antibiotic drug B. Antimicrobial A. Butamizole C. Levamizole C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents B. Albendazole 22. Any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic D. Benzimidazole origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism 27. The live-virus vaccines act as stressors that may but causes little or no damage to the host is called exacerbate the toxicity of this drug A. Antibiotic A. Pyrimidines B. Antimicrobial C. Benzimidazole C. Anti-infective agents B. Organophosphates D. Chemotherapeutic agents D. Avermectins 23. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics acts only to inhibit both Gram 28. Adverse effect of this drugs in horses, of an injectable + and form that is no longer available may represent signs that Gram - bacteria could be seen with overdose A. True B. False A. Pyrimidines B. Organophosphates C. Benzimidazole B. Caprofen D. Avermectins A. Piroxicam 29. Several spp. of cyathostomes are reported to be resistant D. Aspirin of this drug c. Meloxicam B. Mebendazole 33. Drugs that has bactericidal and bacteriostatic action A. Thiabendazole A. Macrolides D. Albendazole B. Rifampins C. Febantel C. Novobiocin 30. Also known as replacement fluids, used to replace fluid deficits that may have developed from excessive loss. D. Nitofurans B. isotonic crystalloids 34. This drug can produce syndrome of bone marrow suppression such as aplastic anemia and non- regenerative anemia A. hypertonic crystalloids A. Aminoglycosides D. colloid crystalloids B. Fluroquinolones C. hypotonic crystalloids c. Sulfonamides 31. Antibiotic which have some gram-positive activity against D. Chloramphenicol staphylococci but not streptococci. B. Beta-lactam antibiotics 35. A useful site in early shock A. Macrolides A. Subcutaneous D. Sulfonamides B. Intraosseous C. Intraperitoneal C. Aminoglycosides 32.This drug is used for the treatment of acute and chronic D. Rectal inflammation associated with musculoskeletal disease and for 36. The predominant anion within the body. the management of postoperative pain with greater gastrointestinal safety A. Sodium B. Chloride a. True C. Potassium B. False D. Phosphorus 41. Absorption of this drug is enhanced when it is given with a fatty meal. 37. Therapy applied to an area of chronic, non-healing tissue may enable acute cytokines to be released and stimulate A. Flucytosine healing C. Griseofulvin A. trauma medicine B. Amphotericin B B. shock therapy D. Nystatin C. physical therapy 42. In vitro, it is inhibitory to Candida Species, T. D. inferential therapy glabrata, C. neoformans, C. immitis, and pseudoallescheria boydii. 38. A recently developed technique for treating cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors A. Clotrimazole A. Electrochemotherapy C. Amphotericin B B. Electroporation B. Miconazole C. Inferential therapy D. Nystati D. Laser OR ALL E CIRCLE 39. The role of lasers in the inflammatory phase is an: 43. This drug is poorly absorbsd from the intestinal tract,it usually administered either intravenously or topically. A. anti-inflammatory A, Clotrimazole C. immunomodulators B, Miconazole B. increased collagen formation C. Amphotericin B D. all of the choices D, Nystatin 40. Allergy tests cannot diagnose skin allergies, they can help determine the source of the allergy and help direct treatment 44, Fromotes analgesia chrough neuromodulation by releasino D. Macrolides endorphins and encephalins it also directly inhibite hyper - excited sensory nerves 48, Treatment with atropine and pralidoxime is indicated for A, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation the toxicity of this drug B, neuromuscular electrical stimulation A. Pyrimidines C. ultrasound Eherapy C. Benzimidazole D, laser therapy B. Organophosphates 45, Stimulates muscular contraction, aiming to reduce atrophy and aid muscle function return, and is useful for neurological D. Avermectins and orthopedic rehabilitation 49. The drug that can be used with organophsphates and certain A, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation other antiparasitic and antimicrobial drugs. A. Pyrimidines B, neuromuscular electrical stimulation C. ultrasound therapy c. Benzimidazole D. laser therapy B. Organophosphates 46. The following are advantages of electrotherapy, EXCEPT: D. Avermectins 50. Excellent choice for providing drugs and fluids to A. Increasing muscle tones pain reduction. patients in which IV access 1s difficult-if not impossible B. Increasing blood flow to the injured especially in tiny patients such as neonates and pocket pets C. Increased strength A. intraosseous D. control acute inflammation C. intravenous 47, Drug metabolism is particularly rapid in horses and this B. subcutaneous drug is therefore of limited use in this species D. Oral A. Lincomycin B. Clindamycin C. Chloramphenicol MIDTERM objective data subjective data 1. Normal capillary time in horse is:* master's problem list 1.5 seconds initial problem's list 2 seconds 3 seconds 9. This list is a condensed version of 4 secondS the initial problem list since it may list diagnoses rather than 2. Pulse rates for small dogs/cats * separate problems * 70-90 objective data 80-120 subjective data 80 -110 master's problem list 110-115 initial problem's list 3. A diagnosis usually made with 10. Evaluation of the position of the additional confidence after greater trochanter of the femur considering several differential relative to the tuber coxae and diagnosis and collection of further tuber ischiadicum is useful to clinical and laboratory information. assess traumatic injuries to the: * definitive pelvis differential coxofemoral joint tentative proximal femur presumptive all of the choices 4. What is the most frequent palpable 11. Walking in circles is a subtle artery to obtain the pulse rate in neurological deficits only noted horse? * under special circumstances graded Facial artery ventral to the as ______ for ataxia in horse * mandible 1 Transverse facial artery 2 Digital arterty 3 Median artery 4 5 5. Respiratory noises or stridor due to paralysis of the vocal cords * 12. Sneezing in cattle is uncommon but grunting can occur in cases of allergic roaring rhinitis * snoring True False wheezing 13. Pulse rate in cattle is taken from 6. The absence of this reflex indicates all of the following, except: * a lesion to one or both of facial median artery and trigeminal nerves in cattle * caudal artery fixation reflex digital artery palpebral reflex femoral artery pupillary light reflex photomotor reflex 14. Primary complaint is what part of history taking? * 7. Record clinical information, i.e.". present history clinical findings (include normal previous history findings if necessary) and the previous exposure results of laboratory tests and prior treatment special examinations * objective data subjective data 15. The common psoroptic mange assessment infestation in goats are found in: * plan skin covering the ribs inner surface of the pinna 8. This consist of problems which have caudal surface of the the lower been identified from the history, parts of the legs clinical examination and result of around the head(around the eyes, preliminary laboratory screening lips, and chin) tests * 16. The common sarcoptic mange inner surface of the pinna infestation in goats are found in: * caudal surface of the the lower skin covering the ribs parts of the legs inner surface of the pinna around the head(around the eyes, caudal surface of the the lower lips, and chin) parts of the legs around the head(around the eyes, 24. Primary complaint is what part of lips, and chin) history taking? * present history 17. A capillary refill time that previous history indicates a developing problem * previous exposure 2 seconds prior treatment 2-5 seconds 5 seconds 25. Technique used to examine the increase in 5 seconds larynx, trachea and thorax * ausculatation 18. A form of inspection used to auscultation, palpation identify and characterize abnormal auscultation, percussion smells which may be associated with auscultation, palpation, and disease. * percussion Manipulation Olfaction 26. Cattle normally pass urine between * Ballottment 5- 6 times a day Visual 7-8 times a day 8-12 times a day 19. Rebreathing bag increased the breath 12-16 times a day sound in horse since lung sound of the horse are of low intensity * 27. The following are assessment in True False animals with loss of vision, except fixation reflex 20. Respiratory sound which is a feature palpebral reflex of chronic obstructive pulmonary pupillary light reflex disease, usually occurring during photomotor reflex expiration. * grunting 28. The capillary refill time in goat roaring can be observed by the: * snoring vulvar mucosa wheezing dental pad dental pad and vulvar mucosa 21. The common demodectic mange conjunctival infestation in goats are found in: * skin covering the ribs 29. Cattle produce urine approximately * inner surface of the pinna 1 ml/kg/body weight/hour caudal surface of the the lower 2 ml/kg/body weigth/hour parts of the legs 3 ml/kg/body weigth/hour around the head( around the eyes, 5 ml/kg/body weigth/hour lips, and chin) 30. What part of the history taking if 22. The format where record history drug withdrawal regulations are now obtained from the owner and require that animals were treated subjective observations such as and their products such as milk is changes in mental attitude, withheld for slaughter or market * activity, appetite, etc. Is the present history animal's condition improving, previous history remaining stable or deteriorating. * previous exposure objective data prior treatment subjective data master's problem list 31. The first heart sound (SI) initial problem's list corresponds to the vibration which occurs during closure of the * 23. The common chorioptic mange Pulmonic and aortic valves infestation in goats are found in: * skin covering the ribs  Pulmonic and mitral valve Aminoglycosides Atrioventricular valve Bronchovesicular Beta-lactam antibiotics Glycopeptides FINAL EXAM Fluoroquinolones 6. Fluid type indicated for diarrhea * 1. Trauma that can result in an open pneumothorax (“sucking chest wound”). * Isotonic,colloid Spinal trauma Isotonic, crystalloid Blunt trauma Hypertonic,colloid Penetrating thoracic trauma Hypotonic, crystalloid Blunt thoracic trauma 7. Core vaccines for sheep/goat * 2. Vaccines which contains only essential antigens and not all the Caseous lymphadenitis and foot rot other molecules that make up microbes are: * Clostridium perfringens A and D and tetanus Live attenuated Rabies and tetanus Killed vaccine Campylobacter and Chlamydia Edible vaccine 8. Which among the following are core vaccine for cattle? * Subunit vaccine 3. Non-invasive technique, good for Brucellosis soft tissue structures like ligaments and joint capsules * Rotavirus- Coronavirus Pink eye Inferential therapy Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis Therapeutic ultrasound 9. A transfusion that affect the Therapeitic electricity production of clotting proteins. * 4. Abdominal pain clinical signs include colic, distended intestines Red blood cell transfusion on rectal examination, gastric reflux, and occasionally diarrhea in Platelets transfusion what animal? * Plasma transfusion Horse Granulocyte transfusion Cow 10. A non-invasive form of treatment that may act as a form of pain Camelids relief in chronic degenerative conditions, and which can speed the Small ruminants patient's recovery from traumatic injuries. * 5. They are bactericidal by interfering with cell wall synthesis * Cryotherapy  Neuromuscular stimulation 15. A build up of gas which occurs when the gullet is obstructed (often by Magnetic field therapy foreign objects such as potatoes) or when the animal can’t burp (such as Massage with milk fever or tetanus). * 11. Polymixin B and colistin are examples of drugs that are: * Grass tetany Frothy bloat Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis Gassy bloat Inhibitors of protein synthesis Rumen acidosis Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis 16. Hydrotherapy is indicated among the following, EXCEPT: * Inhibitors of cell membrane function Fractures 12. Nutritional disorders in farm animals are associated with all of Arthritis. the following, EXCEPT * Intervertebral disk disease; swallowing foreign objects Spondylosis sudden shifts from high roughage to 17. Fluid requirements for maintenance high concentrate diets, in small animal * mineral imbalances 40-60 mg/kg/day frequency of feeding 40-70 ml/kg/day 13. This test involves incubating donor and recipient serum and red blood 40-60 ml/kg/day cells and looking for a reaction outside of the body that indicates 40-70 mg/kg/day an increased risk of a reaction inside the body if the transfusion 18. The type of acupuncture where is given * injection of water, Vit B solution, or some other liquid substance to stimulate an acupuncture point for a type-match longer period of time while also getting the benefit of the effects cross-match of the liquid. * Coomb's test Aquapuncture Heparin test Hemopuncture 14. A fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep the animal Electropuncture in balance * Dry needling Replacement 19. The use of immunization is discouraged in this type of Rehydration alternative medicine practice * Maintenance Acupuncture Both a and b Allopathy  Homeopathy physical therapy Holistic anaphylactic therapy 20. Feline and canine core vaccine * 25. Horses with this type of shock might demonstrate clinical features of sepsis, anaphylaxis, spinal shock or Feline Panleukopenia and Canine adrenal shock. * Parvovirus Feline Calicivirus and Canine Distributive Panleukopenia Hypovolemic Feline Leukemia and Canine Parainfluenza Cardiogenic Feline Immunodeficiency and Canine Obstructive Parainfluenza 26. A low molecular substance produces 21. The main cation of ECF * by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kill other microorganisms * Sodium Potassium Antibiotic Chloride Antimicrobial Phosphate Anti-infective agents 22. Used to kill fleas, lice, ticks, and Chemotherapeutic agents mites. It has fast “knockdown” action on all arthropods, with 27. Falling from a height causes long little persistence. * bone and facial bone fractures as well as thoracic and abdominal injuries where the modality most Lindane suited to apply is? * Amitraz trauma medicine Rotenones shock therapy Carbamates physical therapy 23. Fluid type for the correction of hyponatremia * anaphylactic therapy 28. A transfusion used to treat the Isotonic,colloid animal with thrombocytopenia. * Isotonic, crystalloid Red blood cell transfusion Hypertonic,colloid Platelets transfusion Hypotonic, crystalloid Plasma transfusion 24. Therapy applied to an area of chronic, non-healing tissue may Granulocyte transfusion enable acute cytokines to be released and stimulate healing * trauma medicine shock therapy 29. A transfusion if there's a severe Inferential therapy infection that's not responding to antibiotics after chemotherapy or 34. The main anion of ECF * bone marrow transplantation. * Sodium Red blood cell transfusion Potassium Platelets transfusion Chloride Plasma transfusion Phosphate Granulocyte transfusion 35. Allopathic medicines give quick 30. Cold therapy provides all of the relief and have an adverse side following, EXCEPT * effect, while homeopathy is safe for use on animals of all ages, and they have few, if any, side effects. * Reduction in edema, muscle spasms, and initial immune response to injury or surgery True False Vasoconstriction Decreased blood flow to the affected area Muscle spindle activity 31. Organ dysfunction is a common sequela. * Distributive Hypovolemic Cardiogenic Obstructive 32. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume is returned to normal. * a. Replacement b. Rehydration c. Maintenance d. Both a and b 33. This modality stimulates and regulates macrophage and neutrophil migration, as well as fibroblast movement for wound healing * Laser therapy Therapeutic electricity Electrovet therapy 1. A fluid requirement is the volume needed each day to keep the animal in balance. A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Borh A and B 2. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume is returned to normal A. Replacement B. Maintenance C. Rehydration D. Both A and B 3. Fluid type indicated for diarrhea A. Isotonic colloid B. Isotonic crystalloid C. Hypertonic colloid D. Hypertonic crystalloid 4. Fluid type for the correction of hyponatremia A. Isotonic colloid B. Isotonic crystalloid C. Hypertonic colloid D. Hypertonic crystalloid 5. A low molecular substance produce by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kill other microorganisms. A. Antibiotic B. Antimicrobial C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents 6. Polymyxin B and colistin are example of drugs that are A. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis B. Inhibitors of protein synthesis C. Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis D. Inhibitors of cell membrane function 7. They are bactericidal by interfering with cell wall synthesis A. Aminoglycosides B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Glycopeptides D. Fluoroquinolones 8. A solution which exerts a lower osmotic pressure than that of body fluid A. Hypertonic solution B. Isotonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Colloid solution 9. The route of administration for maintenance fluid therapy in small animals is A. Intravenous B. Oral  C. Subcutaneous D. Intraperitoneal 10. The shock dosage of synthesis colloids is A. 20ml/kg for dogs and 10 to 15 ml/kg for cats B. 20ml/kg for cats and 10 to 15 ml/kg for dogs C. 20ml/kg for dogs and 15 to 20 ml/kg for cats D. 20ml/kg for dogs and 20 to 30 ml/kg for cats 11. Dehydrated patients require sustained administration of crystalloids fluids for to replace fluid losses from interstitial and intracellular spaces. A. 12 to 24 hours B. 12 to 36 hours C. 12 to 48 hours D. 12 to 72 hours 12. It is an extremely useful diagnostic method for diseases of bones and joints and soft tissue swelling of lines, which cannot be easily defined by physical examination A. CT Scan B. MRI C. Radiography D. Nuclear scintigraphy 13. Any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism but causes little or no damage to the host is called A. Antibiotic B. Antimicrobial C. Anti-infective agents D. Chemotherapeutic agents 14. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics acts only to inhibit both Gram + and Gram – bacteria. A. True B. False 15. Organisms are resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobials and is dependent on drug concentration A. True B. False 16. Antibiotic resistance is reversible A. True B. False 17. Non-invasive technique good for soft tissue structure like… and joint capsules A. CT Scan B. MRI C. Ultrasound D. Endoscopy 18. Core vaccines for sheep/goat A. Cas… lymphadenitis and foot rot B. Clostridium perfringens CD and T … C. Rabies and Tetanus D. Campylobacter and Chlamydia 19. Feline and Canine core vaccine A. Feline Panleukopenia and Canine Parvovirus  B. Feline Calicivirus and Canine Panleukopenia C. Feline leukemia and Canine Parainfluenza D. Feline Immunodeficiency and Canine Parainfluenza 20. Main cation of extracellular fluid A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Potassium D. Phosphorus 21. Also known as replacement fluids, … to replace fluid deficits that may have developed from excessive loss A. Hypertonic crystalloids B. Isotonic crystalloids C. Hypotonic crystallization D. Colloid crystallization 22. Antibiotic which has some gram-positive activity against staphylococci but not streptococci. A. Macrolides B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Aminoglycosides D. Sulfonamides 23. A very useful technique for veterinary physical therapy, decreases muscle tension, reducing pain and increases local blood flow providing better tissue oxygenation A. Thermotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Massage D. Tapotement 24. A simple and very effective method to control acute inflammation following orthopedic surgery icepacks may be applied to the surgical site for 20 minutes every 6 hours, for up to 48-72 hours. This … helps in pain control but it should be avoided with chronic pain and inflammation. A. Thermotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Massage D. Tapotement 25. All farm visitors and employees should wear clean clothing or disposable outer coveralls as part of which biosecurity measures A. Elimination B. Sanitation C. Resistance D. Isolation 26. In dogs, this drug has been effectively used in the treatment of systemic blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, and coccidioidomycosis. A. Fluconazole B. Voriconazole C. Itraconazole D. Thiabendazole 27. The main organisms usually sensitive to flucytosine includes the following, EXCEPT: A. Aspergillus spp.  B. Candida albicans C. Dermatophytes D. Cryptococcus neoformans 28. Dermatophytes can be made resistant to this drug in vitro A. Flucytosine B. Amphotericin B C. Griseofulvin D. Nystatin 29. A sodium-based electrolytes solution of a composition similar to that of plasma water is also called crystalloid solution A. True B. False 30. This is the preparation of antigenic material, which are … to induce active immunity in the recipient animal against… bacterial, parasitic, or viral infection A. Vaccination B. Vaccine C. Immunization D. Antibody 31. Falling from a height causes long bone and facial bone fractures as well as thoracic and abdominal injuries where the… to apply is A. Trauma medicine B. Shock therapy C. Physical therapy D. Massage therapy 32. Products from the production of spirits such as brewer’s grains and/or distiller’s grains can make excellent animal feedstuffs A. True B. False 33. Biotechnologically produced ________ are available to enhance the digestive capacity especially of young or ill animals as well as to increase the digestibility of the feed A. Buffers B. Pellet binders C. Enzymes D. Antimicrobials 34. Antiparasitic drug which are effective against a wide range of… species and development stages, but have no activity against… or cestodes A. Imidazothiazoles B. Benzimidazoles C. Avermectin D. Tetrahydropyrimidine 35. Cats are most sensitive to A. Aspirin toxicity B. Acetaminophen toxicity C. Meloxicam toxicity D. Etodolac 36. The phase of fluid therapy in which the dehydrated animal’s fluid volume returned to normal  A. Rehydration B. Replacement C. Maintenance D. Both A and B 37. In animals with hypoadrenocorticism who lack both cortisol and aldosterone will result to A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 38. The most common intracellular ion A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Potassium D. Phosphorus 39. Solutions given only when intravascular deficit is present in combination with crystalloids to replace interstitial fluid A. Colloids B. Plasma proteins C. Gelatin D. Dextran-70 40. The means to provide nutrients by a method other than the GI tract is called ____ A. Parenteral nutrition B. Enteral nutrition C. Partial parenteral nutrition D. Total parenteral nutrition 1. A deficit of body water and is often accompanied electrolytes and changes in acid-base bal