UGC NET Paper I (PDF) - 14 Years of Questions

Paper - I (General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude) 1. Paper - I December - 2004 2. Paper - I December - 2005 3. Paper - I June - 2006 4. Paper - I December - 2006 5. Paper - I June - 2007 6. Paper - I December - 2007 7. Paper - I June - 2008 8. Paper - I December - 2008 9. Paper - I June - 2009 1. Paper - I December - 2009 1. Paper - I June- 2010 1. Paper - I December - 2010 1. Paper - I June - 2011 1. Paper - I December- 2011 1. Paper - I June - 2012 www.examsplanner.in 1. Paper - I December - 2012 1. Paper - I June - 2013 1. Paper - I June - 2013 (Retest) 1. Paper - I December - 2013 2. Paper - I June - 2014 2. Paper - I December - 2014 2. Paper - I June - 2015 2. Paper - I December - 2015 2. Paper - I July - 2016 2. Paper - I August - 2016 (Retest) 2. Paper - I January - 2017 www.examsplanner.in. Paper - I December - 2004 Q1. Discussion Method can be used when: (A) The topic is very difficult (B) The topic is easy (C) The topic is difficult (D) All of the above Answer: C There are different types of teaching methods which can be categorised into three broad types. These are teacher-centred methods, learner-centred methods, content-focused methods and interactive/participative methods. Instructional Methods Classified Into The Lecture Method The Discussion Method The Programmed Instruction Method The Study Assignment Method The Tutorial Method The Seminar Method The Demonstration Method The Demonstration Method The Buzz Group Role Plays Brainstorming METHOD USES ADVANTAGES DISADVANTAGES THE 1. To develop 1. Increase students 1. Require highly DISCUSSION imaginative interest skilled instructor. METHOD solutions to 2. Increases 2. Requires A method in which problems. students acceptance preparation by group discussion 2. To stimulate and commitments. student. www.examsplanner.in echniques are thinking and 3. Utilises student 3. Limits content. used to reach interest and to knowledge and 4. Consumes time. instructional secure student experience. 5. Restricts size of objectives. participation. 4. Results in more groups. 3. To emphasise permanent learning main teaching because of high points. degree of student 4. To participation. supplement lectures, reading, or laboratory exercises. 5. To determine how well student understands concepts and principles. 6. To prepare students for application of theory of procedure. 7. To summarise, clarify points or review. Q2. Which of the following is a teaching aid? (A) Working Model of Wind Mill (B) Tape Recorder (C) 16mm Film Projector (D) All the above Answer: D Teaching aids can be as basic as a blackboard or whiteboard. Audio an isual equipment, such as DVD players and video projectors, are commonl sed as tools for learning with a very effective output. Students tend to ge ore involved when learning if teaching aids are implemented into the www.examsplanner.in curriculum. The teaching aids used in the teaching can be classified into the following ways:. Traditional Aids: Blackboard/chalkboard, books, periodicals.. Visual Aids: Objects, picture, map, figure, chart, posters, model, bulletin board, flannel board, globe, graph or any other type of graphics such as diagrams, cut-outs, cartoons, etc.. Mechanical Aids: Audio: Radio, tape recorder, teaching machine. Visual: Projector, epidiascope, film strips, motion picture, etc. d. Audio-Visual: Films, television, video, cassettes, etc. Visual Material Aids: Use of Chart: The most commonly used types of charts include outline charts, tabular charts, flow charts and organization charts. Flip charts an low charts are also being used. Q3. The main aim of teaching is: (A) To develop only reasoning (B) To develop only thinking (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) To give information Answer: C Q4. The quality of teaching is reflected: (A) By the attendance of students in the class (B) By the pass percentage of students (C) By the quality of questions asked by students (D) By the duration of silence maintained in the class Answer: C Q5. The present annual examination system: (A) promotes role learning (B) does not promote good study habits (C) does not encourage students to be regular in class (D) All the above Answer: D Q6. A college wants to give training in use of Statistical Package www.examsplanner.in for Social Sciences (SPSS) to researchers. For this the college should organize: (A) Conference (B) Seminar (C) Workshop (D) Lecture Answer: C Q7. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a research? (A) Research is systematic (B) Research is not a process (C) Research is problem oriented (D) Research is not passive Answer: B Q8. Which of the following statement is correct? (A) Discoveries are researches (B) Researches lead to discovery (C) Invention and Research are related (D) None of the above Answer: B Q9. Which of the following statement is correct? (A) In research, objectives can be worded in question form (B) In research, objectives can be worded in statement form (C) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the Thesis (D) All the above Answer: C Q10. Match List A with List B and choose the correct answer from the code given below: List A List B (a) Historical Method (i) Past events (b) Survey Method (ii) Vision (c) Philosophical Method (iii) Present events (d) Experimental Method (iv) Exceptional cases (v) Future action Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) www.examsplanner.in (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (B) (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (C) (i) (iv) (ii) (v) (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Answer: B Read the following passage and answer the question numbers 11 to 15. Each day at the Shantiniketan School starts with the Saraswati Vandana. Whe p inting competitions are held in the school, images of Hindu gods an oddesses are most common. Sanskrit is a favourite subject of many a student. thing new about it except that the 1,200 - odd students studying in the Hind run school are Muslims. In 1983, when Ranchodbhai Kiri started Shantiniketan in the all - Musli uhapura area of Ahmedabad in Gujarat, only 20 percent of the students were Muslims. But when riots involving the Muslims of Juhapura and the Hindus o earby Jivrajpark - Vejalpur affected the locality, Hindus started migrating. Today, all the students are Muslims and the school is an unparalled example o armony. In the 2002, when a section of inflamed Muslims wanted the school closed, the parents of the students stood like a wall behind it. Shantiniketan's principal says, "We never thought of moving the school out o he area because of the love and affection of the local Muslims. Indeed, the alue the high standard of education which we have set." Such is the reputatio f the school that some of the local Muslim strongmen accused of involvemen n communal riots are willing to protect the school during the riots. The parents of Shantiniketan's students believe that it's the best school when i omes to the quality of the teaching. A large number of students have gone for th graduation and post graduation studies. Significantly, the only Musli eacher in the 40 - member teaching staff, Husena Mansuri, teaches Sanskrit. I act, she is so happy at the school that she recently declined the principalship of another Muslim - run school. Some of the students' entries in a recent school painting competition mere trul oving. One drew a picture of Bharat Mata with a mosque and temple, while another portrayed a boy tying rakhi to his sister. Trully, Shantiniketan is a www.examsplanner.in b acon of hope that, despite the provocations from both communities, Hindus and Muslims can live side-by-side with mutual respect. Q11. How the Shantiniketan school starts the day ? (A) National anthem (B) Prayer (C) Saraswati Vandana (D) Puja Answer: C Q12. Write the subject which is preferred by most of the students. (A) Hindi (B) English (C) Sanskrit (D) Gujarati Answer: C Q13. Who protects the school during the riot times ? (A) Local Muslims (B) Hindus (C) Politicians (D) Christians Answer: A Q14. Who is the teacher of Sanskrit? (A) Ranchodbhai Kiri (B) Manisha Vakil (C) Husena Mansuri (D) Husena Khatoon Answer: C Q15. What is the hope despite the communal riots ? (A) Hindus and Muslims cannot live side by side (B) Hindus and Muslims can live side by side (C) Only Hindus can live (D) Only Muslims can live Answer: B Q16. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II (Distinguished Ladies) (Area of work) (A) Jhumpa Lahiri (i) Journalist (B) Barkha Dutt (ii) Novel Writing www.examsplanner.in (C) Aparna Sen (iii) Film Actress (D) Smita Patil (iv) Film Director Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Answer: B Q17. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? (A) Aajtaak - 24 hours news channel (B) F.M. Stations - Radio (C) National Geography channel - Television (D) Vir Sanghvi - India Today Answer: D Q18. Which is the oldest soap opera telecasted in India ? (A) Kahani Ghar Ghar Ki (B) Buniad (C) Humlog (D) Saas Bhi Kabhi Bahu Thee Answer: C Q19. Which satellite channel uses the adline, “Knowing is everything” ? (A) BBC World (B) Star (C) Sony (D) Zee Answer: A Q20. Which is the “First made in India” Kids channel of television ? (A) Cartoon Network (B) Walt Disney (C) United Home Entertainment's Hungama TV (D) Nick Jr. Answer: C www.examsplanner.in Q21. The letters in the first set have certain relationships. On the basis of the relationship which is the right choice for the second set ? BF:GK::LP:? (A) JK (B) QU (C) VW (D) RQ Answer: B Explanation: B+5=G, F+5=K Using same relationship,L+5=Q, P+5=U Q22. If BLOOD is coded as 24113 and BRUST as 20678, then code for ROBUST is : (A) 620781 (B) 012678 (C) 678102 (D) 610732 Answer: B Explanation: We know, BLOOD is coded as 24113 and BRUST as 20678 From above codes, B=2, L=4, O=1, D=3, R=0, U=6, S=7,T=8 So, ROBUST is coded as 012678 Q23. A bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. If the total amount in the bag is Rs. 35, how many coins of each type are there ? (A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 25 Answer: C Q24. In the sequence of numbers 2/3, 4/7, X, 11/21, 16/31 The missing number X is: (A) 8/10 (B) 6/10 (C) 5/10 (D) 7/13 Answer: D Q25. If A stands for 5 , B for 6, C for 7, D for 8, and so on, what do www.examsplanner.in the following numbers stand for : 22, 25, 8, 22 and 5 ? (A) PRIYA (B) NEEMA (C) MEENA (D) RUDRA Answer: D Q26. Which of the following statements are always true ? (a) A wooden table is a table (b) Now, it is raining or not raining (c) The sun rises in the East every day (d) A chicken comes out of a hen's egg Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes: (A) (a) and (c) (B) (a), (c) and (d) (C) (a) and (b) (D) (b) and (c) Answer: B Q27. Which of the following statements are mutually inconsistent ? (a) Mostly poets are not egoistic (b) Mostly poets are humble (c) Some poets are egoistic (d) Some poets are not non - egoistic Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (a) and (c) (D) (c) and (d) Answer: A Q28. Which of the following statements is/are absolutely impossible ? (a) A woman giving birth to her own grandchild (b) A man attending his own funeral (c) The Sun not rising in the East some day (d) Cars running without petrol Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : www.examsplanner.in Codes: (A) (a) and (b) (B) (c) and (d) (C) (b) (D) (a) Answer: A Q29. Which of the following are incorrect ways of arguing? (a) If horses are cows, and if cows are sheep, then all horses must be sheep. (b) If top actors are famous, and Shah Rukh Khan is famous, then Shah Rukh Khan is a top actor (c) Lata is the second sister of Raju, hence Raju is the second brother of Lata (d) A is not equal to B, but B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes : (A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (a), (c) and (d) (C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d) Answer: B Q30. Which of the following statements say the same thing? (a) “I am clever” (said by Rama) (b) “I am clever” (said by Raju) (c) “My son is clever” (said by Rama's father) (d) “My brother is clever” (said by Rama's sister) (e) “My brother is clever” (said by Rama's only sister) (f) “My sole enemy is clever” (said by Rama's only enemy) Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f) (B) (a) and (b) (C) (d) and (e) (D) (a) and (f) Answer: A Study the following graph and answer the questions from 31 to 33: www.examsplanner.in Q31. In which year was the sale of ‘Pep-up’ the maximum ? (A) 1990 (B) 1992 (C) 1993 (D) None of the above Answer: D Q32. In the case of which soft drink was the average annual sale maximum during the period 1988 - 1993. (A) Pep - up only (B) Cool - sip only (C) Cool - sip and Dew – drop (D) Pep - up and Dew – drop Answer: A Q33. What was the approximate percent drop in the sale of Pep - up in 1990 over its sale in 1989 ? (A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 20 Answer: C Q34. The “Report on Currency and Finance” for each of the financial year in India is published by : (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Ministry of Finance (C) Planning Commission (D) Central Statistical Organization Answer: A Q35. The number of students in two classes A and B and the respective “mean” of the marks obtained by each of the class are given in the following table : Class A Class B www.examsplanner.in N mber of Students 20 80 Arithmetic Mean 10 20 The combined “mean” of the marks of the two classes will be : (A) 18 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 20 Answer: B Q36. ICT stands for : (A) International Communication Technology (B) Intera Common Terminology (C) Information and Communication Technology (D) Inter connected Terminals Answer: C Q37. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ? (A) Computer is capable of processing only digital signal (B) Computer is capable of analysing both quantitative and qualitative data (C) Appropriate software is required for processing the data (D) Computer is capable of processing digital as well as analog signals Answer: A Q38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of Information Technology? (A) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for ocessing information (B) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for distribution of useful information (C) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for storage, retrieval, processing and distributing information of many kinds. (D) Information Technology refers to the use of principles of Physical sciences and Social sciences for processing of information of many kinds. Answer: C Q39. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) Virus improves the speed of processing information through computer (B) Internet does not allow the virus to spread www.examsplanner.in (C) Virus is a part of software (D) Virus is an operating system Answer: C Q40. Which of the following is correct statement? (A) Computers can be used for diagnosing the difficulty of a student in learning a subject (B) Psychological testing can be done with the help of computer provided a software is available (C) A set of instructions is called a programme (D) All the above Answer: D Q41. Global warming during winter becomes more pronounced at the : (A) Equator (B) Poles (C) Tropic of Cancer (D) Tropic of Capricorn Answer: D Q42. In the study of man-environment interaction, the statement of Miss Semple that “the humans are solely the product of their environment”, is : (A) An opinion (B) A prejudice (C) A fact (D) A widely accepted phenomenon Answer: C Q43. In analysis of man-environment relationship Pragmatic Possibilism implies that : (A) There is no limit for man to exploit resources of earth (B) There are limited possibilities to explore earth's resources (C) The man has to watch and assess the situation and then go ahead with resource utilization (D) The man has to keep in mind only his basic needs while planning to harness the potential of resourceful earth Answer: C www.examsplanner.in Q44. Arrange Column II in proper sequence so as to match it with Column I and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Column I Column II Activity Noise Level (a) Hearing (i) 30 dB (b) Whispering (ii) 1 dB (c) Interference with sleep (iii) 60 dB (d) Normal talk (iv) 30–50 dB Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Answer: B Q45. The maximum loss of forest lands in India is caused by : (A) River valley projects (B) Industries (C) Means of transportation (D) Agriculture Answer: A Q46. In which year the University Grants Commission was established ? (A) 1948 (B) 1944 (C) 1953 (D) 1960 Answer: C Q47. Another name of Basic Education or Nai Talim is : (A) Compulsory Education (B) New Education Policy (C) Wardha Education Plan (D) Sarva Shikshya Abhiyan Answer: C Q48. The idea of ‘Democratic Decentralisation’ in India was popularised by : (A) A.D. Gorwala Committee, 1951 (B) Paul H. Appleby Committee, 1953 www.examsplanner.in (C) B.R. Mehta Committee, 1957 (D) Ashok Mehta Committee, 1978 Answer: C Q49. In India, a political party is recognised as a National or Regional Party by the : (A) President of India (B) Election Commission of India (C) Law ministry in consultation with the Law Commission of India (D) Union Parliament in consultation with the State Legislatures Answer: B Q50. Which of the following factor/s is/are responsible for the increase of the role of Government in Developing Countries? (a) Economic Planning (b) Rising expectation of people (c) Privatisation (d) Emergence of the concept of Welfare State Select the most appropriate answer from the codes given below: Codes : (A) (a) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (d) (C) Only (c) (D) Only (d) Answer: A www.examsplanner.in 2. Paper - I December - 2005 Q1. Team teaching has the potential to develop: (A) Competitive spirit (B) Cooperation (C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other (D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching Answer: C Q2. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system? (A) Students become serious. (B) It improves attendance in the classroom. (C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students. (D) It compels students to think. Answer: D Q3. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages the use of maximum senses? (A) Problem-solving method (B) Laboratory method (C) Self-study method (D) Team teaching method Answer: B Q4. Which of the following statement is correct? (A) Communicator should have fine senses (B) Communicator should have tolerance power (C) Communicator should be soft spoken (D) Communicator should have good personality Answer: A Q5. An effective teacher is one who can: (A) control the class (B) give more www.examsplanner.in information in less time (C) motivate students to learn (D) correct the assignments carefully Answer: C Q6. One of the following is not a quality of researcher: (A) Unison with that of which he is in search (B) He must be of alert mind (C) Keenness in enquiry (D) His assertion to outstrip the evidence Answer: D Q7. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not possess one of the following qualities (A) Appropriateness (B) Measurability (C) Comparability (D) Flexibility Answer: D Q8. Books and records are the primary sources of data in: (A) historical research (B) participatory research (C) clinical research (D) laboratory research Answer: A Q9. Which of the following statement is correct? (A) objectives should be pin-pointed (B) objectives can be written in statement or question form (C) another word for problem is variable (D) all the above Answer: A Q10. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences, social sciences and humanities are (A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic (B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience (C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking www.examsplanner.in (D) topic, supervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions Answer: B Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation. This is especially important in generating alternative decision support solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems imarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence, individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. I lowever, several studies have found that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once lieved, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed. Manual methods for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group, can be very successful in certain situations. However, in other situations, such an approach is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective when (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to conduct an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-to- face session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is not optimal, or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases, computerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success. Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work, but the software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although idea-generation software is still relatively new, there are several packages on the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references words and rases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software ckages use questions to prompt the user towards new, unexplored patterns of www.examsplanner.in thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination. Q11. The author, in this passage has focused on (A) knowledge creation (B) idea-generation (C) creativity (D) individual traits Answer: A Q12. Fostering creativity needs an environment of (A) decision support systems (B) idea-nurturing (C) decision support solutions (D) alternative individual factors Answer: B Q13. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in certain occasions, (A) are alternatively effective (B) can be less expensive (C) do not need a facilitator (D) require a mix of optimal rticipants Answer: A Q14. Idea-generation software works as if it is a (A) stimulant (B) knowledge ckage (C) user-friendly trainer (D) climate creator Answer: A Q15. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking patterns can be won when: (A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods (B) idea-generation software prompts questions (C) manual methods are removed (D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software Answer: B Q16. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as: (A) channel noise (B) semantic noise www.examsplanner.in (C) psychological noise (D) source noise Answer: A Q17. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example of: (A) time-shifting (B) content reference (C) mechanical clarity (D) media synchronisation Answer: D Q18. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience: (A) plentiful of information (B) a good amount of statistics (C) concise proof (D) repetition of facts Answer: A Q19. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from the state of: (A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra (C) West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh Answer: D Q20. Insert the missing number: 8 24 12 ? 18 54 (A) 26 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 32 Answer: C Explanation: mbers are alternatively multiplied by 3 and divided by 2. So, the next number = 3 x 12 = 36, 36 ÷ 2 = 18 Q21. January 1, 1995 was Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996? (A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Saturday (D) None of these Answer: B Explanation: www.examsplanner.in Leap year is a year, occurring once every four years, which has 366 days instead of the normal 365 days. The extra day is added in February, which has 29 days instead of the normal 28 days. Exception: Century years are NOT leap years UNLESS they can be evenly divided by 400. For example, 1700, 1800, and 1900 were not leap years, but 1600 and 2000 were. Counting odd days and calculating day of any particular date: 1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day) Hence number of odd days in 1 ordinary year = 1. 1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days) Hence number of odd days in 1 leap year= 2. 100 years = (76 ordinary years + 24 leap years ) = (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days. = (17 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days. Hence number of odd days in 100 years = 5 mber of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) = 10 = 3 mber of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) = 15 = 1 mber of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1) = 21 = 0 0 odd days Sunday 1 odd days Monday 2 odd days Tuesday 3 odd days Wednesday 4 odd days Thursday 5 odd days Friday 6 odd days Saturday Here, 1995 is a normal year. It has one odd day. So the first day of 1996 will Monday. Q22. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is twice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is : (A) √2 (B) 1/√2 (C) √3 (D) 1/√3 www.examsplanner.in Answer: C Explanation: Let the number be x. Its reciprocal is 1/x. We are given, x+1/x = 2(x-1/x) ⇒ (x2+1)/x = 2(x2-1)/x ⇒ (x2+1) = 2(x2-1) ⇒ -x2 = -3 ⇒ x2 = 3 ⇒ x = √3 Q23. In a certain code, ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. how will PLEASE will be written in the same code (A) LPAESE (B) PLAESE (C) LPAEES (D) PLASEE Answer: B Q24. At what time between 5.30 and 6.00 will the hands of a clock be at right angles? (A) 43 5/11 min. past 5 (B) 43 7/11 min. past 5 (C) 40 min. past 5 (D) 45 min past 5 Answer: B Q25. Statements : I. All students are ambitious II. All ambitious persons are hard working Conclusions : (i) All students are hard-working (ii) All hardly working people are not ambitious Which of the following is correct? (A) Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is correct (C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct Answer: C Q26. Statement : Most students are intelligent Conclusions :(i) Some students are intelligent (ii) All students are not intelligent Which of the following is implied? (A) Only (i) is implied (B) Only (ii) is implied www.examsplanner.in (C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied Answer: B Q27. Statement: Most labourers are poor Conclusions : (i) Some labourers are poor (ii) All labourers are not poor Which of the following is implied? (A) Only (i) is implied (B) Only (ii) is implied (C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied Answer: B Q28. Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions of: (A) the CPU (B) the monitor (C) network protocols (D) wide area networks Answer: C Q29. In the hypermedia database, information bits are stored in the form of: (A) signals (B) cubes (C) nodes (D) symbols Answer: C Explanation: Hypermedia database model stores chunks of information in the form of nodes connected by links established by the user. The nodes can contain text, graphics, sound, full-motion video, or executable computer programs. Q30. Communications bandwidth that has the highest capacity and is used by microwave, cable and fibre optics lines is known as: (A) hyper-link (B) broadband (C) bus width (D) carrier wave Answer: B www.examsplanner.in Q31. An electronic bill board that has a short text or graphical advertising message is referred to as: (A) bulletin (B) strap (C) bridge line (D) banner Answer: D Q32. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a computer? (A) computer is an electrical machine (B) computer cannot think at its own (C) computer processes information error free (D) computer can hold data for any length of time Answer: A Q33. Bitumen is obtained from (A) Forests and Plants (B) Kerosene oil (C) Crude oil (D) underground mines Answer: C Explanation: Bitumen/asphalt/tar is a common binder used in road construction. Bitumen is obtained from crude oil by the process called fractional distillation. It is incipally obtained as a residual product in petroleum refineries after higher fractions like gas, petrol, kerosene and diesel, etc., are removed. Q34. Malaria is caused by: (A) bacterial infection (B) viral infection (C) parasitic infection (D) fungal infection Answer: C Explanation: Malaria is a parasitic infection spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria is a single-celled parasite that multiplies in red blood cells of humans as well as in the mosquito intestine. Q35. The cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear nights (without clouds) during winter days. This is because: www.examsplanner.in (A) clouds radiate heat towards the earth (B) clouds prevent cold wave from the sky, descend on earth (C) clouds prevent escaping of the heat radiation from the earth (D) clouds being at great heights from earth absorb heat from the sun and send towards the earth Answer: C Q36. Largest soil group of India is: (A) Red soil (B) Black soil (C) Sandy soil (D) Mountain soil Answer: C Explanation: Eight major soil groups available in India are: Alluvial Soils, Black Soils, Red Soils, Laterite Soils, Forest and Mountain Soils, Arid and Desert Soils, Saline and Alkaline Soils, Peaty and organic Soils. Alluvial soils constitute the largest soil group in India, constituting 80% of the total land surface. An alluvial soil in India is of three types: Sandy soil, Clayey soil and Loamy soil. Q37. Main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is (A) oil spill (B) municipal sewage (C) industrial effluents (D) aerosols Answer: C Q38. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the following frequency ranges: (A) 1-2 KHz (B) 100-500 Hz (C) 10-12 KHz (D) 13-16 KHz Answer: A Q39. Which species of chromium is toxic in water: (A) Cr+2 (B) Cr+3 (C) Cr + 6 (D) Cr is non-toxic element Answer: C Q40. Match List - I (Dams) with List - II (River) in the following: www.examsplanner.in List - I (Dams) List - II (River) a. Bhakra (i) Krishna Nagarjunasagar (ii) Damodar c. Panchet (iii) Sutlej d. Hirakud (iv) Bhagirathi e. Tehri (v) Mahanadi a b c d e (A) v iii iv ii i (B) iii i ii v iv (C) i ii iv iii v (D) ii iii iv i v Answer: B Explanation: Bhakra Dam is across the Satluj River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is across the Krishna river at Nagarjuna Sagar where the river is forming boundary between Nalgonda district of Telangana and Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh. Panchet Dam is constructed across the Damodar River at Panchet in Dhanbad district in the state of Jharkhand. Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in the state of Odisha. The Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in India. It is on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand. Q41. A negative reaction to a mediated communication is described as: (A) flak (B) fragmented feedback (C) passive response (D) non-conformity Answer: C Explanation: Mediated communication refers to communication carried out by the use of information communication technology, and can be contrasted to face-to-face communication. Q42. The launch of satellite channel by IGNOU on 26th January 2003 for technological education for the growth and development of www.examsplanner.in distance education is: (A) Eklavya channel (B) Gyandarshan channel (C) Rajrishi channel (D) None of these Answer: A Explanation: Eklavya Technology Channel is a distant learning joint initiative between the IIT and IGNOU. It was inaugurated on 26 January 2003. The objective of this Channel is to bring to the audience the actual IIT classrooms virtually at their door steps. It is a channel dedicated to technical education. Q43. Match List - I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below: List - I (Institutions) List - II (Locations) (a) The Indian Council of Historical (i) Shimla Research (ICHR) (b) The Indian Institute of Advanced (ii) New Delhi Studies (IIAS) (c) The Indian Council of Philosophical (iii) Banglore Research (ICPR) (d) The Central Institute of Coastal (iv) Lucknow Engineering for fisheries a b c d (A) ii i iv iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) ii iv i iii (D) iv iii ii i Answer: A Explanation: Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous organization situated in New Delhi under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. The objectives of ICHR are: - to bring historians together and provide a forum for exchange of views tween them. - to give a national direction to an objective and scientific writing of history and to have rational presentation and interpretation of history. - to promote, accelerate and coordinate research in history with special www.examsplanner.in emphasis on areas which have not received adequate attention so far. - to promote and coordinated a balanced distribution of research effort over different areas. - to elicit support and recognition for historical research from all concerned and ensure the necessary dissemination and use of results. The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research institute based in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh. Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was established in March 1977 under Department of Higher Education and Ministry of Human Resource Development. Its Headquarters is at New Delhi and Academic Centre is at Lucknow. Some of the objectives of the Council are: - Review the progress of research in philosophy on regular basis. - Co-ordinate research activities in philosophy and encourage interdisciplinary research. - Promote collaboration in research between Indian philosophers and international philosophical institutes. - Promote teaching and research in Philosophy. The Central Institute of Coastal Engineering for Fishery (CICEF) formerly known as Pre-Investment Survey of Fishing Harbours (PISFH) is a emier institution of the Government of India established in January 1968 at Bangalore with its jurisdiction covering the entire Indian coastline for conducting engineering and economic investigations and preparing the Techno- Economic Feasibility Reports (TEFRs) for the fishery harbour (FH) projects. Q44. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right? (A) Right to equality (B) Right against exploitation (C) Right to freedom of speech and expression (D) Right of free compulsory education of all children upto the age of 14 Answer: All are fundamental rights Q45. The Lok - Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its normal five year term by: (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha www.examsplanner.in (C) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister (D) None of the above Answer: C udy the following graph carefully and answer Q.No. 46 to 50 given below t: Q46. In which year the value per tin was minimum? (A) 1995 (B) 1996 (C) 1998 (D) 1999 Answer: A Q47. What was the difference between the tins exported in 1997 and 1998? (A) 10 (B) 1000 (C) 100000 (D) 1000000 Answer: A Q48. What was the approximate percentage increase in export value from 1995 to 1999? (A) 350 (B) 330.3 (C) 433.3 (D) None of these Answer: D (233.3) Q49. What was the percentage drop in export quantity from 1995 to 1996? (A) 75 (B) 50 (C) 25 (D) None of these Answer: C www.examsplanner.in Q50. If in 1998, the tins were exported at the same rate per tin as that in 1997, what would be the value (in crores of rupees) of export in 1998? (A) 400 (B) 375 (C) 352 (D) 330 Answer: C www.examsplanner.in 3. Paper - I June - 2006 Q1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill? (A) Black Board writing (B) Questioning (C) Explaining (D) All the above Answer: D All of the above are the teaching skills without them a teacher is like a without gun in a battalefield. Basic teaching skills Setting the scene – make sure that your students are comfortable and ready to start learning Being student centred – do you know what the students want to learn in each session? Assessing prior knowledge – check what the students know already Asking questions – keep your questions straightforward, but try and probe deeper levels of knowledge. Give the students enough time to answer Checking understanding – make sure that the pitch and pace of the session is right Using visual aids – it is worth taking time to find these, and using flip charts and OHPs wherever possible Setting homework – vital to promote life-long learning, but check learning objectives and learning strategy are reasonable and ask students to present their work Summarising and closing a session –don’t give new information, and remind students about next week’s topic Q2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate? (A) Teachers can teach. (B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn. (C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking. (D) Teachers are born. Answer: B Teacher does not play only a information mongering role in the classroom but www.examsplanner.in to instill and infuse the inspiration in the students in order to bring desirable changes in future and make him an ideal citizen Q3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was: (A) Megasthanese (B) Fahiyan (C) Huan Tsang (D) Kalhan Answer: D Kalhan as a historian: Kalhan is an important historian in Indian history. The 12th century A.D.Kashmiri poet, Kalhan, wrote "Rajtarangini" - the river of kings. Which has been of great value for the study of the history of Kashmir. This history of his native land is in verse and the language is Sanskrit. Out of the Sanskrit writings, Rajtarangini is one of the foremost historical writing. Q4. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum. (B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum. (C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a rticular university. (D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a rticular university. Answer: A Curriculum is wider term consisting academic and non-academic part of all activities within the school premises. The syllabus belongs to only its academic part pertaining to C/R teaching-learning process. Syllabus is the document that contains all the portion of the concepts covered in a subject. Curriculum is the overall content, taught in an educational system or a course. Syllabus is a Greek term. While Curriculum is a Latin term. Syllabus is Set for A subject while Curriculum A course. Syllabus is Descriptive while Curriculum is Prescriptive. Syllabus Scope is Narrow while Curriculum scope is Wide. Syllabus Set out by Exam board while Curriculum set out by Government or the administration of school, college or institute. Syllabus Term is a fixed term, normally a year while Curriculum term is Till the course lasts. Syllabus Varies from teacher to teacher while Curriculum Same for all www.examsplanner.in teachers. Q5. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding? (I) Define noun. (II) Define noun in your own words. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II Answer: B Human cognition is having 3 levels of thinking process viz. Memory Level ; Understanding Level; and Reflective Level. Among these, Memory level is related to Recall and Recognition of the concept but its higher level is associated with ASSIMILATION and ABSORPTION of the content hence the option 2 is reflects the understanding level in clare terms. Q6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society? (I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge. (II) to discover new things. (III) to write a critique on the earlier writings. (IV) to systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources with objectivity. (A) IV, II and I (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) II, III and IV Answer: A Option 1 is most suitable because in modern society, the research has 3 basic roles. 1) The students whether in pure sciences/social sciences have been trained in scientific methodology in order to keep/develop the adequate tentiality of scientific Attitude towards life, man and society. That's why a realistic training has been imparted in Labs/Fieldwork/Through preparation of reports. 2) It is an era of vertical progress in science and only the person having scientific bent of mind may find himself more interactive/manipulative in the ongoing society. 3) The task of research is also to satisfy timeless inquisitiveness of human mind. Therefore, it is also having discovery oriented apporach www.examsplanner.in Q7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given below: List – I (Interviews) List - II (Meaning) (a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach (b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be answered (c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience (d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question (v) non-directive Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i) (D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) Answer: A Because : 1) Structured interview is having everything preplanned in advanced like- interviewer plan, Time, No of questions to be asked etc. 2) Unstructured interview as its name suggest and just opposite to above have full fledged flexibility on the part of interviewer like-Place. Tim, open/closed ended Questions on limited to formal talks. 3) Focused interview in some-what detective type conversation to arrive at some definite conclusion related to taboos/problems/performances etc. 4) Clinical interview is conducted for diagnosing problems whether in conscious/unconscious state of human mind in order to provide some sort of remedial programme. Q8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research? (A) To bring out holistic approach to research. (B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain. (C) To over simplify the problem of research. (D) To create a new trend in research methodology. Answer: A Inter-disciplinary approach of research is the latest innovation in the field and www.examsplanner.in b lieves that the elements of scientific phenomenon must be dealt in integrated form instead of disintegrated form to bring out the concept in its HOLISTIC int of view. For example, Student school problems may be surveyed by a team of researchers to dig out its depth like an Educationist, Class-room teacher, Doctor Clinical Psychologist, Counselor, Guidance worker. It gives a detailed mapping plan of all the difficulties lying with the students simultaneously. Q9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to: (A) improve data interpretation (B) eliminate spurious relations (C) confirm triangulation (D) introduce new variables Answer: B aims of the scientific method in research is: Observe and Describe Predict Determination of the Causes Explain The aims of research can then be fine- tuned, or may serve to open up new areas of interest. Either way, the store of human knowledge has been enriched and increased. Q10. The depth of any research can be judged by: (A) title of the research. (B) objectives of the research. (C) total expenditure on the research. (D) duration of the research. Answer: B ad the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15: he superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed fro is office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage www.examsplanner.in after his appointment. In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owe b the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission. Q11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions: (A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged. (B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics. (C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates. (D) This would ensure fair and free elections. Answer: D Q12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No. : (A) 324 (B) 356 (C) 246 (D) 161 Answer: A Q13. Independence of the Commission means: (A) have a constitutional status. (B) have legislative powers. (C) have judicial powers. (D) have political powers. Answer: A Q14. Fair and free election means: (A) transparency (B) to maintain law and order (C) regional considerations (D) role for pressure groups Answer: B Q15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article : (A) 125 (B) 352 (C) 226 (D) 324 www.examsplanner.in Answer: D Q16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as: (A) content supply (B) surveillance (C) gratification (D) correlation Answer: A The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the ocesses, issues, events and societal developments is known as Content supply Q17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as: (A) cybernetics (B) reverse communication (C) selectivity study (D) response analysis Answer: A Cybernetics is the study of communication and control processes in living organisms and machines. Cybernetics analyzes the ability of humans, animals, and some machines to respond to or make adjustments based upon input from the environment. This process of response or adjustment is called feedback or automatic control. Feedback helps people and machines control their actions telling them whether they are proceeding in the right direction. Q18. Networked media exist in inter-connected: (A) social environments (B) economic environments (C) political environments (D) technological environments Answer: D External factors in technology that impact business operations. Changes in technology affect how a company will do business. A business may have to dramatically change their operating strategy as a result of changes in the technological environment. Q19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as: (A) online communication (B) integrated media www.examsplanner.in (C) digital combine (D) convergence Answer: D Technological convergence is the tendency that as technology changes, different technological systems sometimes evolve toward performing similar tasks. Digital convergence refers to the convergence of four industries into one conglomerate, ITTCE (Information Technologies, Telecommunication, Consumer Electronics, and Entertainment). Telecommunications convergence, network convergence or simply convergence are broad terms used to describe emerging telecommunications technologies, and network architecture used to migrate multiple communications services into a single network. Specifically this involves the converging of previously distinct media such as telephony and data communications into common interfaces on single devices, such as most smart ones can make phone calls and search the web. Q20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as: (A) man-machine speak (B) binary chat (C) digital talk (D) interactivity Answer: D In computers, interactivity is the dialog that occurs between a human being (or ssibly another live creature) and a computer program. (Programs that run without immediate user involvement are not interactive; they're usually called tch or background programs.) Games are usually thought of as fostering a great amount of interactivity. However, order entry applications and many other business applications are also interactive, but in a more constrained way (offering fewer options for user interaction). Q21. Insert the missing number: 16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34, ? (A) 19/35 (B) 19/30 (C) 18/35 (D) 18/30 Answer: D 16/32 then 15/33 means -1/+1, www.examsplanner.in 17/31 means +2/-2, 14/34 means -3/+3 next +4/-4 i.e 18/30 Q22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November 1994? (A) Thursday (B) Sunday (C) Tuesday (D) Saturday Answer: A Form 3rd November to 30 November no of days = 28 1st Dec to 31st December no of days = 31 1st Jan to 31st Jan no of days = 31 1st feb to 28 feb no of days = 28 1st march to 20 March no of days = 20 Total no of days 28 + 31+ 31 + 28 + 20 = 138 Therefore, 138 divide by 7 remaining 5 i.e 5 days back form 1) Monday 2) Sunday, 3) Saturday, 4) Friday, 5) Thursday, Q23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is: (A) 36 (B) 32 (C) 30 (D) 28 Answer: C Four consecutive even number = x, x+2,x+4,x+6. According to question, x+x+2x+4x+6/4=27. 4x+12/4 = 27 4x =108 - 12=96. x=96/4=24. Hence , The largest number =x+4= 24+6=30. The numbers are 24, 26 28, and 30 , which addition is 108 which average is 27, So biggest is 30 Q24. In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code? (A) VNLDM (B) FHQKN (C) XPNFO (D) VLNDM Answer: A www.examsplanner.in Decode the CODE with next Alphabet of Code. i.e A with B, B with C. Q25. At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions? (A) 45 min. past 4 (B) 40 min. past 4 4 6 (C) 50 /11 min. past 4 (D) 54 /11 min. past 4 Answer: D Q26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below? Statement: Most teachers are hard working. Conclusions: (I) Some teachers are hard working. (II) Some teachers are not hard working. (A) Only (I) is implied (B) Only (II) is implied (C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied Answer: C Q27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament? (A) Any MLA (B) Chief of Army Staff (C) Solicitor General of India (D) Mayor of Delhi Answer: C The Solicitor General of India is subordinate to the Attorney General for India, who is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. The Solicitor General of India is appointed for the riod of 3 years. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary law officer of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitors General of India. Ranjit Kumar is the present Solicitor General who was appointed so on 6 June 2014. Like the Attorney General for India, the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General advise the Government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law www.examsplanner.in Officers (Terms and Conditions) Rules, 1972. However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory. Q28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below? Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence. Conclusions: (I) Some Indian States existed before independence. (II) All Indian States did not exist before independence. (A) only (I) is implied (B) only (II) is implied (C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied Answer: B Q29. Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it: (A) reduces the shear strength of rocks (B) increases the weight of the overburden (C) enhances chemical weathering (D) is a universal solvent Answer: B A landslide is a geological phenomenon that includes a wide range of ground movements. Rockfalls, deep failure of slopes and shallow debris flows were common. Landslides can occur in offshore, coastal and onshore environments. tural causes of landslides include: 1) Groundwater (pore water) pressure acting to destabilize the slope 2) Loss or absence of vertical vegetative structure, soil nutrients, and soil structure. 3) Erosion of the toe of a slope by rivers or ocean waves weakening of a slope through saturation by snow melt, glaciers melting, or heavy rains. 4) earthquakes adding loads to barely stable slope earthquake-caused liquefaction destabilizing slopes 5) volcanic eruptions www.examsplanner.in 6) Landslides are aggravated by human activities, such as deforestation, cultivation and construction, which destabilize the already fragile slopes. 7) vibrations from machinery or traffic. 8) blasting Q30. Direction for this question: Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion : Statements: (a) all businessmen are wealthy. (b) all wealthy people are hard working. Conclusions: (i) All businessmen are hard working. (ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy (A) Only (i) follows (B) Only (ii) follows (C) Only (i) and (ii) follows (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows Answer: A Q31. Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called: (A) cyberventing (B) cyber ranting (C) web hate (D) web plea Answer: A Q32. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant information is termed: (A) poor recall (B) web crawl (C) poor precision rate (D) poor web response Answer: A Q33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from: (A) virtual reality (B) fuzzy logic (C) bluetooth technology (D) value added networks www.examsplanner.in Answer: D Q34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet appliance is called: (A) voice net (B) voice telephone (C) voice line (D) voice portal Answer: C Q35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed live casting is called: (A) virtual video (B) direct broadcast (C) video shift (D) real-time video Answer: D Q36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India? (A) Tripura (B) Meghalaya (C) Mizoram (D) Manipur Answer: A The Seven Sister states are the contiguous states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura in northeastern India. TRIPURA: A SMALL STATE OF NORTH-EAST INDIA Tripura, in northeastern India is the third smallest state, after Sikkim and Goa. Tripura was ruled by kings of the Manikya dynasty until 1949 when it became rt of the Indian Union Area : 10,491 Sq.Km. Meghalaya -----> 22,429 Sq.Km Manipur ---------> 22,327 Sq.Km Mizoram -------> 21,087 Sq.Km Q37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to: (A) high evaporation (B) sea water flooding due to tsunami (C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells (D) seepage of sea water Answer: D With increasing exploitation of ground water, seepage of seawater into the www.examsplanner.in earth takes place, reducing sea water level. Coastal environment plays a vital role in nation's economy by virtue of the resources, productive habitats and rich biodiversity. India has a coastline of about 7,500 kms. The coastline of Tamil Nadu has a length of about 1076 kms constitutes about 15% of the total coastal length of India and stretches along the Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea. Q38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers: (A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys (B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west (C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west (D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east Answer: A In the Deccan region, most of the major river systems flowing generally in east direction fall into Bay of Bengal. The major east flowing rivers are Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Mahanadi, etc. Narmada and Tapti are major West flowing rivers. Q39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of: (A) erosion of top soils by annual floods (B) inundation of land by sea water (C) traditional agriculture practices (D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland Answer: A The Mahanadi was notorious for its devastating floods for much of recorded history. Thus it was called 'the sorrow of Orissa'. However the construction of the Hirakud Dam has greatly altered the situation. The Godavari is the second longest river in India after the river Ganges. The frequent drying up of the Godavari river in the drier months has been a matter of great concern. Indiscriminate damming along the river has been cited as an obvious reason. Q40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India? www.examsplanner.in (A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi (B) Mythic Society, Bangalore (C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi (D) India International Centre, New Delhi Answer: C The MHRD is responsible for the development of human resources. The ministry is divided into two departments: the Department of School Education and Literacy, which deals with primary and secondary education, adult education and literacy, and the Department of Higher Education, which deals with university education, technical education, scholarship etc. The erst while Ministry of Education now functions under these two departments, as of 26 September 1985. National Bal Bhavan is an institution which aims at enhancing the creative potential of children by providing them various activities, opportunities and common platform to interact, experiment, create and perform according to their age, aptitude and ability. It offers a barrier-free environment with immense possibilities of innovation, minus any stress or strain, it caters to children between the age group of 5 to 16 years. Bal Bhavan is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD). Q41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Answer: A Q42. 'SITE' stands for: (A) System for International technology and Engineering (B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (C) South Indian Trade Estate (D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering Answer: B SITE : Satellite Instructional Television Experiment ( Indian Space Research Organisation). The SITE was an experimental satellite communications project www.examsplanner.in launched in India in 1975, designed jointly by NASA and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The project made available informational television programmes to rural India. The main objectives of the experiment were to educate the poor people of India on various issues via satellite oadcasting, and also to help India gain technical experience in the field of satellite communications. The experiment ran for one year from 1 August 1975 to 31 July 1976, covering more than 2400 villages in 20 districts of six Indian states and territories. (Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan) Q43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for 'Conducting Research at Antarctic? (A) Dakshin Gangotri (B) Yamunotri (C) Uttari Gangotri (D) None of the above Answer: A The Indian Antarctic Program is a multi-disciplinary, multi-institutional ogram under the control of the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India. It was initiated in 1981 with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica. The program gained global acceptance with India's signing of the Antarctic Treaty and subsequent construction of the Dakshin Gangotri Antarctic research base in 1983, superseded by the Maitri base from 1990. Under the program, atmospheric, ological, earth, chemical, and medical sciences are studied by India, which has carried out 30 scientific expeditions to the Antarctic as of 14 October 2010 and is currently planning to build an additional research station in the region named Bharati and thus India is all set to join the elite group of nine countries which have multiple bases in Antarctica. Q44. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes: (A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy (B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education (C) Department of Women and Child Development (D) All the above Answer: D The Ministry of Human Resource Development is responsible for the development of human resources. www.examsplanner.in The ministry is divided into two departments: the Department of School Education and Literacy, which deals with primary and secondary education, adult education and literacy, and the Department of Higher Education, which deals with university education, technical education, scholarship etc. The erstwhile Ministry of Education now functions under these two departments, as of 26 September 1985. The ministry is headed by the cabinet- ranked Minister of HRD, a member of the Council of Ministers. The department is divided into eight bureaus, and most the work of the department is handled through over 100 autonomous organisations under the these bureaus. University and Higher Education; Minorities Education, UGC, Education Research and Development Organisation (ERDO) Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (IIAS), Shimla Technical Education All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) Council of Architecture (COA) 4 Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs) (Allahabad, Gwalior, Jabalpur and Kancheepuram) 3 School of Planning and Architecture (SPAs) 16 Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) 5 Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research (IISERs) 13 Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs) 30 tional Institutes of Technology (NITs) Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering and Technology North Eastern Regional Institute of Science and Technology (NERIST) tional Institute of Industrial Engineering (NITIE) 4 National Institutes of Technical Teachers? Training & Research (NITTTRs) Q45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list: (A) With the prior permission of the President. (B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably. (C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures. (D) At the request of two or more States. Answer: D If the legislatures of two or more States pass a resolution to the effect that it is desirable to have a parliamentary law in any matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make law for those States (Article 252). www.examsplanner.in The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various ports during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question N mber 46 to 50. Q46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is: (A) 1:15 (B) 1:1 (C) 15:1 (D) 3:20 Answer: B Total expenditure on football is 15% Total expenditure on Hocky is 15 % Therefore, The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is 15 % : 15 % i.e 1:1 Q47. If the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how much was spent on basket ball? (A) Rs. 9,50,000 (B) Rs. 10,00,000 (C) Rs. 12,00,000 (D) Rs. 15,00,000 Answer: D Total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 i.e 100 5 total expenditure on Basket Ball is 12.5 % i.e 12.5 % of 1,20,000,00 = 1,20,000,00 * 12.5 /100 = 15,00,000 Q48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is : (A) Hockey (B) Football (C) Cricket (D) Tennis Answer: C Cricket 25 %, Football 15 %, Hockey 15 %, Golf 12.5 %, Basket Ball 12.5 %, Tennis 10 % and other 10 %. www.examsplanner.in Q49. Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on : (A) Hockey and Tennis (B) Golf and Basket ball (C) Cricket and Football (D) Hockey and Golf Answer: B Cricket 25 %, Football 15 %, Hockey 15 %, Golf 12.5 %, Basket Ball 12.5 %, Tennis 10 % and other 10 %. Q50. If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket and hockey together was: (A) Rs. 60,00,000 (B) Rs. 50,00,000 (C) Rs. 37,50,000 (D) Rs. 25,00,000 Answer: A If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000. The expenditure on cricket is 25 % i.e 1,50,00,000 * 25 /100 = 3750000. The expenditure on Hockey is 15 % i.e 1,50,00,000 * 15 /100 = 2250000. Total Expenture on Cricket and Hockey = 3750000 + 2250000 = 6000000. www.examsplanner.in 4. Paper - I December - 2006 Q1. Which of the following is not instructional material ? (A) Over Head Projector (B) Audio Casset (C) Printed Material (D) Transparency Answer: A "Instructional material" means content that conveys the essential knowledge and skills of a subject in the public school curriculum through a medium or a combination of media for conveying information to a student. The term includes abook, supplementary materials, a combination of a book, workbook, and supplementary materials, computer software, magnetic media, DVD, CD-ROM, computer courseware, on-line services, or an electronic medium, or other means of conveying information to the student or otherwise contributing to the learning process through electronic means, including open-source instructional material. Q2. Which of the following statement is not correct ? (A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning (B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge (C) Lecture Method is one way process (D) During Lecture Method students are passive Answer: A Q3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is : (A) To prepare students to pass examination (B) To develop the capacity to take decisions (C) To give new information (D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture Answer: B Q4. Which of the following statement is correct ? (A) Reliability ensures validity www.examsplanner.in (B) Validity ensures reliability (C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other (D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity Answer: B These two terms, reliability and validity, are often used interchangeably when they are not related to statistics. When critical readers of statistics use these terms, however, they refer to different properties of the statistical or experimental method. Reliability is another term for consistency. If one person takes the same rsonality test several times and always receives the same results, the test is reliable. A test is valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure. If the results of the rsonality test claimed that a very shy person was in fact outgoing, the test would be invalid. Reliability and validity are independent of each other. A measurement maybe valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. Suppose your bathroom scale was reset to read 10 pound lighter. The weight it reads will be reliable(the same every time you step on it) but will not be valid, since it is not reading your actual weight. Q5. Which of the following indicates evaluation ? (A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200 (B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English (C) Shyam got First Division in final examination (D) All the above Answer: D Q6. Research can be conducted by a person who : (A) has studied research methodology (B) holds a postgraduate degree (C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability (D) is a hard worker Answer: A Q7. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis www.examsplanner.in (B) Researcher must possess analytical ability (C) Variability is the source of problem (D) All the above Answer: D Q8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ? (A) Observation (B) Historical (C) Survey (D) Philosophical Answer: A There are two types of research which can be done to develop a thesis or dissertation: Practical Research: The practical approach consists of the empirical study of the topic under research and chiefly consists of hands on approach. This involves first hand research in the form of questionnaires, surveys, interviews, observations and discussion groups. Theoretical Research: A non empirical approach to research, this usually involves perusal of mostly published works like researching through archives of public libraries, court rooms and published academic journals Q9. Research can be classified as : (A) Basic, Applied and Action Research (B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research (C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research (D) All the above Answer: D Classification of Research by Purpose - Basic v/s Applied research - Research and development - Evaluative research Classification of Research by Method - Historical research - Descriptive research - Experimental research Q10. The first step of research is : (A) Selecting a problem (B) Searching a problem (C) Finding a problem (D) Identifying a problem Answer: B Steps in conducting research Research is often conducted using the hourglass model structure of research. www.examsplanner.in The hourglass model starts with a broad spectrum for research, focusing in on the required information through the method of the project, then expands the research in the form of discussion and results. The major steps in conducting research are: Identification of research problem Literature review Specifying the purpose of research Determine specific research questions Specification of a Conceptual framework - Usually a set of hypotheses Choice of a methodology (for data collection) Data collection Verify Data Analyzing and interpreting the data Reporting and evaluating research Communicating the research findings and, possibly, recommendations ad the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 : fter almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels o ncreasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India an tself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies b p emier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham an isham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls : as a nation, who are we ? As a ople, where are we going ? The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can bes apture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen i amhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set i 986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the Englis oman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboar haracterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, t an honourable friend. This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference : there is culture, no www.examsplanner.in contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs : no dooriyan (distance), onl azdeekiyan (closeness). All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less o boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name : Veer Pratap Singh i eer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, bu ften a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical dy type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha. Q11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ? (A) Bling + bling (B) Zeitgeist (C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan Answer: B Q12. Who made Lamhe in 1991 ? (A) Subhash Ghai (B) Yash Chopra (C) Aditya Chopra (D) Sakti Samanta Answer: B Q13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ? (A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna (C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti Answer: D Q14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ? (A) Deewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi (C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara Answer: D Q15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ? (A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes (B) Traditional Bengali Clothes (C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes (D) Traditional Madrasi Clothes Answer: C www.examsplanner.in Q16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication ? (A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room. (B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange. (C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother. (D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application. Answer: C Verbal communication Effective verbal or spoken communication is dependent on a number of factors and cannot be fully isolated from other important interpersonal skills such as non-verbal communication, listening skills and clarification. Human language can be defined as a system of symbols and the grammars (rules) by which the symbols are manipulated. The word "language" also refers to common properties of languages. Language learning normally occurs most intensively during human childhood. The communication is two way process instead of one way. Q17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ? (A) Zee News (B) NDTV 24×7 (C) CNBC (D) India News Answer: C CNBC Awaaz is a Hindi business news TV channel in India. The channel is a int venture between CNBC and Television Eighteen India Limited (TV18) sed in New Delhi. In 2003, they launched two 24-hour news channels NDT 4x7 in English and NDTV India in Hindi. Later they also launched NDTV Profit, a 24-hour business news channel in 2005, which became close to nkruptcy. Q18. Consider the following statements in communication : (i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India. (ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India. (iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation. (iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of www.examsplanner.in Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iv) only (D) (iii) only Answer: No option is correct Communication is the purposeful activity of information exchange between two or more participants in order to convey or receive the intended meanings through a shared system of signs and semiotic rules. The basic steps of communication are the forming of communicative intent, message composition, message encoding, transmission of signal, reception of signal, message decoding and finally interpretation of the message by the recipient. Explanation: Children's Film Society of India (CFSI) is a nodal organization o overnment of India that produces children's films and various TV programs in various Indian languages. Established in 1955, CFSI functions comes under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India and is headquartered in Mumbai. Veteran actor Mukesh Khanna is the presen hairperson (check who is now) of the CFSI. Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) (often referred to as the Censo oard) headquarters at Mumbai is a Statutory body under Ministry o nformation and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibite n India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Fil ertification. Film producer Pahlaj Nihalani is the present chairperson (chec ho is now) of the CBFC. National Film Development Corporation of India (NFDC) based in Mumbai is the central agency established to encourage the good cinema movement i he country. The primary goal of the NFDC is to plan, promote and organize a ntegrated and efficient development of the Indian film industry and foster excellence in cinema. The NFDC (and its predecessor the Film Finance Corporation) has so far funded / produced over 300 films. Q19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? (A) N. Ram : The Hindu (B) Barkha Dutt : Zee ws www.examsplanner.in (C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7 (D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak Answer: B Barkha Dutt is an Indian television journalist and columnist. She works as a consulting editor with NDTV. Dutt gained prominence for her reportage of the Kargil War. Q20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by : (A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu (C) Indian Express (D) Hindustan Times Answer: D The Times of India - Let the truth prevail. BUSINESS INDIA-The Magazine of the Corporate World. BUSINESS TODAY-For Managing Tomorrow. BUSINESS STANDARD-When you're Sure. CHIP-Intelligent Computing. DIGIT- Your Technology Navigator. BUSINESS WORLD - Play the Game. FILM FARE - Romancing the Stars The Indian EXPRESS- Journalism of Courage. THE ECONOMIC TIMES-The Power of Knowledge. THE ECONOMIST-great minds think a like. HINDUSTAN TIMES-The Name India trusts for News. THE DAILY TELEGRAPH- Read a Bestseller everyday MALAYALA MANORMA- Nobody delivers kerala better MATHRUBHUMI - The national daily in Malayalam SPORTSTAR - The Sportier Tabloid Q21. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is : (A) 26 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 32 Answer: C In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 8*3= 24, 12*3= 36, 18*3= 54, i.e multiple of 3. www.examsplanner.in Q22. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8 : (A) PLANE (B) MOPED (C) MOTOR (D) TONGA Answer: B If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then E=9, F=10, G=11, H=12, I=13, J=14, K=15, L=16, M=17, N=18, O=19, P=20. Therefore 17, 19 , 20, 9, 8 = M O P E D. Q23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship what is the right choice for the second set ? AST : BRU : : NQV : ? (A) ORW (B) MPU (C) MRW (D) OPW Answer: D AST : BRU : : NQV : ? The Relationship show that First letter DECODE with next alphabet, and second letter DECODE with the previous alphabets and so on. Therefore N --> O, Q --> P, and V --> W i.e OPW. Q24. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as: (A) 30 (B) 37 (C) 38 (D) 39 Answer: B According to the position number of alphabets A =1, P=16, T=20 Hence, PAT=16+1+20 = 37. Q25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2:1/3:1/4. If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of the smallest side is : (A) 9 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 11 cm (D) 12 cm Answer: D Explanation: www.examsplanner.in Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of a:b:c = 1/2:1/3:1/4 = 12/2 : 12/3 : 12/4 = 6:4:3 Let the lengths of three sides of the triangle be 6x, 4x, 3x Perimeter of the triangle = a+b+c ⇒ 52 cm = 6x + 4x + 3x x = 52/13 = 4 cm length of the smallest side = 3x = 3 x 4 = 12 cm Q26. Which one of the following statements is completely non- sensical ? (A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently. (B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently. (C) When he married, he was not a bachelor. (D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married. Answer: B Q27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory ? (i) All flowers are not fragrant. (ii) Most flowers are not fragrant. (iii) None of the flowers is fragrant. (iv) Most flowers are fragrant. Choose the correct answer from the code given below : Code : (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv) Answer: D Q28. Which of the following statements say the same thing ? (i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind) (ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod) (iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father) (iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister) (v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister) (vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy) Choose the correct answer from the code given below : www.examsplanner.in Code : (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (C) (ii) and (vi) (D) (v) and (vi) Answer: B Q29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing ? (i) There can be no second husband without a second wife. (ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj. (iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C. (iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it. Choose the correct answer from the code given below : Code : (A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Answer: A Q30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE ? (i) The sun will not rise in the East some day. (ii) A wooden table is not a table. (iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water. (iv) Cars run on water as fuel. Choose the correct answer from the code given below : Code : (A) (i), (iii) and (iv) (B) Only (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) alone Answer: D udy the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33 : www.examsplanner.in Q31. In the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum percent profit ? (A) a (B) b (C) d (D) f Answer: D Graph shows in year 2000 “f” company earned maximum percent profit i.e 60 %. Q32. In the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum percent profit ? (A) a (B) c (C) d (D) e Answer: A Graph shows in year 2001 “a” company earned mimimum percent profit i.e 40 %. Q33. In the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned maximum average percent profit ? (A) f (B) e (C) d (D) b Answer: A Graph shows in year 2000 and 2001 “f” company earned maximum average rcent profit i.e 60 + 65 =125/2 = 62.5 %. Q34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by: (A) UNDP (B) WTO www.examsplanner.in (C) IMF (D) World Bank Answer: A Explanation: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) headquartered i N w York is the United Nations' global development network. UNDP advocates for change and connects countries to knowledge, experience an esources to help people build a better life. It provides expert advice, training, and grant support to developing countries. The UNDP Human Development Report Office publishes an annual Huma evelopment Report to measure and analyse developmental progress. Q35. The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean marks obtained by each of the class are given below : Class A Class B Class C Class D Number of 10 40 30 20 students Arithmetic 20 30 50 15 mean The combined mean of the marks of four classes together will be : (A) 32 (B) 50 (C) 20 (D) 15 Answer: A Explanation: Formula to find Combined mean, X’ = (N1X1’ + N2X2’)/N1+N2 Here, Combined mean = (10x20 + 40x30 + 30x50 + 20x15)/(10+40+30+20) = 3200/100 = 32 Q36. LAN stands for : (A) Local And National (B) Local Area Network (C) Large Area Network (D) Live Area Network Answer: B Q37. Which of the following statement is correct ? (A) Modem is a software www.examsplanner.in (B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage (C) Modem is the operating system (D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa Answer: D Q38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ? (A) Computer is a machine that can process information. (B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately. (C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly ocess only quantitative data. (D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative information Answer: B Q39. Information and Communication Technology includes : (A) On line learning (B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT (C) Web Based Learning (D) All the above Answer: D Q40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e- mail ? (A) www_mail.com (B) [email protected] (C) [email protected] (D) www.mail.com Answer: B Q41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of : (A) change in weather (B) sinking of islands (C) loss of vegetation (D) extinction of animals Answer: A Eruptions are unstoppable, and a very large one is potentially long lasting (several days of intense explosive output from the volcano). Further, the effects are both immediate (widespread ash fall, pyroclastic flows) and also of www.examsplanner.in longer-duration (due atmospheric aerosols, re-sedimentation of fresh deposits lahar activity), persisting and presenting problems for years afterwards. In these ways, the hazards posed by explosive eruptions differ from those due to all other natural disasters. It will necessary to develop strategies to minimize and cope with the effects of future major eruptions. The economic cost of recovery from any future large-scale eruptions will be a major burden on society. Finally, as airborne ash and atmospheric sulphate aerosols will bring about the most widespread, long-lasting and generally hazardous effects of the next large explosive eruption, it will be essential to carry out further studies with global circulation atmospheric models to evaluate their potential effects on climate and weather, and other potential feedbacks with global environmental cycles. Some currently unanticipated consequences will surely found. Q42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be : (A) decrease in temperature (B) increase in salinity (C) growth of phytoplankton (D) rise in sea level Answer: C Phytoplankton are photosynthesizing microscopic organisms that inhabit the upper sunlit layer of almost all oceans and bodies of fresh water. They are agents for "primary production," the creation of organic compounds from carbon dioxide dissolved in the water, a process that sustains the aquatic food web. Phytoplankton obtain energy through the process of photosynthesis and must therefore live in the well-lit surface layer (termed the euphotic zone) of an ocean, sea, lake, or other body of water. Phytoplankton account for half of all photosynthetic activity on Earth. Their cumulative energy fixation in carbon compounds (primary production) is the basis for the vast majority of oceanic and also many freshwater food webs (chemosynthesis is a notable exception). The effects o

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