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Questions and Answers

What is the diagnosis for a young girl presenting with pain, discharge, and swelling on the upper lid?

  • Trichiasis
  • Stye (correct)
  • Sebaceous cell carcinoma
  • Infected chalazion

In Argyll Robertson pupil, what reflex is typically lost?

  • Both light and accommodation reflex normal
  • Absent light reflex, but accommodation reflex normal (correct)
  • Both light and accommodation reflex lost
  • Normal light reflex, but accommodation reflex is lost

Which surgical procedure does not involve phacoemulsification?

  • Microincision cataract surgery
  • Small incision cataract surgery SICS
  • Intracapsular cataract extraction (correct)
  • Phacoemulsification

What is the possible diagnosis for a young girl who developed a painful red eye after sharing contact lenses?

<p>Acanthamoeba keratitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lesion with lusterless cornea is indicative of which condition?

<p>Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option is not typically used to correct a -5.0D refractive error?

<p>INTACS (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication decreases the secretion of aqueous humor to reduce intraocular pressure?

<p>Timolol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 2-year-old child with a white pupillary reflex and a cauliflower-like mass in the retina?

<p>Retinoblastoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause for joint pains in a patient presenting with ocular findings?

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a case of bilateral disc edema with a history of amaurosis fugax, what is the next step in management?

<p>CT scan Brain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What diagnosis is indicated by a patient with a painful red eye, high intraocular pressure, and shallow anterior chamber?

<p>Phacomorphic glaucoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the S-T segment on an ECG represent?

<p>Repolarization of the ventricles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by keratic precipitates in an eye examination?

<p>Keratic precipitates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate treatment for a patient with severe eye pain, red eye, and a mid-dilated pupil?

<p>I/V Mannitol and atropine eye drops (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor would decrease peristalsis?

<p>Increased sympathetic nervous activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nutrient is absorbed primarily in the jejunum?

<p>Iron (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the probable diagnosis for a patient on Hydroxychloroquine presenting decreased vision?

<p>Bull’s eye maculopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Glucose absorption in enterocytes occurs via which type of transport?

<p>Facilitated diffusion via SGLT 1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a young man with drooping eyelids and double vision worsening in the evening, what condition should be investigated?

<p>Myasthenia gravis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary function of salivary amylase is to:

<p>Break down starch into maltose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme primarily breaks down proteins?

<p>Carboxypeptidase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The vagus nerve primarily influences the enteric nervous system by:

<p>Stimulating peristalsis and enzyme secretion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does not form part of Waldeyer’s ring?

<p>Submandibular glands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 65-year-old lady with decreased vision after cataract surgery?

<p>Secondary cataract (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cycloplegic agent is most suitable for refraction in a 6-year-old child with squint?

<p>0.5% tropicamide drops (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Trachoma is incorrect?

<p>Azithromycin is the drug of the choice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 20-year-old with night blindness and progressive vision loss is likely suffering from what condition?

<p>Retinitis pigmentosa (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause of irreversible vision loss 5 years after a metal work accident?

<p>Siderosis bulbi (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about sympathetic ophthalmia is false?

<p>The first sign is retrolental flare (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What grade of hypertensive retinopathy is indicated by disc edema and flame-shaped hemorrhages?

<p>Grade 3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis in an 18-year-old boy showing a specific sign?

<p>Corneal Tomography (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely diagnosis, most common etiology, and treatment for a 54-year-old Canadian citizen visiting India who reported acute gastroenteritis?

<p>Travellers’ diarrhea, ETEC, azithromycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which triad is associated with Weil's disease in a 45-year-old janitor?

<p>Rains, rice fields, rodent urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the correct combination of findings for a 65-year-old diagnosed by Duke’s criteria.

<p>Oslers nodes, Janeways lesions, Roths spots (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary focus findings in a 64-year-old with low grade evening fever, chronic cough, and hemoptysis?

<p>Ghon’s, Ranke's, Simon’s (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a 65-year-old with peptic ulcers and a positive C14 urease test, what is the diagnosis and treatment?

<p>Helicobacter, clarithromycin + metronidazole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnosis, etiology, and treatment for a 25-year-old with a painful soft ulcer and inguinal bubo after unprotected contact?

<p>Chancroid, Hemophilus ducreyi, azithromycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnosis and treatment for a 20-year-old with ulnar nerve thickening?

<p>Leprosy, Rifampicin, Clofazimine, Dapsone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can have similar manifestations as Naja naja snakebite?

<p>Myasthenia gravis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the interpretation for a patient with HBsAg + HBeAg positive and IgG Anti HBc + HBeAg negative?

<p>Hepatitis B with high infectivity, Chronic Hepatitis B with low infectivity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vector is involved in a case presenting with fever, headache, and seizures following a mosquito bite?

<p>Aedes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnosis is least likely for a child with fever and cephalocaudal rash after exposure at playschool?

<p>Varicella (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely diagnosis for a laborer with fever and encephalitis after tasting palm toddy from an area inhabited by fruit bats?

<p>Nipah, no treatment, no vaccine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a syndrome matched to its corresponding virus?

<p>Duncan syndrome - Epstein Barr virus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which conditions can be associated with a continuous machinery murmur in a 2-month-old baby due to transplacental infection?

<p>Patent ductus arteriosus, congenital rubella, ibuprofen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of an arbovirus exposure not seen in India, which viruses are most likely?

<p>Ebola virus, Yellow fever virus, RFV virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these conditions describes a secondary effect leading to the presence of petechiae?

<p>Thrombocytopenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Acute gastroenteritis likely diagnosis in a Canadian visitor to India

Likely diagnosis is traveler's diarrhea, caused by ETEC, treated with azithromycin.

Weil's disease and associated triad

Weil's disease involves rodents, typically associated with rats, river water &/or rust. Note associated triad.

Infective endocarditis diagnosis with Duke's criteria

Diagnosis involves finding specific signs like Osler nodes, Janeway lesions, or Roth spots.

Tuberculosis lung complex and its components

Tuberculosis involves Ghon's complex (primary focus) plus secondary complications like Ranke and Simon's complexes.

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Peptic ulcer with C14 urease test finding

Positive C14 urease test points to Helicobacter infection, treatment involves antibiotics like clarithromycin and metronidazole.

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STD with painful ulcer, bubo and lymphadenopathy etiology and treatment

Chancroid, caused by Hemophilus ducreyi, is usually treated with azithromycin.

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Ulnar nerve thickening possible diagnosis and treatment

Possible cause is Leprosy: It's treated with a combination of specific drugs (Rifampicin, Clofazimine, Dapsone).

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Snake bite (Naja naja) similar manifestation condition

Organophosphate poisoning can have similar manifestations to a snake bite.

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HIV treatment drugs

A combination of drugs (Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Dolutegravir) used to treat HIV.

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Chikungunya treatment

Ribavirin is a treatment option for Chikungunya.

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Hepatitis B, low infectivity

HBsAg+ and HBeAg positive; and IgG Anti HBc+ HBeAg negative, suggest Hepatitis B with low infectivity versus Acute Hepatitis B with low infectivity

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Arboviral infection, dead-end host

An infection transmitted by arthropods (e.g., mosquitoes) where the infection doesn't spread further in the ecosystem; e.g. humans exposed to a specific arbovirus might not infect other animals.

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Rash-causing childhood illness

Rubella, Roseola, and Varicella (chickenpox) can cause rashes; Rubeola (measles) also causes rashes but is not included in the given options..

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Nipah virus exposure

Exposure to fruit bats can lead to a Nipah virus infection. Tasting contaminated palm toddy (a fermented palm sap drink) is a potential risk.

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Arbovirus exposure in Africa

Exposure to arboviruses like Ebola, Yellow fever, or RFV virus is possible when traveling to Africa.

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Continuous machinery murmur in baby

A continuous machinery murmur in a 2-month-old baby can be associated with congenital rubella syndrome or Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which requires medical attention.

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Stye

A painful, red bump on the eyelid caused by an infection of the oil glands.

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Argyll Robertson Pupil

A condition where the pupil reacts to accommodation but not to light. The pupils constrict when focusing on a near object but do not constrict in response to a bright light.

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Yoke Muscle

Two muscles that work together to produce a specific eye movement. For example, the left eye superior rectus and the right eye superior rectus are yoke muscles for levoelevation.

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Acanthamoeba Keratitis

A severe infection of the cornea caused by a single-celled organism called Acanthamoeba. It can occur in contact lens wearers, especially if they use contaminated lenses or solution.

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Xerophthalmia

Dryness of the eye due to vitamin A deficiency. It can lead to corneal clouding, decreased vision, and even blindness.

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Phakic IOL

An implantable lens placed in the eye to correct refractive errors without removing the natural lens.

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Timolol

A type of eye drop that lowers eye pressure by reducing the production of aqueous humor.

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Retinoblastoma

A type of cancer that starts in the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. It is more common in children.

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Secondary Cataract

A clouding of the lens capsule that develops after successful cataract surgery, decreasing vision.

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Cycloplegic for Refraction in Children

Tropicamide drops are the preferred cycloplegic for refraction in children with squint, as it provides temporary paralysis of the ciliary muscle.

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Trachoma Characteristic

Sago grain follicles, trichiasis, and papillae development on the tarsal conjunctiva are all features of trachoma. Azithromycin is the drug of choice for this bacterial infection.

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Retinitis Pigmentosa

Progressive vision loss, night blindness, and difficulty seeing peripherally are characteristic of Retinitis Pigmentosa. Fundoscopic findings will show characteristic changes.

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Siderosis Bulbi

A serious complication of iron foreign bodies in the eye, leading to irreversible vision loss.

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Sympathetic Ophthalmia

A rare complication of eye trauma where the other eye develops inflammation even if it wasn't directly injured.

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Grade 4 Hypertensive Retinopathy

Disc edema, flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots are signs of Grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy, indicating severe hypertensive crisis.

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Keratometry

This investigation measures the curvature of the cornea, crucial for fitting contact lenses and refractive surgery.

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S-T Segment on ECG

The S-T segment on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, which is the period when the ventricles are fully depolarized and the heart muscle remains contracted before repolarization.

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What Decreases Peristalsis?

Increased sympathetic nervous activity decreases peristalsis in the digestive tract. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the 'fight or flight' response, which prioritizes other bodily functions over digestion.

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Iron Absorption Location

Iron is primarily absorbed in the jejunum, the middle part of the small intestine.

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Glucose Absorption in Enterocytes

Glucose absorption in enterocytes (intestinal cells) is facilitated diffusion via SGLT 1 (Sodium-glucose cotransporter 1). SGLT 1 uses the energy of sodium gradient to move glucose against its concentration gradient.

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Salivary Amylase Function

Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose, a smaller sugar molecule.

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Carboxypeptidase Breakdown

Carboxypeptidase primarily breaks down proteins into shorter peptides, which are further broken down into amino acids by other enzymes.

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Vagus Nerve Effect on Enteric Nervous System

The vagus nerve stimulates peristalsis and enzyme secretion in the digestive tract. It is part of the parasympathetic nervous system, which promotes digestion during 'rest and digest' states.

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Components of Waldeyer’s Ring

Waldeyer's ring is a collection of lymphatic tissues in the pharynx that helps protect against infection. It includes the palatine tonsils, pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids), and lingual tonsils. The submandibular glands are not part of Waldeyer's ring.

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Myopia

Nearsightedness, a refractive error where distant objects appear blurry, while near objects are seen clearly. It occurs when the eyeball is too long or the cornea is too curved, causing light to focus in front of the retina.

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Presbyopia

Age-related loss of near vision, making it difficult to focus on close objects. This is due to the natural stiffening and thickening of the lens, making it less flexible.

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What causes disc edema?

Disc edema, also known as papilledema, is swelling of the optic nerve head. It usually indicates increased pressure within the skull (intracranial pressure), which can be caused by various conditions like brain tumors, hydrocephalus, or meningitis.

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Acute anterior uveitis

Inflammation of the front part of the uvea (middle layer of the eye), specifically the iris and ciliary body. Symptoms include severe eye pain, redness, blurry vision, and sensitivity to light.

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What is the treatment for acute angle closure glaucoma?

Acute angle closure glaucoma is a medical emergency characterized by a sudden rise in eye pressure when the iris blocks the flow of fluid. Immediate treatment includes reducing the eye pressure with medications like IV mannitol, and widening the angle with eye drops like pilocarpine.

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Bull's eye maculopathy

A characteristic pattern of retinal damage seen in patients taking hydroxychloroquine (a medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and lupus). The central macula appears darker than the surrounding retina, resembling a bull's eye.

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What is Myasthenia Gravis?

An autoimmune disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles. It occurs when the antibodies produced by the body's own immune system attack the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Myasthenia Gravis can affect the muscles that control eyelid movement (causing drooping) and eye movement (causing double vision).

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Study Notes

General Study Notes

  •  Focus on actively engaging with the material, rather than just passively reading it.
  •  Develop a system for organizing your notes, this could be by topic, concept, or date/time. Use headings and subheadings to make your notes readable.
  • Summarize information in your own words, creating unique study notes.
  •  Maintain accuracy; if unsure about a fact, confirm it.
  • Create illustrations or diagrams when relevant, these aids understanding of complex topics.
  • Regularly review your notes and practice recalling information without looking at the material. Ask yourself questions about factual data.
  •  Use different colours and formats to make your notes visually appealing, this will help with memory and recall. Consider bullet points; numbering; underlining important concepts; using different coloured ink or highlighter.
  •  Actively engage with the learning material and form study groups. Discuss concepts, work on problems together, and quiz one another.
  •  Break down large tasks into smaller, more manageable sections, this will make the workload less overwhelming.

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