MIST Microbiology Test PDF - November 2024

MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.1) On hospital ward round, Head of Department found expired medicines, glass pipette, lancet and urobag awaiting to be disposed. You are the medical officer in charge. Identif...

MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.1) On hospital ward round, Head of Department found expired medicines, glass pipette, lancet and urobag awaiting to be disposed. You are the medical officer in charge. Identify the correct colour codes: a. Yellow, blue, white, red b. Red, white, blue, yellow c. White, black, blue, green d. Green, red, blue, yellow Q.2) Sex pilus was found between two bacteria. What is the process known as, what is likely to be transferred, what will happen to the bacteria after the process? a. Transduction, bacteriophage, bacteria will produce spores b. Replication, DNA, bacteria will start sexual reproduction c. Transformation, ribosome, bacteria will start protein synthesis d. Conjugation, plasmid, bacteria will become resistant to antibiotics Q.3) Blood culture from wound. Identify the phenomenon, microbe exhibiting this, and method of inhibition of the phenomenon? a. Opalescence, Clostridium perfringens, removal of egg in agar b. Swarming, Proteus, chloral hydrate c. Spiral gradient system, Vibrio, bile d. Waving, Plesiomonas, cutting the agar Q.4) 98 year old patient got infected after using savlon kept open for many days. Etiology, treatment? a. Staph aureus, vancomycin b. E coli, ciprofloxacin c. Pseudomonas, piperacillin d. Proteus, cephalosporin Q.5) Wax, oil and grease are sterilized by: a. Hot air oven b. Pasteurization c. Inspissation d. Ethylene oxide Q.6) Homosexual couple presented with genital complaints. Genital samples were sent for bacterial culture on routine agar media. Which bacteria cannot be diagnosed by agar culture? a. Hemophilus ducreyi b. Treponema pallidum c. Klebsiella granulomatis  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Neisseria gonorrheae Q.7) 3 year old presented with acute watery secretory diarrhea and dehydration. All toxins increase cyclic AMP except: a. Cholera toxin b. E. coli labile toxin c. Giardia toxin d. NSP4 toxin Q.8) All infections have been eliminated from India except: a. Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus 2015 b. Leprosy 2005 c. Trachoma 2024 d. Malaria 2023 Q.9) Sequentially match the pathogens (Giardia, Listeria, Mycoplasma, Treponema) with motility: a. Tumbling, gliding, corkscrew, falling leaf b. Twitching, darting, non motile, jumping c. Falling leaf, tumbling, gliding, corkscrew d. Shooting star, sluggish, rifle bullet, active Q.10) Bear Grylls got infected by a zoonotic virus in Amazon rainforest. All are possible except: a. Rabies b. Varicella zoster c. Mpox d. Influenza Q.11) Mode of sterilization of glassware, surgical equipment, LJ medium, catgut suture? a. 70% ethanol, formaldehyde, silver sulphadiazine, dettol b. Hot air oven, autoclave, inspissation, X ray c. Phenol, UV rays, filtration, iodine d. Glutaraldehyde, plasma sterilization, tyndallization,Ethylene oxide Q.12) 9 months old presented with fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, vomiting and bulging fontanelle. This reaction was positive. All are possible etiology except: a. Hemophilus influenza b. Neisseria meningitides c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus pneumoniae  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.13) Rapid cell division, enzyme production, spore production, and exotoxin production occur is the respective phases of bacterial growth curve: a. Lag, log, stationary, decline b. Stationary, log, decline, lag c. Decline, lag, stationary, log d. All in stationary phase Q.14) Sequentially identify agar media from top to bottom: a. CLED, blood, DCA, TCBS b. Chocolate, blood, McConkey, Mueller Hinton c. Chrom, blood, LJ, Loefflers serum agar d. Robertsons cooked meat, blood, cetrimide, McConkey Q.15) Sequentially identify the molecular diagnostic modalities for Hepatitis B, HIV, Mpox, Swine flu, Varicella, Hepatitis C: a. PCR for all b. RTPCR for all c. RTPCR, PCR, RTPCR, PCR, RTPCR, PCR d. PCR, RTPCR, PCR, RTPCR, PCR, RTPCR Q.16) Phenol coefficient indicates: a. Efficacy of disinfectant b. Quality of disinfectant c. Concentration of disinfectant d. Purity of disinfectant Q.17) Retroperitoneal abscess was drained from 65 year old HIV patient and tested by this modality. All are correct except : a. Zone of inhibition seen b. Minimal inhibitory concentration seen c. Results are qualitative d. Tested on Mueller Hinton agar  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.18) Identify infections which have occurred as sporadic, endemic, epidemic and pandemic: a. Cholera, Mpox, Plague, Influenza b. Dengue, Yellow fever, zika, chikungunya c. Ebola, Nipah, Chandipura, Tomato fever d. Typhus, typhoid, Amoebiasis, Giardiasis Q.19) Sequentially match the features of Gram negative, fungal, Mycobacterial and Gram positive cell walls: a. Peptidoglycan, chitin, O antigen, Lipid A b. Aromatic amino acids, teichoic acids, mycolic acids, glucan acids c. Teichoic acids, double membrane, endotoxin, ergosterol d. Lipopolysaccharide, chitin, mycolic acids, peptidoglycan Q.20) Sequentially match the relevance of phenomenon. Lysogeny, PCR, Transposition, cholinesterase: a. Tuberculosis, Prion, RNA, viper venom b. Bacteriophage, Thermus aquaticus, jumping genes, Krait venom c. Hepatitis B vaccine, HIV, hybridization, tetanospasmin d. NSP4 toxin, IgG, transformation, Schwann cells Q.21) Outbreak of a respiratory illness ocurred in a refugee camp due to increase in rodent and flea population. Likely causative and transmitting agent : a. Yersinia pestis, Xenopsylla cheopis b. Pasteurella, Glossina palpalis c. Bacillus lethalae, Chrysops d. Arbovirus, Culex tritaenorhynchus Q.22) 15 year old presented with old history of sore throat leading to fever, tachycardia and Carey Coomb murmur. Which criteria should be used to diagnose. Which valvular lesions are expected? a. Jones criteria, MS, MR b. Charcots criteria, AS, AR c. Mantrel criteria, MR, AR d. Amsels criteria, MS, AS Q.23) Two teenage siblings with stepladder fever, relative bradycardia and rose spots. Which tests will be offered in first and second week: a. PCR and RTPCR b. Antigen test and antibody test c. Blood culture and IgM d. Toxin test and typing Q.24) 34 year old with painless hard Hunterian true chancre with painless bilateral lymphadenopathy. Most common test, most common confirmatory test and most common screening test: a. TPHA, TPI, FTA-ABs b. RPR, TPHA, RPR c. PCR, RTPCR, PCR  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. ELISA, VDRL, DFA Q.25) Meningococcal vaccine given to Hajj travelers includes the following serotypes of Neisseria meningitides: a. Serotypes A, C, Y, W-135 b. Serotypes A, B, C, Y c. Serotypes A, B, C, Y, W-135 d. Tubercular abscess Q.26) Outbreak of epidemic typhus occurred in a slum area in Mumbai. Likely causative and transmitting agent : a. Rickettsia prowazekii, louse b. Rickettsia typhi, flea c. Rickettsia rickettsiae, tick d. Rickettsia akari, mite Q.27) Tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin act by preventing release of: a. Acetylcholine and (GABA and glycine) b. (GABA and glycine) and acetylcholine c. Histamine and Serotonin d. CAMP and CGMP Q.28) 54 year old Canadian citizen visiting India reported acute gastroenteritis. Likely diagnosis, most common etiology and treatment: a. Bloody diarrhea, EHEC, azithromycin b. Amoebic dysentery, Entamoeba, metronidazole c. Bacterial dysentery, Shigella, ciprofloxacin d. Travellers’ diarrhea, ETEC, azithromycin Q.29) 45 year old janitor presented with Weil’s disease. Identify the associated triad: a. Rains, rice fields, rodent urine b. Rats, Rivers, Rust c. Lice, Liver, Listeria d. Liquor, Linezolid, Legionella Q.30) 65 year old with cardiac murmurs diagnosed by Duke’s criteria. Identify the correct combination: a. Cold sore, malignant pustule, petechiae b. Aschoff body, PDA, Forcheimmer spots, c. Oslers nodes, Janeways lesions, Roths spots d. Polyarthritis, Syndenhama chorea, subcutaneous nodules Q.31) 64 year old with low grade evening fever, chronic cough and hemoptysis. Primary focus, calcified complex in right lung and fibrocavitatory focus in left lung are: a. Ranke’s, Simon's, Assman b. Ghon’s, Ranke's, Simon’s c. Assman, Ghon's, Weigert’s  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Simon’s, Rich, Simond's Q.32) 65 year old with peptic ulcers and C14 urease test positive. Diagnosis and treatment : a. Oesophageal Candidiasis, fluconazole b. Camplylobacter, azithromycin c. Helicobacter, clarithromycin + metronidazole d. Giardia, metronidazole Q.33) 25 year old with painful soft ulcer, painful inguinal bubo and painful lymphadenopathy after unprotected contact with a commercial sexual worker. Diagnosis, etiology and treatment : a. Donovanosis, Klebsiella granulomatis, doxycyline b. Chancre, Treponema pallidum, penicillin c. Chancroid, Hemophilus ducreyi, azithromycin d. Gonorrhea, Neisseria gonorrheae, ceftriaxone Q.34) 20 year old with ulnar nerve thickening. Diagnosis, drugs for treatment? a. Tuberculosis, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol b. Leprosy, Rifampicin, Clofazimine, Dapsone c. Mononeuritis multiplex, Minocycline, Clarithromycin, Pregabalin d. Gas gangrene, Penicillin, Tigecycline, Colistin, Q.35) 16 year old bitten by Naja naja. All other conditions can have similar manifestation except: a. Strychnine poisoning b. Floppy baby syndrome c. Organophosphate poisoning d. Guillain Barre syndrome Q.36) Child with congenital syphilis. All are possible except: a. VIII nerve deafness b. Interstitial keratitis c. Mulberry molar d. Condyloma lata Q.37) 52 year with pannus, Arlt’s line, sago grain follicles, Herbert’s pits. Diagnosis, etiology? a. Trachoma, Chlamydia trachomatis b. Psittacosis, Chlamydophila psittaci c. Rabbit fever, Francisella tularensis d. Rat bite fever, Spirillum minus Q.38) All are uses of botox except: a. Achalasia cardia b. Migraine c. Strabismus d. Guillain Barre syndrome Q.39) A 17 year old presented with foul smelling serosanguinous discharge, crepitus and gangrene of tissues after road traffic accident. Most appropriate treatment of the following condition is:  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Penicillin + nerve transaction + debridement b. Antiserum + penicillin + myomectomy c. Antitoxin + clindamycin + suturing d. Amputation + meropenem + metronidazole Q.40) 43 year old with rice water stools and dehydration. First test and treatment? a. Culture, doxycycline b. PCR, azithromycin c. Hanging drop, rehydration d. Antigen, no treatment required Q.41) Identify intestinal ulcers: a. Tubercular and amoebic b. Typhoidal and amoebic c. Amoebic and tubercular d. Typhoidal and tubercular Q.42) A baby born to a Neisseria gonorrhoeae infected mother was referred to ophthalmologist. Diagnosis and treatment? a. Conjunctivitis, moxifloxacin b. Chorioretinitis c. Ophthalmia neonatorum d. Keratitis Q.43) 16 year old schoolgirl with blackheads, whiteheads, papules, pustules and nodules on face presented with major depressive disorder to psychaitric OPD. Diagnosis, etiology, treatment? a. Rosacea, Staph aureus, Clindamycin b. Lupus, Corynebacterium, erythromycin c. Melasma, Methylobacterium, permethrin d. Acne, Cutibacterium, Isotretinoin Q.44) 67 year old with low grade evening fever, weight loss and night sweats was initiated on treatment. Three months later her presented with optic neuritis and peripheral neuritis. Most probable cause:  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Toxicity by R and Z b. TB induced autoimmunity c. Toxicity by E and H d. Incomplete and inadequate therapy Q.45) 32 year old female with rhinitis sicca. All are applicable except: a. Merciful anosmia b. Klebsiella granulomatis c. Atrophy of nasal mucosa d. Epistaxis Q.46) A 6 month healthy infant was brought in a motionless state. Vitals were normal. History of pacifier containing honey from a local beehive was elicited. Identify the condition, etiology and treatment: a. Acute flaccid paralysis, Campylobacter, plasma exchange b. Transient infantile paralysis, unknown etiology, spontaneous recovery c. Floppy baby syndrome, botulinum toxin, no treatment d. Neurological poisoning, cobra bite, antivenom Q.47) 12 year old underwent cochlear implant surgery. Vaccine required? a. Meningococcal capsular vaccine b. Pneumococcal capsular vaccine c. Hemophilus influenza capsular vaccine d. Pseudomonas toxoid vaccine Q.48) 45 year old with disseminated TB. Diagnosis, liquid culture media? a. Extrapulmonary TB, LJ medium b. Miliary TB, Middlebrook 7H9 medium c. Potts spine, Pawlowsky media d. Latent TB, LSS media Q.49) 3 year old diagnosed by universal drug susceptibility test was initiated on 2(RHZE) + 4(RHE) for 6 months. Due to no improvement, levofloxacin was added. Diagnosis and treatment? a. MDRTB, 2(RHZE) + 4(RHE) for 6 months b. Pre XDRTB, BPaLM regimen for 6 months c. XDRTB, Monthly Rifampicin + Clofazimine with daily dapsone + clofazimine for 9 months d. TDRTB, no possible treatment Q.50) 37 year old female with primary infertility was found to have multiple uetrine synechiae on hysterosalpingogram. Diagnosis:  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Steven Johnson syndrome b. Wolf Parkinson White syndrome c. Ashermann syndrome d. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome Q.51) 3 year old with acute bronchiolitis. Most likley etiology, treatment and vaccine? a. Tuberculosis, 2(RHZE) + 4(RHE), BCG b. Whooping cough, azithromycin, DTaP c. Covid-19, Remdesevir, Covishield d. Respiratory syncytial virus, Ribavirin, Arexvy Q.52) 4 year old bitten on neck by immunized pet dog. Class of bite and most appropriate management: a. I, Wound wash only b. I, Wound wash + Tetanus toxoid c. II, Wound wash + Tetanus toxoid + Rabies vaccine d. III, Wound wash + Tetanus toxoid + Rabies vaccine + Rabies immunoglobulin Q.53) 53 year old with Hepatitis B. Marker not seen in blood, marker of vaccination, marker of chronicity, marker of low infectivity would be: a. HBsAg, Anti HBx, IgM Anti HBc, HBcAg b. HBcAg, Anti HBs, IgG Anti HBc, Anti HBe c. HBeAg, Anti HBe, HBxAg, Anti HBs d. HBxAg, Anti HBc, Anti HBs, Anti HBe Q.54) All are correct treatment except : a. CMV - Ganciclovir b. RSV – Ribavirin c. Rotavirus - Ribavirin d. Influenza – Oseltamivir Q.55) A 7 year old child presented with centripetally distributed centrifugally spreading rash followed by fever on 2nd day of rash. Which branch of which ganglia is involved in latency? a. Ophthamic branch of trigeminal ganglion b. Maxillary branch of geniculate ganglion c. Mandibular branch of spiral ganglion d. All branches of superior ganglion Q.56) All are correct “most common” except: a. Common cold - Influenza virus  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 b. Weaning diarrhoea - Rotavirus c. Encephalitis - Japanese encephalitis d. Dendritic ulcer - Herpes simplex virus Q.57) 37 year old HIV positive detected to have Kaposi sarcoma. Etiology? a. Epstein Barr virus b. Human Papilloma virus c. HTLV-1 virus d. HHV-8 Q.58) An intern was tasked to bleed a blood donor and screen for infectious diseases. Which is the correct testing combination in India? a. HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, syphilis, malaria b. HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, Hepatitis D, toxoplasma c. HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, dengue, malaria d. HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, parvovirus, West Nile virus Q.59) Identify the cells: a. Popcorn cell (Lymphoma) and Hallmark cell (Lymphoma) b. Owl eye inclusion body (CMV) and Reed Sternberg cell (Hodgkins lymphoma) c. Downey cell (EBV) and Bizarre cell (HSV) d. Sezary cell (Lymphoma), Hairy cell (Leukemia) Q.60) A doctor sustained a needle stick injury from HIV positive patient. Which is the appropriate PEP? a. Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Dolutegravir X 28 days b. Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Abacavir X 3 months c. Tenofovir, Nevirapine, Efavirenz X 6 months d. Tenofovir only for 9 months Q.61) Identify the clinical entity, etiology, treatment and vaccine: a. Parotitis, mumps, no treatment, Jeryll-Lynn vaccine b. Sialadenitis, herpes zoster, foscarnet, oka vaccine c. Meibomitis, house dust mite, picaridin, no vaccine  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Ramsay Hunt syndrome, facial nerve botox, no vaccine Q.62) All are correct treatment except : a. Hepatitis B - Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Entecavir b. Hepatitis C - Sofosbuvir, Ledipasvir, Daclatasvir c. HIV - Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Dolutegravir d. Chikungunya – Ribavirin Q.63) Two 45 year old patients: a) HBsAg + HBeAg positive b) IgG Anti HBc + HBeAg negative What is your interpretation? a. Hepatitis B with low infectivity, Acute Hepatitis B with low infectivity b. Hepatitis B with high infectivity, Chronic Hepatitis B with low infectivity c. Hepatitis B with Hepatitis D, Hepatitis B with Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis B carrier, Hepatitis B treated Q.64) 13 year old presented with an accidental dead end arboviral infection clinically presenting with fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, confusion and seizures after mosquito bite. Identify vector, reservoir, amplifier and dead end host: a. Anopheles, bats, Cow, wild animals b. Aedes, Armadillo, human, none c. Culex, ardeid bird, pig, human d. Mansonia, monkey, wild animals, none Q.65) 3 year old child presented with fever and cephalocaudal rash after exposure at playschool. All can be differential diagnosis except: a. Rubella b. Roseola c. Varicella d. Rubeola Q.66) 42 year old labourer presented with fever and encephalitis after tasting palm toddy from a palm tree inhabited by fruit bats. Diagnosis, treatment, vaccine: a. Ebola, no treatment, rVsV-Zebov b. Hanta, galidesevir, no vaccine c. Rabies, no treatment, rabipur d. Nipah, no treatment, no vaccine Q.67) 55 year old with CD4 10 petechiae/ sq inch in cubital fossa b. Secondary dengue c. Thromobocytopenia d. Flaccid paralysis Q.69) Indian youtuber travelling to Africa got exposed to an arbovirus not seen in India. Identify the possibilities: a. Zika virus, Chandipura virus, Coxsackie virus b. KFD virus, CCHF virus, JE virus c. Ebola virus, Yellow fever vrius, RFV virus d. Dengue virus, Chikungunya virus, WNV Q.70) All are matched syndromes except: a. Ramsay Hunt syndrome - Herpes simplex b. Middle East Resp syndrome - Coronavirus c. Blueberry muffin syndrome- Congenital rubella syndrome d. Duncan syndrome - Epstein Barr virus Q.71) 2 months old baby detected to have continuous machinery murmur due to a transplacental infection. Identify the condition, etiology and treatment: a. Pulmonary artery stenosis, congenital varicella, acyclovir b. Patent ductus arteriosus, congenital rubella, ibuprofen c. Ventricular septal defect, congenital toxoplasmosis, cotrimoxazole d. Transposition of great vessels, congenital CMV, ganciclovir Q.72) Worldwide respiratory pandemic in 2030 occurred due to a zoonotic virus having segmented genome. All are applicable except: a. Antigenic shift b. Reassortment c. Sialic acid receptor d. HACE -2 receptor Q.73) 2 year old child in Meghalaya presented with fever and acute flaccid paralysis of left lower limb after pulse polio immunization in 2024. Diagnosis, type of virus, cells involved in spinal cord: a. Inapparent polio, bullet shaped virus, Renshaw cells b. Bulbospinal polio, DNA virus, epnedymal cells c. Bulbar polio, enveloped virus, oligodendrocytes d. Vaccine derived polio, naked virus, anterior horn cells Q.74) 15 people from British tour group presented with fever, cough, dyspnoea at rest after contact with Penguins in Antarctica in 2024. Chest X ray revealed pneumonia. Diagnosis, type of virus, treatment: a. Seasonal flu, H3N2, amantadine b. Swine flu, H1N1, zanamivir c. Avian flu, H5N1, oseltamivir  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Ovine flu, H9N2, peramivir Q.75) 33 year old pop-star presented in a state of hangover after overnight rave party including orgy. He voluntarily wanted to get tested immediately for detection of HIV. What is the minimum period for diagnosis of HIV? a. 21 days b. 14 days c. 7 days d. Can be detected immediately after exposure Q.76) 45 year male with tapeworm infection after eating pork. Diagnosis, treatment? a. Taenia saginata, albendazole b. Taenia solium, praziquantel c. Taenia africanus, mebendazole d. Schistosoma, metronidazole Q.77) 38 year old with black water fever. All are relevant except? a. Kala azar b. Malaria c. Hemoglobinuria d. Renal failure Q.78) Identify the wrong combination: a. Trypanosoma cruzi, Chagas disease, Reduviid bug, South America b. Trypanosoma brucei, Sleeping sickness, Tse tse fly, Africa c. Wuchereria bancrofti, Filariasis, Culex, India d. Ancylostoma duodenale, Whip worm, Mansonia, India Q.79) 45 year male with hepatomegaly and water lily sign positive in USG. Diagnosis, treatment? a. Ancylostomiasis, albendazole b. Strongyloides, ivermectin c. Echinococcosis, PAIR d. Schistosoma, praziquantel Q.80) 14 year old bitten by sandfly reported with hepatosplenomegaly and fever. Diagnosis and treatment : a. Amoebiasis, metronidazole b. Toxoplasmosis, cotrimoxazole c. Leishmaniasis, Amphotericin B d. Malaria, chloroquine Q.81) A 37 year old with strawberry vagina. How will male partner present? a. Cystitis b. Urethritis c. Epididymitis d. Balanoposthitis  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.82) Identify the wrong mosquito combination? a. Anopheles sophisticated mosquito, clean water, rests indoors, bites at night, ova has floats, transmits malaria b. Aedes Tiger mosquito, artificial container with clean water, rests outdoors, bites during daytime, larva has siphon tube, transmits dengue, chikungunya, zika, yellow fever c. Culex nuisance mosquito, dirty polluted water, rests outdoors, bites at night, larva has siphon tube, transmits JE and filariasis d. Mansonia, rests indoors, day biter, larva attached to water plants, transmits plague Q.83) 5 year old child presented Entamoeba infection. All are possible except: a. Dysentery b. Flask shaped perforating ulcer c. Anchovy sauce pus d. Infective stage – Trophozoite Q.84) Newborn baby with TORCHES due to infection acquired in early first trimeste from cat feces was found to have tachyzoite, bradyzoite. Sabin Feldman dye test was positive. Diagnosis and treatment : a. Toxoplasmosis b. Mycoplasmosis c. Anaplasmosis d. Anaeroplasmosis Q.85) 45 year HIV positive male watery diarrhea and steatorrhea. Duodenal string test was positive. Diagnosis, type of cyst, treatment? a. Amoebiasis, quadrinucleate cyst, albendazole b. Giardiasis, 4-nucleus cyst, metronidazole c. Toxoplasmosis, single nucleus cysts, cotrimoxazole d. Schistosomiasis, no cysts, praziquantel Q.86) 5 year old child was found to harbour this creature in webspaces. Identification, diagnosis, treatment : a. Lice, typhus, azithromycin b. Mite, scabies, permethrin c. Flea, Plague, gentamicin d. Cyclops, Kyasanur Forest disease, no treatment Q.87) 37 year old homosexual contracted dysentery. Stool revealed trophozites with erythrophagocytosis. Etiology and treatment? a. Entamoeba histolytica, metronidazole b. Giardia, tinidazole  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 c. Cryptosporidium, nitazoxanide d. Balantidium, tetracycline Q.88) 21 year old with colpitis macularis. Which test is expected to be positive. What is the treatment? a. Paul Bunnel test, acyclovir b. Rideal Walker test, metronidazole c. Whiffamine test, metronidazole d. Chopra antimony test, Amphotericin B Q.89) 8 year old positive for these ova in stool examination would be presenting with _______ due to ________ and can be treated by _________: _ a. Diarrhea, Giardia monkey shaped trophozoite, metronidazole b. Seizures, Taenia solium, praziquantel c. Dysentery, Trichuris whipworm, albendazole d. Gastritis, Helicobacter pylori, omeprazole Q.90) 9 year female with nocturnal eneuresis and perianal itching. Diagnosis, sample and treatment: a. Trichuris, stool centrifugation, albendazole b. Enterobius, cello tape mount, mebendazole c. Necator, NIH swab, praziquantel d. Strongyloides, microscopy, ivermectin Q.91) 39 year old HIV positive on cotrimoxazole prophylaxis. Protection will be conferred to all except: a. Toxoplasma b. Cyclospora c. Pneumocystis d. Entamoeba Q.92) 41 year female with failed treatment for malaria. Treatment? a. Artemisinin combination therapy b. Quinine + doxycycline c. Atovaquinine + Clindamycin  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Mefloquine + Tafenoquine Q.93) 30 year old female presenting with fever, chills and rigors. PBS revealed this. Drug of choice for treatment and chemo-prophylaxis in India is: a. Chloroquine, Chloroquine b. Quinine, Halofantrine c. Clindamycin, Doxycycline d. Chloroquine, Mefloquine Q.94) 34 year primigravida with 24 weeks POG from area with Chandler’s index >300. Urgent investigation would be? a. Stool routine and microscopic exam b. Complete blood count c. Ultrasound pelvis d. TORCH test Q.95) 45 year HIV positive male with CD4 count 350 has larva in stools. Diagnosis, treatment? a. Ancylostoma, albendazole b. Strongyloides, ivermectin c. Toxoplasma, cotrimoxazole d. Schistosoma, praziquantel Q.96) 33 year old HIV positive male with white coated tongue and curd-smelling breath. Diagnosis, treatment? a. Sinusoidal Aspergillosis, voriconazole b. Systemic Histoplasmosis, anidulafungin c. Oral Thrush, fluconazole d. Cutaneous Fusariosis, itraconazole Q.97) 62 year old presented with ringworm of foot, ectothrix and onychomycosis. Likely etiology : a. Trichuris, Fusarium, Aspergillus b. Trichostrongylus, Angiostrongylus, c. Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton d. Trichosporon, Microsporidium, Euglena Q.98) 17 year old MBBS student with dandruff. Diagnosis, shampoo treatment? a. Aspergillosis, fluconazole b. Mucormycosis, eteseconazole c. Seborrheic dermatitis, ketoconazole d. Tinea capitis, miconazole  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.99) 72 year old farmer from Tamil Nadu with chronic multiple sinuses in foot oozing pus. Diagnosis? a. Maduramycosis b. Elephantiasis c. Neurofibromatosis d. Podoconiosis Q.100) 68 year old patient with systemic mycosis. Culture would be done on: a. Sabourauds dextrose agar b. Blood and chocolate agar c. LJ medium d. McConkey agar Q.101) 43 year old HIV patient with desert rheumatism. Etiology, treatment? a. Histoplasma, voriconazole b. Mucormycosis, itraconazole c. Coccidioides, Amphotericin d. Tinea imbricata, miconazole Q.102) 33 year old commercial sexual worker presented with curdy white vaginal discharge with Gram positive budding yeast cells. Whiffamine test was negative. Diagnosis? a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Vaginal Candidiasis c. Trichomoniasis d. Aerobic vaginitis Q.103) Smears from three patients presenting with tinea infections revealed the following. Identify macroconidia from left to right : a. Trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton b. Microsporum, trichophyton, epidermophyton c. Epidermophyton, trichophyton, microsporum d. Trichophyton, epidermophyton, microsporum Q.104) Seen in :  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Blastomycosis b. Chromoblastomycosis c. Histoplasmosis d. Mycoplasmosis Q.105) 43 year old with onychomycosis, Tinea capitis and Tinea cruris. Etiology? a. Trichophyton b. Microsporum c. Epidermophyton d. Malassezia Q.106) 68 year old Rose gardener presented with skin rashes in lymphocutaneous distribution due to a dimorphic mycosis. Diagnosis and etiology: a. Rhodococcus, Rosacea b. Sporotrichosis, Sporothrix c. Epidermophyton, ectothrix d. Endamoeba, endothrix Q.107) 55 year old PLWHA with fungal pneumonia treated by cotrimoxazole. Diagnosis, stain used? a. Sarcocystis strainii, PAS stain b. Aspergillus flavus, lactophenol cotton blue c. Blastocystis hominis, Giemsa stain d. Pneumocystis jirovecii, Grocott's silver stain Q.108) Most medically important fungi belong to: a. Zygomycetes b. Ascomycetes c. Basidiomycetes d. Deuteromycetes Q.109) 51 year old HIV positive patient with poor drug compliance got admitted with : (a) Fever, headache, neck stiffness (b) Painless hard genital ulcer and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy. Identify the stains used for diagnosis: a. India Ink stain, Silver impregnation stain  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 b. Sudan black stain, Leishman stain c. Giemsa stain, Prussian blue stain d. Wrights stain, Warthin Starry stain Q.110) 45 year old presenting with pruritic rash affecting fingerwebs after unprotected sexual contact was diagnosed by Woods lamp examination. Diagnosis and topical treatment: a. Scabies, 5% permethrin b. Dermatitis herpetiformis, acyclovir c. Eczema herpeticum, ganciclovir d. Ringworm, lulliconazole Q.111) Most appropriate combination: a. Valency 2, TYpe I hypersensitivity, least common b. Valency 2, most common antibody, transplacental c. Valency 10, heaviest antibody, rises in acute infection d. Valency 4, mucosal immunity, seen in colostrum Q.112) The following pertain to: (a) Slow, sluggish, short lived (b) Prompt, powerful, prolonged a. Live and killed vaccines b. Active and Passive immunity c. Primary and secondary immune response d. Precipitation and agglutination Q.113) 24 year female with Aedes transmitted febrile infection with gum bleeding. Diagnosis, antigen and antibody for testing : a. Chikungunya, Ch, IgG b. Dengue, NS1, IgM c. KFD, K, IgM d. Malaria, pLDH, IgG Q.114) All are correct vaccines except: a. Malaria - Mosquirix b. RSV - Arexvy c. Mumps - Edmonston Zagreb d. Chikungunya – Ixchiq Q.115) Open vial policy is for all except:  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine b. Measles-Rubella vaccine c. Hemophilus influenza b vaccine d. Injectable polio vaccine Q.116) Newborn baby got infected by a retrovirus. First antibody synthesized will be : a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgE Q.117) 34 year old with suspected toxin mediated disease was given toxoid. What kind of immunity? a. Active immunity b. Passive immunity c. Local immunity d. Herd immunity Q.118) 36 year female presenting with fever, lymphadenopathy and rash after blood transfusion was positive by tridot test. Which antigen is used to confirm? a. gp41 b. gp120 c. p17 d. p24 Q.119) Antibodies not fixing complement are: a. IgM, IgG b. IgG, IgA c. IgD, IgE d. IgA, IgM Q.120) Sequentially arrange diagnostic antigen targets for pan-malaria, Dengue, Leishmania, and malignant tertian malaria: a. HRP2, NS1, IgG, IgG b. IgA, IgM, IgG, IgE c. pLDH, NS1, rk39, HRP2 d. WKK, CCA, pp65, MPT-64 Q.121) Newborn on day zero of birth was given a vaccine leading to fever, suppurative lymphadenitis and ulcer on upper arm. Identify the vaccine strain: a. Recombinant strain b. Sabins live vaccine c. Danish 1331 strain d. Salk killed injectable vaccine Q.122) 45 year old with elevated bilirubin, transaminases and HBsAg + HBeAg positive. What is your interpretation? a. Hepatitis B with low infectivity  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 b. Hepatitis B with high infectivity c. Hepatitis B with Treated d. Hepatitis B vaccinated Q.123) Anaphylotoxins, opsonins and mebrane attack complex are: a. (C1, C2, C3), TNF alpha, IFN alpha b. (C3a, C4a, C5a), (C3b, C4b) and C5b6789 c. (C3b, C4b), C5b6789, (C3a, C4a, C5a) d. C5b6789, IgD, p24 Q.124) Vaccine contraindicated during lactation, contraindicated in SCID but can be given in pregnancy: a. Edmonston Zagreb b. Oka c. Sabins d. 17D Q.125) 45 year old with pentrating right eye injury presents with pain, redness, blurred vision, and photophobia in both eyes. Symptoms in left eye are due to: a. Type 1 hypersensitivity b. Left eye concussion c. Temporary adjustment disorder d. Sympathetic ophthalmia Q.126) 8 year old was positive for Elek’s gel precipitation test. Diagnosis, treatment? a. Tetanus, antitetanus serum b. Diphtheria, antidiphtheritic serum c. Botulism, antitoxin d. E coli food poisoning, monoclonal antibodies Q.127) Helminths which can pierce the sole of foot and cause soil transmitted helminthiasis are: a. Necator, Dracunculus b. Wuchereria, Babesia c. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides d. Trichuris, Schistosoma Q.128) A 19 year old Indian girl with frequent scanty sticky non foul smelling motions with blood and mucus, tenesmus. Diagnosis, treatment? a. Shigella dysenteriae, ciprofloxacin b. Entamoeba histolytica, metronidazole c. Campylobacter, azithromycin d. EIEC, no treatment Q.129) 22 year old intern found as a MRSA nasal carrier. Treatment: a. Clindamycin b. Vancomycin c. Linezolid  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Mupirocin Q.130) 6 year old with fever, cephalocaudal rash on fourth day. All are correct except: a. Vitamin B6 deficiency b. No treatment available c. Edmonston-Zagreb strain vaccine d. Koplik’s spots Q.131) Group of 5 on a rock climbing trip with vomiting after 5 hours of eating canned food. Etiology, toxin, treatment? a. Staph aureus, alpha toxin, antitoxin b. Bacillus cereus, enterotoxin, antitoxin c. Clostridium botulinum, botox, no treatment d. Clostridium, beta toxin, no treatment Q.132) 42 year old primigravida aborted in first trimester probably due to TORCHeS infection. Identify the type of infection: a. Natal b. Intranatal c. Transplacental d. Post natal Q.133) Sexual partners are generally not treated in all except: a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Vaginal Candidiasis c. Chancroid d. Herpes simplex Q.134) 11 months child born FTND to a elderly primigravia with suspected TORCHeS infection. Identify? a. Anencephaly b. Hydranencephaly c. Microcephaly d. Megalencephaly Q.135) 21 year old pilot got exposed to a skin infection from unprotected contact in another country. Identify the non-infectious condition: a. Acne vulgaris b. Verruca vulgaris  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 c. Lupus vulgaris d. Pemphigus vulgaris Q.136) 7 year old multiparous female presented with thin homogenous vaginal discharge diagnosed by Amsel criteria and Nugents score. All are applicable except : a. Clue cells positive b. Reduced Lactobacillus c. Whiffamine test negative d. Vaginal pH less acidic than usual Q.137) Disease X emerged in 2030 causing a worldwide pandemic leading to lockdown, border closures and mandatory masks to avoid respiratory transmission. A disease X positive girl kissed a non-infected guy in public transport and caught on camera. Action: a. Both isolated b. Both quarantined c. Guy isolated, girl quarantined d. Girl isolated, guy quarantined Q.138) Sequentially match antibiotics (Penicillin, Lulliconazole, Ciprofloxacin, Azithromycin, Amikacin) based on target site: a. Cell wall, cell membrane, DNA, 50S, 30S b. DNA, 50S, 30S, cell wall, cell membrane c. 50S, 30S, DNA, cell membrane, RNA d. Flagella, metabolism, cell division, pili, 70S Q.139) 36 year old Rh negative primigravida with Rh positive fetus suffered road traffic injury leading to abruptio placenta. Dose of Anti Rho will be determined by: a. Benzidine test b. USG pelvis c. D- dimer levels in blood d. Kleihauer Betke test Q.140) Identify clockwise :  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Tetanus, Diphtheria, Diphtheria, Anthrax b. Plague, Botulism, Gas gangrene, boil c. Diphtheria, Diphtheria, Anthrax, Tetanus d. Diphtheria, Anthrax, Tetanus, Diphtheria Q.141) 55 year old presented with bladder cancer. Vaccine used for treatment of bladder cancer: a. Shigella vaccine b. BCG c. Covishield d. Oka vaccine Q.142) Four patients positive for Auspitz sign, Nikolsky sign, double tongue sign and Fagets sign. Identify the infectious etiology: a. Necrotizing fasciitis, gas gangrene, epiglottitis, giardiasis b. Psoriasis, Ritters syndrome, Ludwings angina, Typhoid c. Erysipelas, follicullitis, croup, toxoplasmosis d. Fourniers gangrene, Q.143) Two patients matched Mantrels criteria and Ransons criteria. Identify the signs in them sequentially: a. Mc Burneys sign, Grey Turners sign b. Murphys sign, sunset sign c. Kehrs sign, Blumbers sign d. Boas sign, sunrise sign Q.144) Sequentially match the smears for Herpes simplex, filaria, HPV, leprosy: a. Tzanck, PAP, slit skin, peripheral blood b. Tzanck, peripheral blood, PAP, slit skin c. PAP, slit skin, Tzanck, peripheral blood d. Slit skin, peripheral blood, PAP, Tzanck Q.145) Identify anti-clockwise:  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Eleks test, CAMP test, satellitism b. Swarming motility, Kirby Bauer test, satellitism c. CAMP test, McConkey agar, satellitism d. Satellitism, CAMP test, Eleks test Q.146) 28 year old known case of cystic fibrosis presented with respiratory infection. Most common cause? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus Q.147) 5 year old fully vaccinated child sustained abdominal trauma due to road traffic accident and brought to emergency with normal vitals and E4V5M6. FAST revealed splenic ruture. Next step: a. Capsulated bacterial vaccination, elective splenectomy after 2 weeks b. Emergency splenectomy, capsulated bacterial vaccines before discharge (7 days) c. Emergency splenectomy and immediate vaccination in operation theatre d. Emergency splenectomy, no vaccination Indicated Q.148) MMRV vaccinated 36 year old presented with fever and tomato sized red blanching rash on palms and soles. Diagnosis and treatment: a. Chickenpox, acyclovir b. Hand foot and mouth disease, no treatment c. Monkeypox, tecovirimat d. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever, no treatment Q.149) 45 year old primigravida was found to have violin string appearance between liver and diaphragm. Diagnosis? a. Miller Fischer Guillain Barre syndrome b. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome c. Ehler Danlos syndrome d. Peutz Jeghres syndrome  MIST – Medical Institute For Screening Test MIST SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF OF MICROBIOLOGY DATED ON 7 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.150) 12 year old bitten by sandfly developed abdominal distension and fever. All are correct except: a. Not a zoonosis in India b. Infective stage - Amastigote c. Diagnosed by rk39 antigen d. Drug of choice – Amphotericin B ANSWER KEY : 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. a 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. c 81. b 82. d 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. b 91. d 92. b 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. c 98. c 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. b 103. b 104. b 105. c 106. b 107. d 108. d 109. a 110. d 111. c 112. c 113. b 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. a 118. d 119. c 120. c 121. c 122. c 123. b 124. d 125. d 126. b 127. c 128. a 129. d 130. a 131. c 132. c 133. c 134. c 135. d 136. c 137. d 138. a 139. d 140. a 141. b 142. b 143. a 144. b 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. b 149. b 150. b  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.1) A high myope reports seeing flashes of light for last 3 days. Which of the following will be the next step in this case? a. Fundus fluorescein angiography b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy c. Direct ophthalmoscopy d. Corneal Tomography Q.2) A 80 years old patient presents with painful red eye with decreased vision in right eye. On examination, right eye shows white cataract and shallow anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure is 55mmHg in right eye and 12mmHg in left eye. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in right eye? a. Phacomorphic glaucoma b. Phacolytic glaucoma c. Malignant glaucoma d. Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma Q.3) A construction worker comes to eye emergency with history of lime falling in his eye. Which of the following should be done immediately in this case? a. Slit lamp examination for cornea b. Vision testing c. Antibiotic drops to prevent infection d. Thorough irrigation with ringer lactate Q.4) A 21-year-old boy presents with history of frequent change of glasses. On his examination, given sign is seen. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Entropion b. Keratoconus c. Buphthalmos d. Ptosis Q.5) A 7 years-old boy presents with itching and ropy discharge which worsens in summer. On examination, there are seen papillae on lids. Which of the following can also be seen in his eyes? a. Arlt’s line c. Horner Tranta’s spots b. Satellite lesions d. Fascicular ulcer 1  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.6) A patient with atrial fibrillation comes to eye emergency with loss of right side of field of vision in both eyes. Perimetry shows macula sparing homonymous hemianopia. Which of the following is the likely site of lesion in this case? a. Temporal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Parietal lobe d. Frontal lobe Q.7) A patient presents in eye OPD with the following finding in the eye as show in the image. Which of the following can be a cause for this? a. Chloroquine b. Timolol c. Travoprost d. Ciprofloxacin Q.8) Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient who is wearing glasses of +4.50 D in both eyes? a. Cataract b. Narrow angles c. Retinal holes d. Posterior staphyloma Q.9) Frontalis Sling surgery is the procedure done for which of the following conditions: a. Ptosis b. Trichiasis c. Entropion d. Ectropion Q.10) What is the likely site of lesion if patient can’t see the right half of the field in right eye and left half of the field in left eye? a. Left optic tract b. Right optic nerve c. Left optic nerve d. Optic chiasma 2  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.11) The lesion shown in the given image is caused by which of the following condition? a. Penetrating trauma b. Corneal ulcer c. Blunt trauma d. Chemical trauma Q.12) A 62 years old patient can not close his right eye while sleeping. He has now developed a painful red eye. What is the likely diagnosis in this case? a. Neuroparalytic ulcer b. Ring ulcer c. Mooren’s ulcer d. Shield ulcer Q.13) A patient who had cataract surgery 3 months back, now presents with decreased vision and hazy cornea. On slit lamp examination, bullous keratopathy is seen. The other eye shows low endothelial cell count on specular microscopy. Which of the following could be the possible diagnosis in this case? a. Epithelial dystrophy b. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy c. Posterior capsular rupture d. Foster Fuch spots Q.14) Occlusion therapy is indicated for which of the following conditions? a. Hypermetropia b. Strabismus c. Anisometropia d. Amblyopia Q.15) A gardener suffered an eye injury with a leaf in right eye 2 days back. He has developed pain, redness and decreased vision. On slit lamp examination, the following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? 3  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Fungal corneal ulcer b. Acanthamoeba keratitis c. Traumatic cataract d. Viral keratitis Q.16) A diabetic patient presents with sudden painless of vision in right eye. On fundus examination, no fundus view is seen. What is the likely cause of decreased vision in this case? a. CRAO b. Vitreous hemorrhage c. Diabetic macular edema d. Mild NPDR Q.17) A young girl presents with pain, discharge and swelling on upper lid as shown in the image below. What is the diagnosis in this case? a. Infected chalazion b. Stye c. Sebaceous cell carcinoma d. Trichiasis Q.18) In a patient of Argyll Robertson pupil, which of the following is seen? a. Normal light reflex, but accommodation reflex is lost b. Absent light reflex, but accommodation reflex normal c. Both light and accommodation reflex lost d. Both light and accommodation reflex normal 4  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.19) The following surgical step is performed in all of the following surgeries except? a. Phacoemulsification b. Small incision cataract surgery SICS c. Intracapsular cataract extraction d. Microincision cataract surgery Q.20) What is the yoke muscle of left eye superior rectus in levoelevation? a. Superior rectus in right eye b. Superior oblique in left eye c. Inferior oblique in right eye d. Inferior rectus in left eye Q.21) A young girl has been using soft contact lens developed severely painful red eye and decreased vision. She recently shares her lenses with her friend. What could be the possible diagnosis in this case? a. Acanthamoeba keratitis b. Viral keratitis c. Hypopyon ulcer d. Allergic conjunctivitis Q.22) The lesion shown in the image below with lusterless cornea are features of which of the following condition? 5  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Sjogren’s disease b. Xerophthalmia c. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca d. Nodular scleritis Q.23) A 22-year-old man with -5.0D refractive error does not wish to wear glasses. Following are the options to correct his refractive error except: a. Phakic IOL b. INTACS c. SMILE surgery d. LASIK Q.24) Which of the following drug decreases the secretion of the aqueous humor to reduce IOP? a. Travoprost b. Timolol c. Netrasudil d. Brimonidine Q.25) A 2 years old child is brought by parents with white pupillary reflex. On examination, a cauliflower like mass with calcification is seen growing from retina. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Cataract b. Retinoblastoma c. Retinal detachment d. Vitreous hemorrhage Q.26) Amsler grid chart is used for monitoring of which of the following diseases? a. Age related macular degeneration b. Optic nerve function c. Glaucoma progression d. Diabetic retinopathy Q.27) A 8-years-old boy underwent retinoscopy at 1 m under atropine and following findings are noted for the right eye. What will be the glass prescription in this case? 6  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. -2.0 Dsph/-3.5 Dcyl x 180 deg b. -4.0 Dsph/-1.5 Dcyl x 90 deg c. -4.0 Dsph/-1.5 Dcyl x 180 deg d. -2.0 Dsph/-3.5 Dcyl x 90 deg Q.28) 45 years old female presents with history of bilateral chronic granulomatous panuveitis. She has vitiligo and hearing defect. Her fundus shows sunset glow appearance. What is the probable diagnosis? a. Sarcoidosis b. Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. CMV retinitis Q.29) A 50 years old lady suffers painful loss of vision in right eye with worsening of pain on eye movements. A relative afferent pupillary defect is present. On perimetry, there is a central scotoma in the involved eye. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. Papilledema b. Retinal detachment c. Central retinal vein occlusion d. Optic neuritis Q.30) Which of the following will not be seen on fundus examination in an eye with moderate NPDR? a. Retinal hemorrhages b. Cotton wool spots c. Venous beading d. Microaneurysms Q.31) A 55 years old man suffering from poorly controlled hypertension presented with sudden painless loss of vision in right eye. His fundoscopy reveals the following picture. What is the diagnosis? 7  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Branch retinal vein occlusion b. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion c. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion d. Diabetic retinopathy Q.32) Identify the type of refractive shown in the retinoscopy below done at working distance of 1 m for a 20 years old person. a. Compound myopic astigmatism with the rule b. Compound myopic astigmatism against the rule c. Simple myopia d. Mixed astigmatism Q.33) A patient on ATT for 2 months complains of decreased vision and defective color vision. Visual fields showed a centrocaecal scotoma in both eyes. Which of the following drugs will be implicated in this case? a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d. Pyrazinamide 8  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.34) What is the most common cause of unilateral proptosis in an adult? a. Orbital cellulitis b. Thyroid ophthalmopathy c. Orbital metastasis d. Orbital lymphoma Q.35) A diabetic patient presents in eye OPD with double vision and inability to open the left eye. Identify the lesion shown in the image. a. Oculomotor nerve palsy b. Abducens nerve palsy c. Trochlear nerve palsy d. Trigeminal nerve palsy Q.36) A patient shows Lisch nodules on iris on slit lamp examination of the eye, he has café au lait spots on the skin. Which of the following can be seen in this patient? a. Cherry red spot b. Keratic precipitates c. Optic nerve glioma d. Choroidal hemangioma Q.37) A 57 years old patient was found to have intraocular pressure of 34 mmHg in right eye and 26 mmHg in left eye. Angles of anterior chamber are open on gonioscopy. His fundus examination showed the following findings. What should be the next investigation to confirm diagnosis in this case? 9  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Perimetry b. Fundus fluorescein angiography c. Specular microscopy d. Keratometry Q.38) What would be the best management for a patient presenting with a fleshy growth encroaching the cornea as shown in the given image? a. Keratoplasty b. PRK c. Excision with conjunctival autograft d. Simple excision Q.39) A young child with mental retardation and muscular weakness shows a cherry red spot in macula in both eyes on fundus examination. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. Tay Sachs Disease b. Central retinal artery occlusion c. Birth trauma d. Wilson’s disease Q.40) Which of the following is the drug of choice for a patient presenting with a dendritic ulcer and reduced corneal sensations? a. Topical Steroids b. Topical Acyclovir c. Topical Natamycin d. Topical Atropine 10  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.41) A 45 years old man who has never used glasses is finding difficult to read small print in the newspaper. What could be the likely reason for this finding? a. Nuclear sclerosis b. Hypermetropia c. Myopia d. Presbyopia Q.42) A patient with history of joint pains for more than ten years presents to eye OPD with the following image. What is the most likely cause for the given finding? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Diabetes c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Sarcoidosis Q.43) A 35 years old lady presents with headache and history of amaurosis fugax. Bilateral disc edema is noted on fundus examination. What should be the next step in management of this case? a. Perimetry b. CT scan Brain c. Fundus fluorescein angiography d. Observation Q.44) A 68-year-old patient presents in eye OPD with painful red eye. On examination, IOP is very high and shallow anterior chamber is noted as shown in the given image. What is the diagnosis? 11  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Mature cataract b. Phacomorphic glaucoma c. Phacolytic glaucoma d. Acute anterior uveitis Q.45) Identify the marked lesion. a. Keratic precipitates b. Epithelial defect c. Iris nodules d. Tranta’s spots Q.46) A lady presents to eye emergency with severe eye pain and vomiting. Her eye is red and stony hard to touch. The pupil is oval mid dilated and not reacting to light. What should be the immediate treatment to manage this case? a. I/V Mannitol and pilocarpine eye drops b. Topical steroids c. Atropine eye drops d. I/V Mannitol and atropine eye drops Q.47) 65-year-old lady has been on Hydroxychloroquine for rheumatoid arthritis for ten years. Lately she is complaining of decreased vision and went for eye examination. Her fundus examination shows the following image. What could be the probable diagnosis? a. Cystoid macular edema c. Bull’s eye maculopathy b. Central serous retinopathy d. Age related macular degeneration 12  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.48) A young man came with complaints of drooping of eyelids and double vision. His symptoms worsen in the evening and are least in the morning. This patient should be investigated for which of the following conditions? a. Thyroid disease b. Myasthenia gravis c. Horner syndrome d. 3rd nerve palsy Q.49) A 8 years old girl presents with glass prescription of + 4.0 Dsph in right eye and +0.5 Dsph in the left eye. The girl is at the risk of developing which of the following condition? a. Nuclear Cataract b. Diplopia c. Anisometropic amblyopia d. Strabismus Q.50) A 35 years old healthy male presents with painless blurring of vision with distortion of letters on reading in his right eye. He has been under stress due to his corporate job. He was subjected to FFA which showed smoke stack leak in macula. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. Age related macular degeneration b. Central serous retinopathy c. Cystoid macular edema d. Retinitis pigmentosa Q.51) A 2 years old boy presents with whitish pupillary reflex and an intraocular mass with calcification in the right eye, enucleation is done. On histopathology, Flexner Wintersteiner rosettes are seen. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Retinoblastoma c. Medulloblastoma b. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Astrocytoma Q.52) What is the most appropriate treatment for 68 years old man having distorted vision and central scotoma with fundus findings as shown in the given image? a. Macular laser b. Intravitreal anti VEGF injections c. PRP laser d. Intravitreal ganciclovir 13  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.53) An elderly patient complains of watering and foreign body sensation in the eye. All of the following could be the reason for his symptoms except? a. Entropion b. Trichiasis c. Trichomegaly d. Distichiasis Q.54) A malnourished child is brought by her mother with history of night blindness. Which of the following can be seen in this case? a. Papillae b. Bitot spots c. Reduced corneal sensations d. Tranta spots Q.55) ‘S’ in SAFE strategy stands for: a. Streptomycin b. Surgery c. Scleritis d. Syringing Q.56) Identify the given instrument used for eye surgeries. a. Wire speculum b. Lid retractor c. Cat’s paw retractor d. Entropion clamp Q.57) Which is the most appropriate treatment for a 6 years old child presenting with watering of both eyes with discharge on pressing the inner part of the eye? a. Syringing b. Probing c. Sac massage d. Dacryocystorhinostomy 14  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.58) The following test is used for testing: a. Near Vision b. Contrast sensitivity c. Color vision d. Literacy test Q.59) All are causes of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment except: a. Trauma b. Hypertensive retinopathy c. High myopia d. Complicated cataract surgery Q.60) Identify the investigation shown in the given image: a. ERG b. Optical coherence tomography c. Specular microscopy d. Perimetry Q.61) A person had RTA and presented with left eye ecchymosis, movement restriction, diplopia. The following CT image was obtained. Which is the most likely diagnosis? 15  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Orbital Blow out floor fracture b. Orbital medial wall fracture c. Orbital lateral wall fracture d. Skull base fracture Q.62) A patient comes with icterus and tremors, he also elevated liver enzymes with ataxia and rigidity. Which of the following is most likely finding seen on slit lamp examination of this patient? a. Keyser Fleischer ring b. Fleischer ring c. Complicated cataract d. Anterior uveitis Q.63) A patient presents with penetrating trauma as shown in the photograph. Which of the following should not be done during initial evaluation of the patient? a. Visual acuity assessment b. Immediate removal of foreign body c. Antibiotics d. Primary Survey Q.64) A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter, who wears myopic glasses of -4D. Which of the following is a contraindication for LASIK? a. Stable refraction for 1 year c. Myopia of -4D b. Corneal thickness of 420 microns d. Age of 22 years 16  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.65) A 10-year-old boy is brought to the doctor with complaints of squeezing his eyes to see the blackboard in the school. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Hypermetropia b. Myopia c. Strabismus d. Amblyopia Q.66) A boy presents in emergency with pain, proptosis and decreased movements of eye ball. He also has history of recurrent sinusitis. On examination, following image is seen. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Chronic dacryocystitis b. Orbital cellulitis c. Stye d. Thyroid ophthalmopathy Q.67) Parents noticed white reflex in the right eye of their 2 years old child. On examination, a diagnosis of congenital cataract was made and cataract surgery was advised. What will be the recommendation regarding intraocular lens implantation in this case? a. Undercorrection of IOL power due to myopic shift b. Overcorrection of IOL power due to myopic shift c. Avoid intraocular lens implantation d. Overcorrection of IOL power due to hypermetropia Q.68) A 3 years old girl is brought by her mother with deviation of left eyeball. She was prescribed the glasses which improved the deviation. What is diagnosis in this case as shown in the given image? 17  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Congenital esotropia b. Accommodative esotropia c. Congenital exotropia d. Intermittent esotropia Q.69) A patient presents with small irregular pupils which do not react to light. However, when he is asked to focus on a pencil held near to him, the pupils constrict normally. Which of the following is the cause for his condition? a. Horner’s syndrome b. Neurosyphilis c. Marcus Gunn Synkinesis d. Optic neuritis Q.70) Latanoprost can be used to lower intraocular pressure in all of the following cases except: a. Asthma b. Young children c. Heart block d. Pregnancy Q.71) A patient presents with high intraocular pressures in both eyes and following findings on slit lamp examination. What is the likely diagnosis? 18  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Pigmentary glaucoma b. Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma c. Neovascular glaucoma d. Malignant glaucoma Q.72) A young male presents with recurrent episodes of blurring of vision, pain and redness in his right over the last 6 months. He also has a history of morning stiffness in his back and has been diagnosed with scaroilitis. What could be the probable diagnosis of his eye condition? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s disease Q.73) A 70 years old man presents with a chalazion on his upper eyelid in the right eye. What will be the best management in this case? a. Histopathological examination b. Incision and curettage only c. Observation d. Antibiotics Q.74) A 65-year-old lady who underwent cataract surgery 1 year back, complains of decreased vision now. Which of the following could be the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. After cataract b. Secondary cataract c. Cystoid macular edema d. Nuclear cataract Q.75) Which is the cycloplegic of choice for refraction in case of a 6 years old child with squint? a. 1% atropine drops b. 1% atropine eye ointment c. 0.5% tropicamide drops d. 5% phenyl ephrine Q.76) All of the following are true in a case of Trachoma except? a. Sago grain follicles are seen b. Trichiasis can occur as a complication c. Papillae development on the tarsal conjunctiva d. Azithromycin is the drug of the choice Q.77) A 20-year-old boy presents with progressive decrease in vision and night blindness. He is also facing difficulty in driving, as he can not see vehicles passing his side. His fundus picture is as shown. The most likely diagnosis is: 19  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Best Disease b. Vitamin A deficiency c. Retinitis pigmentosa d. Congenital glaucoma Q.78) After an accident from metal works, a mechanic got injured with iron foreign body. 5 years later, he suffers from marked decreased vision which is irreversible. Which of the following is the implicated cause in this case? a. Chalcosis b. Siderosis bulbi c. Retinal detachment d. Cataract Q.79) All of the following are true about sympathetic ophthalmia except: a. It follows blunt trauma to the eye b. The first sign is retrolental flare c. Dalen Fuch’s nodules are seen in posterior segment d. There is development of bilateral panuveitis Q.80) A hypertensive patient with BP of 180/120mm Hg presents with disc edema and flame shaped hemorrhages and cotton wool spots. What is the grade of hypertensive retinopathy in this case? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4 Q.81) A 18-years-old boy presents with sign shown in the image. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this case? 20  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Corneal Tomography b. Corneal Pachymetry c. Biometry d. Keratometry Q.82) A young boy presents with watering, redness and itching. On examination, the following image is seen. Which of the following can be a likely complication in this case? a. Trichiasis b. Shield ulcer c. Secondary cataract d. Fascicular ulcer Q.83) Which of the following leads to development of snow flake cataract in uncontrolled diabetics? a. Accumulation of glucose in lens b. Accumulation of sorbitol in lens c. Nuclear sclerosis d. Change in lens protein Q.84) Which of the following is true for trochlear nerve palsy? a. Hypertropia b. Hypotropia c. Esotropia d. Exotropia 21  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.85) A one-month-old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and megalocornea and large sized eyeball. The most likely diagnosis is? a. Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction b. Megalocornea c. Keratoglobus d. Buphthalmos Q.86) Aqueous flare will be seen in: a. Intermediate uveitis b. Anterior uveitis c. Pars planitis d. Epicelritis Q.87) Which of the following will be drug of choice for topical anaesthesia for femtosecond laser assisted cataract surgery? a. Proparacaine b. Bupivacaine c. Lignocaine d. Xylocaine Q.88) A relative afferent pupillary defect will be seen in : a. CRAO b. Optic neuritis c. Best disease d. Both A and B Q.89) The given image represents which of the following? a. Irregular astigmatism b. Regular astigmatism c. Myopia d. Presbyopia 22  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.90) Neovascular glaucoma can be seen in all of the following conditions except: a. High risk PDR b. CRVO c. NPDR d. Sickle cell retinopathy Q.91) Identify the given instrument: a. Corneoscleral forceps b. Mcpherson forceps c. Lim’s forceps d. Superior rectus forceps Q.92) Name the procedure done in the given image: a. Peripheral iridotomy b. Laser Trabeculoplasty c. Central iridotomy d. Capsulotomy Q.93) A patient is suspected to have central retinal artery occlusion. Which of the following investigation will be most useful to confirm the diagnosis? a. Optical coherence tomography b. Ultrasound c. Fundus fluorescein angiography d. Visual fields 23  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.94) In which of the following conditions bitemporal hemianopia is seen? a. Frontal lobe space occupying lesion b. Temporal lobe space occupying lesion c. Retinoblastoma d. Pituitary adenoma Q.95) SMILE surgery is superior to LASIK in that: a. higher range of myopia can be corrected b. stabilisation of refractive error is not required c. flap related complications are not seen d. can be performed in less than 18 years of age Q.96) Identify the field defect shown in the given image: a. Altitudinal defect b. Enlarged blind spot c. Roenne nasal step d. Central scotoma Q.97) A patient with Horner’s syndrome presents with mild ptosis. Which is the muscle involved in this case? a. Muller muscle b. LPS muscle c. Orbicularis oculi d. Superior rectus muscle Q.98) A patient of rheumatoid arthritis presents with small nodular swelling on sclera which resolves with topical medication, but is recurrent. What is the likely diagnosis? 24  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Scleromalacia perforans b. Nodular episcleritis c. Pterygium d. Pinguecula Q.99) Which is the dye used in the given image? a. Rose Bengal Dye b. Gentian violet c. Lissamine d. Fluorescein dye Q.100) A 40-year-old male on low dose oral steroids for 10 years has developed painless progressive decrease in vision in both eyes. What is the diagnosis? a. Retinal detachment b. Secondary Glaucoma c. Posterior Subcapsular Cataract d. Cystoid macular edema 25  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST OPHTHAMOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 10 NOVEMBER 2024 ANSWER KEY 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. b 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. b 83. b 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. c 26  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 Q.1) A 22-year-old male presented with an asymptomatic scaly lesion over his back, symmetricalin distribution, as shown below in the image. Identify the disease and the pattern of lesions: a. Collarette scale-Christmas tree pattern-Pityriasis rosea b. Wickham's striae-Lichen planus c. Christmas tree pattern-Lichen planus d. Woronoff ring-Seborrhoeic dermatitis Q.2) Statement 1: HP examination of a patient with Flaccid bullae and painful erosions showing suprabasal blister and inflammatory infiltrate in the blister cleft. Statement 2: The row of tombstones' appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris: a. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true b. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false c. Both the statement are true but 2 is not the conclusion of 1 d. Both the statement are true but 2 is the conclusion of 1 Q.3) Identify the following lines Shown in the given image: a. Hinderer lines b. Marionettes lines c. Relaxed skin tension lines d. Blaschko lines Q.4) Match the condition to the following wood lamp findings: Erythrasma a. Pink fluorescence Pityriasis versicolor b. Milky white fluorescence Tinea Capitis c. Yellow fluorescence  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 Vitiligo d. Blue fluorescence e. Coral red fluorescence a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b b. 1-e, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b c. 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b d. 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b Q.5) A female patient presents with acne that is not resolving with oral isotretinoin and antibioticstherapy. What is the next best investigation for the above condition? a. Look for dietary triggers b. Evaluated for hyperandrogenism c. Check for antibiotic resistance d. Look for drug triggers Q.6) A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of a painless ulcer in the genital area. It isassociated with non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis? a. Chancroid b. Syphilis c. Herpes genitalis d. Granuloma inguinale Q.7) A 20 -year-old female presented with the following findings. Identify the pathognomic stage of the following condition shown in the image below? a. Papule b. Pustule c. Abscess d. Comedone Q.8) A 26-year-old male presented with erythematous plaques covered with silvery scales over the extensor surface of botharms. On examination, pitting of nails is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Psoriasis b. Lichen planus c. Eczema d. Pityriasis rosea Q.9) A patient presented with an itchy lesion, as shown in the image below. What is thediagnosis?  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 a. Scabies b. Lichen planus c. Psoriasis d. Warts Q.10) A patient presented with multiple painful blisters on an erythematous base. Along adermatome on the truck, as shown in the image below. What is the probable diagnosis? a. Herpes simplex b. Herpes zoster c. Molluscum contagiosum d. Chicken pox Q.11) A 45-year-old truck driver presented with a lesion shown in the image below with a history ofmultiple sex partners. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Secondary syphilis b. Lichen planus c. Scabies  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 d. Psoriasis Q.12) A 45-year-old smoker presented to the hospital with a painless oral lesion and white patchthat develops in the oral cavity, as given in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Leukoplakia b. Candidiasis c. Lichen planus d. Oral cancer Q.13) Identify the image shown below: a. Basal cell Carcinoma b. Squamous cell Carcinoma c. Malignant Melanoma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma Q.14) A 25-year-old patient presented to the OPD with a history of prolonged use of steroids fora skin condition. The patient complains of an expanding rash that has become less red anditchy since using the steroids. On examination, there are well-defined, slightly raised, erythematous plaques with central clearing and a scaly border on various parts of the body. What is the probable cause for the above scenario? a. Tinea incognito b. Tinea corporis c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea pedis Q.15) Identify the condition shown in the image below:  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 a. Condyloma acuminata b. Bowen disease c. Condyloma lata d. Haemorrhoids Q.16) A 4-year-old boy was brought to the clinic with a vesicular rash that covered his entire body. According to the child's parents, the rash began as red patchesand quickly developed into fluid-filled blisters. The child also has a mild fever and is feeling irritable. What is the most likely diagnosis for this child’s condition? a. Varicella b. Shingles c. Smallpox d. Dermatomyositis Q.17) Which of the following mineral deficiency is associated with poor wound healing,dermatitis, diarrhoea and alopecia? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Zinc Q.18) A 35-year-old patient with thickened, coarse, and severely wrinkled skin on the face. The cheekbones, forehead, and nose look to be affected, as does the skin. The patient complains of numbness and weakness in the extremities. On examination, there are hypopigmented and erythematous patches with loss of sensation. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? a. Lepromatous Leprosy b. Acromegaly c. Myasthenia gravis  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 d. Bell's palsy Q.19) A 45-year-old patient presented with red skin lesions characterised by scaly patches. He also complains of a painful and swollen finger joint. On examination, the finger joint appears inflamed and tender to touch. What is the probable diagnosis for this condition? a. Psoriatic Arthritis b. Pseudo gout c. Osteoarthritis d. Reactive arthritis Q.20) A 12-week pregnant woman who is already on multidrug therapy for leprosy presents with atype 2 lepra reaction. What is the treatment of choice for this patient? (MDT- multidrug therapy) a. Stop MDT and start oral steroids b. Antibiotics c. Thalidomide d. Continue MDT and add oral steroids Q.21) A patient with a satellite skin lesion is present at the outpatient clinic. He has one hypopigmented lesion and one thickened nerve, according to an assessment. Below are pictures of two blister packs. The most suitable course of treatment for this patient would be: a. Packet 1 for 12 months b. Packet 2 for 12 months c. packet 1 for 6 months  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 d. packet 2 for 6 months Q.22) Match the following types of scales with their associated conditions: Scales Lesion 1. Collarette scales a. Pityriasis versicolor 2. Silvery scales b. Pityriasis rosea 3. Mica-like scales c. Psoriasis 4. Branny scales d. Pityriasis lichenoides a. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a b. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c c. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b d. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a Q.23) A 41-year-old patient presented with the lesion shown in the image below. He also describes having the sensation of spiders crawling in the area of the lesion. What is theprobable diagnosis of the above scenario? a. Herpes zoster infection b. Irritant contact dermatitis c. Allergic contact dermatitis d. Herpes simplex infection Q.24) A diabetic female presented with a progressive skin lesion, as given in the image below.What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Melasma  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 d. Discoid lupus erythematosus Q.25) A diabetic patient presented with the following lesion in the armpit. Which fluorescence isseen in Wood’s lamp examination? a. Yellow fluorescence b. Coral red fluorescence c. Blue fluorescence d. Green fluorescence Q.26) An 8-year-old boy presented to OPD with weakness in his lower limbs and a rash over the eyelids. The biopsy shows inflammation of the muscle. What is the finding shown in the image below? a. Gottron’s papules b. Shawl sign c. Heliotrope rash d. Scleroderma Q.27) Consider the cause of alopecia. Which of the following causes non-scarring alopecia? 1. Alopecia areata 2. Telogen effluvium 3. Androgenic alopecia 4. Frontal fibrosing alopecia a. 3 and 4 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 d. Only 4 Q.28) Match the following treatment method is used in the management of psoriasis with their possible side effects: Column A Column B 1. PUVA a. Abortifacient, Hepatotoxic 2. Cyclosporine b. Nephrotoxic 3. Methotrexate c. Long-term use increases the risk of skin cancer 4. Acitretin d. Mucositis, teratogenic a. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d b. 1-c, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d c. 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a d. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d Q.29) A 30-year-old man presented with erythematous painful lesions on the truck and face, jointpain, and glove and stocking pattern of anesthesia. Which of the following investigations is usedto diagnose this condition? 1. Nerve examination 2. Skin biopsy 3. Slit skin smear 4. Mantoux test a. 1, 2 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 Q.30) Identify the condition given in the image below:  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 a. Paget disease b. Lichen sclerosus c. Lichen planus d. Angioma of vulva Q.31) A patient presented to the OPD with the following skin manifestation shown in the imagebelow, which is associated with the Raynaud phenomenon. Identify the presentation? a. Poikiloderma b. Salt and pepper pigmentation c. Leukotrichia d. Vitiligo Q.32) A female patient presented to the OPD with nail changes, shown in the image below. She has a history of relapsing-remitting, mildly itchy erythematous plaques over the scalp, sacral area, and knees. What is a probable diagnosis? a. Adult-onset Still’s disease  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 b. Pachyonychia congenita c. Psoriasis d. Lichen planus Q.33) A patient presented with multiple anogenital warts. The biopsy of these lesions showedsquamous atypia. Which human papillomavirus types are considered high-risk? a. HPV 2 b. HPV 18 c. HPV 6 d. HPV 11 Q.34) A farmer presented with swelling on the foot and multipledischarging sinuses in the lower limb. Under the microscope, granules from the discharge were examined shown below. Which of the following is trueregarding the following condition? a. Both bacteria and fungi can be causative b. Undergoes lymphatic spread c. There is lymphocyte accumulation d. Involves only superficial tissues Q.35) A farmer presented with a cauliflower-shaped mass on the foot, which developed after a minor injury. Microscopic examination shows copper pennybodies. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Chromoblastomycosis b. Blastomycosis c. Sporotrichosis d. Phaeohyphomycosis Q.36) A patient presented with an anesthetic patch in the areas on the face, as shown  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 in theimage below. Which of the following nerves is most frequently affected by this condition? a. Abducens nuclei b. Facial nerve c. Optic nerve d. Ulnar nerve Q.37) A 35-year-old female patient with a body mass index ofm2 presented with a lesion on the neck, as shown below. Which of the following is she most likely cause for theabove condition? a. Hypothyroidism b. Metabolic syndrome c. Addison’s disease d. Hyperparathyroidism Q.38) Pitting of the nails with subungual hyperkeratosis is seen in: a. Lichen planus b. Psoriasis c. Atopic dermatitis  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 d. Alopecia areata Q.39) A 40-year-old woman presented with hair loss for the past three months. She has a history of COVID-19 eight months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Tinea capitis b. Telogen effluvium c. Trichotillomania d. Female-pattern androgenic alopecia Q.40) Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in all, EXCEPT: a. Vitiligo b. Psoriasis c. Lichen planus d. Herpes Q.41) Identify the type of psoriasis given below in the image: a. Guttate b. Erythrodermic c. Pustular d. Inverse Q.42) Identify the given image below:  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 a. Madura foot b. Chromoblastomycosis c. Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis d. Cellulitis Q.43) Neurofibromatosis type- 1(NF1) is a hereditary condition commonly associated with multiplecafé-au-lait spots on the skin. Which inheritance pattern can be seen in this? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X linked dominant d. X linked recessive Q.44) A 50-year-old female patient, who is a known case of ovarian cancer, presents with difficulty in activities like climbing stairs, getting up from the chair, combing hair, etc. The following characteristic sign was found on examination. The most probable diagnosis is? a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Dermatomyositis c. Systemic sclerosis d. Cushing Syndrome Q.45) An 18-year-old female patient comes with the following findings. Which of the following is pathognomic of the primary stage of this disease?  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 a. Papule b. Pustule c. Abscess d. Comedone Q.46) A patient presented with multiple painful blisters on an erythematous base. along a dermatome on the trunk as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis? a. Herpes simplex b. Herpes zoster c. Molluscum contagiosum d. Chicken pox Q.47) Koebner's phenomenon is seen in all of the following, except? a. Vitiligo b. Psoriasis c. Lichen planus d. Herpes Q.48) A 22-year-old college student presents with small, depigmented lesions which have been there for over 2 years now, as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis?  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 a. Melasma b. Vitiligo c. Psoriasis d. Dermatitis herpetiformis Q.49) Sign seen in urticarial pigmentosa is elicited by stroking: a. Lesional skin b. Perilesional skin c. Both d. None Q.50) Papillary tip microabscesses are seen in: a. Dermatitis Herpetiformis b. Pemphigus c. Pemphigoid d. Pemphigus foliaceus  DERMATOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDF’S DATED ON 14-11-2024 ANSWER KEY 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. a  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST PHYSIOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 18 NOVEMBER 2024 QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is a characteristic of cerebellar lesions? a. Hyperreflexia c. Increased muscle tone b. Ataxia d. Positive Babinski sign Q.2) Which of the following is the main function of the cerebellum? a. Control of emotions b. Regulation of blood pressure c. Coordination of voluntary movements d. Memory consolidation Q.3) The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is primarily involved in the secretion of which of the following hormones? a. Growth hormone b. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) d. Luteinizing hormone (LH) Q.4) Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is primarily responsible for regulating the circadian rhythm? a. Lateral hypothalamic nucleus c. Paraventricular nucleus b. Suprachiasmatic nucleus d. Dorsomedial nucleus Q.5) Which of the following best describes sensory feedback during phantom limb sensation? a. The sensation of touch, temperature, and pain in the missing limb b. A loss of sensation in the residual limb c. Sensation felt only at the stump site d. Complete loss of tactile sensation Q.6) The limbic lobe includes which of the following structures? a. Hippocampus, amygdala, and cingulate gyrus b. Cerebellum, pons, and medulla c. Thalamus, hypothalamus, and basal ganglia d. Temporal lobe, occipital lobe, and frontal lobe Q.7) In REM sleep, the EEG typically shows: a. High-amplitude, low-frequency waves b. Low-amplitude, mixed-frequency waves c. Dominance of delta waves d. The same pattern as in deep sleep Q.8) Which of the following is true about Stage 1 sleep? a. It is the deepest stage of NREM sleep 1  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST PHYSIOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 18 NOVEMBER 2024 b. It is associated with rapid eye movements c. It is a transitional stage between wakefulness and sleep d. It features slow delta waves Q.9) Corticospinal tract injury results in: a. Flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy b. Spastic paralysis and hyperreflexia c. Decreased reflexes and weakness d. Sensory loss and motor weakness Q.10) The Babinski sign is negative in cases of lower motor neuron injury because: a. The corticospinal tract is intact b. The reflex arc is absent or damaged c. There is excessive reflex activity d. The deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive Q.11) Basal ganglia lesions (such as in Parkinson's disease) can lead to which of the following signs? a. Hemiplegia and loss of sensation b. Spasticity and hyperreflexia c. Bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors d. Ataxia and dysmetria Q.12) Which of the following sensory modalities is carried by the posterior column-medial lemniscal pathway? a. Pain and temperature b. Proprioception, touch, and vibration c. Crude touch and itch d. Pain and pressure Q.13) A patient with Broca's aphasia would most likely have which of the following features? a. Repetition is impaired, and speech is fluent but nonsensical b. Speech is slow, labored, and non-fluent, with intact comprehension c. Fluency is intact, but comprehension is severely impaired d. Severe difficulty in understanding spoken language, but speech is normal Q.14) Hemiballismus is caused by damage to the: a. Caudate nucleus b. Subthalamic nucleus c. Globus pallidus d. Putamen Q.15) The primary function of astrocytes in the central nervous system is: a. To form myelin sheaths around axons b. To act as the first line of defense against infections 2  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST PHYSIOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 18 NOVEMBER 2024 c. To provide structural support and regulate the blood-brain barrier d. To transmit electrical impulses Q.16) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the myelin sheath? a. It insulates axons b. It prevents the leakage of electrical current from the axon c. It speeds up the transmission of electrical impulses d. It is formed by schawnn cell in the CNS Q.17) In neuropraxia (a mild form of peripheral nerve injury), the injury is characterized by: a. Axonal degeneration b. Disruption of the nerve's myelin sheath without axonal damage c. Complete loss of nerve function d. Formation of a glial scar Q.18) Complete heart block on ECG is characterized by: a. P waves with no QRS complexes b. Atrial rate faster than the ventricular rate with regular intervals c. No P waves visible d. Narrow QRS complexes and regular rhythm Q.19) The S-T segment on an ECG represents: a. Depolarization of the ventricles b. Repolarization of the ventricles c. Plateau phase of ventricular action potential d. Time between the atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization Q.20) Which of the following would decrease peristalsis? a. Increased sympathetic nervous activity b. Decreased sympathetic nervous activity c. Increased parasympathetic stimulation d. Release of acetylcholine Q.21) Which of the following is true match regarding intestinal absorption? a. Iron – Jejunum b. Folic acid – Ileum c. Calcium – small intenstine d. Salicylate – Duodenum Q.22) Glucose absorption in enterocyte (contra luminal) is which type of transport? a. Facilitated diffusion via SGLT 1 b. Facilitated diffusion via GLUT 4 c. Facilitated diffusion via GLUT 2 d. Passive diffusion via SGLT 1 3  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST PHYSIOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 18 NOVEMBER 2024 Q.23) The function of salivary amylase is to: a. Break down proteins into amino acids b. Convert glycogen into glucose c. Break down starch into maltose d. Break down lipids into fatty acids Q.24) The enzyme carboxypeptidase primarily breaks down: a. Fatty acids b. Carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Nucleic acids Q.25) The vagus nerve primarily affects the enteric nervous system by: a. Stimulating peristalsis and enzyme secretion b. Inhibiting motility in the small intestine c. Decreasing blood flow to the intestines d. Inhibiting gastric acid secretion Q.26) The components of Waldeyer’s ring include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Palatine tonsils b. Pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) c. Lingual tonsils d. Submandibular glands Q.27) The relationship between the volume of blood in the ventricles and the pressure in the left ventricle during the cardiac cycle is shown by the: a. Frank-Starling curve b. Starling's law of the heart c. Cardiac output equation d. Ventricular pressure-volume loop Q.28) Which of the following best describes isovolumetric relaxation? a. Ventricular pressure decreases, and the ventricles fill with blood b. Ventricles are relaxing, but all valves are closed, so the volume of blood in the ventricles does not change c. The atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles d. The AV valves are open, and the semilunar valves are closed Q.29) Image shown below refers to which heart condition? 4  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST PHYSIOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 18 NOVEMBER 2024 a. Aortic regurgitation b. Mitral regurgitation c. PDA d. Aortic stenosis Q.30) Which is true match regarding ventricular action potential- a. Phase 0 corresponds to sodium efflux b. Phase 3 corresponds to Potassium influx c. Phase 1 corresponds to calcium efflux d. Phase 2 corresponds to calcium influx Q.31) The JVP is elevated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. Right ventricular failure b. Constrictive pericarditis c. Hypervolemia d. Aortic stenosis Q.32) A positive Kussmaul's sign is seen in which of the following conditions? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction c. Constrictive pericarditis d. Aortic stenosis Q.33) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the baroreceptor reflex? a. It is triggered by changes in blood pressure b. It acts through the vagus nerve and sympathetic nerves c. It involves receptors located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch d. It is activated by changes in blood oxygen levels Q.34) The "Bezold-Jarisch reflex" is a reflex that results in: a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia and hypotension c. Hypertension 5  MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST PHYSIOLOGY SUBJECT WISE TEST PDFs DATED ON 18 NOVEMBER 2024 d. Increased myocardial contractility Q.35) Which of the following conditions will increase end-systolic volume (ESV)? a. Increased preload b. Increased myocardial contractility c. Increased afterload d. Decreased afterload Q.36) In the context of the Frank-Starling law, which of the following correctly describes the relationship between preload and stroke volume? a. Increased preload leads to a decreased stroke volume. b. Increased preload leads to an increase in stroke volume until the point of myocardial overstretch. c. Increased preload leads to a decrease in end-diastolic volume (EDV). d. Stroke volume is independent of preload. Q.37) In a patient with mitral regurgitation, you would expect: a. An increase in end-systolic volume (ESV) due to regurgitation. b. A decrease in stroke volume despite an increase in preload. c. A decreased end-diastolic volume (EDV) due to ineffective ventricular filling. d. An increase in stroke volume and cardiac output due to volume overload. Q.38) What effect does increased afterload have on stroke volume and ejection fraction (EF)? a. Increased afterload decreases stroke volume and decreases ejection fraction (EF). b. Increased afterload increases stroke volume and increases ejection fraction (EF). c. Increased a