Virology Practice Questions PDF

09/07/24 Set 1 View Exams Sum of Points: 25.6 Question N1 Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N2 Viruses can cause both---acute clinical illness and chronic progressive disease Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N3 Con...

09/07/24 Set 1 View Exams Sum of Points: 25.6 Question N1 Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N2 Viruses can cause both---acute clinical illness and chronic progressive disease Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N3 Continuous cell line can't be used to support viral replication for extended periods of time Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N4 Which 2 viruses out of listed below are not an RNA virus? Answer: Herpesvirus Adenovirus Point: 0.5 Question N5 A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? Answer: The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus Point: 0 Question N6 Recovery mechanisms from viral infection involve Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N7 Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE? Answer: They are found only on nonenveloped viruses Point: 0.35 Question N8 Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture animal viruses? Answer: Bacteriological culture media Point: 0.35 Question N9 Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? Answer: Release Point: 0 Question N10 Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses? Answer: Size Point: 0 Question N11 The definition of lysogeny is Answer: The period during replication when virions are not present Point: 0 Question N12 Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with a -- (minus) strand of RNA? Answer: Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template Point: 0 Question N13 The leading mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is cell rupture Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N14 The lytic virus after entry of target cells immediately starts to release large amount of viral particles Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N15 The rabies virus and herpes simplex virus are example of viruses that spread by lymphatic system Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N16 The 2 main purposes of the early viral genes that are expressed at the initial steps is to Answer: Take over the host machinery To uncoat the virus Point: 0.5 Question N17 A 73-year-old woman is hospitalized for treatment in the hematooncology unit. One day after admission she develops chills, fever, cough, headache, and myalgia. There is a major concern about a respiratory virus outbreak in the staff of the chemotherapy ward and in the patients in that ward. A synthetic amine that inhibits influenza A virus by blocking viral uncoating is chosen for prophylactic treatment of the staff and patients. That drug is Answer: Amantadine Point: 0.35 Question N18 Which one of the following represents one of the fundamental principles of viral disease causation? Answer: Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce a clinical disease Point: 0.35 Question N19 Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect (CPE) of viruses? Answer: Cell metabolism is intensified Point: 0.35 Question N20 The human diseases caused by prions all of the following except Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) Point: 0 Question N21 The skin is a formidable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasions? Answer: Papillomavirus Point: 0.35 Question N22 Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called Answer: Latent viruses Point: 0.35 Question N23 According to the following characteristics Orhomyxoviruses show almost no difference with Paramyxoviruses EXCEPT Answer: Genome is segmented Point: 0.35 Question N24 Oncogenic viruses Answer: Cause tumors to develop Point: 0.35 Question N25 Available treatment or preventive measures for parvovirus B19 infections is vaccination using vaccine containing recombinant VP2 viral antigen Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N26 The penton bases of adnoviruses carry a toxin-like activity that causes rapid appearance of cytopathic effects Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N27 Parvovirus B19 has been associated with a number of pathologic conditions including: Answer: Fifth disease Hydrops fetalis Point: 0.5 Question N28 Select one answer which doesn't fit the basic knowledge about human adenoviruses Answer: A type-specific vaccine against all serotypes provide efficient protection Point: 0.35 Question N29 Which statement describes appropriately the properties of parvovirus B19 Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N30 Among Adenovirus infections most prevalent are: Answer: Respiratory infections Point: 0.35 Question N31 Which statements regarding adenovirus is incorrect? Answer: Virus spreads primarily by parenteral route Point: 0.35 Question N32 Women with genital herpes reactivated in the last weeks of pregnancy can most likely to avoid passing HSV-2 on to their newborns if she undergoes Cesarian section Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N33 Smallpox vaccination is not protective in case of monkeypox infection outbreak Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N34 A family in Texas bought a pet rodent that was imported from Africa. Sonn after that their 6 -year-old boy developed flu-like symptoms followed by pox-like lesions on his hands and arms. Laboratory analysis diagnosed Monkeypox in the boy and the same in the rodent. Which 2 statements out of listed below are most correct? Answer: The clinical disease resembles smallpox. Smallpox vaccination may be protective for monkeypox Point: 0.5 Question N35 A 7-year-old boy has pox-like lesions on his left hand and arm. He has a pet rodent imported from West Africa. Monkeypox is diagnosed in the boy and the rodent. Which of the following statements about the monkeypox virus is most correct? Answer: The clinical disease resembles smallpox. Point: 0.35 Question N36 The replication cycle of different herpesviruses may vary Answer: 18 to 70 hours Point: 0.35 Question N37 From where do most DNA viruses assemble and bud? Answer: Nucleus Point: 0.35 Question N38 Which herpesvirus is the causative agent of genital infections? Answer: Herpes simplex virus type 2 Herpes simplex 1 Point: 0 Question N39 The members of the poxviridae family are characterized by following except Answer: DNA replication occurs in the nucleus, and protein synthesis --in the cytoplasm Point: 0.35 Question N40 Rotaviruses infect cells in the villi of the small intestine, multiply in the cytoplasm of enterocytes and damage their transport mechanisms. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N41 Because picornaviruses do not have an envelope they are inactivated by lipid solvents, such as ether Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N42 For the prevention of a number of Picornavirus infections, different types of vaccines have been used for several decades. Which 2 of the following statements are not correct? Answer: There is an effective killed vaccine against the three major types of rhinoviruses. Only the live attenuated poliovirus vaccine is currently recommended for use in the United States Point: 0.5 Question N43 Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is correct? Answer: There are three antigenic types. Point: 0 Question N44 Which of the following is TRUE of foot and mouth disease? Answer: It causes blisters and the inability to walk in livestock. It spreads very slowly among animals Point: 0 Question N45 Which of the following statements about polio is FALSE? Answer: Most people infected with the poliovirus exhibit symptoms Jonas Salk created the first polio vaccine. Point: 0 Question N46 Infection sources for enteroviruses most commonly include following except Answer:Parenteral transfusions Utensils Point: 0 Question N47 Antiviral medicines such as Relenza (zanamivir) and Tamiflu (oseltamivir) should be regularly used as preventive measures during season flu outbreaks Answer: for prevention of seasonal flu annual vaccination is best. 0 Point: 0.25 Question N48 Human coronaviruses typically cause common colds more frequently then rhinoviruses Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N49 Coronaviruses are enveloped and contain a genome of single-stranded negative-sense RNA Answer: They have Single-stranded positive-sense RNA 1 Point: 0 Question N50 The SARS coronavirus causes annual outbreaks during the winter Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N51 Which 2 of the following statements reflect the pathogenesis of influenza? Answer: The virus enters the host in airborne droplets. The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lungs Viremia is common. Point: 0.25 Question N52 A runner reports an "unprovoked bite" from a neighborhood dog. The dog was captured by local animal control authorities, and it appears healthy. What is the appropriate action? Answer: Confine and observe the dog for 10 days for signs suggestive of rabies Begin postexposure prophylaxis of the bitten person. Point: 0 Question N53 Infectious scrapie agent can be detected in amyloid plaques in infected brains of sheep and hamsters. How the infectious agent can be characterized? Answer: Has no detectable nucleic acid Contains DNA copy of RNA genome, integrated into mitochondrial DNAhondrial Point: 0 Question N54 Which of the following paramyxoviruses has an HN surface glycoprotein lacking hemagglutinin activity? Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus Point: 0.35 Question N55 Which of the following statements about the congenital rubella syndrome is correct? Answer: Deafness is a common defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome. The disease can be prevented by vaccination of school-age children with measles vaccine Point: 0 Question N56 Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is correct? Answer: The testes, ovaries, and pancreas can be involved Second episodes of mumps can occur because there are two serotypes of the virus, and protection is type-specific. Point: 0 Question N57 Each of the following statements concerning rubella is correct except Answer: Acyclovir is effectively used in the treatment of congenital rubella syndrome. Women with no clinical history of rubella can nevertheless, have neutralizing antibody in their serum Point: 0 Question N58 Laryngotracheobronchitis -- a respiratory obstruction in infants due to swelling of the larynx and related structures can be related to the infections caused by which if the following viruses Answer: Parainfluenza virus type 1&2 Respiratory syncytial virus Point: 0 Question N59 Which of the following viruses is not a cause of acute respiratory disease? Answer: Rotavirus Point: 0.35 Question N60 Fulminant HBV disease is mainly associated with superinfection by HDV. The fulminant disease rarely occurs with HAV or HCV infections. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N61 In the serum samples of HbsAg-positive patients, 42-nm spherical virions (referred to as Dane particles) are predominantly observed. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N62 Which 2 the following statements concerning HCV and HDV are not correct Answer: The US and Western Europe are characterized with intermediate to the high prevalence of HDV People infected with HCV commonly become chronic carriers of HCV and are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma Point: 0.5 Question N63 Vertical transmission is possible to occur for which viruses Answer: All of these Point: 0.35 Question N64 Most reliable test to prove a current hepatitis E infection is Answer: Polymerase chain reaction for the detection of HEV RNA Point: 0.35 Question N65 A 28-year-old nurse is found to be both HbsAg positive and HbeAg positive. The nurse most likely Answer: Has acute hepatitis and is infectious. Point: 0.35 Question N66 In which family Hepatitis [G] virus has been classified Answer: [F]laviviridae Point: 0.35 Question N67 Which of the following hepatitis viruses is not RNA virus? Answer: Hepatitis B virus Hepatitis E virus Point: 0 Question N68 Monkeys are not considered to be natural reservoir hosts for the Ebola virus because most infected animals die too rapidly to sustain virus survival. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N69 Both -- humans and monkeys are reservoirs for the yellow fever virus. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N70 West Nile virus can cause disease in humans that may be transmitted from an infected bird to a person by a mosquito. This is an example of Answer: Arthropod-borne disease Vector transmitted disease Point: 0.5 Question N71 Which of the following groups can be vaccinated routinely with a yellow fever vaccine without special safety considerations? Answer: None of the above Pregnant women Point: 0 Question N72 Which of the following statements about the dengue virus is not true? Answer: It is the most important mosquito-borne viral disease affecting humans. There is a single antigenic type. Point: 0.35 Question N73 All of the following is correct regarding Flaviviruses [except]: Answer: All Flaviviruses cause [encephalitis] Point: 0.35 Question N74 For the travelers to the areas endemic for Yellow fever which of the following vaccines can be administered Answer: Live attenuated virus vaccine Experimental vaccine only Point: 0 Question N75 Regarding dengue and DHF, which one of the following is the most accurate? Answer: Dengue virus is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, and monkeys are an important natural reservoir. Point: 0.35 Question N76 There are different mechanisms of action realized by oncogenic viruses: DNA viruses activate oncogenes, while RNA viruses negate tumor suppressors Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N77 Permissive cells support viral growth and production of progeny virus, while nonpermissive cells do not and maybe transformed Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N78 HIV is also considered a cancer agent because of the virus-associated immune suppression that supports cancer development Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N79 Which 2 of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine Gardasil are NOT correct? Answer: It contains virus-like particles composed of HPV L1 proteins derived from HPV types 6, 32, 16, and 35. The re-vaccination is required every second year Point: 0.5 Question N80 A gene, that may cause of initiation of cancer growth, is known as Answer: Oncogene Point: 0.35 Question N81 Which of the following is NOT caused by Epstein Barr virus Answer: Genital tumors Hodgkin's disease Burkitt\'s lymphoma Point: 0 Question N82 Which of the following virus [f]amily contains a widely spread human [c]ancer virus with an RNA genome? Answer: [F]laviviridae Papillomaviridae Point: 0 Question N83 In the Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, the spongiform changes are the result of demyelination rather than neuronal vacuolation and neuronal loss. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N84 The HIV viral protease cleaves the precursor polyproteins into functional polypeptides, while integrase has also function of ribonuclease H- degrading RNA-DNA hybrid molecules. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N85 The HIV group-specific antigen, p24, is located in the core and is known to have a stable structure without significant variations. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N86 Regarding the structure and replication of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which 2 of the following is most accurate? Answer: HIV has an enzyme in the virion that synthesizes double-stranded DNA using the single-stranded genome RNA as the template. Accessory protein Vif enhances HIV infectivity by suppressing the cellular cytidine deaminase that inhibits HIV replication Point: 0.5 Question N87 Why is a combination of medicines---called a cocktail---used to treat HIV? Answer: A and B Point: 0.35 Question N88 Which of the following modes of transmission supports more ( contains more risk) than other modes the transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Answer: During childbirth Point: 0.35 Question N89 20-year-old man, who for many years had received daily injections of growth hormone prepared from human pituitary glands, develops ataxia, slurred speech, and dementia. At autopsy, the brain shows widespread neuronal degeneration, a spongy appearance due to many vacuoles between the cells, no inflammation, and no evidence of virus particles. The most likely diagnosis is Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Point: 0.35 Question N90 Scrapie and kuru possess all of the following characteristics except Answer: Viral like particles present in autopsy material Slowly progressive deterioration of brain function Transmissibility to animals associated with a long incubation period Point: 0 Question N91 Pathogenic dimorphic fungi are yeast-like at 25°C and mold -like at 37°C Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N92 One yeast cell can in time produce up to 36 daughter cells by budding Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N93 Which 2 out of these spores are asexual spores? Answer: Arthroconidium Sporangiospore Point: 0.5 Question N94 One characteristic found almost exclusively on dermatophytes is the presence of microconidia and macroconidia. Microconidia are more uncommon; however, one group of dermatophytes is recognizable for having a lot of microconidia and only rare macroconidia. Which group of dermatophytes is known for its numerous microconidia? Answer: Trichophyton species Point: 0.35 Question N95 All of the following are examples of superficial mycoses, EXCEPT? Answer: Tinea pedis ~~Black piedra~~ Point: 0 Question N96 All of the following are the characteristics of cutaneous mycoses, EXCEPT? Answer: Candida spp is associated with the infection The common cause of ringworm in human only Point: 0 Question N97 Which of the following statement regarding Tinea nigra infections is NOT correct? Answer: It is mainly manifested in males Point: 0.35 Question N98 Fungi are sensitive to antibiotics, such as penicillin, that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N99 Sabouraud's agar is often used to grow fungi because its low pH inhibits the growth of bacteria, allowing the slower-growing fungi to emerge Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N100 Which 2 statements regarding the epidemiology of candidiasis is correct? Answer: Patients receiving bone marrow transplants are at risk for systemic candidiasis Patients with AIDS frequently develop mucocutaneous candidiasis, such as thrush Point: 0.5 Question N101 Which statements about aspergillosis is correct? Answer: All statements are correct Point: 0.35 Question N102 A male patient with AIDS presents to his physician with progressively increasing dyspnea over the past 3 weeks. He also complains of a dry, painful cough, fatigue, and low-grade fever. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral symmetrical interstitial and alveolar infiltration. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause of the above? Answer: Pneumocistis jiroveci Point: 0.35 Question N103 There's a suspect that a patient's disease may be caused by Cryptococcus neoformans. Which one of the following findings would be MOST useful in establishing the diagnosis? Answer: The finding of encapsulated budding cells in the spinal fluid A positive heterophil agglutination test for the presence of antigen Point: 0 Question N104 Aspergillus fumigatus can be involved in a variety of clinical conditions. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to occur? Answer: Thrush Point: 0.35 Question N105 Certain protozoa, such as Leishmania and Trypanosoma, have flagellated forms called promastigotes or trypomastigotes and nonflagellated forms called amastigotes Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N106 Trypanosoma cruzi causes sleeping sickness disease which is transmitted by Tsetse fly. Mostly spread in Central and South America. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N107 Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium vivax are not true? Answer: Is the only cause of cerebral malaria Causes greater than 20% parasitaemia in peripheral blood Point: 0.5 Question N108 All of the following statements about mosquitoes are true except: Answer: They are the definitive host for L. donovani Point: 0.35 Question N109 Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct EXCEPT: Answer: The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract Point: 0.35 Question N110 Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they Answer: Lack nuclei Point: 0 Question N111 In the malaria parasite life cycle Answer: Mosquitoes are the vector Point: 0 Question N112 Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? Answer: Most protozoa reproduce asexually Point: 0 Question N113 Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by; Answer: P. malariae Point: 0 Question N114 Taenia saginata is a tapeworm infecting primarily pigs Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N115 In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N116 Regarding schistosomes, which two (2) of the following statements is the most accurate? Answer: Humans are infected by schistosomes when cercariae penetrate the skin. The main site of S. mansoni in the human body is the mesenteric venules Point: 0.5 Question N117 The larval stage of Taenia solium is called Answer: Cysticercus cellulose Hydatid cyst Point: 0 Question N118 Each of the following parasites is transmitted by insects EXCEPT: Answer: Schistosoma mansoni Leishmania donovani Point: 0 Set 2 View Exams Sum of Points: 24.3 Question N1 The viruses containing positive sense RNA use their RNA genome directly as mRNA Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N2 Viroids are composed of single-stranded DNA Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N3 The ability of a virus to infect an organism is primarily regulated by the existence of specific receptor sites Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N4 Which of the following viruses belong to complex viruses? Answer: T-even bacteriophage Influenza virus Point: 0 Question N5 Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? Answer: Biosynthesis Point: 0.35 Question N6 Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses? Answer: Biochemical tests Point: 0.35 Question N7 The definition of lysogeny is Answer: Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA. Point: 0.35 Question N8 Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with a -- (minus) strand of RNA? Answer: Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template Point: 0.35 Question N9 What is cell deterioration due to viral infections termed? Answer: Cytopathic effect Point: 0.35 Question N10 A viral species can be primarily defined as a group of viruses that Answer: Has the same genetic information and ecological niche Has the same morphology and nucleic acid Point: 0 Question N11 The following steps occur during the multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? Answer: Synthesis of RNA Point: 0 Question N12 Which of the following is most likely a product of an early viral gene? Answer: Envelope proteins Point: 0 Question N13 Hepatitis B and Hep C infections are examples of latent recurrent infections Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N14 Interferons are leading component of antiviral action the innate defense system. These substances directly kill the invading viruses Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N15 The slow infection -- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis ( SSPE) follows several years after measles virus infection Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N16 Respiratory viruses are mainly transmitted to the individual by which 2 out of the several routes listed below Answer: ~~Blood~~ Respiratory secretions Touching contaminated surfaces Point: 0. 5 Question N17 Which of the following statements is false? Answer: The successful infection of a host requires completely differentiated cells Point: 0.35 Question N18 What best describes virulence mechanisms in viral infection? Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N19 Steps of viral pathogenesis may include following except Answer: Binary fission Point: 0.35 Question N20 All of the following statements are true regarding the attachment or adsorption of the virion to the host cell EXCEPT that: Answer: All of these are true Point: 0.35 Question N21 Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses? Answer: Increased cell growth Point: 0.35 Question N22 A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? Answer: The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient Point: 0.35 Question N23 What type of infectious agents cause slow neurodegenerative diseases? Answer: Prions Point: 0.35 Question N24 Which one of the following more accurately describes viral neutralizing antibodies? Answer: Directed against viral protein determinants on the outside of the virus particle Directed against viral nucleic acid sequences Point: 0 Question N25 There are 15 known human serotypes of adenoviruses Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N26 Parvovirus can be transmitted parenterally by blood transfusions or by contaminated blood products Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N27 Which statements below about the fifth disease are not correct? Answer: Treatment involves antiviral remedies such as acyclovir In healthy children, infection is self-limiting with an excellent prognosis An efficient vaccine is available Point: 0.25 Question N28 Among Adenovirus infections most prevalent are: Answer: Respiratory infections Point: 0.35 Question N29 Which statements regarding adenovirus is incorrect? Answer: Virus spreads primarily by parenteral route Point: 0.35 Question N30 Regarding parvovirus B19, which one of the following statements is mostaccurate? Answer: Parvovirus B19 causes severe anemia because it preferentially infectserythrocyte precursors such as erythroblasts. Parvoviruses have a double-stranded DNA genome but require a DNApolymerase in the virion because they replicate in the cytoplasm Point: 0 Question N31 The epidemic nature of the adenoviral eye infection disease can result from the following except: Answer: Use of chlorinated water Point: 0.35 Question N32 Majority of the poxviruses that can cause important diseases in humans are contained in the genus Orthopoxvirus Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N33 The core of poxviruses contains the largest viral genome - linear double- stranded DNA with the size range 100-150 kbp Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N34 Which 3 of the following poxviruses was shown to able to infect humans? Answer: Monkeypox, Small Pox, Cowpox Avipoxvirus Point: 0.16 Question N35 Which of the following is NOT a true statement about zoster? Answer: It is the primary infection from the VZV. It is more commonly found in the elderly and immunosuppressed populations Point: 0 Question N36 Once exposed to the infected person the chickenpox can be developed in how many days in average Answer: 1-4 Point: 0 Question N37 Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the: Answer: None of the answers are correct Point: 0 Question N38 Which of the following human herpesvirus infections is associated with a 30-80% fatality rate? Answer: Neonatal herpes Point: 0.35 Question N39 When are people infected with a varicella-zoster virus most contagious? Answer: When the rash appears Point: 0.35 Question N40 Rotavirus and Norwalk virus are distinctly different viruses but both can be transmitted by respiratory route in addition to the fecal-oral route. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N41 Caliciviruses are small nonenveloped viruses with a single-stranded, nonsegmented RNA genome Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N42 Which of the following 2 statements about noroviruses are false? Answer: They generally produce an illness lasting up to 2 weeks. \~lt;p style="background-attachment: scroll; background-clip: border-box; background-color: white; background-image: none; background-origin: padding-box; background-position-x: 0%; background-position-y: 0%; background-repeat: repeat; backgroun They typically cause disease in children rather than adults Point: 0.5 Question N43 What is the most common cause of aseptic meningitis of viral etiology Answer: Enteroviruses Point: 0.35 Question N44 Which of the following picornaviruses is sensitive to the acidity of the stomach Answer: Rhinovirus Coxsackievirus A Point: 0 Question N45 In recent years, the use of oral polio vaccine (OPV)has been replaced by an inactivated Polio vaccine ( IPV) in many countries. Which of the following is the primary reason? Answer: There is a greater risk of vaccine-induced disease than the wild virus-induced disease in the areas where the poliovirus is not endemic or has been eradicated Point: 0.35 Question N46 Which of the following clinical syndromes are not associated with the coxsackievirus infections? Answer: Progressive postpolio muscle atrophy Inflammation of the middle ear Herpangina Myocarditis/pericarditis Aseptic meningitis Point: 0 Question N47 Influenza type B, like influenza A, sometimes undergoes antigenic changes and can cause epidemics Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N48 Amantadine hydrochloride and an analog, rimantadine, are M2 ion channel inhibitors for systemic use in the treatment and prophylaxis of influenza A and B Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N49 Antigenic drifts may lead to the occurrence of new subtypes of influenza viruses over time. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N50 Antigenic shifts affect only one component in the Influenza A virus -- the hemagglutinin Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N51 Which 2 of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct? Answer: The influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of the virus The virus strains in the influenza vaccine vary from year to year. Point: 0.5 Question N52 Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is correct? Answer: The testes, ovaries, and pancreas can be involved Point: 0.35 Question N53 Each of the following statements concerning rubella is correct except Answer: In 5-7 -year-old children, rubella is a mild, self-limited disease with very few complications. Point: 0 Question N54 Laryngotracheobronchitis -- a respiratory obstruction in infants due to swelling of the larynx and related structures can be related to the infections caused by which if the following viruses Answer: Parainfluenza virus type 1&2 Point: 0.35 Question N55 Which of the following viruses is not a cause of acute respiratory disease? Answer: Respiratory Syncytial virus Point: 0 Question N56 The following are common characteristics of coronaviruses, except for one. Which is not correct? Answer: Possess cross-reactive antigens with influenza viruses Point: 0.35 Question N57 What is the best time of year for a person to be vaccinated against influenza? Answer: In early autumn,well before the next peak flu season Point: 0.35 Question N58 The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenzavirus appears to be which of the following? Answer: Pigs, horses, and fowl Point: 0.35 Question N59 What increases the possibility of an antigenic shift in influenza virus? Answer: The simultaneous infection of one individual with two influenza strains of different origin Point: 0.35 Question N60 The diagnosis of hepatitis A infection in a patient is primarily made by isolating HAV in cell culture. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N61 In the regions endemic for Hepatitis A person to person transmission and early childhood infections are most common Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N62 A middle-aged man complained of acute onset of fever, nausea, and pain in the right upper abdominal quadrant. There was jaundice, and dark urine had been observed several days earlier. A laboratory test was positive for HAV IgM antibody. The physician can tell the patient that Answer: After recovery, he will be resistant to infection with hepatitis A He may transmit the infection to family members by person-to-person spread for up to 2 weeks Point: 0.5 Question N63 The diagnosis of hepatitis A virus infection based mainly on following Answer: Detection of IgM anti-HAV by ELISA Point: 0.35 Question N64 Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE? Answer: 1. Point: 0 Question N65 Which of the following virus infections in neonates can be prevented by a routine vaccination? Answer: Hepatitis B Herpes simplex 1 Point: 0 Question N66 A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HbsAg, antibodies to HbsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. The nurse Answer: Possibly past or current HepB infections. Additional testing is needed Has hepatitis C Point: 0 Question N67 Which of the following statements regarding HBIG is not true? Answer: No evidence exists that HBV, HCV, or HIV have ever been transmitted by HBIG in the United States. Point: 0 Question N68 Filovirus infections in humans are highly communicable through human contacts, generally by direct contact with blood or body fluids. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N69 Control of Eastern equine encephalitis in humans should be accomplished by eradication of horses in endemic areas in order to avoid the spread of infection Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N70 Following statements are true regarding the Yellow Fever ( YF)disease EXCEPT which two Answer: YF occurs primarily in the tropical areas of Africa and South America For Jungle YF squirrels are the permanent reservoir In the Urban cycle, YF Culex mosquitoes serve as transmitters Point: 0.25 Question N71 Bunyaviruses are characterized by following except Answer: Only a few members are arboviruses Point: 0.35 Question N72 Zoonotic rodent-borne hemorrhagic fevers can be caused by following viruses except Answer: Arenaviruses Filoviruses All of them are arboviruses Flaviviruses Point: 0 Question N73 Chikungunya virus infection is characterized by which of the following: Answer: Resembles dengue fever Point: 0 Question N74 Dengvaxia is a recently developed commercially available vaccine for : Answer: Dengue fever Point: 0.35 Question N75 Following statements regarding Dengue hemorrhagic fever and shock syndrome are correct except one: Answer: Seasonal outbreaks occur mainly in Northern Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean region All statements are correct Point: 0 Question N76 Statistics shows an asymmetric sexual transmission of Human Lymphotropic Virus ( HTLV) : 60% female to male versus 1% male to female Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N77 There are different mechanisms of action realized by oncogenic viruses: DNA viruses activate oncogenes, while RNA viruses negate tumor suppressors Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N78 Permissive cells support viral growth and production of progeny virus, while nonpermissive cells do not and maybe transformed Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N79 Following DNA-containing viruses have [prov]ed potential in the development of human malignancies except which 2 viruses Answer: Hepadnavirus [Parvo]virus Adenovirus Point: 0.25 Question N80 A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. This cancer is common worldwide and has a sexually transmitted viral etiology. The primary causative agent of human cervical cancer is Answer: Human papillomavirus, high-risk types Point: 0.35 Question N81 Benign genital warts can be routinely treated by application of following except Answer: Anticancer chemotherapy Cryotherapy Point: 0 Question N82 Which statement regarding the HTLV-1 virus is not correct? Answer: All of the above is correct Point: 0.35 Question N83 Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a disease of cattle caused by the ingestion of sheep brain mixed into cattle feed. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N84 Individuals who do not express CCR5 on their cells are resistant to infection by HIV. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N85 HIV uses for attachment CD4 receptors which are found on T cells, B cells, macrophages and dendritic cells. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N86 Which 2 of the following statements regarding the structure and replication of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most accurate? Answer: During entry of HIV into the cell, the viral p24 protein interacts with the CD4 protein on the cell surface. HIV contains an integrase that mediates the integration of the proviral DNA into the host cell DNA HIV has an enzyme in the virion that synthesizes double-stranded DNA using the single-stranded genome RNA as the template. Point: 0.25 Question N87 When was HIV infection first recognized in the U.S. and when HIV-1 was isolated? Answer: 1981 and 1983 Point: 0.35 Question N88 HIV-1, as a member of the Lentivirus genus in the Retroviridae family, meets which of the characteristics given below Answer: Infect cells of the immune system Point: 0.35 Question N89 HIV-1 encodes a number of glycoproteins. The envelope glycoprotein gp120 is characterized by which of the following Answer: Binds to the viral coreceptor on the cell surface Point: 0.35 Question N90 The bacterial infections most frequently observed in HIV disease is/are Answer: Mycobacterial infections Point: 0.35 Question N91 The fungi that cause subcutaneous mycoses normally reside in soil or on vegetation Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N92 Sporotrix schenckii, the cause of sporotrichosis, a superficial mycosis is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold within the host. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N93 Fungi are characterized by which 3 out of the properties listed below? Answer: Are mainly aerobic or also facultatively anaerobic Fungal spores are used for reproduction Are chemoheterotrophs Cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure Point: 0.16 Question N94 Some fungi reproduce sexually by mating and forming sexual spores. Which spores listed below are [not sexual spores]? Answer: [Sporangiospores ] Point: 0.35 Question N95 Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Answer: Anamorphs --- lack spores Microsporidia --- lack of mitochondria Point: 0 Question N96 Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Answer: Tinea corporis -- forehead skin Point: 0.35 Question N97 Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Answer: Aerial hyphae --- obtains nutrients Point: 0.35 Question N98 The clinical manifestations of aspergillosis include local infections of the ear, cornea, nails, and sinuses. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N99 Blastomycosis caused by Blastomyces dermati**tis** is also known as South American blastomycosis. Answer: caused by Blastomyces dermatiti**dis** 0 Point: 0.25 Question N100 All of the following is true regarding Coccidioides except which 2 of them? Answer: A cell-mediated (delayed hypersensitivity) immune response supports the spread of Fungi Within the body No treatment is effective either for asymptomatic infection or for systemic spread The fungus is endemic in arid regions of the southwestern United States and Latin America In soil, it forms hyphae with arthrospores Point: 0 Question N101 Which of the following was originally thought to be a protozoan? Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci Point: 0.35 Question N102 A pregnant woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lives in the Central Valley of California. She complains of severe low back pain of several weeks in duration. An X-ray reveals a lesion in the fourth lumbar vertebra. Material from a needle biopsy of the lesion is examined by a pathologist who concluded that the patient has coccidioidomycosis. Of the following, which one did the pathologist see in the biopsy? Answer: Spherules containing endospores Septate hyphae Point: 0 Question N103 A 30-year-old man who is HIV- antibody positive with a CD4 count of 100 diagnoses of disseminated histoplasmosis. Which one of the following is the bestchoice of drug to treat his disseminated histoplasmosis? Answer: Amphotericin B Clotrimazole Point: 0 Question N104 Multiple buds resembling a "ship captain's wheel" can be microscopically in case of which fungal pathogen? Answer: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis \#chatgpt\# Histopladma capsulatum Candida albicans Cryptococcus neoformans Point: 0 Question N105 Amoebic dysentery (Amoebiasis) is the second leading cause of death from parasitic disease Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N106 E. histolytica has surface enzymes that can digest epithelial cells and therefore hydrolyze host tissues and cause ulcers. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N107 Which 2 of the statements listed below are not applicable to Entamoeba hystolitica and amebiasis ? Answer: Extra-intestinal lesions and abscess occur primarily in kidney For prevention of amebiasis recombinant subunit vaccine is used. Point: 0.5 Question N108 Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they Answer: Lack mitochondria Point: 0.35 Question N109 In the malaria parasite life cycle Answer: Humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector. Point: 0.35 Question N110 Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? Answer: Most of protozoa cause disease Point: 0.35 Question N111 Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by; Answer: P. falciparum Point: 0.35 Question N112 Which one of the following agents can be used to prevent malaria? Answer: Chloroquine Point: 0.35 Question N113 Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? Answer: Euglena Point: 0.35 Question N114 Cestodes are helminths that have segmented body made of proglottids Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N115 Trichinella spiralis is acquired by eating raw or improperly cooked beef infected with the larval stage of these nematodes. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N116 All of the following except two(2) is correct regarding T. solium Answer: Scolex armed with six suckers and circle of hooks Cysticercus disease (Cysticercosis) is produced after ingestion of encysted larvae in undercooked pork Adult worm size is 2 -- 4 meters long Cysticerci will form in the tissues -- brain, eye, and aorta Point: 0 Question N117 The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis? Answer: Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria Point: 0 Question N118 Which of the following statements about parasitic helminths is FALSE? Answer: Their digestive system is more complex than in free-living helminths Point: 0.35 Set 3 Question N1 After attachment and penetration of a virus, the early mRNA and proteins are synthesized which are used to replicate the viral genome. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N2 The antiviral drug Oseltamivir inhibits neuraminidase produced by influenza A and B viruses Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N3 The pathogenesis and the type of viral diseases have strong relationship to viral morphology Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N4 Choose correct statements about enveloped and naked viruses Answer: Enveloped viruses are easily inactivated Naked viruses can spread by the fecal-oral route Point: 0.5 Question N5 Viruses range in size ( length) from: Answer: 20-1000 nm 1-100 nm Point: 0 Question N6 Bacteriophages are routinely counted by the process of: Answer: Plaque assay Point: 0.35 Question N7 Which is not the main criterion for the classification of viruses? Answer: Virus size Point: 0.35 Question N8 Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with reverse transcriptase? Answer: A complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from an RNA template Double-stranded RNA must be synthesized Point: 0 Question N9 Which of the following is NOT true regarding viruses Answer: Some large viruses can reproduce by binary fission Point: 0.35 Question N10 Formation of virus-specific cytoplasmic inclusions, so-called Neri bodies, are characteristic for which virus? Answer: rabies virus. Herpes simplex virus Point: 0 Question N11 Which of the listed below is used for influenza virus replication and preparation of flu vaccine? Answer: Living laboratory animals Point: 0 Question N12 During the phage infection and replication, bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT Answer: Amino acids. Amino acids Point: 0 Question N13 Hepatitis B and Hep C infections are examples of latent recurrent infections Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N14 Interferons are leading component of antiviral action the innate defense system. These substances directly kill the invading viruses Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N15 The slow infection -- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis ( SSPE) follows several years after measles virus infection Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N16 Which 2 out of listed below are most often used in multiprofile clinical laboratories for diagnostics of viral infections ? Answer: Detection of viral nucleic acid Detection of viral antigen Point: 0.5 Question N17 A 73-year-old woman is hospitalized for treatment in the hematooncology unit. One day after admission she develops chills, fever, cough, headache, and myalgia. There is a major concern about a respiratory virus outbreak in the staff of the chemotherapy ward and in the patients in that ward. A synthetic amine that inhibits influenza A virus by blocking viral uncoating is chosen for prophylactic treatment of the staff and patients. That drug is Answer: Amantadine Point: 0.35 Question N18 Which one of the following represents one of the fundamental principles of viral disease causation? Answer: Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce a clinical disease Point: 0.35 Question N19 Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect (CPE) of viruses? Answer: Cell metabolism is intensified Point: 0.35 Question N20 The human diseases caused by prions all of the following except Answer: Japanese encephalitis Point: 0.35 Question N21 The skin is a formidable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasions? Answer: Papillomavirus Point: 0.35 Question N22 Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called Answer: Latent viruses Point: 0.35 Question N23 According to the following characteristics Orhomyxoviruses show almost no difference with Paramyxoviruses EXCEPT Answer: Genome is segmented Point: 0.35 Question N24 Oncogenic viruses Answer: Cause tumors to develop Point: 0.35 Question N25 Duration of adenovirus excretion in the blood, urine, throat, and stool of immune compromised patients can last up to 2 weeks Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N26 The virus neutralization is the most sensitive serologic test for diagnostics of Adenovirus infections Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N27 Which of the following correctly describes the replication of human parvovirus B19? Answer: Uses blood group antigen P as a cellular receptor DNA replication occurs in the nucleus Production of infectious progeny requires the presence of a helper virus Point: 0.25 Question N28 Adenoviruses can spread via following routes Except Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N29 The parvoviruses have a rather unique genome; What form does it take? Answer: Small linear ss DNA Point: 0.35 Question N30 The current classification shows the parvovirinae subfamily as having how many genera? Answer: 5 genera Point: 0.35 Question N31 The range of disease caused by the Parvoviridae family of viruses is wide but identify the exception from the following: Answer: Serious pneumonia Fifth disease at 'Slapped cheek' syndrome Point: 0 Question N32 There is little sequence homology ( about 50%) between HSV-1 and HSV-2, while human herpesviruses 6 and 7 (HHV-6 and HHV-7) display even less homology (30-50%). Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N33 In the patients with chicken pox in addition to the classic fever and rash additional symptoms such as diahhrea and vomiting can frequently occur Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N34 Human herpesvirus 4 is implicated in which of the following diseases? Answer: Burkitt's lymphoma Oral hairy leukoplakia Herpes labialis Shingles Point: 0 Question N35 Once exposed to the infected person the chickenpox can be developed in how many days in average Answer: 7-14 Point: 0.35 Question N36 Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the: Answer: Herpes Simplex Virus 2 Point: 0 Question N37 Which of the following human herpesvirus infections is associated with a 30-80% fatality rate? Answer: Genital herpes Point: 0 Question N38 When are people infected with a varicella-zoster virus most contagious? Answer: When the rash appears Point: 0.35 Question N39 Which statement about the smallpox virus incorrect? Answer: Smallpox virus infects humans and chimpanzees Virion contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase Point: 0 Question N40 Rotavirus and Norwalk virus are distinctly different viruses but both can be transmitted by respiratory route in addition to the fecal-oral route. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N41 Caliciviruses are small nonenveloped viruses with a single-stranded, nonsegmented RNA genome Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N42 For the prevention of a number of Picornavirus infections, different types of vaccines have been used for several decades. Which 2 of the following statements are not correct? Answer: There is an effective killed vaccine against the three major types of rhinoviruses. Only the live attenuated poliovirus vaccine is currently recommended for use in the United States Point: 0.5 Question N43 Regarding poliovirus, which of the following statements is most accurate? Answer: The widespread use of the killed vaccine in South America has led to the eradication of paralytic polio in that area. Poliovirus remains latent within sensory ganglia, and reactivation occurs primarily in Immunocompromised patients The current recommendation is to give the live, attenuated vaccine for the first 3 immunications to prevent the child from acting as a reservoir, followed by boosters using the kiled vaccine When the live, attenuated virus in the oral vaccine replicates, revertant mutants can occur that can cause paralytic polio Point: 0 Question N44 Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by: Answer: Droplet aerosolization Point: 0.35 Question N45 In the summer period, a 16-year-old girl develops a fever, myalgia, and headache. An outbreak of illness with similar symptoms caused by an echovirus is known to be occurring in the community. The primary anatomic site of echovirus multiplication in the human host is Answer: The alimentary tract Point: 0.35 Question N46 A 40-year-old woman with no significant medical history presented with an erythematous papulovesicular rash on her face, predominantly around her lips and her distal upper and lower extremities, including her palms and soles ( see pictures below). Rash has been developed rapidly over three days. Before the rash appeared, she had a fever of 39.4°C, sore throat, and headache. Ten days before the patient's 8-year-old daughter had a fever, diarrhea, and a similar rash on her feet. Based on the patient's history and physical examination findings, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Answer: Hand-foot-and-mouth disease Point: 0.35 Question N47 The frequency of coronavirus infection-causing common cold-like infections every year is estimated to be about half that of rhinoviruses Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N48 There's a higher risk of development of Congenital abnormalities to occur primarily when a pregnant woman is infected during the first trimester. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N49 Rhabdoviruses can infect not only animals (vertebrates and invertebrates) but also plants Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N50 Rabies virus virions include single-stranded, negative-sense RNA genome and an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N51 For which of the following paramyxoviruses an effective vaccine is available? Answer: Measles virus Parainfluenza virus type 1 Point: 0 Question N52 Each of the following statements concerning mumps is correct except Answer: Mumps orchitis in children before puberty always causes sterility. Meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps. Point: 0 Question N53 The presence in neurons of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies, called Negri bodies, is characteristic of which of the following central nervous system infections? Answer: Rabies Borna disease Point: 0 Question N54 Which of the following statements about rabies vaccines for human use is true? Answer: Can be used for postexposure prophylaxis Point: 0.35 Question N55 Which of the different viruses listed below can cause severe pneumonia in infants and small children? Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus Metapneumovirus Point: 0 Question N56 Which of the following is not characteristic of Paramyxoviruses? Answer: Genome is segmented Point: 0.35 Question N57 The measles is commonly present in a patient except Answer: Diarrhea Conjunctivitis Point: 0 Question N58 Rabies virus is rapidly destroyed by following except Answer: Freezing at -70C Heating at 56°C for 1 hour Point: 0 Question N59 Which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than German measles (rubella)? Answer: Koplik spots are present. Human beings are the only natural host. Point: 0 Question N60 In the nucleus, the partially double-stranded HBV viral genome is converted to covalently closed circular double-stranded DNA (cccDNA), which serves as template for all viral Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N61 HCV-associated liver disease is the major cause for liver transplantation Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N62 Which 2 the following statements concerning HCV and HDV are not correct Answer: The US and Western Europe are characterized with intermediate to the high prevalence of HDV People infected with HCV commonly become chronic carriers of HCV and are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma Point: 0.5 Question N63 Which of the following statements regarding HBIG is not true? Answer: Used to protect persons who are exposed to hepatitis B. Point: 0 Question N64 Regarding the hepatitis C virus (HCV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV), which one of the following is MOST accurate? Answer: HCV is transmitted by blood, but HDV is not. More than half of HCV infections result in a chronic carrier state. There is an effective vaccine against HCV but not against HDV Both HCV and HDV are defective RNA viruses and require concurrent HBV infection to replicate. Point: 0 Question N65 In persons infected with HCV following manifestation of chronic hepatitis C infection may be seen Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N66 Which following statements regarding HCV is not correct Answer: Belongs to the Flaviviridae family Point: 0 Question N67 Laboratory diagnostics of HAV infections is done using following except Answer: IgM anti-HAV antibodies: The presence of IgM antibodies indicates an acute or recent HAV infection. IgG anti-HAV antibodies: The presence of IgG antibodies indicates past infection or vaccination and usually confers immunity to HAV. Cell culture -- difficult and take up to 4 weeks, not routinely performed Point: 0 Question N68 The group name "Arboviruses" highlights the fact that these viruses are transmitted by arthropods, primarily by mosquitoes, ticks and human lice Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N69 Transmission of Marburg virus between humans doesn't occur Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N70 West Nile virus can cause disease in humans that may be transmitted from an infected bird to a person by a mosquito. This is an example of Answer: Arthropod-borne disease Vector transmitted disease Point: 0.5 Question N71 Zoonotic rodent-borne hemorrhagic fevers can be caused by following viruses except Answer: Filoviruses Point: 0 Question N72 Chikungunya virus infection is characterized by which of the following: Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N73 Dengvaxia is a recently developed commercially available vaccine for : Answer: Dengue fever Point: 0.35 Question N74 Following statements regarding Dengue hemorrhagic fever and shock syndrome are correct except one: Answer: Seasonal outbreaks occur mainly in Northern Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean region Point: 0.35 Question N75 An effective live attenuated vaccine is available for Answer:Yellow fever virus California encephalitis virus Point: 0 Question N76 Cancer virus infections are much less common than virus-related tumor formation. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N77 The viruses that do not carry an oncogene have a much lower oncogenic potential , i.e. are "slow transforming" Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N78 Xenotropic viruses are those that infect and replicate only in cells from animals of the original host species Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N79 Which 2 of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine Gardasil are NOT correct? Answer: It contains virus-like particles composed of HPV L1 proteins derived from HPV types 6, 32, 16, and 35. The re-vaccination is required every second year Point: 0.5 Question N80 Which statement about the HBV virus in relation to cancer development is not true Answer: HBV is significantly more common in patients with primary hepatocellular carcinoma than in control subjects Point: 0 Question N81 Viruses can cause cancer in animals and humans. Most accurate statement about viral carcinogenesis is that Answer: Not all infections with a human cancer virus lead to tumor formation Host factors are insignificant in influencing the development of virus-induced human cancer. Point: 0 Question N82 Following statements regarding Retroviruses are true except Answer: Virion contains an enzyme reverse transcriptase The viral genome consists of two identical molecules of positive-strand RNA Point: 0 Question N83 Individuals who do not express CCR5 on their cells are resistant to infection by HIV. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N84 HIV uses for attachment CD4 receptors which are found on T cells, B cells, macrophages and dendritic cells. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N85 Major causes of morbidity and mortality among HIV infected individuals are opportunistic infections ( and neurologic symptoms) that usually occur when CD4 T-cell counts fall below 2000 cells/μL.on Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N86 Regarding the structure and replication of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which 2 of the following is most accurate? Answer: HIV has an enzyme in the virion that synthesizes double-stranded DNA using the single-stranded genome RNA as the template. Accessory protein Vif enhances HIV infectivity by suppressing the cellular cytidine deaminase that inhibits HIV replication Point: 0.5 Question N87 HIV-1 encodes a number of glycoproteins. The envelope glycoprotein gp120 is characterized by which of the following Answer: Binds to the viral coreceptor on the cell surface Point: 0.35 Question N88 The bacterial infections most frequently observed in HIV disease is/are Answer: Mycobacterial infections Point: 0.35 Question N89 Which of the following is transmembrane glycoprotein /antigen of HIV-I? Answer: Gp l20 Point: 0 Question N90 A practitioner nurse had an accident with inserted needlestick with blood from an HIV-positive patient. Six months later, the nurse's serum was positive in 2 times repeated EIA test but was negative by Western blot. What suggestion would be more correct about the nurse's condition Answer: Is probably not infected with HIV Is in the window between acute infection with HIV and seroconversion Point: 0 Question N91 Direct microscopic examination of clinical specimens for diagnosis of mycoses is usually done after serologic or genetic testing. Answer: done before (or) alongside 1 Point: 0 Question N92 In laboratory diagnosis of Pitiryasis the microscopy is of primary importance:in the KOH- treated specimen characteristic meatballs and spaghetti-like shapes are found Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N93 Which 2 out of these spores are asexual spores? Answer: Arthroconidium Sporangiospore Point: 0.5 Question N94 Chromomycosis is caused by representatives of following fungal genera except? Answer: Trychophyton Phialophora Point: 0 Question N95 Some fungi reproduce sexually by mating and forming sexual spores. Which spores listed below are not sexual spores? Answer: Sporangiospores Point: 0.35 Question N96 Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Answer: Ascomycota --- conidiospores Point: 0 Question N97 Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Answer: Tinea cruris -- groin Point: 0 Question N98 Fungi are sensitive to antibiotics, such as penicillin, that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N99 Sabouraud's agar is often used to grow fungi because its low pH inhibits the growth of bacteria, allowing the slower-growing fungi to emerge Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N100 Which 2 statements regarding the epidemiology of candidiasis is correct? Answer: Patients receiving bone marrow transplants are at risk for systemic candidiasis Patients with AIDS frequently develop mucocutaneous candidiasis, such as thrush Point: 0.5 Question N101 End-stage AIDS is defined by all of the following fungi and associated mycoses EXCEPT Answer: Pulmonary blastomycosis Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia Point: 0 Question N102 Which of the following was originally thought to be a protozoan? Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci Point: 0.35 Question N103 A pregnant woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lives in the Central Valley of California. She complains of severe low back pain of several weeks in duration. An X-ray reveals a lesion in the fourth lumbar vertebra. Material from a needle biopsy of the lesion is examined by a pathologist who concluded that the patient has coccidioidomycosis. Of the following, which one did the pathologist see in the biopsy? Answer: Spherules containing endospores Septate hyphae Point: 0 Question N104 A 30-year-old man who is HIV- antibody positive with a CD4 count of 100 diagnoses of disseminated histoplasmosis. Which one of the following is the bestchoice of drug to treat his disseminated histoplasmosis? Answer: Amphotericin B Point: 0.35 Question N105 Naegleria fowleri -- a free-living amoeba enters the body via the nose, passing directly into brain tissue. The resulted meningoencephalitis is considerably mild and self-limiting in 10 days. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N106 Acanthamoeba is incriminated in a number of cases of inflammation and opacity of the cornea. Most of the ocular infections are registered in contact lens wearers who used home-made saline. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N107 Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium vivax are not true? Answer: Is the only cause of cerebral malaria Causes greater than 20% parasitaemia in peripheral blood Point: 0.5 Question N108 Which one of the following protozoa primarily infects macrophages? Answer: Leishmania donovani 1. Plasmodium vivax Point: 0 Question N109 Each of the following statements concerning Trypanosoma cruzi is correct EXCEPT: Answer: T. cruzi occurs primarily in tropical Africa T. cruzi typically affects the heart muscle, leading to cardiac failure T. cruzi can be diagnosed by seeing amastigotes in a bone marrow aspirate Point: 0 Question N110 Which of the following parasites is transmitted by sandflies? Answer: Leishmania donovani Point: 0.35 Question N111 A group of college students undertakes to trio outside the city life. They pack food and camping provisions except for water, which they obtain from the many freshwater mountain streams. The adventure takes over a week to accomplish, and all return safely to their classes the following week. Within the first week after their return, 5 of the 6 students report with profuse diarrhea and tenesmus with yellow, greasy, and foul-smelling stool, continued with weakness and weight loss. Lab investigation diagnosed Giardiasis. What attribute of this parasite mostly imparts its pathogenicity? Answer: Ventral sucking disc Lytic enzymes Point: 0 Question N112 Laboratory microbiological diagnosis of a patient with a suspected liver abscess due to Entamoeba histolytica primarily should include: Answer: Indirect hemagglutination test and skin test Stool examination and blood smear Point: 0 Question N113 Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct EXCEPT: Answer: G. lamblia causes hemolytic anemia G. Trophozoite of G. lamblia is pear-shaped with two nuclei and four pairs of flagella Point: 0 Question N114 Monoecious helminths have male and female reproductive systems in one animal Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N115 Helminths include multicellular and unicellular organisms that are heterotrophic with the absorptive type of food acquisition Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N116 Regarding schistosomes, which two (2) of the following statements is the most accurate? Answer: Humans are infected by schistosomes when cercariae penetrate the skin. The main site of S. mansoni in the human body is the mesenteric venules Point: 0.5 Question N117 Several Papua New Guinea villagers known to eat pork during celebrations were reported to be suffering from an outbreak of epileptiform seizures. One of the first things you should investigate Answer: The presence of Taenia solium in the pigs Point: 0.35 Question N118 Which of the following tapeworms is acquired by eating raw or under-cooked pork? Answer: Taenia solium Ascaris lumbricoides Point: 0 Set 4 Question N1 Continuous cell line can't be used to support viral replication for extended periods of time Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N2 Formation of Multinucleated giant cells ( syncytia) are a characteristic type of CPE for a number of viruses Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N3 Neurodegenerative slow infections in animals and humans are caused by viroids Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N4 Which 2 viruses out of listed below are not an RNA virus? Answer: Retrovirus Adenovirus Point: 0.25 Question N5 Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses? Answer: Biochemical tests Point: 0.35 Question N6 The definition of lysogeny is Answer: Lysis of the host cell due to a phage. Point: 0 Question N7 Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with a -- (minus) strand of RNA? Answer: Synthesis of DNA from an RNA template Point: 0 Question N8 What is cell deterioration due to viral infections termed? Answer: Cytopathic effect Point: 0.35 Question N9 A viral species can be primarily defined as a group of viruses that Answer: Cannot be defined Point: 0 Question N10 The following steps occur during the multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? Answer: Synthesis of double-stranded DNA Point: 0.35 Question N11 Which of the following is most likely a product of an early viral gene? Answer: DNA polymerase Point: 0.35 Question N12 Continuous cell lines are Answer: Cancerous cells Point: 0.35 Question N13 Transmission of a viral infection between mother and offspring can occur in utero -- across the placenta and at the time of delivery but or during breastfeeding Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N14 Hepatitis B and Hep C infections are examples of latent recurrent infections Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N15 Interferons are leading component of antiviral action the innate defense system. These substances directly kill the invading viruses Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N16 The 2 main purposes of the early viral genes that are expressed at the initial steps is to Answer: Take over the host machinery To uncoat the virus Point: 0.5 Question N17 Congenital anomalies care mainly caused by viruses that are capable of which route of transmission Answer: Transplacental Point: 0.35 Question N18 In the majority of viral infection, the intracellular consecutive events are led by which of the following: Answer: Inhibition of the host cell protein synthesis Point: 0.35 Question N19 Which of the following is an example of latent viral infection in humans? Answer: Shingles Smallpox Point: 0 Question N20 How is a persistent viral infection different from a latent viral infection? Answer: The infectious virus gradually builds up over a long period of time Point: 0.35 Question N21 Owl's eye inclusions are characteristic CRE of the infection caused by Answer: Cytomegalovirus ( HHV4) Hepatitis B virus Point: 0 Question N22 Which is the vertical transmission of a virus? Answer: Intrauterine Insect bite Point: 0 Question N23 Slow virus infections refer to those diseases with a long incubation period, often measured in years, such as: Answer: Creutzfeld-Jacob disease Point: 0.35 Question N24 Many viruses use the upper respiratory tract (mouth, nasopharynx) as theirimportant portal of entry -- the site where the virus first infects and replicates. Which one of the following viruses is most likely to enter via the upper respiratory tract? Answer: Epstein--Barr virus Point: 0.35 Question N25 B19 virus can infect endothelial cells that accounts for the development of the Slapped check rash on the face during 5^th^ disease. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N26 G C content of the DNA is one of the criterions used in grouping of human adenoviruses Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N27 Parvovirus B19 has been associated with a number of pathologic conditions including: Answer: Fifth disease Hydrops fetalis Point: 0.5 Question N28 Which of the following is available as a treatment or prevention for parvovirus B19 infections? Answer:Commercial immunoglobulin A vaccine containing recombinant VP2 viral antigen Bone marrow transplantation Point: 0 Question N29 Which statement regarding adenovirus is incorrect? Answer:Viral protein synthesis occurs in the cell nucleus Disease symptoms may resemble those of other respiratory virus infections Point: 0 Question N30 Adenoviruses can frequently spread by all of the following routes except Answer: Sexual contact Inadequately chlorinated swimming pools Point: 0 Question N31 The first phase of erythema infectiosum includes following except Answer: Erythemous facial rash Fever and chills Point: 0 Question N32 In the Poxviruses nucleocapsid is surrounded by an envelope derived from the cytoplasmic membrane of the infected cell Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N33 Different members of the Herpesviridae morphological details and are indistinguishable by electron microscopy. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N34 A family in Texas bought a pet rodent that was imported from Africa. Sonn after that their 6 -year-old boy developed flu-like symptoms followed by pox-like lesions on his hands and arms. Laboratory analysis diagnosed Monkeypox in the boy and the same in the rodent. Which 2 statements out of listed below are most correct? Answer: The clinical disease resembles smallpox. Smallpox vaccination may be protective for monkeypox Point: 0.5 Question N35 Which of the following is NOT a true statement about varicella? Answer: The rash begins on the hands and feet and moves inwards toward the trunk of the body. Complications from varicella illness in healthy children are rare. Point: 0 Question N36 Which of the following is NOT a true statement about zoster? Answer: It is the primary infection from the VZV. Point: 0.35 Question N37 Once exposed to the infected person the chickenpox can be developed in how many days in average Answer: 7-14 Point: 0.35 Question N38 Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the: Answer: Varicella-Zoster Virus Point: 0.35 Question N39 Which of the following human herpesvirus infections is associated with a 30-80% fatality rate? Answer: Neonatal herpes Point: 0.35 Question N40 For prevention of coxsackie virus infection a live vaccine is used Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N41 Both killed-virus and live-virus polio vaccines are available worldwide although in developed countries use of IPV has been drastically reduced because of safety considerations Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N42 Which 2 of the following viruses are primarily transmitted by the fecal-oral route? Answer: St. Louis encephalitis virus Colorado tick fever virus Norwalk virus Coxsackievirus Point: 0.25 Question N43 Which picornaviruses are sensitive to gastric acid? Answer: Rhinovirus Point: 0.35 Question N44 The major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory infections by immunization is Answer: The large number of rhinovirus serotypes The poor local and systemic immune response to these viruses Point: 0 Question N45 A 21-year-old man develops myopericarditis with mild congestive heart failure that increases over several weeks. Coxsackievirus B5 infection is diagnosed. Which of the following clinical syndromes is not associated with coxsackievirus infections? Answer: Progressive postpolio muscle atrophy Point: 0.35 Question N46 Regarding rotavirus, which one of the following is most accurate? Answer: The vaccine against rotavirus contains Iive, attenuated virus as the immunogen. Rotavirus has a nonsegmented, single-stranded RNA genome, and there is no polymerase in the virion. Point: 0 Question N47 The SARS coronavirus causes annual outbreaks during the winter Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N48 People are mainly infected with MERS --CoV through direct or indirect contact with infected dromedary camels Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N49 Coronaviruses contain the largest segmented genome among RNA viruses Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N50 The infected person with flu is contagious only after the symptomes begin to show Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N51 Regarding respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which 2 of the following statements is most accurate? Answer: RSV is an important cause of bronchiolitis in infants. Amantadine should be given to elderly nursing home residents to prevent outbreaks of disease caused by RSV. Point: 0.25 Question N52 What are hemagglutinin and neuraminidase? Answer: Glycoproteins on influenza virus that contribute to virulence Proteins that surround each segment of the nucleic acid of influenza virus Point: 0 Question N53 Based on sequence analysis and serologic assays, the most likely origin of the SARS coronavirus is which of the following? Answer: Jump of an animal coronavirus into humans Mutation of a human coronavirus that resulted in increased virulence Point: 0 Question N54 Coronavirus infections in humans usually cause a common cold syndrome. However, the outbreak of SARS in 2002-03 was characterized by pneumonia and progressive respiratory failure. The control of this disease was able due to Answer: Infection control measures, including isolation and wearing of personal protective equipment(PPE) Influenza drug Tamiflu Point: 0 Question N55 What is the primary route of transmission for majority of human coronaviruses? Answer: Respiratory Point: 0.35 Question N56 The following are common characteristics of coronaviruses, except for one. Which is NOT correct? Answer: Possess cross-reactive antigens with influenza viruses Can cause gastroenteritis Point: 0 Question N57 Which of the following symptoms is not typical of influenza? Answer: Rash Point: 0.35 Question N58 SARS coronavirus shares some characteristics, but not all, with human coronavirus HcoV-OC43. Which of the following statements is true for SARS coronavirus? Answer: Populations at high risk of disease included health care workers Causes annual outbreaks during the winter Point: 0 Question N59 A pilgrim returning from Mecca to his country presents with pneumonia, fever, and cough. Which virus could be most likely the causative agent? Answer: MERS CoV Infleanza H1N1 Point: 0 Question N60 Fulminant HBV disease is mainly associated with superinfection by HDV. The fulminant disease rarely occurs with HAV or HCV infections. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N61 In the serum samples of HbsAg-positive patients, 42-nm spherical virions (referred to as Dane particles) are predominantly observed. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N62 Which two statements about Hepatitis B virus are false Answer: Genome size 7500 bp in length The HbcAg is an envelope surface antigen Replication involves a reverse transcriptase The positive S strand of HBV DNA is between 50% and 80% of unit length Point: 0 Question N63 Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE? Answer: The booster can be required after five years Point: 0 Question N64 Which of the following virus infections in neonates can be prevented by a routine vaccination? Answer: Herpes simplex 1 Point: 0 Question N65 A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HbsAg, antibodies to HbsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. The nurse Answer: Is in the "window" (after the disappearance of HbsAg and before the appearance of anti-HbsAb) Point: 0 Question N66 Which of the following statements regarding HBIG is not true? Answer: HBIG typically is used instead of the hepatitis B vaccine for postexposure immunoprophylaxis to prevent HBV infection. Point: 0.35 Question N67 Regarding the hepatitis C virus (HCV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV), which one of the following is MOST accurate? Answer: Both HCV and HDV are defective RNA viruses and require concurrent HBV infection to replicate. Point: 0 Question N68 In the introduction of the West Nile virus in the US either an infected traveler or an infected mosquito brought by an airplane seems likely to be involved. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N69 The arboviral diseases occur mostly in the winter because mosquitoes are active in that season Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N70 Which 2 of the following viruses are not transmitted by vector transmission( insect bite)? Answer: Coxsackievirus Hantavirus Japanese encephalitis virus Yellow fever virus Point: 0 Question N71 Which characteristics of the La Crosse virus are not correct? Answer: Abrupt onset of the disease and short duration ( 2-5 days) Is a major cause of encephalitis and aseptic meningitis in children Point: 0 Question N72 Bunyaviruses are characterized by following except Answer: There are more than 300 Bunyaviruses Point: 0 Question N73 Zoonotic rodent-borne hemorrhagic fevers can be caused by following viruses except Answer: All of them are arboviruses Point: 0 Question N74 Chikungunya virus infection is characterized by which of the following: Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N75 Dengvaxia is a recently developed commercially available vaccine for : Answer: Dengue fever Point: 0.35 Question N76 In the replication of retroviruses the newly formed viral DNA becomes integrated into the host cell DNA as a provirus Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N77 The retrovirus particles assemble and emerge from infected host cells by budding from plasma membranes. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N78 In most cases, the DNA tumor viruses such as the papovaviruses transform only non-permissive cells -- those in which they do not replicate Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N79 Which 3 statements are true about retroviruses? Answer: Viral genome encodes gene for reverse transcriptase A viral genome is integrated into the host genome during infection. Two Viral genomes are packaged into retrovirus virion Viral genome can be made of lipids Viral genome encodes gene for RNA dependent RNA polymerase Point: 0 Question N80 Which of the following virus family contains a widely spread human cancer virus with an RNA genome? Answer: Flaviviridae Point: 0.35 Question N81 HTLV-1/2 encodes an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. The function of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is Answer: RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity Point: 0 Question N82 Viruses are contributing factors in Answer: 20% of human cancers All cases of human cancers Point: 0 Question N83 In the Phase 2 of HIV infection the numbers of CD4 T cells increases while HIV replication continues at a relatively low level Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N84 Group M of HIV contains most of the sub-genotypes as well as recombinant forms. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N85 Heterogeneous populations of viral genomes (quasispecies), that are found in infected individuals reflects high rates of viral replication and the high error rate of reverse transcriptase. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N86 The following statements concerning HIV infection are correct except which 2 of them Answer: Is evidence that an individual is protected against HIV by application of HTLV vaccine Zidovudine (azidothymidine), is widely used in AIDS treatment as a protease inhibitor The opportunistic infections seen in AIDS are primarily the result of a loss of cell-mediated immunity. Point: 0.25 Question N87 When was HIV infection first recognized in the U.S. and when HIV-1 was isolated? Answer: 1981 and 1983 Point: 0.35 Question N88 HIV-1, as a member of the Lentivirus genus in the Retroviridae family, meets which of the characteristics given below Answer: Cause acute rapidly progressive neurologic disease Point: 0 Question N89 HIV-1 encodes a number of glycoproteins. The envelope glycoprotein gp120 is characterized by which of the following Answer: Binds to the viral coreceptor on the cell surface Point: 0.35 Question N90 The bacterial infections most frequently observed in HIV disease is/are Answer: Mycobacterial infections Point: 0.35 Question N91 Pathogenic dimorphic fungi are yeast-like at 25°C and mold -like at 37°C Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N92 One yeast cell can in time produce up to 36 daughter cells by budding Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N93 Which 2 of the following characteristics of fungi is not correct? Answer: Single-celled organisms Acquire food by ingesting other organisms Have very similar features with animals Point: 0.25 Question N94 All the following belong to the subcutaneous mycosis except Answer: Pityriasis Versicolor Point: 0.35 Question N95 Chromomycosis is caused by representatives of following fungal genera except? Answer: Trychophyton Point: 0.35 Question N96 Some fungi reproduce sexually by mating and forming sexual spores. Which spores listed below are not sexual spores? Answer: Sporangiospores Point: 0.35 Question N97 Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Answer: Anamorphs --- lack spores Point: 0.35 Question N98 In Coccidioides infection a delayed (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity response to fungal antigens is an indicator of a good prognosis Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N99 Up to 90% of individuals in areas endemic for Histoplasma infections have positive results in the skin tests. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N100 All following fungi are associated with opportunistic mycoses except ( select 2) Answer: Paracoccidioides Trychophyton Rhizopus Point: 0.25 Question N101 In endemic areas, approximately 90% of the population will test positive for exposure to which of the following? Answer: Histoplasma Point: 0.35 Question N102 End-stage AIDS is defined by all of the following fungi and associated mycoses EXCEPT Answer: Candida albicans candidiasis Point: 0 Question N103 Which of the following was originally thought to be a protozoan? Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci Point: 0.35 Question N104 A pregnant woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lives in the Central Valley of California. She complains of severe low back pain of several weeks in duration. An X-ray reveals a lesion in the fourth lumbar vertebra. Material from a needle biopsy of the lesion is examined by a pathologist who concluded that the patient has coccidioidomycosis. Of the following, which one did the pathologist see in the biopsy? Answer: Septate hyphae Point: 0 Question N105 Certain protozoa, such as Leishmania and Trypanosoma, have flagellated forms called promastigotes or trypomastigotes and nonflagellated forms called amastigotes Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N106 Trypanosoma cruzi causes sleeping sickness disease which is transmitted by Tsetse fly. Mostly spread in Central and South America. Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N107 Which two (2) of the pairs below are mismatched Answer: Sarcodina -- Plasmodium Malaria -- Sandfly Point: 0.25 Question N108 Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they Answer: Are motile Point: 0 Question N109 In the malaria parasite life cycle Answer: Humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector. Point: 0.35 Question N110 Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? Answer: Most of protozoa cause disease Point: 0.35 Question N111 Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by; Answer: P. falciparum Point: 0.35 Question N112 Which one of the following agents can be used to prevent malaria? Answer: Mebendazole Point: 0 Question N113 Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? Answer: Euglena Point: 0.35 Question N114 Taenia saginata is a tapeworm infecting primarily pigs Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N115 In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N116 Which two (2) out of listed below belong to the class of Trematoda? Answer: Schistosoma mansoni Paragonimus westermani Ascaris Lumbricoides Taenia saginata Point: 0 Question N117 A definitive host harbors usually which stage of a parasite? Answer: sexually mature All of the answers are correct Point: 0 Question N118 Which of the following worms is NOT a Nematoda? Answer: Trichinella spiralis Point: 0 Set 5 Question N1 After attachment and penetration of a virus, the early mRNA and proteins are synthesized which are used to replicate the viral genome. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N2 The antiviral drug Oseltamivir inhibits neuraminidase produced by influenza A and B viruses Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N3 The pathogenesis and the type of viral diseases have strong relationship to viral morphology Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N4 Choose correct statements about enveloped and naked viruses Answer: Enveloped viruses are easily inactivated Naked viruses can spread by the fecal-oral route Point: 0.5 Question N5 Viruses range in size ( length) from: Answer: 20-1000 nm Point: 0.35 Question N6 Bacteriophages are routinely counted by the process of: Answer: Plaque assay Point: 0.35 Question N7 Which is not the main criterion for the classification of viruses? Answer: Type of the nucleic acid Point: 0 Question N8 Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with reverse transcriptase? Answer: Double-stranded RNA must be synthesized Point: 0 Question N9 Which of the following is NOT true regarding viruses Answer: Some large viruses can reproduce by binary fission Point: 0.35 Question N10 Formation of virus-specific cytoplasmic inclusions, so-called Neri bodies, are characteristic for which virus? Answer: Rabies virus Point: 0.35 Question N11 Which of the listed below is used for influenza virus replication and preparation of flu vaccine? Answer: Continuous cell line Point: 0 Question N12 During the phage infection and replication, bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT Answer: Lysozyme Point: 0.35 Question N13 Hepatitis B and Hep C infections are examples of latent recurrent infections Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N14 Interferons are leading component of antiviral action the innate defense system. These substances directly kill the invading viruses Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N15 The slow infection -- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis ( SSPE) follows several years after measles virus infection Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N16 Which 2 out of listed below are most often used in multiprofile clinical laboratories for diagnostics of viral infections ? Answer: Detection of viral nucleic acid Detection of viral antigen Point: 0.5 Question N17 A 73-year-old woman is hospitalized for treatment in the hematooncology unit. One day after admission she develops chills, fever, cough, headache, and myalgia. There is a major concern about a respiratory virus outbreak in the staff of the chemotherapy ward and in the patients in that ward. A synthetic amine that inhibits influenza A virus by blocking viral uncoating is chosen for prophylactic treatment of the staff and patients. That drug is Answer: Acyclovir Point: 0 Question N18 Which one of the following represents one of the fundamental principles of viral disease causation? Answer: The type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of that virus. Point: 0 Question N19 Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect (CPE) of viruses? Answer: Cell metabolism is intensified Point: 0.35 Question N20 The human diseases caused by prions all of the following except Answer: Japanese encephalitis Point: 0.35 Question N21 The skin is a formidable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasions? Answer: Rotavirus Point: 0 Question N22 Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called Answer: Latent viruses Point: 0.35 Question N23 According to the following characteristics Orhomyxoviruses show almost no difference with Paramyxoviruses EXCEPT Answer: Genome is segmented Point: 0.35 Question N24 Oncogenic viruses Answer: Cause acute infections. Point: 0 Question N25 Duration of adenovirus excretion in the blood, urine, throat, and stool of immune compromised patients can last up to 2 weeks Answer: 0 Point: 0.25 Question N26 The virus neutralization is the most sensitive serologic test for diagnostics of Adenovirus infections Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N27 Which of the following correctly describes the replication of human parvovirus B19? Answer: Uses blood group antigen P as a cellular receptor DNA replication occurs in the nucleus Point: 0.5 Question N28 Adenoviruses can spread via following routes Except Answer: Respiratory droplets Point: 0 Question N29 The parvoviruses have a rather unique genome; What form does it take? Answer: Ds DNA genome Point: 0 Question N30 The current classification shows the parvovirinae subfamily as having how many genera? Answer: 5 genera Point: 0.35 Question N31 The range of disease caused by the Parvoviridae family of viruses is wide but identify the exception from the following: Answer: Serious pneumonia Point: 0.35 Question N32 There is little sequence homology ( about 50%) between HSV-1 and HSV-2, while human herpesviruses 6 and 7 (HHV-6 and HHV-7) display even less homology (30-50%). Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N33 In the patients with chicken pox in addition to the classic fever and rash additional symptoms such as diahhrea and vomiting can frequently occur Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N34 Human herpesvirus 4 is implicated in which of the following diseases? Answer: Burkitt's lymphoma Oral hairy leukoplakia Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Point: 0.32 Question N35 Once exposed to the infected person the chickenpox can be developed in how many days in average Answer: 1-4 Point: 0 Question N36 Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the: Answer: Varicella-Zoster Virus Point: 0.35 Question N37 Which of the following human herpesvirus infections is associated with a 30-80% fatality rate? Answer: Neonatal herpes Point: 0.35 Question N38 When are people infected with a varicella-zoster virus most contagious? Answer: When the rash appears Point: 0.35 Question N39 Which statement about the smallpox virus incorrect? Answer: Smallpox virus infects humans and chimpanzees Point: 0.35 Question N40 Rotavirus and Norwalk virus are distinctly different viruses but both can be transmitted by respiratory route in addition to the fecal-oral route. Answer: 1 Point: 0 Question N41 Caliciviruses are small nonenveloped viruses with a single-stranded, nonsegmented RNA genome Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N42 For the prevention of a number of Picornavirus infections, different types of vaccines have been used for several decades. Which 2 of the following statements are not correct? Answer: The live, attenuated poliovirus vaccine produces gastrointestinal tract resistance The live, attenuated poliovirus vaccine induces protective immunity against the closely related coxsackie B viruses. Point: 0 Question N43 Regarding poliovirus, which of the following statements is most accurate? Answer: The current recommendation is to give the live, attenuated vaccine for the first 3 immunizations to prevent the child from acting as a reservoir, followed by boosters using the killed vaccine The widespread use of the killed vaccine in South America has led to the eradication of paralytic polio in that area. Poliovirus remains latent within sensory ganglia, and reactivation occurs primarily in Immunocompromised patients When the live, attenuated virus in the oral vaccine replicates, revertant mutants can occur that can cause paralytic polio Point: 0 Question N44 Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by: Answer: Droplet aerosolization Point: 0.35 Question N45 In the summer period, a 16-year-old girl develops a fever, myalgia, and headache. An outbreak of illness with similar symptoms caused by an echovirus is known to be occurring in the community. The primary anatomic site of echovirus multiplication in the human host is Answer: The respiratory system Point: 0 Question N46 A 40-year-old woman with no significant medical history presented with an erythematous papulovesicular rash on her face, predominantly around her lips and her distal upper and lower extremities, including her palms and soles ( see pictures below). Rash has been developed rapidly over three days. Before the rash appeared, she had a fever of 39.4°C, sore throat, and headache. Ten days before the patient's 8-year-old daughter had a fever, diarrhea, and a similar rash on her feet. Based on the patient's history and physical examination findings, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Answer: Rubella Point: 0 Question N47 The frequency of coronavirus infection-causing common cold-like infections every year is estimated to be about half that of rhinoviruses Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N48 There's a higher risk of development of Congenital abnormalities to occur primarily when a pregnant woman is infected during the first trimester. Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N49 Rhabdoviruses can infect not only animals (vertebrates and invertebrates) but also plants Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N50 Rabies virus virions include single-stranded, negative-sense RNA genome and an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Answer: 0 Point: 0 Question N51 For which of the following paramyxoviruses an effective vaccine is available? Answer: Measles virus Mumps virus Point: 0.5 Question N52 Each of the following statements concerning mumps is correct except Answer: Mumps orchitis in children before puberty always causes sterility. Point: 0.35 Question N53 The presence in neurons of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies, called Negri bodies, is characteristic of which of the following central nervous system infections? Answer: Cytomegalovirus infection Point: 0 Question N54 Which of the following statements about rabies vaccines for human use is true? Answer: Can be used for postexposure prophylaxis Point: 0.35 Question N55 Which of the different viruses listed below can cause severe pneumonia in infants and small children? Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus Point: 0.35 Question N56 Which of the following is not characteristic of Paramyxoviruses? Answer: Genome is segmented Point: 0.35 Question N57 The measles is commonly present in a patient except Answer: Diarrhea Point: 0.35 Question N58 Rabies virus is rapidly destroyed by following except Answer: Freezing at -70C Point: 0.35 Question N59 Which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than German measles (rubella)? Answer: Koplik spots are present. Point: 0.35 Question N60 In the nucleus, the partially double-stranded HBV viral genome is converted to covalently closed circular double-stranded DNA (cccDNA), which serves as template for all viral Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N61 HCV-associated liver disease is the major cause for liver transplantation Answer: 1 Point: 0.25 Question N62 Which 2 the following statements concerning HCV and HDV are not correct Answer: People infected with HCV commonly become chronic carriers of HCV and are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma HDV is transmitted primarily by the fecal-oral route. Point: 0.25 Question N63 Which of the following statements regarding HBIG is not true? Answer: HBIG typically is used instead of the hepatitis B vaccine for postexposure immunoprophylaxis to prevent HBV infection. Point: 0.35 Question N64 Regarding the hepatitis C virus (HCV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV), which one of the following is MOST accurate? Answer: Both HCV and HDV are defective RNA viruses and require concurrent HBV infection to replicate. Point: 0 Question N65 In persons infected with HCV following manifestation of chronic hepatitis C infection may be seen Answer: All of the above Point: 0.35 Question N66 Which following statements regarding HCV is not correct Answer: medium to large size viruses with a diameter 80- 140 nm Enveloped virus Point: 0 Question N67 Laboratory diagnostics of HAV infections is done using following except Answer: Detection of virus rna in the sputum by rt pcr Detection of HAV-IgG by EIA. Point: 0