Urinalysis and Body Fluids Past Paper PDF

Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 1 - SAFETY AND QUALITY ASSESSMENT 10. Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a 1. In the urinalysis laboratory...

Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 1 - SAFETY AND QUALITY ASSESSMENT 10. Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a 1. In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the biologic hazard in the form of: chain of infection would be: a. Vectors a. Patients b. Sharps contamination b. Needle sticks c. Aerosols c. Specimens d. Specimen contamination d. Bio-hazardous waste 11. An employee who accidentally spills acid on his arm 2. The best way to break the chain of infection is: should immediately: a. Hand sanitizing a. Neutralize acid with a base b. Personal protective equipment b. Hold the arm under running water for 15 c. Aerosol prevention minutes d. Decontamination c. Consult the MSDSs 3. The current routine infection control policy developed d. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency by CDC and followed in all health-care setting is: department a. Universal precautions 12. When combining acid and water, ensure that: b. Isolation precautions a. Acid is added to water c. Blood and body fluid precautions b. Water is added to acid d. Standard precautions c. They are added simultaneously 4. An employee who is accidentally exposed to a possible d. Water is slowly added to acid blood-borne pathogen should immediately: 13. An employee can learn the carcinogenic potential of a. Report to a supervisor potassium chloride by consulting the: b. Flush the area with water a. Chemical hygiene plan c. Clean the area with disinfectant b. Material safety data sheets d. Receive HIV prophylaxis c. OSHA standards 5. Personnel in the urinalysis laboratory should wear lab d. Urinalysis procedure manual coats that: 14. Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they a. Do not have buttons a. Wearing contact lenses b. Are fluid resistant b. Allergic to iodine c. Have short sleeves c. Sensitive to latex d. Have full length zippers d. Pregnant 6. All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous 15. All of the following are safe to do when removing the waste containers except: source of an electric shock except: a. Urine specimen containers a. Pulling the person away from the instrument b. Towels used for decontamination b. Turning off the circuit breaker c. Disposable lab coats c. Using a glass container to move the instrument d. Blood collection tubes d. Unplugging the instrument 7. An employer who fails to provide sufficient gloves for 16. The acronym PASS refers to: the employees may be fined by the: a. Presence of vital chemicals a. CDC b. Operation of a fire extinguisher b. NFPA c. Labeling of hazardous material c. OSHA d. Presence of radioactive substances d. FDA 17. The system used by firefighters when a fire occurs in 8. An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body fluid the laboratory is: decontamination is: a. MSDS a. Sodium hydroxide b. RACE b. Antimicrobial soap c. NFPA c. Hydrogen peroxide d. PASS d. Sodium hypochlorite 18. A class ABC fire extinguisher contains: 9. Proper handwashing includes the following except: a. Sand a. Using warm water b. Water b. Rubbing to create a lather c. Dry chemicals c. Rinsing hands in a downward position d. Acids d. Turning on the water with a paper towel 1 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 19. The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to: 28. As supervisor of the urinalysis laboratory, you have a. Rescue persons in danger just adopted a new procedure. You should: b. Activate the alarm system a. Put the package insert in the procedure manual c. Close door to other areas b. Put a complete, reference procedure in the d. Extinguish the fire if possible manual 20. If a red rash is observed after removing gloves, the c. Notify the microbiology department employee: d. Put a cost analysis study in the procedure a. May be washing her hands too often manual b. May have developed a latex allergy 29. Pre-examination (1) c. Should apply cortisone cream Examination(2) d. Should not rub the hands so vigorously Post- examination(3) 21. Pipetting by mouth is: a. Acceptable for urine but not serum 2 Reagent expiration date b. Not acceptable without proper training 1 rejecting a contaminated specimen c. Acceptable for reagents but not specimens 2 constructing a Levy-Jennings chart d. Not acceptable in the laboratory 3 Telephoning a (+) Clinitest result on a newborn 22. The NFPA classification symbol contains information 2 Calibrating the centrifuge on all of the following except: 1 Collecting a timed urine specimen a. Fire hazards 30. The testing of sample from an outside agency and the b. Biohazards comparison of results with participating laboratories is c. Reactivity called: d. Health hazards a. External QC 23. The classification of a fire that can be extinguished b. Electronic QC with water is: c. Internal QC a. Class A d. Proficiency testing b. Class B 31. A color change that indicates that a sufficient amount c. Class C of patient’s specimen or reagent is added correctly to the d. Class D test system would be an example of: 24. Employees are required to provide free immunization a. External QC for: b. Electronic QC a. HIV c. Internal QC b. HTLV-1 d. Proficiency testing c. HBV 32. What steps are taken when the results of reagent d. HCV strip QC are outside of the stated confidence limits? 25. A possible-physical hazard in the hospital is: a. Check the expiration date of the reagent strip a. Wearing close-toed shoes b. Run a new control b. Not wearing jewelry c. Open a new reagent strip container c. Having short hair d. All of the above d. Running to answer the telephone 33. When a new bottle of QC material is opened. What 26. Quality assessment refers to: information is placed on the label? a. Analysis of testing controls a. The supervisor’s initials b. Increased productivity b. The lot number c. Precise control results c. The date and the laboratory workers initials d. Quality of specimens and patient care d. The time the bottle was opened 27. During laboratory accreditation inspections, 34. When a control is run, what information is procedure manuals are examined for the presence of: documented? a. Critical values a. The lot number b. Procedure references b. Expiration date of the control c. Procedures for specimen preservation c. The test results d. All of the above d. All of the above 2 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 2 - INTRODUCTION TO URINALYSIS 44. For general screening the most frequently collected 35. The average daily output of urine is: urine is a: a. 200 mL a. Random b. 500 mL b. First morning c. 1200 mL c. Midstream clean-catch d. 2500 mL d. Timed 36. An unidentified fluid is received in the laboratory with 45. The primary advantage of a first-morning urine a request to determine whether the fluid is urine or specimen over a random specimen is that it: another body fluid. Using urine laboratory tests, what test a. Is less contaminated would determine that the fluid is most probably urine? b. Is more concentrated a. Glucose and ketones c. Is less concentrated b. Urea and creatinine d. Has a higher volume c. Uric acid and amino acids 46. If a routine urinalysis and a culture are requested on d. Protein and amino acids a catheterized specimen, then: 37. The primary inorganic substance found in urine is: a. Two separate containers must be selected a. Sodium b. The routine urinalysis is performed firs t b. Phosphate c. The patient must be recatheterized c. Chloride d. The culture is performed first d. Calcium 47. If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when 38. A patient presenting with polyuria, nocturia, collecting a timed specimen the: polydipsia, and a low urine specific gravity is exhibiting a. Specimen must be recollected symptoms of: b. Results will be falsely elevated a. Diabetes insipidus c. Results will be falsely decreased b. Diabetes mellitus d. Both A and B c. Urinary tract infection 48. The primary cause of unsatisfactory results in an d. Uremia unpreserved routine specimen not tested for 8 hrs is: 39. A patient with oliguria might progress to having: a. Bacterial growth a. Nocturia b. Glycolysis b. Polyuria c. Decreased pH c. Polydipsia d. Chemical oxidation d. Anuria 49. Prolonged exposure of a preserved urine specimen to 40. All of the following are characteristics of light will cause: recommended containers except: a. Decrease glucose a. A flat bottom b. Increase cells and casts b. A capacity of 50mL c. Decreased bilirubin c. A snap-on lid d. Increased bacteria d. Are disposable 50. Which of the following would be least affected in a 41. Labels for urine containers are: specimen that has remained unpreserved at room a. Attached to the container temperature for more than 2 hours? b. Attached to the lid a. Urobilinogen c. Placed on the container prior to collection b. Ketones d. Not detectable c. Protein 42. A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory d. Nitrite for all of the following reasons except the fact that the: 51. Bacterial growth in an unpreserved specimen will: a. Requisition states the specimen is catheterized a. Decrease clarity b. Specimen contains toilet paper b. Increase bilirubin c. Label and requisition do not match c. Decrease pH d. Outside of the container has fecal material d. Increase glucose contamination 52. The most sterile specimen collected is a: 43. A cloudy specimen received in the laboratory may a. Catheterized have been preserved using: b. Midstream clean-catch a. Boric acid c. Refrigeration c. Three glass b. Chloroform d. formalin d. Suprapubic 3 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 54. Which of the following would not be given to a 62. Secretion of renin is stimulated by: patient prior to the collection of a midstream clean-catch a. Juxtaglomerular cells specimen? b. Angiotensin I and II a. Sterile container c. Macula densa cells b. Iodine cleanser d. Circulating angiotensin-converting enzyme c. Antiseptic towelette 63. The hormone aldosterone is responsible for: d. Instructions a. Hydrogen ion secretion 55. Urine specimen collection for drug testing requires b. Potassium secretion the collector to do all of the following, except: c. Chloride-retention a. Inspect the specimen color d. Sodium retention b. Perform reagent strip testing 64. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity c. Read the specimen temperature of: d. Fill out a chain-of-custody form a. 1.005 b. 1.010 CHAPTER 3 - RENAL FUNCTION c. 1.015 56. The type of nephron responsible for renal d. 1.020 concentration is the: 65. For active transport to occur, a chemical: a. Cortical a. Must combine with a carrier protein to create b. Juxtaglomerular electrochemical energy 57. The function of the peritubular capillaries is: b. Must be filtered through the proximal a. Reabsorption convoluted tubule b. Filtration c. Must be in higher concentration in the filtrate c. Secretion than in the blood d. Both A and C d. Must be in higher concentration in the blood 58. Blood flows through the nephron in the following than in the filtrate order: 66. Which of the tubules is impermeable to water? a. Efferent areteriole,peritubular capillaries, vasa a. Proximal convoluted tubule recta, afferent arteriole b. Descending loop of henle b. Peritubular capillaries,afferent arteriole,vasa c. Ascending loop of henle recta,efferent arteriole d. Distal convoluted tubule c. Afferent arteriole,peritubular capillaries,vasa 67. Glucose will appear in the urine when the: recta, efferent arteriole a. Blood level of glucose is 200mg/dL d. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular b. Tm for glucose is exceeded capillaries, afferent arteriole c. Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded 59. Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus d. All of the above by: 68. Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the a. Hydrostatic pressure countercurrent mechanism depends on all of the following b. Oncotic pressure except: c. Renin a. High salt concentration in the medulla d. Glomerular filtration barrier b. Water impermeable walls of the ascending loop 60. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is of henle responsible for all of the following except: c. Reabsorption of Sodium and Chloride from the a. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole ascending loop of henle b. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole d. Reabsorption of water in the descending loop c. Reabsorbing sodium of henle d. Releasing aldosterone 69. ADH regulates the final urine concentration by 61. The primary chemical affected by the controlling: renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is: a. Active reabsorption of Sodium a. Chloride b. Tubular permeability b. Sodium c. Passive reabsorption of urea c. Potassium d. Passive reabsorption of Chloride d. Hydrogen 4 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 70. Decreased production of ADH: 78. Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM a. Produces low urine volume estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of b. Produces high urine volume the following except: c. Increases ammonia excretion a. Serum creatinine d. Affects active transport of sodium b. Weight 71. Bicarbonate ions filtered by the glomerulus are c. Age returned to the blood: d. Gender a. In the proximal convoluted tubule 79. An advantage to using Cystatin C to monitor GFR is that: b. Combined with hydrogen ions a. It does not require urine collection c. By tubular secretion b. It is not secreted by the tubules d. All of the above c. It can be measured by immunoassay 72. If ammonia is not produced by the distal convoluted d. All of the above tubule, the urine pH will be: 80. Solute dissolved in solvent will: a. Acidic a. Raise the vapor pressure b. Basic b. Lower the boiling point 73. Place the appropriate letter in front of the following c. Decrease the osmotic pressure clearance substances: A. Exogenous B. Endogenous d. Lower the freezing point 81. Substances that may interfere with freezing point ___ beta-2-microglobulin measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of ___creatinine the following except: ___cystatin C a. Ethanol ___ 125-I-iothalmate b. Lactic acid c. Sodium 74. The largest source of error in creatinine clearance d. Lipids tests is: 82. Clinical osmometers use NaCl as a reference solution a. Secretion of creatinine because: b. Improperly timed urine specimen a. 1 g molecular weight of NaCl will lower the c. Refrigeration of urine freezing point 1.86ºC d. Time of collecting blood sample b. NaCl is readily frozen 75. Given the following information, calculate the c. NaCl is partially ionized similar to the creatinine clearance: composition of urine 24hr urine volume: 1000mL d. 1 g equivalent weight of NaCl will raise the Serum creatinine: 2.0mg/dL freezing point of 1.86ºC Urine creatinine: 200mg/dL 83. The normal serum osmolarity is: a. 50 to 100 mOsm = 1000ml/1440 = 0.694 b. 275 to 300 mOsm = (200 x 0.69) / 2.0 = 69 mL/min c. 400 to 500 mOsm d. 3 times the urine osmolarity 76. Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular 84. After controlled fluid intake, the urine-to-serum filtration rate must measure substances that are: osmolarity ratio should be atleast: a. Not filtered by the glomerulus a. 1:1 b. Completely reabsorbed by the proximal b. 2:1 convoluted tubule c. 3:1 c. Secreted in the distal convoluted tubule d. 4:1 d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules 85. Calculate the free water clearance from the following results: 77. Performing a clearance test using radionucleotides: Urine volume in 6 hours: 720mL a. Eliminates the need to collect urine Urine osmolarity: 225 mOsm b. Does not require an infusion Plasma osmolarity: 300 mOsm c. Provides visualization of the filtration d. Both A and C 5 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 86. To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow, a 94. Specimens that contain hemoglobin can be visually test substance should be completely: distinguished from those that contain RBCs because: a. Filtered by the glomerulus a. Hemoglobin causes a clear, yellow specimen b. Reabsorbed by the tubules b. Hemoglobin produces a cloudy, pink specimen c. Secreted when it reaches the distal convoluted c. RBCs produce a cloudy red specimen tubule d. RBCs produce a clear red specimen d. Cleared on each contact with functional renal 95. A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have tissue been 87. Given the following data, calculate the effective renal a. Treated for a urinary tract infection plasma flow: b. Taking vitamin B pills Urine volume in 2 hrs: 240 mL c. Eating fresh carrots Urine PAH: 150 mg/dL d. Taking antidepressants Plasma PAH: 0/5 mg/dL 96. The presence of a pink precipitate in a refrigerated 88. Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the: specimen is caused by: a. Production of excessively acidic urine due to a. Hemoglobin increased filtration of hydrogen ions b. Urobilin b. Production of excessively acidic urine due to c. Uroerythrin increased secretion of hydrogen ions d. Beets c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to 97. Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces impaired production of ammonia a white precipitate after refrigeration will show: d. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to a. Amorphous urates increased production of ammonia b. Porphyrins 89. Tests performed to detect renal tubular acidosis after c. Amorphous phosphates administering an ammonium chloride load include all of d. Yeast the following except: 98. The color of urine containing porphyrins will be: a. Urine ammonia a. Yellow-brown b. Arterial pH b. Green c. Urine pH c. Orange d. Titratable acidity d. Port-wine ~END~ 99. Which of the following specific gravity would be most likely to correlate with a pale yellow urine? CHAPTER 4 - PHYSICAL EXAMINATION OF URINE a. 1.005 90. The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be b. 1.010 estimated by which of the following? c. 1.020 a. Color d. 1.030 b. Clarity 100. Which of the following specific gravity measured by a c. Foam refractometer is 1.029, and the temperature of urine is d. Odor 14ºC. The specific gravity should be reported as: 91. The normal pale yellow color of urine is produced by: a. 1.023 a. Bilirubin b. 1.027 b. Hemoglobin c. 1.029 c. Urobilinogen d. 1.032 d. Urochrome 101. The principle of refractive index is to compare: 92. Presence of bilirubin in a urine specimen produces a: a. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in a. Yellow foam when shaken solids b. White foam when shaken b. Light velocity in air with light velocity in c. Cloudy specimen solutions d. Yellow-red specimen c. Light scattering by air with light scattering by 93. A urine specimen containing melanin will appear: solutions a. Pale pink d. Light scattering by particles in solution b. Dark yellow c. Blue green d. Black 6 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 102. A correlation exists between a specific gravity by 110. An osmole contains: refractometer of 1.050 and a: a. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved a. 2+ glucose in one liter solvent b. First morning specimen b. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved c. 2+ protein in one kilogram of solvent d. Radiographic dye infusion c. Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved 103. A cloudy urine specimen turns black upon standing in one liter solvent and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern d. Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved about this specimen would be: in one kilogram of solvent a. Color b. Turbidity 111. The unit of osmolality measured in the clinical c. Specific gravity laboratory is the: d. All of the above a. Osmole 104. A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.035 would be b. Milliosmole considered: c. Molecular weight a. Isosthenuric d. Ionic charge b. Hyposthenuric 112. In the reagent strip specific gravity reaction the c. Hypersthenuric polyelectrolyte: d. Not urine a. Combines with hydrogen ion in response to ion 105. A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be concentration considered: b. Releases hydrogen ion in response to ion a. Hyposthenuric concentration b. Not urine c. Releases hydrogen ions in response to pH c. Hypersthenuric d. Combines with sodium ions in response to pH d. Isosthenuric 113. Which of the following will react in the reagent strip 106. A strong odor of ammonia in specimen could indicate: specific gravity test? a. Ketones a. Glucose b. Normalcy b. Radiographic dye c. Phenylketonuria c. Protein d. An old specimen d. Chloride 107. The microscopic of a clear res urine is reported as many WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest? a. Urinary tract infection b. Dilute random specimen c. Hematuria d. Possible mix up of specimen and sediment 108. Which of the following would contribute the most to urine osmolality? a. One osmole of glucose b. One osmole of urea c. One osmole of sodium chloride d. All contribute equally 109.Which of the following colligative properties is not stated correctly? a. The boiling point is raised by solute b. The freezing point is raised by solute c. The vapor pressure is lowered by solute d. The osmotic pressure is raised by solute 7 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 5 - CHEMICAL EXAMINATION OF URINE 123. 1 - Pre- renal 2 - Renal 3 - Post-renal 114. Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after 2 Microalbuminuria removing it from the specimen will: 1 Acute phase reactants a. Cause run-over between reagent pads 2 Pre-eclampsia b. Alter the color of the specimen 3 Vaginal inflammation c. Cause specimens to leach from the pads 1 Multiple myeloma d. Not affect the chemical reactions 2 Orthostatic proteinuria 115. Failure to mix a specimen before inserting the reagent 3 Prostatitis strip will primarily affect the: a. Glucose reading 124. The principle of the protein error of indicators b. Blood reading reaction is that: c. Leukocyte reading a. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant d. Both B and C b. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the 116. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed indicator to room temperature will adversely affect: c. The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from the a. Enzymatic reactions albumin b. Dye-binding reactions d. Albumin changes the pH of the urine c. Sodium nitroprusside reaction 125. All of the following will cause false-positive protein d. Diazo reaction reagent strip values except: 117. The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest a. Microalbuminuria reaction time is the: b. Highly buffered alkaline urines a. Bilirubin c. Delay in removing the reagent strip from the b. pH specimen c. Leukocyte esterase d. Contamination by quaternary ammonium d. Glucose compounds 118. Quality control reagent strips is performed: 126. A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the afternoon is a. Using positive and negative controls asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second b. When results are questionable specimen has a negative protein reading. This patient is: c. Atleast once every 24 hours a. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria d. All of the above b. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria 119. All of the following are important to protect the c. Positive for Bence Jones protein integrity of reagent strips except: d. Negative for clinical proteinuria a. Removing the desiccant from the bottle 127. Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for early b. Storing in an opaque bottle detection of kidney disease and monitoring patients with: c. Storing at room temperature a. Hypertension d. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip b. Diabetes mellitus 120. The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the: c. Cardiovascular disease risk a. Protein error of indicators d. All of the above b. Greiss reaction 128. The primary chemical on the reagent strip in the c. Dissociation of polyelectrolyte Micral test for microalbumin binds to: d. Double indicator reaction a. Protein 121. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0: b. Antihuman albumin antibody a. Indicates metabollic acidosis c. Conjugated enzyme b. Should be recollected d. Galactosidase c. May contain calcium oxalate crystals 129. All of the following are true for the ImmunoDip test d. Is seen after drinking cranberry juice for microalbumin except: 122. In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated a. Unbound antibody migrates farther than bound with pH is: antibody a. Identifying urinary crystals b. Blue latex particles are coated with antihuman b. Monitoring vegetarian diets albumin antibody c. Determining specimen acceptability c. Bound antibody migrates further than unbound d. Both A and C antibody d. It utilizes an immunochromatographic principle 8 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 130. The principle of the protein-high pad on the Multistix 139. The three intermediate products of fat metabolism Pro reagent strip is the: include all of the following except: a. Diazo reaction a. Acetoacetic acid b. Enzymatic dye-binding reaction b. Ketoacetic acid c. Protein error of indicators c. β-hydroxybutyric acid d. Microalbumin-micral test d. Acetone 131. Which of the following is not tested on the Multistix 140. The most significant reagent strip test that is Pro reagent strip? associated with a positive ketone result is: a. Urobilinogen a. Glucose b. Specific gravity b. Protein c. Creatinine c. pH d. Protein-high d. Specific gravity 132. The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the 141. The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for Multistix Pro is the: ketones is: a. Binding of albumin to sulphonaphthalein dye a. Glycine b. Immunologic binding of albumin to antibody b. Lactose c. Reverse protein error of indicators reaction c. Sodium hydroxide d. Enzymatic reaction between albumin and dye d. Sodium nitroprusside 133. The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on 142. Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following microalbumin reagent strips is the: except: a. Double indicator reaction a. Bacterial infections b. Diazo reaction b. Diabetic acidosis c. Pseudoperoxidase reaction c. Starvation d. Reduction of a chromogen d. Vomiting 134. The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio 143. Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and is to: abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for: a. Estimate the glomerular filtration rate a. Glucosuria b. Correct for hydration in random specimens b. Proteinuria c. Avoid interference for alkaline urines c. Hematuria d. Correct for abnormally colored urines d. Hemoglobinuria 135. A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for: 144. 1 - Hemoglobinuria 2- Myoglobinuria a. Diabetes mellitus 1 - Associated with transfusion reactions b. Renal disease 2 - Clear red urine and pale yellow plasma c. Gestational diabetes 1 - Clear red urine and red plasma d. Pancreatitis 2 - Associated with rhabdomyolosis 136. The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is 1 - Produces hemosiderin granules in urinary the: sediments a. Peroxidase activity of glucose 2 - Associated with acute renal failure b. Glucose oxidase reaction c. Double sequential enzyme reaction 145. The principle of the reagent strip test fer blood is d. Dye-binding of glucose and chromogen based on the: 137. All of the following may produce a false-negative a. Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye glucose reactions except: b. Peroxidase activity of heme a. Detergent contamination c. Reaction of peroxide and chromogen b. Ascorbic acid d. Diazo activity of heme c. Unpreserved specimens 146. A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent d. Low urine temperature strip indicates: 138. The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to: a. Hematuria a. Check for high ascorbic acid levels b. Hemoglobinuria b. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose c. Myoglobinuria c. Check for newborn galactosuria d. All of the above d. Confirm a negative glucose reading 9 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 147. Products of hemoglobin degradation: 156. A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte 1 Conjugated bilirubin esterase test is an indication of a: 2 Unconjugated bilirubin a. Dilute random specimen 3 Urobilinogen and stercobilinogen b. Specimen with lysed leukocytes 4 Urobilin c. Vaginal yeast infection 148. The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is d. Specimen older than 2 hours the: 157. All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte a. Diazo reaction esterase reaction except: b. Ehrlich reaction a. Neutrophils c. Greiss reaction b. Eosinophils d. Peroxidase reaction c. Lymphocytes 149. An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen d. Basophils is indicative of: 158. Screening tests for urinary infection combine the a. Cirrhosis of the liver leukocyte esterase test with the test for: b. Hemolytic disease a. pH c. Hepatitis b. Nitrite d. Biliary obstruction c. Protein 150. The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin d. Blood reaction is: 159. The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip a. Highly pigmented urine test uses a: b. Specimen contamination a. Peroxidase reaction c. Specimen exposure to sunlight b. Double indicator reaction d. Excess conjugated bilirubin c. Diazo reaction 151. The purpose of the special mat supplied with the d. Dye-binding technique Ictotest tablets is that: 160. The principle of reagent strip test for specific gravity a. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat uses the dissociation constant of a(n): b. It contains the dye needed to produce color a. Diazonium salt c. It removes interfering substances b. Indicator dye d. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat c. Polyelectrolyte 152. The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen d. Enzyme substrate is: 161. A specific gravity of 1.005 would produce the a. A diazonium salt reagent strip color: b. Tetramethylbenzidine a. Blue c. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde b. Green d. Hoesch reagent c. Yellow 153. The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using d. Red Ehrlich reagent is: 162. Reagent strip-specific gravity readings are affected a. Positive reactions with porphobilinogen by: b. Lack of specificity a. Glucose c. Positive reaction with Ehrlich’s reactive b. Radiographic dye substances c. Alkaline urine d. All of the above d. All of the above 154. The reagent strip for nitrite uses: a. Greiss reaction b. Ehrlich reaction c. Peroxidase reaction d. Pseudoperoxidase reaction 155. All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except: a. Gram-positive bacteria b. Gram-negative bacteria c. Random urine specimen d. Heavy bacterial infections 10 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 6 - MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF 171. The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine URINE sediments to do all of the following except: 163. Macroscopic screening of urine specimen is used to: a. Increase visibility of sediment constituents a. Provide results as soon as possible b. Change the constituents refractive index b. Predict the type of urinary casts present c. Decrease the precipitation of crystals c. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis d. Delineate constituent structures d. Decrease the need for polarized microscopy 172. Nuclear detail can be enhanced by: 164. Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include a. Prussian blue all of the following except: b. Toluidine blue a. Preparation of urine sediment c. Acetic acid b. Amount of sediment analyzed d. Both B and C c. Method of reporting 173. Which of the following lipids stained by Sudan III? d. Identification of formed elements a. Cholesterol 165. All of the following can cause false-negative b. Neutral fats microscopic results except: c. Triglycerides a. Braking the centrifuge d. Both B and C b. Failure to mix the specimen c. Dilute alkaline urine 174. Which of the following lipids is/are capable of d. Using midstream clean-catch specimen polarizing light? 166. The two factors that determine relative centrifugal a. Cholesterol force are: b. Triglycerides a. Radius of rotor head and rpm c. Neutral fats b. Radius of rotor head and time of centrifugation d. Both A and B c. Diameter of rotor head and rpm 175. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify: d. RPM and time of centrifugation a. Neutrophils b. Renal tubular cells 167. When using the glass slide and cover slip method, c. Eosinophils which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is d. Monocytes overflowed? 176. Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is: a. Casts a. Hyposthenuric b. RBCs b. Hypersthenuric c. WBCs c. Highly acidic d. Bacteria d. Highly alkaline 168. Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed 177. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast and oil droplets using an objective power of: may be accomplished by all of the following except: a. 4x a. Observation of budding in yeast cells b. 10x b. Increased refractility of oil droplets c. 40x c. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid d. 100x d. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid 169. Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy? 178. A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of: a. Centering screws a. Glomerular bleeding b. Aperture diaphragm b. Renal calculi c. Rheostat c. Traumatic injury d. Condenser aperture diaphragm d. Coagulation disorders 170. Which of the following are reported as number per 179. Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer- lpf? Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are: a. RBCs a. Indicative of pyelonephritis b. WBCs b. Basophils c. Crystals c. Mononuclear leokocytes d. Casts d. Glitter cells 11 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 180. Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for: 190. A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a a. Yeast cells Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not b. Squamous epithelial cells stain with Sudan III. The structure: c. Pollen grains a. Contains cholesterol d. Renal tubular cells b. Is not an oval fat body 181. When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide c. Contains neutral fats should be carefully checked for the presence of: d. Is contaminated with immersion oil a. RBCs 200. The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly b. Bacteria associated with: c. Hyaline casts a. Cystitis d. Mucus b. Diabetes mellitus 182. Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the: c. Pyelonephritis a. Collecting duct d. Liver disorders b. Vagina 201. The primary component of urinary mucus is: c. Bladder a. Bence jones protein d. Proximal convoluted tubule b. Microalbumin 183. The largest cells in the urine sediment are: c. Uromodulin a. Squamous epithelial cells d. Orthostatic protein b. Urothelial epithelial cells 202. The majority of casts are formed in the: c. Cuboidal epithelial cells a. Proximal convoluted tubules d. Columnar epithelial cells b. Ascending lood of henle 184. A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the: c. Distal convoluted tubules a. Cuboidal cell d. Collecting ducts b. Clue cell 203. Cylindruria refers to the presence of: c. Caudate cell a. Cylindrical renal tubular cells d. Columnar cell b. Mucus-resembling casts 185. Forms of transitional cells includes all, except: c. Hyaline and waxy casts a. Spherical d. All types of casts b. Caudate 204. A person submitting a urine specimen following a c. Convoluted strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the d. Polyhedral following in the sediment except: 186. Increased transitional cells are indicative of: a. Hyaline casts a. Catheterization b. Granular casts b. Malignancy c. RBC casts c. Pyelonephritis d. WBC casts d. Both A and B 205. Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following 187. A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular should be observed except: epithelial cells is: a. Free-floating RBCs a. Elongated structure b. Intact RBCs in the cast b. Centrally located nucleus c. Presence of a cast matrix c. Spherical appearance d. A positive reagent strip blood reaction d. Eccentrically located nucleus 206. WBC casts are primarily associated with: 188. Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells a. Pyelonephritis may contain: b. Cystitis a. Bilirubin c. Glomerulonephritis b. Hemosiderin granules d. Viral infections c. Porphobilinogen 207. The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular d. Myoglobin casts is primarily: 189. The predecessor of the oval fat body is the: a. Elongated a. Histiocyte b. Cuboidal b. Urothelial cell c. Round c. Monocyte d. Columnar d. Renal tubular cell 12 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 208. When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily: 218. a. Embedded in a clear matrix b. Embedded in a granular matrix Pink sediment Amorphous urates c. Attached to a surface matrix Yellow-brown,whetstone Uric Acid d. Stained by components of the urine filtrate Ovoid Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate 209. The presence of fatty casts is associated with: Envelopes Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Crush injuries c. Diabetes mellitus 219. d. All of the above 210. Nonpathogenic granular casts contain: “Coffin lids” Triple phosphate a. Cellular lysosomes White precipitate Amorphous phosphate b. Degenerated cells Thin prisms Calcium phosphate c. Protein aggregates Thorny apple Ammonium biurate d. Gram-positive cocci Dumbbell shape Calcium carbonate 211. All of the following are true about waxy casts except: a. Represent extreme urine stasis 220. b. May have a brittle consistency c. They require staining to be visualized Hexagonal plates Cystine d. Contains degenerated granules Fine needles seen in Liver disease Tyrosine 212. Observation of broad casts represents: Notched corners Cholesterol a. Destruction of tubular walls Concentric circles, radial striations Leucine b. Dehydration and high fever Bundles following refrigeration Ampicillin c. Formation in the collecting ducts Flat plates, high specific gravity Radiographic dye d. Both A and C Bright yellow clumps Bilirubin 213. All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except: 221. a. Protein concentration b. pH c. Solute concentration Low refractive index objects may be Bright-field d. Temperature overlooked 214. The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in Forms halo of light around object Phase a urine specimen is: a. pH Objects split light into two beams Polarized b. Solubility Indirect light is reflected off the Dark-field c. Staining object d. Polarized microscopy Detects specific wavelength of light Fluorescent 215. Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all emitted from objects of the following except: Three-dimensional images Interference a. Bilirubin contrast b. Leucine c. Cystine d. Tyrosine 216. All of the following crystals routinely polarize except: a. Uric acid b. Cholesterol c. Radiographic dye d. Cystine 217. Casts and fibers can usually be differentiated using: a. Solubility characteristics b. Patient history c. Polarized light d. Fluorescent light 13 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 7 - RENAL DISEASE 233. An inherited disorder producing generalized defect in 223. Most glomerular disorders are caused by: tubular reabsorption is: a. Sudden drops in blood pressure a. Alport syndrome b. Immunologic disorders b. Acute interstitial nephritis c. Exposure to toxic substances c. Fanconi syndrome d. Bacterial infections d. Renal glycosuria 224. Dysmorphic RBC casts is significant t all, except: 234. A teenage boy who developed gout in his big toe and a. Goodpasture syndrome has a high serum uric acid should be monitored for: b. Acute glomerulonephritis a. Fanconi syndrome c. Chronic pyelonephritis b. Renal calculi d. Henoch-Schӧnlein purpura c. Uromodulin-associated kidney disease 225. Occasional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over d. Chronic interstitial nephritis periods of 20 or more years are seen with: 235. The only protein produced by the kidney is: a. Crescentic glomerulonephritis a. Albumin b. IgA nephropathy b. Uromodulin c. Nephrotic syndrome c. Uroprotein d. Wegener granulomatosis d. Globulin 226. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody: 236. The presence of RTE cells and casts is an indication of: a. Wegener granulomatosis a. Acute interstitial nephritis b. IgA nephropathy b. Chronic glomerulonephritis c. Goodpasture syndrome c. Minimal change disease d. Diabetic nephropathy d. Acute tubular necrosis 227. Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody diagnostic for: 237. Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis: a. IgA nephropathy a. WBC casts b. Wegener granulomatosis b. RBC casts c. Henoch-Schӧnlein purpura c. Bacteria d. Goodpasture syndrome d. Granular casts 228. Respiratory and renal symproms are associated with 238. Presence of WBCs and WBC cast with no bacteria is: all of the following except: a. Chronic pyelonephritis a. IgA nephropathy b. Acute tubular necrosis b. Wegener granulomatosis c. Acute interstitial nephritis c. Henoch-Schӧnlein purpura d. Both B and C d. Goodpasture syndrome 239. End-stage renal disease is characterized by all, except: 229. The presence of fatty casts is associated w/ all, except: a. Hypersthenuria a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Isosthenuria b. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis c. Azotemia c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus d. Electrolyte imbalance d. Minimal change disease 240. Prerenal acute renal failure could be caused by: 230. The highest levels of proteinuria are seen in: a. Massive hemorrhage a. Alport syndrome b. Acute tubular necrosis b. Diabetic nephropathy c. Acute interstitial nephritis c. IgA nephropathy d. Malignant tumors d. Nephrotic syndrome 241. The most common composition of renal calculi is: 231. Ischemia frequently produces: a. Calcium oxalate a. Acute renal tubular necrosis b. Magnesium ammonium phosphate b. Minimal change disorder c. Cystine c. Renal glycosuria d. Uric acid d. Goodpasture’s syndrome 242. Urinalysis on a patient w/ severe back pain being 232. A disorder associated w/ polyuria and low Specific Gr: evaluated for renal calculi would be more beneficial with: a. Renal glucosuria a. Heavy proteinuria b. Minimal change disease b. Low specific gravity c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus c. Uric acid crystals d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis d. Microscopic hematuria 14 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition CHAPTER 8 - URINE SCREENING FOR 252. Ketonuria in a newborn is an indication of: METABOLLIC DISORDERS a. MSUD 243. All states require newborn screening for PKU for early: b. Isovaleric acidemia a. Modifications of diet c. Methylmalonic acidemia b. Administration of antibiotics d. All of the above c. Detection of diabetes 253. Urine from a newborn with MSUD will have a d. Initiation of gene theraphy significant: 244. All of the following disorders can be detected by a. Pale color newborn screening, except: b. Yellow precipitate a. Tyrosyluria c. Milky appearance b. MSUD d. Sweet odor c. Melanuria 254. Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with d. Galactosemia metabolism of: 245. The best specimen for early newborn screening is a: a. Organic acids a. Timed urine specimen b. Tryptophan b. Blood specimen c. Cystine c. First morning urine specimen d. Phenyalanine d. Fecal specimen 255. 5-HIAA is a degradation product of: 246. Abnormal urine screening tests categorized as an a. Heme overflow disorder include all of the following, except: b. Indole a. Alkaptonuria c. Serotonin b. Galactosemia d. Melanin c. Melanuria 256. Elevated urinary levels of 5-HIAA are associated with: d. Cystinuria a. Carcinoid tumors 247. Which of the following disorders is not associated with b. Hartnup disease the phenyalanine-tyrosine pathway? c. Cstinuria a. MSUD d. Platelet disorders b. Alkaptonuria 257. False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet c. Albinism high in: d. Tyrosinemia a. Meat 248. The least serious form of tyrosylemia is: b. Carbohydrates a. Immature liver function c. Starch b. Type 1 d. Bananas c. Type 2 258. A. Cystinuria d. Type 3 B. Cystinosis 249. An overflow disorder of the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway that would produce a positive reaction with the B IEM reagent strip test for ketones is: A Inherited disorder of tubular reabsorption a. Alkaptonuria B Fanconi syndrome b. Melanuria B Cystine deposits in the cornea c. MSUD A Early renal calculi formation d. Tyrosyluria 250. An overflow disorder that could produce a 259. Blue diaper syndrome is associated with: false-positive reaction with Clinitest procedure is: a. Lesch-nyhan syndrome a. Cystinuria b. Phenylketonuria b. Alkaptonuria c. Cystinuria c. Indicanuria d. Hartnup disease d. Porphyrinuria 260. Homocystinuria is caused by failure to metabolize: 251. A urine that turns black after several hours: a. Lysine a. Alkaptonuria b. Methionine b. MSUD c. Arginine c. Melanuria d. Cystine d. Both A and C 15 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 261. The Ehrlich reaction will only detect the presence of: CHAPTER 9 - CEREBROSPINAL FLUID a. Uroporphyrin 270. The functions of CSF include all the following except: b. Porphobilinogen a. Removing metabolic wastes c. Coproporphyrin b. Producing an ultrafiltrate of plasma d. Protoporphyrin c. Supplying nutrients to the CNS 262. Acetyl acetone is added to the urine before d. Protecting the brain and spinal cord performing the Ehrlich test when checking for: 271. The CSF flows through the: a. Aminolevulinic acid a. Choroid plexus b. Porphobilinogen b. Pia mater c. Uroporphyrin c. Arachnoid space d. Coproporphyrin d. Dura mater 263. The classic urine color associated with porphyria is: 272. Substances present in the CSF are controlled by the: a. Dark yellow a. Arachnoid granulations b. Indigo blue b. Blood-brain barrier c. Pink c. Presence of one-way valves d. Port-wine d. Blood-CSF barrier 264. Which of the following specimens can be used for 273. What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely porphyrin testing? sent to? a. Urine a. Hematology b. Blood b. Chemistry c. Feces c. Microbiology d. All of the above d. Serology 265. The two stages of heme formation affected by lead 274. The CSF tube that should be kept at room poisoning are: temperature is: a. Porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin a. Tube 1 b. Aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen b. Tube 2 c. Coproporphyrin and protoporphyrin c. Tube 3 d. Aminolevulinic acid and protoporphyrin d. Tube 4 266. Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo syndromes are 275. A. Traumatic Tap hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of: B. Intracranial hemorrhage a. Porphyrins B Even distribution of blood in all tubes b. Purines B Xanthochromic supernatant c. Mucopolysaccharides A Concentration of blood in Tube 1 is > Tube 3 d. Tryptophan A Specimen contains clots 267. Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen 276. The presence of xanthochromia can be caused by all may indicate: of the following except: a. Hurler syndrome a. Immature liver function b. Lesch-Nyhan disease b. RBC degradation c. Melituria c. A recent hemorrhage d. Sanfilippo syndrome d. Elevated CSF protein 268. Deficiency of GALT enzyme will produce a: 277. A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen a. Positive clinitest indicates: b. Glycosuria a. Tubercular meningitis c. Galactosemia b. Multiple sclerosis d. Both A and C c. Primary CNS malignancy 269. d. Viral meningitis Mousy odor Phenylketonuria 278. Given the following information, calculate the CSF Blue color Indicanuria WBC count: cells counted. 80; dilution, 1:10; Large Sulfur odor Cystinuria Neubauer squares counted, 10. Black color Alkaptonuria a. 8 Orange sand in diaper Lesch-Nyhan disease b. 80 Sweaty feet odor Isovaleric acidemia c. 800 d. 8000 16 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 279. A CSF WBC count is diluted with: 288. Hemosiderin granules and hematoidin crystals are a. Distilled water seen in: b. Normal saline a. Lymphocytes c. Acetic acid b. Macrophages d. Hypotonic saline c. Ependymal cells 280. A total CSF count on a clear fluid should be: d. Neutrophils a. Reported as normal 289. Myeloblasts are seen in the CSF: b. Not reported a. In bacterial infections c. Diluted with normal saline b. In conjunction with CNS malignancy d. Counted undiluted c. After cerebral hemorrhage 281. The purpose of adding albumin CSF before d. As a complication of acute leukemia cytocentrifugation is to: 290. Cells resembling large and small lyphocytes with a. Increase the cell yield cleaved nuclei represent: b. Decrease the cellular distortion a. Lymphoma cells c. Improve the cellular staining b. Choroid cells d. Both A and B c. Melanoma cells d. Medulloblastoma cells 282.The primary concern when pleocytosis of neutrophils 291. The reference range for CSF protein is: and lymphocytes is found in the CSF is: a. 6 to 8 g/dL a. Meningitis b. 15 to 45 g/dL b. CNS malignancy c. 6 to 8 mg/dL c. Multiple sclerosis d. 15 to 45 mg/dL d. Hemorrhage 292. CSF can be differentiated from serum by the 283. Neutrophils with pyknotic nuclei may be mistaken for: presence of: a. Lymphocytes a. Albumin b. Nucleated RBCs b. Globulin c. Malignant cells c. Prealbumin d. Spindle-shaped cells d. Tau transferrin 284.The presence of which of the following cells is 293. In serum, the second most prevalent protein is IgG; increased in a parasitic infection: in CSF, the second most prevalent protein is: a. Neutrophils a. Transferrin b. Macrophages b. Prealbumin c. Eosinophils c. IgA d. Lymphocytes d. Ceruloplasmin 285. Macrophages appear in the CSF after: 294. Elevated CSF protein values can be caused by all of a. Hemorrhage the following except: b. Repeated spinal taps a. Meningitis c. Diagnostic procedures b. Multiple sclerosis d. All of the above c. Fluid leakage 286. Nucleated RBCs are seen in the CSF as a result of: d. CNS malignancy a. Elevated blood RBCs 295. The integrity of the blood-brain barrier is measured b. Treatment of anemia using the: c. Severe hemorrhage a. CSF/serum albumin index d. Bone marrow contamination b. CSF/serum globulin ratio 287. After a CNS diagnotic procedure, which of the c. CSF albumin index following might be seen in the CSF? d. CSF IgG index a. Choroidal cells 296. Given the following results, calculate the IgG index: b. Ependymal cells CSF IgG;50mg/dL; serum IgG, 2g/dL; CSF albumin, 70mg/dL; c. Spindle-shaped cells serum albumin, 5g/dL d. All of the above a. 0.6 b. 6.0 c. 1.8 d. 2.8 17 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 297. The CSF IgG Index calculated in question #296 CHAPTER 10 - SEMEN indicates: 306. Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the: a. Synthesis of IgG in the CNS a. Sertoli cells b. Damage to the blood-brain barrier b. Seminiferous tubules c. Cerebral hemorrhage c. Epididymis d. Lymphoma infiltration d. Seminal vesicles 298. The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and not in 307. Enzymes for the coagulation and liquefaction of the serum is seen with: semen are produced by the: a. Multiple myeloma a. Seminal vesicles b. CNS malignancy b. Bulbourethral glands c. Multiple sclerosis c. Ductus deferens d. Viral infections d. Prostate gland 299. A CSF glucose of 15mg/dL, WBC count of 5000, 90% 308. The major component of seminal fluid is: neutrophils, and protein of 80mg/dL suggests: a. Glucose a. Fungal meningitis b. Fructose b. Viral meningitis c. Acid phosphatase c. Tubercular meningitis d. Citric acid d. Bacterial meningitis 309. If the first portion of the semen specimen is not 300. A patient with a blood glucose of 120mg/dL would collected, the semen analysis will have which of the have a normal CSF glucose: following? a. 20 mg/dL a. Decreased pH b. 60 mg/dL b. Increased viscosity c. 80 mg/dL c. Decreased sperm count d. 120 mg/dL d. Decreased sperm motility 301. CSF Lactate will be more consistently decreased in: 310. Failure of laboratory personnel to document the a. Bacterial meningitis time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the b. Viral meningitis interpretation of semen: c. Fungal meningitis a. Appearance d. Tubercular meningitis b. Volume 302. Measurement of which of the following can be c. pH replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye d. Viscosity syndrome? 311. Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place a. Ammonia within: b. Lactate a. 1 hour c. Glucose b. 2 hours d. α-Ketoglutarate c. 3 hours 303. Before performing a Gram stain on CSF, the d. 4 hours specimen must be: a. Filtered 312. A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a b. Warmed to 37ºC condom has a normal sperm count and marked decreased c. Centrifuged sperm motility. This indicates: d. Mixed a. Decreased fructose 304. All of the following statements are true about b. Antispermicide in condom cryptococcal meningitis except: c. Increased semen viscosity a. An India ink preparation is positive d. Increased semen alkalinity b. A starburst pattern is seen on Gram stain 313. An increased semen pH may be caused by: c. The WBC count is over 2000 a. Prostatic infection d. A confirmatory immunology test is available b. Decreased prostatic secretions 305. The test of choice to detect neurosyphilis is the: c. Decreased bulbourethral gland secretions a. RPR d. All of the above b. VDRL c. FAB d. FTA-ABS 18 ~trixibelle ♡ Urinalysis and Body Fluids 11/2022 Strasinger/Di Lorenzo - 6th Edition 314. Proteolytic enzymes may be added to semen 322. The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to: specimens to: a. Penetrate the ovum a. Increase the viscosity b. Protect the nucleus b. Dilute the specimen c. Create energy for tail movement c. Decrease the viscosity d. Protect the neckpiece d. Neutralize the specimen 323. The sperm part containing a mitochondrial sheath is: 315. The normal sperm concentration is: a. Head a. Less than 20 million/uL b. Neckpiece b. More than 20 million/mL c. Midpiece c. Less than 20 million/mL d. Tail d. More than 20 million/uL 324. All of the following are associated with sperm 316. Given the following information, calculate the sperm motility except the: concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm counted in 5 RBC a. Head squares on each side of the hemocytometer, 80 and 86, b. Neckpiece volume, 3mL. c. Midpiece a. 80 million/mL d. Tail b. 83 million/mL 325. The morphologic shape of a normal sperm head is: c. 86 million/mL a. Round d. 169 million/uL b. Tapered 317. Using the above information, calculate the sperm c. Ovoid concentration when 80 sperm are counted in one WBC d. Amorphous square and 86 sperm are counted in another WBC square. 326. Normal sperm morphology when using the WHO a. 83 million/mL criteria is: b. 166 million per ejaculate a. >30% normal forms c. 16.6 million/mL b. 15% abnormal forms 318. The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen d.