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This document is a quiz testing knowledge on management principles, including organizational structures, efficiency, and effectiveness. The quiz contains multiple-choice questions.
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CHAPTER I 1) In today's workplace, ________. A) women are more likely than men to be promoted into management B) many employees perform work that in the past was considered managerial activities C) women tend to be more e ective superv...
CHAPTER I 1) In today's workplace, ________. A) women are more likely than men to be promoted into management B) many employees perform work that in the past was considered managerial activities C) women tend to be more e ective supervisors than men D) most organizations have eliminated the title of manager 2) Because this is her rst job, Melanie was unclear about what managers actually do. Fortunately her training materials explained that a manager's job focuses on ________. A) performing clerical duties B) personal achievement C) helping others accomplish their work goals D) supervising groups rather than individual employees 3) An individual who works with and through other people by coordinating their work activities in order to accomplish organizational goals is ________. A) an assembly line worker B) a laborer C) a manager D) a salesperson 4) As part of the orientation for her internship, Rebecca was informed that ________ are the people who direct the activities of others in an organization. A) directors B) managers C) subordinates D) line workers 5) The organizational chart shows titles such as front-line manager, plant manager, and vice president of operations. It is very likely this organization has a ________. A) traditional committee structure B) traditional pyramid structure C) modern matrix structure D) exible structure 6) First-line managers are typically those who ________. A) perform the same work as the people they manage but earn more money B) are typically involved with producing the organization's products or providing its service C) are at the top of the organizational chart D) are the rst persons new hires meet 7) Supervisor ( nadzorca ) is another name for ________. A) team leader B) middle manager C) rst-line manager D) top manager 8) A ________ is an example of a rst-line manager. A) division manager B) store manager C) regional manager D) shift manager ( kierownik zmiany ) 9) Kelly, a production supervisor, is responsible for ten employees who assemble components into a nished product. Kelly is a ________. A) top manager fi fl fi fi fi ff fi B) nonmanagerial employee C) middle manager D) rst-line manager 10) Managers with titles such as regional manager, project leader, or division manager are ______. A) rst-line managers B) top managers C) production managers D) middle managers 11) Ben, a production plant manager, reports to Dan, a regional manager. Ben and Dan are______. A) top managers B) middle managers C) supervisors D) rst-line managers 12) ________ are responsible for making organization-wide decisions and establishing the plans and goals that a ect the entire organization. A) Middle managers B) Top managers C) Production managers D) Research managers 13) Tom is responsible for project managers who supervise others who perform manual work. He reports to a vice president on another continent. Tom is a ________. A) rst-line manager B) middle manager C) top manager D) nonmanager 14) ________ have titles such as executive vice president, chief operating o cer, and chief executive o cer. A) Supervisors B) Middle managers C) First-line managers D) Top managers 15) Kenneth is a vice president of operations. His position would be regarded as a ________. A) top manager B) supervisor C) middle manager D) rst-line manager 16) Blue Fin and ChrisCraft, two boat manufacturers, have merged. Top managers now must decide how the work will be divided and who will do what work in the merged rm. The pre-merger rms, and the merged rm, are each examples of ________. A) strategic partnerships B) coalitions C) organizations D) a nity groups 29) Time should be considered a(n) ________ resource. A) abundant B) diminishing C) limited D) renewable 30) One method to become more e cient in managing your time is to ________. A) classify each activity or task as A, B, or C fi fi fi fi fi ffi ffi fi ff fi ffi ffi fi B) schedule more in one day than you can reasonably expect to nish C) enlist the aid of a management coach to keep you on task D) shorten deadlines so you will be pressed to complete tasks early 31) Technology makes it easier to stay connected but ________. A) there is always the risk of security breaches and the theft of information necessary for good time management practices B) it raises expectations on the part of those to whom we are connected C) technology fails, batteries lose power, and their e ectiveness wanes D) it also presents constant distractions, making it di cult to stay on task 32) Andrew is reviewing next week's orders, scheduling orders to machines, and assigning employees to run those machines. Andrew is engaged in ________. A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) controlling 33) Donald's ability to complete activities e ciently and e ectively with and through other people is known as ________. A) management - e ciently and e ectively B) leadership C) entrepreneurship D) delegation 34) ________ involves ensuring that work activities are completed e ciently and e ectively by the people responsible for doing them. A) Leading B) Managing - e ciently and e ectively C) Planning D) Organizing 35) Which one of the following is an example of an e cient manufacturing technique? A) Reducing the amount of scrap created in the process of making a product. B) Increasing the amount of time to manufacture products. C) Increasing product reject rates. D) Meeting customers' rigorous demand 36) Wasting resources is considered to be an example of ________. A) ine cacy B) ine ableness C) ine ciency D) ine ectiveness 37) An automobile manufacturer increased the total number of cars produced while keeping the production costs the same. The manufacturer increased its ________. A) equity B) e ciency - efektywność C) e ectiveness D) e ort 38) Ellen's ability to produce the same amount of product with fewer personnel is a re ection of her ________. A) e ectiveness B) organizing skills C) leadership D) e ciency - efektywność 39) E ectiveness is associated with ________. ff ff ff ffi ffi ff ffi ff ff ffi ffi ffi ff ff ffi ff ffi ffi ff fi ffi ff fl A) reducing inventory B) decreasing production time C) doing the right things D) doing things right 40) Whereas ________ is concerned with the means of getting things done, ________ is concerned with the ends, or attainment of organizational goals. A) e ectiveness; e ciency B) e ciency; e ectiveness C) e ort; e ciency D) e ciency; experience 41) The fact that Eileen achieves her departmental goals is an indication of her ________ as a manager. A) leadership B) e ectiveness - skuteczność C) e ciency D) attention to detail 42) If your team quickly painted the wall but discovered afterward it was the wrong wall, your team would be ________. A) e cient but ine ective B) e cient and e ective C) e ective but ine cient D) neither e ective nor e cient 43) If Fiona accomplishes her projects with high-quality results, but takes more time than other managers in the process, as a manager she is ________. A) e cient, but ine ective B) a leader, but not a top manager C) project oriented, but not e ective D) e ective, but ine cient 44) More than a hundred years ago, Henri Fayol proposed that managers performed ve functions. They were ________. A) planning, organizing, directing, evaluating, and controlling B) organizing, directing, coordinating, evaluating, and controlling C) planning, organizing, directing, coordinating, and controlling D) planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling 45) Today, the basic management functions include ________. A) planning, organizing, commanding, and coordinating B) planning, organizing, coordinating, and controlling C) planning, organizing, directing, and controlling D) planning, organizing, leading, and controlling 46) Establishing strategies for achieving organizational goals is a part of the ________ function. A) leading B) coordinating C) planning D) organizing 47) When Gavin decides how many units of output his employees should produce, he is performing which of the following management functions? A) Controlling B) Leading C) Planning D) Organizing 48) Organizing includes ________. ff ffi ffi ffi ff ffi ff ffi ffi ff ff ffi ff ff ff ffi ff ffi ff ffi ffi ff fi A) setting organizational goals B) hiring organizational members C) motivating organizational members D) determining who does what tasks 49) The human resources manager is meeting with the production manager to write job descriptions and to decide how to group jobs for a new production line. These two are engaged in ________. A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) controlling 50) Two of Brent's subordinates have not been getting along, a situation that has now interfered with their productivity. When Brent meets with them to resolve the con ict, he is engaged in ________. A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) controlling 51) Motivating subordinates is primarily associated with the management function of ________. A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) directing 52) The ________ roles involve collecting, receiving, and disseminating information, according to Mintzberg's managerial roles. A) interpersonal B) informational C) technical D) decisional 53) When Fred tells the employees that he is sure they can ful ll the schedule because they are good and skilled employees, he is performing which of the following management functions? A) Controlling B) Leading C) Negotiating D) Delegating 54) When Brandi is sharing with her team members the information she received at this morning's production meeting, she is performing the Mintzberg role of ________. A) liaison B) monitor C) entrepreneur D) disseminator 55) The process of monitoring, comparing, and correcting is called ________. A) controlling B) planning C) leading D) evaluating 56) When Joe checks the amount of output that the employees have completed and the number of units that have been rejected, he is performing which of the following management functions? A) Controlling B) Leading C) Evaluating fi fl D) Monitoring 57) ________ developed a categorization scheme for de ning what managers do, consisting of ten di erent but highly interrelated roles. A) Henri Fayol B) Abraham Maslow C) Henry Mintzberg D) Peter Drucker 58) According to Mintzberg's managerial roles, the ________ roles are ones that involve people and other duties that are ceremonial and symbolic in nature. A) informational B) interpersonal C) technical D) decisional 59) When the mayor o ciates at the ribbon-cutting ceremony for the new bridge, he is performing one of Mintzberg's ________ roles. A) interpersonal B) informational C) decisional D) organizing 60) The ________ role (as Mintzberg de ned it) is more important for lower-level managers than it is for either middle- or top-level managers. A) leader B) gurehead C) negotiator D) disseminator 61) Mark is vice president of nance. At his level of management, he is more likely to use the role of ________ than ________. A) leader; disseminator B) spokesperson; negotiator C) gurehead; liaison D) disseminator; leader - Dystrybutor than lider 62) Connie has an idea for a new product she would like to produce and market. Mintzberg would consider the activities necessary to form and launch her company to be part of the ________ role. A) planning B) resource allocator C) negotiator D) entrepreneur - przedsiębiorca 63) Technical skills include ________. A) experience gained by experiments that are used in performing managerial tasks B) job speci c knowledge needed to pro ciently perform work tasks C) the ability to work well with individuals and groups D) skills managers use to think and to conceptualize about abstract and complex situations 64) One of Calvin's employees is having problems with a production machine so Calvin helps him troubleshoot the problem. Calvin is using his ________ skills. A) negotiator B) technical C) interpersonal D) conceptual 65) ________ skills tend to be more important for rst-line managers since they manage ff fi fi fi ffi fi fi fi fi fi employees who produce the organization's product or service the organization's customers. A) Human B) Technical C) Conceptual D) Empirical 66) When Paul manages the employees who produce the product, he is utilizing his ________. A) conceptual skills B) disseminator skills C) technical skills D) interpersonal skills 67) Understanding machine operating instructions would be considered a(n) ________ skill for a production manager. A) interpersonal B) technical C) conceptual D) empirical 68) ________ skills involve the ability to work well with other people, both individually and in a group. A) Technical B) Assessment C) Planning D) Interpersonal 69) When Michael meets with the human resources manager to discuss a complaint led by one of the employees in the production department, he requires which of the following managerial skills? A) Conceptual skills B) Interpersonal skills C) Negotiator skills D) Disturbance handler skills 70) When Sam Walton visited his Walmart stores, he would often lead the employees in cheers and give inspiring speeches. Sam knew the importance of ________ skills. A) decisional B) technical C) interpersonal D) conceptual 71) Ralph's search for new technologies that can be used in the production processes of his plant is an example of which type of management skill? A) Conceptual - he’s trying to nd a new way B) Communication C) E ectiveness D) Monitor 72) Which one of the following is true concerning the three managerial skills? A) Technical skills tend to be most important for middle-level managers. B) Conceptual skills are most important for lower-level managers. C) Interpersonal skills remain equally important to all levels of management. D) Technical skills increase and conceptual skills decrease in importance as a manager climbs the organizational chart ff fi fi 73) Because Sterling is a shift manager, ________. * shift manager - kierownik zmiany A) his technical skills are of the utmost priority - najwyższy priorytet B) his conceptual skills are of the utmost priority C) his interpersonal skills are not important D) he need not have any empirical skills 74) Terry has recently been promoted from shift manager to department manager. As a result, ________. A) his empirical skills are going to be most important B) the importance of his technical skills is reduced C) his conceptual skills are going to take the priority D) the importance of his interpersonal skills is reduced 75) The CEO of MindWerks must understand the industry in which his business competes, the future of that industry, and the competition. This requires strong ________ skills. A) technical B) interpersonal C) conceptual D) controlling 76) Ethan is the president of his organization. Therefore, ________. A) he should be very sound in his technical skills B) he can manage with limited nancial skills C) conceptual skills are the most important skills that Ethan requires D) his interpersonal skills are not important 77) Managers with good ________ skills know how to communicate, motivate and lead to get the best out of their people. A) interpersonal B) conceptual C) technical D) empirical 78) Conceptual skills involve ________. A) managing employees who use tools to produce the organization's products B) communicating with customers C) thinking about abstract and complex situations D) inspiring enthusiasm and trust among employees 95) Examples of new technologies that are changing the way managers work include;________. A) cloud computing B) arti cial intelligence C) robotics D) all of these 96) Disruptive innovations; ________. A) are always bene cial B) rarely occur in today's world C) have little impact on managers D) can make a product obsolete - przestarzały 97) Social media is a communications tool which should be ________. A) used to publish one-way messages from managers to employees B) banned from the workplace C) limited only to top managers D) used to foster cooperation and collaboration 98) Which of these examples that a manager might encounter deals with ethical issues? A) A bank increases consumer interest rates when market interest rates go up. B) An employee is terminated for poor performance. fi fi fi C) Product sales increase by 50% due to strong consumer demand. D) A major drug company increases prices by 300% to increase pro ts. 99) Today's manager must deal with a host of new challenges that include ________. A) how to organize operations B) greater political uncertainty - większa niepewność polityczna C) sta ng and employee issues D) increasing production e ciency 109) Management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations, at all organizational levels and in all organizational work areas, and in all organizations, no matter where they are located. This principle is known as the ________. A) impartiality of management B) neutrality of management C) universality of management D) reality of management 110) Which one of the following represents one of the challenges of management? A) Creating an environment in which organizational members can do their best work. B) Helping others nd meaning and ful llment in their work. C) In uencing organizational outcomes. D) Having to deal with a variety of personalities. 111) Which one of the following represents one reward of being a manager? A) Operating with limited resources. B) Receiving recognition in the organization. - zdobycie uznania w organizacji C) Motivating workers in chaotic situations. D) Performing duties that are more clerical than managerial 112) The universality of management means that ________. A) all managers in all organizations perform the four management functions B) all managers in all organizations perform the same quantity of managerial functions C) all managers in all organizations perform managerial functions in similar ways D) any manager can work in any organization and perform any management function 117) E ectively dealing with organizational politics helps you ________ A) develop powerful allies - zdobyć potężnych sojuszników B) get promoted despite quali cations C) nd ways to work less D) get better performance evaluations CHAPTER II 1) A problem can best be described as ________. A) a change from the past B) something bad that has happened C) a di erence between current conditions and some desired state D) a loss of something of value 2) Which of the following statements is true concerning problem identi cation? A) Problems are generally obvious. B) A symptom and a problem are one and the same. C) Generally, what is a problem for one manager is a problem for all other managers. fi fl ffi ff ff fi ffi fi fi fi fi D) E ectively identifying problems is not easy. 3) Sales of the high-end units have declined.( zostały odrzucone ) The owners want Arnold, the CEO, to increase revenues to previous levels. His rst action should be ________. A) to identify previous sales levels B) to determine why sales are o C) to compare costs for three new models under development D) to immediately begin production on the lowest cost model 4) Ridership on the city's public transportation buses has fallen for three weeks in a row. This is ________. A) a problem B) a symptom C) neither a problem nor a symptom D) a condition, but we need more information to determine whether it is a problem or a symptom 5) After identifying a problem, the next step in the decision-making process is ________. A) identifying decision criteria B) allocating weights to decision criteria C) analyzing alternatives D) developing alternatives 6) To determine the ________, a manager must determine what is relevant or important to resolving a problem. A) bounded rationality of a decision B) escalation of commitment C) cost of implementation D) decision criteria 7) Belinda wants to introduce a new model to the product line. Three models are being developed. Belinda can choose only one. She has decided to focus on target market size, production costs, and net pro ts. These are Belinda's ________. A) alternatives B) criterion weights C) decision criteria D) problems 10) After identifying the decision criteria that are important or relevant to resolving a problem, the next step in the decision-making process is ________. A) allocating weights to the criteria B) analyzing the alternatives to solving the problem C) reducing the number of criteria through the process of elimination D) implementing the alternative 12) Creativity is most essential in which of the following steps of the decision-making process? A) Analyzing alternatives B) Allocating weights to the decision criteria C) Developing alternatives D) Identifying decision criteria 13) Carla is searching the Internet for sources of Himalayan salt to make bath salts. Carla is at the ________ step in the decision making process. A) identify-the-problem B) identify-decision-criteria C) allocate-weights D) develop-alternatives 15) Carla has identi ed several possible sources for Himalayan salt to make her bath salts. Now ff fi fi f fi she is comparing their prices, quality, and delivery times. At what step is she in the decision-making process? A) Develop alternatives B) Analyze alternatives C) Select an alternative D) Implement the alternative 16) Carla discovered that the supplier with the highest quality also had the longest lead time. The supplier with the best lead time had the highest price. To help Carla make her decision, she should _______. A) order a small quantity from each supplier for comparison B) rely on customer reviews to guide her decision C) multiply her ratings for each criteria by the weight for the criteria then sum the scores D) check with the Better Business Bureau for customer complaints 17) After Abby listened to the weather report this morning before work, she drove her car and carried an umbrella instead of riding her motorcycle. Whether she realizes it or not, Abby_______. A) analyzed criteria B) implemented a decision C) assigned weights to criteria D) evaluated a decision 18) In the decision-making process, while ________, the decision maker puts the decision into action by conveying it to those a ected by it and getting their commitment to it. A) selecting an alternative B) evaluating a decision's e ectiveness C) implementing an alternative D) analyzing alternatives 19) Which of the following is important in e ectively implementing the chosen alternative in the decision-making process? A) Evaluating each alternative by using the established criteria. B) Being creative while implementing the alternatives. C) Allowing those impacted by the outcome to participate in the process. D) Ignoring criticism concerning your chosen alternative. 20) Before actually putting the decision into action, the decision-maker may nd it prudent to ______. A) develop the method of evaluating whether the decision is a good one B) notify upper management that change is coming so they won't be blindsided C) alert external stakeholders that the problem has been solved D) check to make sure the conditions that existed at the time of the decision still exist, and make sure the decision is still the best one 21) The nal step in the decision-making process is to ________. A) determine the criteria for the next decision B) analyze the process of allocating weights to the decision criteria C) evaluate the outcome of the decision D) implement the chosen alternative 22) Joe's team implemented one of the ideas to avoid crane crashes. It is important for the team to evaluate the results because ________. A) the team was not sure their idea would work B) the team wants to impress the plant manager C) results may vary from expectations D) another crane crash could cost the team their jobs 29) Managers are assumed to use ________ if they make logical and consistent choices to maximize value. fi ff ff ff fi A) rational decision making B) intuitive decision making C) bounded rationality D) evidence-based management 30) Dylan must choose among four candidates to ll his open accounting clerk position. If Dylan uses rational decision making, he will ________. A) disregard the fact the one of the candidates is the owner's nephew B) rely on his initial impressions of the candidates to make this decision C) base his decision on his extensive experience and accumulated judgment D) involve others in the interviewing process 31) It is assumed that a rational decision maker ________. A) faces unclear and ambiguous problems B) is unlimited by his or her ability to process information C) is unaware of all the possible alternatives and consequences D) is fully objective and logical 32) When managers make decisions that are rational but limited by their ability to process the information, they are following the concept of ________. A) cognitive decision making B) bounded rationality ( ograniczona racjonalność ) C) escalation of commitment D) intuitive decision making 33) Evelyn's Internet search for information about "vendor for machine screws" yielded more than 100,000 items. Evelyn did not have time or resources to pursue each of these so she limited her search to only vendors in her state. By doing this, Evelyn used ________. A) perfect rationality B) bounded rationality C) satis cing D) intuition 34) Managers cannot possibly analyze all information on all alternatives; they tend to ________, rather than ________. A) maximize; satis ce B) neutralize; satis ce C) satis ce; neutralize D) satis ce; maximize 35) ________ results in a solution that is considered "good enough." A) Escalating B) Linear thinking C) Intuition D) Satis cing 36) Gilda has an idea that would streamline operations, reduce costs, and increase pro ts. Her idea requires the cooperation of several departments, some of which have demonstrated a resistance to change. By considering the context in which the changes must happen and the people in her organization, Gilda is using ________. A) evidence-based management ( zarzadzanie oparte na dowodach ) B) bounded rationality C) intuition D) positive employee relations 37) Abigail is shopping for a new copier for her company. She has set her price range between $5,000 and $6,000. The copier must handle a minimum of 10,000 copies per month and have a useful life expectancy of ve years. If Abigail selects the rst copier she nds that meets these criteria, we would say she is ________. A) using perfect rationality fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi B) using bounded rationality C) using intuition D) satis cing 38) Julie is keen on joining Columbia University to pursue a master's degree in economics. However, after three months of applying and waiting for an acceptance letter, she nally decides to attend NYU, which was one of her backup colleges. This is an example of ________. A) maximizing B) neutralizing C) minimizing D) satis cing 39) Edgar hired a graduate from his alma mater, thinking he would be a successful rst line supervisor. Unfortunately the new hire hasn't worked out as well as hoped. Edgar decided to invest time and money in training for the new hire but saw little improvement. Next he assigned a successful supervisor to mentor the young employee. The problems persisted. Edgar is displaying ________. A) bounded rationality B) irrational behavior C) poor judgment D) escalation of commitment 40) Farrell has a knack for selecting candidates who become very successful workers. When asked how he does it, he answered that he "listened to his gut." Farrell is really ________. A) using his intuition B) using bounded rationality C) using perfect rationality D) satis cing 41) Which of the following is an aspect of intuition? A) Experience-based decisions B) Quality-initiated decisions C) Science-based decisions D) Programmed decisions 42) Intuitive decision making ________. A) is the systematic use of the best available evidence to improve decision making practice B) generally results in poor decisions and hence managers should learn to ignore their gut feelings C) is the process of making decisions based on experience, feelings, and accumulated judgment D) complements rational decision making but not bounded rational decision making 43) Farrah has called together her management team to review information about customer satisfaction gathered by an external research company. Farrah is engaging in ________. A) perfect rationality B) bounded rationality C) evidence-based management D) relationship management 44) Relying on a network of individuals that are outside of organization's traditional set of decision makers is known as ________. A) idea seeking B) externalizing C) outsourcing D) crowdsourcing 45) Crowdsourcing can be an e ective decision making tool when a manager is attempting to nd a ________. fi fi fi ff fi fi fi A) routine decision B) rule of thumb C) creative solution D) new hire 46) In which of these decisions would crowdsourcing be particularly useful? A) Technical issues in production B) Product development C) Routine decisions D) Decisions where you have hard data 47) One of the bene ts of crowdsourcing is that you bene t from ________. A) the collective experience of outsiders B) groupthink C) the opinions of internal stakeholders D) the opinions of other like-minded thinkers 59) ________ are straightforward, familiar, and easily de ned. A) Programmed problems B) Structured problems C) Non-structured problems D) Nonprogrammed problems 60) Garrett looked at the list of orders for the coming week and made out the production schedule. He has done this so many times he could do it in his sleep. This situation represents a(n) ________. A) structured problem B) unstructured problem C) linear problem D) programmed problem 61) Structured problems align well with which type of decisions? A) Programmed B) Analogous C) Organic D) Nonlinear 62) A(n) ________ decision is a repetitive decision that can be handled by a routine approach. A) nonprogrammed B) structured C) unstructured D) programmed 63) Harriet's machine has stopped working again. She consulted the operator's manual troubleshooting guide to nd a solution. Harriet used a ________. A) programmed decision B) non-programmed decision C) structured decision D) non-structured decision 64) When making a decision for a routine situation, which step in the decision making process can be skipped? A) Identify the problem B) Evaluate decision e ectiveness C) Develop alternatives D) Implement the alternative 65) A procedure is ________. A) an explicit statement that tells a manager what can or cannot be done fi ff fi fi fi B) a series of sequential steps a manager uses to respond to a structured problem C) used mainly for unstructured, rather than structured, problems D) subject to the interpretation of the decision maker 66) One of the workers in Henry's department submitted his two weeks' notice so Henry needs to hire a replacement. The HR department issued a set of instructions Henry must follow to initiate the search for candidates. In other words, there is a ________ Henry must follow. A) policy B) practice C) procedure D) program 67) A(n) ________ is an explicit statement that tells a manager what can or cannot be done. A) agenda B) objective C) rule D) solution 68) "All employees must be at their work stations and ready to work by the time the buzzer sounds." This is an example of a ________. A) policy B) procedure C) practice D) rule 69) "Smoking and the consumption of alcohol are strictly prohibited inside the work premises." This is most likely an example of a(n) ________. A) rule B) objective C) procedure D) policy 70) A policy ________. A) typically serves as a guideline for decision making by setting general parameters B) speci cally states what should or should not be done C) is a series of sequential steps a manager uses to respond to a structured problem D) is used when dealing with unstructured problems and non-programmed decisions 71) "We expect to maintain the highest standards of quality in our workmanship." This is an example of a ________. A) procedure B) rule C) policy D) practice 72) A(n) ________ typically contains an ambiguous term that leaves interpretation up to the to the decision maker. A) rule B) procedure C) edict D) policy 67) What is a di erence between a policy and a rule? A) A policy establishes parameters. B) A rule establishes parameters. C) A policy is more explicit. D) A rule is more ambiguous. 69) A business school's statement that it "strives for productive relationships with local organizations" is an example of a ________. fi ff A) rule B) policy C) procedure D) commitment 70) Unstructured problems ________. A) are easily solved B) present familiar circumstances C) force managers to deal with incomplete or ambiguous information D) are routine 71) Nonprogrammed decisions are best described as ________. A) recurring, but di cult to make B) very similar to problems in other areas of the organization C) requiring more aggressive action on the decision maker's thought processes D) unique and nonrecurring 72) When problems are ________, managers must rely on ________ in order to develop unique solutions. A) structured; nonprogrammed decision making B) structured; pure intuition C) unstructured; nonprogrammed decision making D) unstructured; programmed decision making 73) Lower-level managers typically confront what type of decision making? A) unique B) nonroutine C) programmed D) nonprogrammed 74) Which of the following is likely to make the most programmed decisions? A) the CEO of PepsiCo B) the vice president of General Motors Cadillac Division C) the head of the Minute Maid Division at Coca-Cola D) the manager of the local McDonald’s 75) ________ is a situation in which a manager can make accurate decisions because the outcome of every alternative is known. A) Certainty - pewność B) Risk C) Uncertainty D) Maximax E) Maximin 76) If an individual knows the price of three similar cars at di erent dealerships, he or she is operating under what type of decision-making condition? A) risk B) uncertainty C) certainty D) factual 77) A retail clothing store manager who estimates how much to order for the current spring season based on last spring's outcomes is operating under what kind of decision-making condition? A) seasonal B) risk C) uncertainty D) certainty ffi ff 78) ________ is a situation in which a decision maker has neither certainty nor reasonable probability estimates available. A) Certainty B) Risk C) Uncertainty D) Maximax 79) Nonprogrammed decisions are typically made under a condition of ________. A) certainty B) low levels of risk C) uncertainty D) reliability 80) A person at a horse racetrack who bets all of his or her money on the odds-based long shot to "win" (rather than "place" or "show") is making what kind of choice? A) maximax B) maximin C) minimax D) minimin 82) Optimistic managers could be expected to utilize their maximax orientation when they ________. A) maximize the maximum payo B) maximize the minimum payo C) minimize the maximum regret D) minimize the minimum regret 88) When decision makers seek out information that rea rms their past choices and discount information that contradicts past judgments, they are exhibiting ________. A) availability bias B) the anchoring e ect C) self-serving bias D) con rmation bias 89) When decision makers assess the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles other events or sets of events, they are using ________. A) availability bias B) framing bias C) selective perception bias D) representation bias 73) Unstructured problems ________. A) refer to the usual problems faced by organizations B) are generally solved using procedures, rules, and policies C) are accompanied by ambiguous or incomplete information D) do not require the decision maker to go through an involved decision process 74) After nearly 30 years of growth, sales at Ida's company have begun to decline. None of the managers have been able to determine the cause. Some say the entire economy is in recession; others blame a change in suppliers; still others say the work ethic among employees just isn't what it used to be. This is an example of a(n) ________ problem. A) structured B) unstructured C) programmed D) non-programmed 75) Nonprogrammed decisions ________. fi ff ff ff ffi A) involve standardized solutions B) are usually made by lower-level managers C) are associated with clear and speci c goals D) are unique and nonrecurring 76) When problems are ________, managers must rely on ________ in order to develop unique solutions. A) structured; nonprogrammed decision making B) structured; pure intuition C) unstructured; nonprogrammed decision making D) unstructured; programmed decision making 77) What is the psychological orientation of a decision maker who makes a "maximin" choice? A) Optimist B) Realist C) Pessimist D) Idealist 78) Lower-level managers typically confront ________. A) unstructured problems B) new and unusual problems C) programmed decisions D) nonprogrammed decisions 79) Ian is a plant manager in a multi-site corporation. He frequently deals with situations involving new customers and new products. These are often ________. A) non-linear problems and risky decisions B) structured problems and programmed decisions C) uncertain problems and linear decisions D) unstructured problems and nonprogrammed decisions 80) First-line managers tend to deal with problems that are ________ while upper-level managers handle the ________ problems. A) unstructured; structured B) routine and repetitive; unusual and di cult C) interpersonal; customer D) machine-related; interpersonal 81) ________ is a situation in which a manager has the ability to make accurate decisions because the outcome of every alternative is known. A) Certainty B) Risk C) Bureaucracy D) Contingency 82) It is time for Jane to order laminated plywood again. She typically orders from one of three vendors. She knows the price, delivery time, and quality of each vendor. In this situation, Jane has ________. A) certainty B) uncertainty C) risk D) structure 83) The manager of an apparel store estimates how much to order for the current spring season based on last spring's sales gures. The store manager is operating under which of the following decision-making conditions? A) Uncertainty B) Risk C) Structure D) Certainty fi fi ffi 84) ________ is a situation in which a decision maker cannot make reasonable probability estimates. A) Necessity B) Risk C) Uncertainty D) Certainty 85) In the late 1970s, Apple launched the Apple computer for individual use. It was a radical concept; there was no precedent for this type of product. Under these circumstances, Apple faced a situation of ________. A) certainty B) uncertainty C) risk D) necessity 94) Rules of thumb ( praktyczne zasady ) that managers use to simplify decision making are known as ________. A) heuristics B) folksonomies C) algorithms D) sophisms 95) "Red sky at night, sailor's delight; red sky at morning, sailor's warning" is an example of a ________. A) proverb B) heuristic C) rule D) practice 96) Lucas always seems to "know" exactly what to do in any given situation. At least that's what he'll tell you. But his ideas don't always work and his overall performance as scored by his supervisor isn't nearly as great as he thinks it is. Lucas is exhibiting the ________. A) selective perception bias B) the anchoring e ect C) self-serving bias D) overcon dence bias 97) Many new car buyers choose to buy a car with little or no money down and payments for many years because of the ________. A) overcon dence bias B) immediate grati cation bias C) framing bias D) availability bias 98) The ________ describes how decision makers xate on initial information as a starting point and then, once set, fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information. A) anchoring e ect ( efekt zakotwiczenia ) B) selective perception e ect C) con rmation bias D) framing bias 99) Sophie is in charge of recruitment at her company. During a particular interview, the rst thing Sophie noticed about the applicant was that he was improperly attired. Though the candidate possessed the necessary quali cations and e ectively answered all her questions, Sophie rejected him. This is an example of the ________. A) availability bias B) self-serving bias C) anchoring e ect D) con rmation bias fi fi fi fi ff ff ff fi ff fi ff fi fi 100) "There are no coincidences. If something bad has happened to you, you must have done something to deserve it." This statement might be made by someone with the ________. A) framing bias B) self-serving bias C) availability bias D) randomness bias ( z losem, przeznaczeniem ) 101) Lila believes the global climate is changing. Every storm, every volcano eruption, every earthquake is, in her mind, evidence of this climate change. Lila has fallen victim to ________ bias. A) framing B) selective perception - wybiórcze postrzeganie C) con rmation D) representation 102) When decision makers seek out ( szukać )information that rea rms their past choices and discount information that contradicts past judgments, they are exhibiting the ________ bias. A) hindsight B) availability C) representation D) con rmation 103) Beth hired Tom, trained him, coached him, and expected he would be her eventual replacement when she moved up in the company. She noted each of his accomplishments with pride but wrote o as vicious gossip the comments from Tom's co-workers that he was making too many mistakes. Beth is experiencing the ________. A) selective perception bias B) con rmation bias C) framing bias D) anchoring e ect 104) Mildred was persuaded by a fast-talking salesperson to carry an expensive brand of yarns in her retail needlecraft shop. Seldom does a customer buy this brand, but on those rare occasions Mildred tells herself she made the right decision. The yarns have been sitting on the shelf for several months and she has yet to pro t from them. Mildred su ers from the ________. A) immediate grati cation bias B) selective perception bias C) con rmation bias D) hindsight bias 105) The ________ occurs when decision makers select and highlight certain aspects of a situation while excluding others. A) framing bias - focus on one aspect B) availability bias C) representation bias D) con rmation bias 106) The Prime Minister of Transylvania prefers darkened rooms, inches in bright light, and has unusually long incisors. Despite his long and successful career, his political opponents claim he is a vampire. This is an example of the ________. A) representation bias B) con rmation bias C) selective perception bias - nie oceniaj po okładce D) randomness bias 107) It hasn't rained in several days; therefore it is unlikely to rain today. This is an example of the ________. A) self-serving bias fi fi fi fi fi fi ff fi ff fi ff fl ffi B) availability bias C) representation bias D) randomness bias 108) The last time the Whigs took over Congress, stock prices rose dramatically and unemployment fell to record lows. Once again, the Whigs are in power, so Jason expects his stock portfolio to grow signi cantly. Jason's thinking may be in uenced by the ________. A) representation bias B) selective perception bias C) randomness bias D) anchoring e ect 109) The last time he ew Jet Value Air, Juan's plane developed a fuel leak and had to make an emergency landing. The time before that, his plane was grounded because of an electrical problem. Juan is sure his current trip will be fraught with problems and he will once again be delayed. This is an example of the ________ bias. A) con rmation B) selective perception C) availability D) randomness 110) "We can't stop now. We've already invested $100,000 in the project." This speaker is acting on the ________. A) anchoring e ect B) availability bias C) representation bias D) sunk costs error 111) Whenever anyone praises Mark for his good performance, he has the tendency to attribute his success to his personal qualities such as his ability to thrive under pressure and his eye for detail. However, any negative performance feedback is always met with excuses such as unsupportive team members or insu cient time. This is an example of the ________. A) self-serving bias B) con rmation bias C) representation bias D) hindsight bias 112) Marty had arranged for a high-pro le speaker to deliver the keynote address at her college's annual function. However, due to unforeseen circumstances, the speaker was forced to drop out at the last moment. Marty reacts to this news by saying, "I knew all along that this would happen." This is an example of the ________. A) anchoring e ect B) availability bias C) self-serving bias D) hindsight bias - uprzedzenia z perspektywy czasu 117) The decisions many managers make in today's business world typically involve ________. A) little risk, complete information, and long decision timelines B) some risk, nearly complete information, and moderate timelines C) no risk, certainty of the outcomes, and time pressure D) risk, incomplete information, and time pressure 118) A few decades ago, Walmart opened stores in Germany. After a few years, it closed all of them. The shopping habits of Europeans di ered so much from that of Americans that the stores could not become pro table. What was Walmart's mistake? A) It did not understand cultural di erences. B) It did not create standards for good decision making. C) It did not know when it was time to call it quits. D) It did not use an e ective decision-making process. fi fi ff ff ff ff fl fi fi ffi ff fi ff fl 119) Design thinking suggests that managers should look at problem identi cation collaboratively and integratively with the goal of ________. A) unveiling a rational approach to address the situation B) analyzing the situation with deductive reasoning C) developing solutions which somehow seem inevitable D) gaining a deep understanding of the situation 120) Very large complex data sets that are so huge that traditional software is unable to handle them are known as ________. A) algorithm sets B) machine data C) deep data D) big data 121) ________ is a method of data analysis that automates analytical model building. A) Deep learning B) Arti cial intelligence building C) Machine learning D) Big data mining 122) ________ involves the use of mathematics, statistics and other quantitative modeling methods. A) Analytics B) Intuitive decision making C) Psychological pro ling D) Design thinking CHAPTER III 1) The board of Corporation XYZ recently red the CEO because the rm's sales growth declined during his tenure. Corporations XYZ's board believes in the ________ view of management. A) prescient B) omnipotent C) symbolic D) systemic 2) The downfall of the furniture industry due to the subprime mortgage crisis and subsequent job loss of a number of managers in that industry would lend credence to the ________ view of management. A) prescient B) omnipotent C) symbolic D) systemic 36) If mortgage interest rates increase, this would be an example of changing ________ conditions in a rm's external environment. A) economic B) political C) sociocultural D) nancial 37) Which of the following factors is an economic component of an organization's external environment? A) The employees of the organization have, on average, 2.3 children. B) The average customer of a rm has a high school education. C) The rm's customers' disposable income falls in the range of $25,000-$40,000. D) Most of the rm's customers live in the Midwest. fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi fi 38) The ________ component of an organization's external environment is concerned with trends in population characteristics such as age, race, gender, education level, geographic location, income, and family composition. A) economic B) political C) demographic D) sociocultural 39) Which of the following factors is a demographic component of an organization's external environment? A) Lifestyles and behavior B) Political stability C) Geographic location D) Stock market uctuations 40) Gerber makes and sells baby products. A shift in the birth rate would represent a change in the ________ component of this rm's external environment. A) psychographic B) demographic C) political D) cultural 41) Assume the global economy rebounds rapidly from the Great Recession. What constraint is this likely to have on decisions managers make? A) The number of quali ed candidates available for hire will become smaller. B) Managers will be asked to eliminate positions to cut labor costs. C) The hourly compensation average will have to fall; managers will be asked to o er less to job candidates. D) Positions will be easier to ll as college graduates settle for lower paying jobs. 43) Thanks to iTunes and similar websites, sales of compact discs have declined severely, forcing entertainers to seek alternative revenue streams. This represents a change in the ________ component of the external environment. A) psychological B) behavioral C) sociocultural D) economic 44) Protests in Hong Kong reduced the number of tourists and also reduced revenue for Disney's theme park. This represents a change in the ________ component of the external environment. A) global B) political/legal C) sociocultural D) economic 45) Which of the following factors is a sociocultural component of an organization's external environment? A) Most of the rm's customers have at least one year of college. B) The government of the country holds elections whenever con dence in the current regime falters. C) Over time, society has become more accepting of alternative lifestyles. D) The average number of hours worked per year is increasing 46) Suppose the government of Abolonia imposed a national sales tax on its citizens that reduced their disposable income. Which component of the external environment would this a ect? A) Global B) Cultural C) Demographic D) Economic fi fl fi fi fi fi ff ff 48) An organization with dozens of competitors and a large number of raw materials suppliers has a high degree of A) environmental autonomy B) environmental complexity C) forecast certainty D) forecast uncertainty 49) Everything outside of an organization, including such factors as interest rates and stock uctuations, is de ned as the ________. A) general environment B) stable environment C) dynamic environment D) environment complexity 50) Which of the following, if true, represents a demographic change that will a ect decisions future managers make? A) The unemployment rate is likely to continue to fall. B) The percentage of Hispanics in the candidate pool will increase. C) More job candidates are likely to have tattoos and body piercings. D) More jobs will be performed by robots. 51) Faced with incomplete information about the future national economic conditions, many employers have eschewed the tradition of hiring full-time, permanent employees in favor of ________. A) hiring only high school graduates willing to work for lower wages B) a reduced work week of no more than 30 hours per week per employee C) o -shoring as many jobs as possible to reduce costs associated with government-mandated programs D) a exible work arrangement that includes freelancers and temporary workers 52) If the components of an organization's environment change frequently, the organization is operating in a ________ environment. A) stable B) simple C) dynamic D) complex 53) Which of the following are the two dimensions of environmental uncertainty? A) Degree of change and degree of complexity B) Degree of change and degree of volume C) Degree of complexity and degree of impact D) Degree of impact and degree of timing 55) Which of the following describes a dynamic environment? A) Sales vary with the seasons. B) Production methods change about once every 5 years. C) Competitors move into and out of the industry frequently. D) Product demand increases every year on a steady upward trend. 56) If the components in an organization's environment exhibit minimal change, such an environment is said to be ________. A) volatile B) dynamic C) stable D) simple fl ff fl fi ff 57) Home prices in the area in which your real estate o ce operates have increased only gradually for the past several years. However, you have noticed that demand for housing in the area usually spikes in summer. Which of the following best describes your business environment? A) Stable and simple B) Dynamic and simple C) Stable and complex D) Dynamic and complex 58) Moreno's Pub Burgers has enjoyed its status as the Numero Uno hamburger restaurant in Pleasantville for the past ten years. Its only competitor is a national fast food chain preferred by children rather than adults. Which of the following, if true, would make Moreno's business environment more uncertain? A) The fast food chain closes. B) A new employer moves into the area, bringing hundreds of jobs and more families. C) Moreno's buys the lot next door to expand its parking. D) Because of the growth of Pleasantville's population, more hamburger chains build facilities in Pleasantville. 59) Which one of the following represents the highest level of environmental uncertainty? A) Mario's restaurant competes against 325 others in the city; the city's ethnic mix is constantly changing. B) Maria's is still the only restaurant in a small town. She took it over from her mother and still uses the same equipment. C) Millie's customers expect to see new menu items regularly and want Millie to install Wi-Fi. D) Marty has to deal with the local council, the health department, the franchisor, the zoning commission-the list keeps growing. He is grateful there are no new competitors moving in. 60) Which one of the following represents the lowest level of environmental uncertainty? A) Mario's restaurant competes against 325 others in the city; the city's ethnic mix is constantly changing. B) Maria's is still the only restaurant in a small town. She took it over from her mother and still uses the same equipment. C) Millie's customers expect to see new menu items regularly and want Millie to install Wi-Fi. D) Marty has to deal with the local council, the health department, the franchisor, the zoning commission-the list keeps growing. He is grateful there are no new competitors moving in 61) In which one of the following environments do managers in an organization have the greatest in uence on organizational outcomes? A) Stable and complex environments B) Dynamic and simple environments C) Stable and simple environments D) Dynamic and complex environments 62) Which of the following environments is characterized by the highest level of environmental uncertainty? A) A stable and complex environment B) A dynamic and simple environment C) A stable and simple environment D) A dynamic and complex environment 74) If you were talking to Todd, an average person, and asked him what the term culture meant, he would reply that it is ________. A) the formal rules of an organization B) the nature of products/services o ered by the company C) the shared values and practices of the rm D) a set of operational procedures for the company fl ff fi ffi 75) ________ has been described as the shared values, principles, traditions, and ways of doing things that in uence the way organization members act. A) Corporate hierarchy B) Business con guration C) Organization culture D) Industrial psychology 76) A person desiring to understand the culture of an organization would examine ________. A) its formal rules B) the nature of products/services o ered by the company C) the shared values and practices of the rm D) a set of operational procedures for the company 77) Which one of the following statements highlights the shared aspect of culture? A) Organizational culture is concerned with how members perceive the culture and describe it, not with whether they like it. B) Organizational culture is not something that can be physically touched or seen, but employees perceive it on the basis of what they experience within the organization. C) The original source of the culture of an organization re ects the vision of the organization's founders. D) Even though individuals may have di erent backgrounds or work at di erent organizational levels, they tend to describe the organization's culture in similar terms. 78) Stephen notices that management is very concerned with the e ects of outcomes on employees in the organization. This means that management emphasizes the ________ dimension of the organization's culture. A) stability B) people orientation - focus on employees C) aggressiveness D) innovation and risk taking 79) Which one of the following most accurately re ects the di erence between strong cultures and weak cultures? A) Strong cultures tend to encourage employees to try new approaches to changing conditions, while weak cultures do not. B) In strong cultures, organizational values are held by top management, while in weak cultures, values are di used throughout the organization. C) Strong cultures have less in uence on employee behavior than do weak cultures. D) Company values are more deeply held and widely shared in strong cultures than in weak cultures 80) Which of these dimensions of organizational culture highlights the importance of collaboration? A) Team orientation B) Attention to detail C) Adaptability D) People orientation 81) Google has often been cited as a model for employee satisfaction. Google takes extensive care to ensure employees have the best available conditions to perform, ranging from free snack bars, free massages, innovation rooms, spas-on-site, and many more such measures. Which dimension of organizational culture is Google said to emphasize through such measures? A) Integrity B) Adaptability C) People orientation - focus on employees D) Attention to detail 82) Martha is concerned with the degree to which managers focus on results rather than the techniques and processes used to achieve those results. In other words, Martha is concerned that ff fl fi fl ff ff fi fl fl ff ff ff the company will emphasize ________ over other dimensions of the organizational culture. A) integrity B) adaptability C) attention to detail D) outcome orientation - focus on results 83) Which one of the following would make Mary realize that the company where she works has a strong culture? ( have a connection with the history ) A) Values are limited to the top management. B) Upper management sends contradictory messages about what is important. C) Most employees are aware of company history. D) Shared values and behaviors are not connected. 84) Employees at Ottobath Corporation are encouraged to submit their ideas for improvements to processes and for new products. Ottobath likely possesses a high degree of ________. A) people orientation B) team orientation C) adaptability - zdolności akceptacyjne D) aggressiveness 85) Bethany works for an international accounting rm noted for its superior quality of work. Employees check and double-check their work. The culture of this rm emphasizes ________. A) attention to detail ( because they double-checked ) B) outcomes C) people D) teams 86) Which one of the following is a characteristic of an organization with a strong culture? A) Management strives to delink shared values from behaviors as much as possible. B) Culture conveys consistent messages about what is important to the organization. C) The core set of organizational values is zealously guarded by the management. D) Emphasis is laid on the future of the organization, rather than acquainting employees with company history or past heroes. 87) Which one of the following is a disadvantage of having a strong organizational culture? A) High employee turnover B) Decreased organizational performance C) Low loyalty towards the organization D) Inability to respond to changing conditions 88) If Melody wanted to build a strong culture, which of these actions would help most? A) She and other managers should often tell stories about the company "heroes" and encourage employees to emulate their behavior. B) She should allow employees to pursue activities they believe will contribute to future company growth. C) She should encourage employees to continue their education and establish a tuition assistance program. D) She should hold an annual retreat at which upper management develops a values statement. 89) If Nanette is able to strengthen the culture of her organization, which one of the following could she reasonably expect as a result? A) An increase in absenteeism B) A decrease in employee turnover - spadek rotacji pracowników C) An increase in her stock trading price D) A decrease in health insurance costs 90) The original source of an organization's culture usually re ects ________. A) the present conditions in which the organization functions B) the composition of its productive workforce fi fl fi C) the degree of success that the organization has achieved D) the vision or mission of the organization's founder 91) ________ is a process that helps new employees learn the organization's way of doing things. A) Inculcation B) Socialization C) Enculturation D) Transculturation 92) An organization's culture can be perpetuated ( utrwalony ) by ________. A) selecting candidates for employment who share the organizations values B) displaying artifacts that exemplify the culture C) taking advantage of employees' suggestions for improvement D) expecting managers to produce results 93) Organizational ________ typically contain narratives about signi cant events or people in the organization. A) stories ( contain narratives ) B) rituals C) language D) material artifacts 94) ________ help anchor ( zakotwiczyć sie ) the present in the past, provide explanations and legitimacy for current practices, exemplify what is important to the organization, and provide compelling pictures of an organization's goals. A) Rituals B) Symbols C) Stories D) Artifacts 95) The day before Disney World in Florida was to open, the sod around one of the resort hotels had not been laid. CEO Michael Eisner took o his suit coat and tie, rolled up his sleeves, and began laying sod. He instructed his managers to do likewise but many objected, saying they did not know how to lay sod. "It's not hard, boys," said Eisner. "The green side goes up." This is an example of a ________ that reinforces culture. A) tradition B) ritual C) artifact D) story 96) The term ________ refers to repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the important values and goals of the organization. A) organizational culture B) corporate rituals C) corporate rites D) employee mentoring 98) Which one of the following is an example of a material artifact or symbol? A) The lines on the parking lot are repainted every year. B) The o ces of upper management are carpeted; the o ces of administrative personnel have tile oors. C) The company sponsors a local youth sports team. D) Incoming calls are answered by a live person. 99) ________ often act(s) as a common denominator ( mianownik ) that bonds an organization's members. A) Rituals B) Symbols C) Artifacts ffi fl ff ffi fi D) Language 100) Which one of the following is a cultural constraint ( ograniczeń ) that a ects the decisions managers in a company make? A) The extent ( zakres ) to which employees are encouraged to participate on problem- solving teams. B) The size of the operating budget. C) The location of the rm's headquarters. D) The size of the employee population. 101) Bernard's company knows it must constantly create new products to stay ahead of the competition. Which of the following characteristics are we likely to nd in this culture? A) A serious outlook toward work. B) Intolerance toward uncertainty or ambiguity. C) Resolution of employee issues based on personal interest. D) Freedom for employees to exercise discretion. 102) If ABC Company wanted to create an innovative culture, which of the following actions should it take? A) Create detailed job descriptions and step-by-step procedures for every position. B) Allow employees time for the generation of ideas. C) Encourage employees to report slacking and other time wasting within their departments. D) Require employees to document their activities to account for all paid hours. 103) Marriott hotels are noted for their fantastic service. Their motto is "Ladies and gentlemen serving ladies and gentlemen." To build and maintain this level of service, which of the following guidelines should managers follow? A) Precisely de ning employees' normal job requirements and ensuring they perform those actions. B) Giving service-contact employees continual training on product knowledge, listening, and other behavioral skills. C) Designing jobs with rigid rules and procedure that employees should stick to in order to satisfy customers. D) Preserving the discretion to make day-to-day decisions on job-related activities at the top level of management. 104) Companies that wish to establish a culture of sustainability can ________. A) expect new hires to observe the actions of others and act in a similar fashion B) casually mention occasionally that the company is concerned about sustainability C) vary the type and timing of its sustainability activities D) create rituals to demonstrate the company's e orts to support sustainability actions CHAPTER 9 Managing Strategy 9.1: De ne strategic management and explain why it's important. 1) The CEO is meeting with his top managers to determine how best to compete successfully in the company's market. This group is developing the company's ________. A) strategy fi fi fi ff fi ff B) competitive advantage C) strengths and weaknesses D) opportunities and threats 2) The top managers of the corporation are meeting to discuss how they will compete in their chosen markets and how they will attract and satisfy customers. These managers are discussing ________. A) the business model B) strategy C) their competitive advantage D) core competencies 3) A ________ describes the rationale of how a company is going to make money. A) mission statement B) business model - how to make money? C) SWOT analysis D) core competency 4) The CEO and his top managers have asked themselves two important questions: a. do customers value what the company is providing; and b. can the company make money doing that? This group is developing a ________. A) strategy B) competitive advantage C) business model D) BCG matrix 5) The main reason strategic management is important is ________. A) it allows an organization to anticipate economic recessions B) it can make a di erence in how well an organizations performs C) it reduces uncertainty D) it simpli es the environment 9.2: Explain what managers do during the six steps of the strategic management process 12) De ning the organizational mission forces managers to identify what ________. A) its competitive advantage is B) the organization is in business to do C) its capabilities are D) pending legislation will a ect the organization 13) Managers perform an external analysis so that they know about ________. A) the rm's basic beliefs and ethical priorities B) what the competition is doing C) what vendors want D) their organization's core competencies 14) Patrick expects each person he hires for his online business to be involved in studying trends involving new technology, competitors, and customers. These employees are involved in _______. A) external analysis - studying trends B) internal analysis C) economic analysis fi fi fi ff ff D) industry analysis 15) When an organization is analyzing its labor supply ( podaż pracy ), it is studying its ________. A) regulatory environment B) internal environment C) external environment - labor supply D) economic environment 16) ________ are positive trends in the external environment. A) Strengths B) Threats C) Weaknesses D) Opportunities 17) Computer peripherals provider Ascent plans to enter a new market in another country. Which one of the following represents a threat for Ascent? A) Ascent's pro t margin in the previous year was its lowest on record and it will require long-term planning to improve margins. B) Ascent lacks the resources to enter the market on its own and has to nd a partner in the new market. C) Ascent will have to plan its entry carefully as the laws in the country do not favor foreign businesses. D) Ascent needs to improve its service capabilities in the new country as this is an important source of revenue. 18) A study of the external environment allows a manager to understand the ________ and ________ for the organization. A) threats; weaknesses B) strengths; weaknesses C) strengths; opportunities D) opportunities; threats 19) Brutus' Fried Chicken patented the recipe for the spices used in the coating of the chicken. The patent protection lasts for 17 years. Brutus' Fried Chicken will view this patent protection as a(n) ________. A) threat until the patent expires B) opportunity during the time of the patent protection C) weakness because the patent cannot be renewed D) cost of doing business 20) Casey majored in marketing and really enjoyed studying market research as a subject. Through research on the Internet and in the university library, she discovers that this industry appears to have signi cant positive trends in employment. She interprets this as a(n) ________. A) weakness B) threat C) strength D) opportunity 21) Casey realizes that she has a personal characteristic that suggests she is not comfortable interacting with strangers. She interprets this as a(n) ________ if she is to get a job as a salesperson. A) threat B) strength C) weakness D) opportunity 22) Helen, the owner of Crazy Cupcakes, is conducting a SWOT analysis of her company. Which fi fi fi one of the following represents an opportunity for expansion? A) There has been a trend toward personalized cupcakes for a variety of occasions. B) The production process was found to be highly e cient and wastage was kept to a minimum. C) In a taste test, Crazy Cupcakes products ranked higher than competitors in the taste and texture segments. D) One of Crazy Cupcakes competitors has added cookies to its product line. 23) Newmark RV is performing an internal analysis. Which of the following would be considered a resource? A) A patent for a special design feature. B) A method of production not used by competitors. C) Strongly positive reviews from existing customers. D) Membership in RVIA, the industry association. 24) Bella Vista Clothing targets teenage girls with a range of a ordable ready-to-wear clothing. The company is opening two new outlets, as sales have been excellent. Which one of the following represents a strength for the company? A) The company's in-house designers have a knack for identifying and popularizing fashion trends. B) Disposable income is rising and consumers will have more money to spend on clothes. C) Bella Vista has excess production capacity. D) A long-time competitor recently went out of business and Bella Vista can cut down on its advertising budget. 25) A bank estimates the capabilities of its customer service employees prior to implementing a new training program designed to change their method of providing customer service. The bank is ________. A) conducting an external analysis B) formulating its competitive strategies C) performing an internal analysis D) performing an employee audit 26) An organization's nancial, physical, human, and intangible assets are known as its ________. A) resources B) capabilities C) strengths D) core competencies 27) Harness International, a global wiring harness company, allows each customer to access its engineering drawings on the company's extranet, speeding up the design process for every project. Harness would consider this to be a(n) ________. A) resource B) capability - zdolność C) competitive advantage D) opportunity 28) The major value-creating capabilities of the organization are known as its ________. A) strengths B) competitive advantages C) core competencies D) resources 29) The combined external and internal analyses are called ________. A) competitor analysis B) industry analysis C) market analysis D) SWOT analysis = internal + external fi ffi ff 30) After the SWOT analysis is complete, managers are ready to ________. A) begin production B) identify competitors C) formulate strategies D) review the analysis 31) The nal step in the strategic management process allows an organization to understand the ________. A) e ectiveness of the strategies used B) implementation of the strategies C) external environment D) resources and capabilities it possesses 9.3: Describe the three types of corporate strategies. 41) Top-level managers are responsible for ________ strategies. A) tactical B) corporate - top C) competitive D) functional 42) Lower-level managers are responsible for ________ strategies. A) functional - low B) stability C) corporate D) tactical 43) A(n) ________ strategy determines what businesses a company is in or wants to be in, and what it wants to do with those businesses. A) competitive B) functional C) operating D) corporate - what business a company is in 44) What are the three main types of corporate strategies? A) Stability, focus, and turnaround B) Growth, stability, and renewal - wzrost, stabilność i odnowa C) Growth, cost leadership, and di erentiation D) Stability, di erentiation, and focus 45) A ________ strategy is when an organization expands the number of markets served or the products o ered. A) growth B) renewal C) stability D) retrenchment 46) Organizations grow by using strategies of ________. A) concentration, integration, or diversi cation - zróżnicowanie B) concentration, integration, or stabilization C) integration, diversi cation, or di erentiation D) integration, diversi cation, or functionalization 47) An organization that grows using ________ focuses on its primary line of business and increases the number of products o ered or markets served in this primary business. A) diversi cation B) horizontal integration C) vertical integration ff fi fi ff ff fi fi ff ff ff fi D) concentration - focuses on 48) Emily's Bakery's customers have asked her to open a second location in a neighboring town o ering the same menu as the original location. If Emily decides to do this, she will be following a ________ strategy. A) focus B) di erentiation C) concentration - opening another business ( with the same menu ) D) diversi cation 49) In ________ integration, the organization becomes its own supplier so it can control its inputs. A) concentrated B) backward vertical - pionowo wstecznie, przejmuje swoich dostawców C) forward vertical D) horizontal 50) Hendricks Ceramics sells items it buys from ceramic factories. If it were to purchase one of these factories, it would be engaging in ________ integration. A) forward vertical B) backward vertical - przejmuje swoich dostawców C) horizontal D) concentrated 51) In ________ integration, the organization gains control of its outputs by becoming its own distributor. A) diversi ed B) concentrated C) backward vertical D) forward vertical - na odwrót, odcina się od swojego dostawy, stając się dystrybutorem własnym 52) The French fries at Ronald's fast food business have been its most popular product. During the past year, its pro ts have su ered because the farm that supplies it with potatoes has increased its prices drastically. What should Ronald's do to control its production costs? A) Ronald's should expand its menu to include sweet potato fries. B) Ronald's should buy out the farm and become its own supplier. - Forward vertical integration C) Ronald's should invest in more e cient fryers. D) Ronald's should broaden its product range by introducing potato nuggets on its menu. 53) In ________, a company grows by combining ( łączenie ) with competitors. A) concentrated integration B) horizontal integration - combine with competitors C) vertical integration D) lateral integration 54) Joe's Hardware bought Moe's hardware on the other side of town. This is an example of ________. A) backward integration B) forward integration C) lateral integration D) horizontal integration 55) An organization that is diversifying its product line is exhibiting what type of corporate strategy? A) Turnaround strategy B) Retrenchment strategy ff ff fi fi fi ff ffi C) Growth strategy D) Diversi cation strategy 56) ________ takes place when a company combines with other companies in di erent, but associated, industries. A) Stabilized diversi cation B) Horizontal integration C) Vertical integration D) Related diversi cation - powiązana w jakiś sposób ( associated ) 57) When a company combines with rms in di erent and dissimilar industries, it indulges in ________. A) unrelated diversi cation ( dissimilar ) B) horizontal integration C) vertical integration D) focused diversi cation 58) Florance is a chain of ower shops in the Chicago area. The company recently acquired Knick-knacks, which owns three gift shops. Which of the following is most similar to this acquisition? A) A construction rm acquired a textile manufacturer as it seemed like a good investment. B) Faced with mounting raw material costs, a c