SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Exam 2016 Past Paper PDF

SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Exam - 2016 "held on 02 March 2017" Afternoon Shift (General Engineering) QID : 201 - For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used is _____. Options: 1) hydraulic lime 2) fat lime 3) quick lime 4) pure lime Correct Answer: hydraulic...

SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Exam - 2016 "held on 02 March 2017" Afternoon Shift (General Engineering) QID : 201 - For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used is _____. Options: 1) hydraulic lime 2) fat lime 3) quick lime 4) pure lime Correct Answer: hydraulic lime QID : 202 - The compound of Portland cement which reacts immediately with water and also sets first is _____. Options: 1) Tri-calcium silicate 2) Di-calcium silicate 3) Tri-calcium aluminate 4) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite Correct Answer: Tri-calcium aluminate QID : 203 - Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to _____. Options: 1) larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement 2) lesser proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement 3) lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement 4) larger proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement Correct Answer: larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement QID : 204 - The percentage of water for normal consistency is _____. Options: 1) 5 % to 15% 2) 10% to 25% 3) 15% to 25% 4) 20% to 30% Correct Answer: 15% to 25% Page |1 QID : 205 - Soundness test of cement determines _____. Options: 1) quality of free lime 2) ultimate strength 3) durability 4) initial setting Correct Answer: quality of free lime QID : 206 - Bulking of sand is caused due to _____. Options: 1) surface moisture 2) air voids 3) viscosity 4) clay contents Correct Answer: surface moisture QID : 207 - For a 50 kg cement bag, water required is _____. Options: 1) 16.5 liters 2) 18.5 liters 3) 20.5 liters 4) 22.5 liters Correct Answer: 22.5 liters QID : 208 - Pick up the correct statement from the following Method of sawing timber _____. Options: 1) tangentially to annual rings, is known as tangential method 2) in four quarters such that each board cuts annual rings at angles not less than 45°, is known as quarter sawing method 3) cut out of quarter logs, parallel to the medullary rays and perpendicular to annual rings is known as radial sawing 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 209 - For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that grains of adjacent veneers are _____. Page |2 Options: 1) at right angles 2) parallel 3) inclined at 45° 4) inclined at 60° Correct Answer: at right angles QID : 210 - The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and half the length is called _____. Options: 1) closer 2) queen closer 3) king closer 4) squint brick Correct Answer: king closer QID : 211 - The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept _____. Options: 1) 60 cm 2) 70 cm 3) 75 cm to 80 cm 4) 80 cm Correct Answer: 75 cm to 80 cm QID : 212 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) In order to check up the average depth of excavation, ‘Dead mans' are left at the mid- widths of borrow pits 2) The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with a level 3) The earthwork done in excavation is to form the road embankment includes the formation of correct profiles and depositing the soil in layers 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 213 - If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by _____. Page |3 Options: 1) Mid-section formula 2) Trapezoidal formula 3) Prismoidal formula 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 214 - The area of a sloping surface of a protective embankment of mean height d, side slopes S:1 and length L is _____. Options: 1) d x d x s 2) √[(d2 x (ds2)] 3) L.D √(1+s2) 4) 2Ld √(1+s2) Correct Answer: L.D √(1+s2) QID : 215 - A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick gravel. The cubic content of concrete (1:2:4) for the road specified in is _____. Options: 1) 300 m3 2) 600 m3 3) 900 m3 4) 1200 m3 Correct Answer: 1200 m3 Page |4 QID : 216 - Options: 1) 1/2(b1+b2)h 2) (b1+b2)h+ Sb2 3) (b1+b2)+2Sh2 4) 2[(b1+b2)(b+Sh)] Correct Answer: (b1+b2)+2Sh2 QID : 217 - The following item of earthwork is not measured separately _____. Options: 1) Setting out of works 2) Site clearance 3) dead men 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 218 - Pick up the incorrect statement from the following _____. Options: 1) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement 2) No deduction is made for the openings up to 0.1 sq.m 3) No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq. cm in cross- section 4) None of the these Correct Answer: None of the these Page |5 QID : 219 - While estimating a reinforced cement structure the omitted cover of concrete is assumed _____. Options: 1) at the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar 2) in thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more 3) for reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar which is more 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 220 - For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1:2:4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required is _____. Options: 1) 0.90 m3 2) 0.94 m3 3) 0.98 m3 4) 1.00 m3 Correct Answer: 0.94 m3 QID : 221 - If h is the difference in height between end points of a chain of length l the required slope correction is _____. Options: 1) h2/(2l) 2) h/(2l) 3) h2/l 4) h2/(4l) Correct Answer: h2/(2l) QID : 222 - Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of α radians is _____. Options: 1) 100 α2 2) 100 α 3) 100 α3 4) 100 α(-1) Correct Answer: 100 α QID : 223 - Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying are essentially required _____. Page |6 Options: 1) to plot the chain lines 2) to plot the offsets 3) to indicate the accuracy of the survey work 4) to increase the out-turn Correct Answer: to indicate the accuracy of the survey work QID : 224 - For taking offsets with an optical square on the right hand side of the chain line it is held _____. Options: 1) by right hand upside down 2) by left hand upright 3) by right hand upright 4) by left hand upside down Correct Answer: by left hand upright QID : 225 - Options: 1) road bridge 2) railway bridge 3) canal bridge 4) aquaduct Correct Answer: road bridge QID : 226 - In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tube becomes parallel to _____. Options: 1) line of sight 2) line of collimation Page |7 3) axis of the telescope 4) None of the these Correct Answer: line of sight QID : 227 - An internal focusing type surveying telescope may be focused by the movement of _____. Options: 1) objective glass of the telescope 2) convex-lens in the telescope 3) concave lens in the telescope 4) plano-convex lens in the telescope Correct Answer: concave lens in the telescope QID : 228 - A dumpy level is set up with its eye-piece vertically over a peg A. The height from the top of peg A to the center of the eye-piece is 1.540 m and the reading on peg B is 0.705 m. The level is then setup over B. The height of the eye-piece above peg B is 1.490 m and a reading on A is 2.195 m. The difference in level between A and B is _____. Options: 1) 2.900 m 2) 3.030 m 3) 0.770 m 4) 0.785 m Correct Answer: 0.770 m QID : 229 - The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours is called _____. Options: 1) horizontal interval 2) horizontal equivalent 3) vertical equivalent 4) contour interval Correct Answer: contour interval QID : 230 - The direction of steepest slope on a contour is _____. Options: 1) along the contour 2) at an angle of 45° to the contour Page |8 3) at right angles to the contour 4) None of the these Correct Answer: at right angles to the contour QID : 231 - Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____. Options: 1) Upheaval → transportation → deposition → weathering 2) Weathering → upheaval → transportation → deposition 3) Transportation → upheaval → weathering → deposition 4) weathering → transportation → deposition → upheaval Correct Answer: weathering → transportation → deposition → upheaval QID : 232 - Water content of a soil sample is the difference of the weight of the given sample at the given temperature and the weight determined after drying it for 24 hours at temperatures ranging from _____. Options: 1) 80° to 90° C 2) 90° to 95° C 3) 95° to 100° C 4) 105° to 110° C Correct Answer: 105° to 110° C QID : 233 - Fundamental relationship between dry density (γd), bulk density (γ) and water content (ω) is _____. Options: 1) γ = γd/(1+ω) 2) γd = γ/(1+ ω) 3) ω = γ/(1+γd ) 4) ω = γ/(1-γd ) Correct Answer: γd = γ/(1+ ω) QID : 234 - Pick up the correct statement from the following _____. Options: 1) The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids 2) The porosity of a soil is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the gross volume of the soil Page |9 3) The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 235 - Alcohol is used in manometer, because _____. Options: 1) its vapor pressure is low 2) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube 3) its density is less 4) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference Correct Answer: its vapor pressure is low QID : 236 - The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called _____. Options: 1) surface tension 2) adhesion 3) cohesion 4) viscosity Correct Answer: viscosity QID : 237 - The unit of kinematic viscosity is _____. Options: 1) m2/sec 2) kg-sec/m2 3) newton-sec/m2 4) newton-sec2/m Correct Answer: m2/sec QID : 238 - The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m x 1m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be _____. Options: 1) 500 kg 2) 1000 kg 3) 1500 kg 4) 2000 kg Correct Answer: 2000 kg P a g e | 10 QID : 239 - Metacentric height is given as the distance between _____. Options: 1) the centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre 2) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of buoyancy 3) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of pressure 4) centre of buoyancy and metacentre Correct Answer: the centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre QID : 240 - The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is _____. Options: 1) p = T x r 2) p = T/r 3) p = T/2r 4) p = 2T/r Correct Answer: p = 2T/r QID : 241 - The property by which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is called _____. Options: 1) surface tension 2) co-efficient of viscosity 3) viscosity 4) osmosis Correct Answer: surface tension QID : 242 - The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases _____. Options: 1) linearly 2) first slowly then steeply 3) first steeply and then gradually 4) unpredictable Correct Answer: first slowly then steeply QID : 243 - Barometer is used to measure _____. Options: 1) pressure in pipes, channels etc.. P a g e | 11 2) atmospheric pressure 3) very low pressure 4) difference of pressure between two points Correct Answer: atmospheric pressure QID : 244 - Flow meters based on obstruction principle like orifice plates can be used with Reynold's number upto approximately _____. Options: 1) 500 2) 1000 3) 2000 4) 4000 Correct Answer: 2000 QID : 245 - The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient water for their requirements is _____. Options: 1) maximum saturated point 2) permanent wilting point 3) ultimate utilization point 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these QID : 246 - The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and specific dry unit weight is 1.5. If the depth of root zone of a crop is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil is _____. Options: 1) 8 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 14 cm Correct Answer: 12 cm QID : 247 - According to the recommendations of Nagpur Conference the width formation of an ideal National Highway in hard rock cutting is _____. Options: 1) 8.9 m 2) 7.9 m P a g e | 12 3) 6.9 m 4) 6.5 m Correct Answer: 7.9 m QID : 248 - If L is the length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve is _____. Options: 1) a= L/4R 2) a= L2/4R 3) h= L2/8R 4) h= L2/16R Correct Answer: h= L2/8R QID : 249 - Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Options: 1) Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals 2) Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge 3) Inlets are generally provided in all sewers 4) None of the these Correct Answer: Inlets are generally provided in all sewers QID : 250 - If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage flow _____. Options: 1) Q = [(4+√P)/(18+ √P)]q 2) Q = [(18 +P)/(4+ √P)]q 3) Q = [(18+√P)/(4 + √P)]q 4) Q = [(5+√P)/(15 + √P)]q Correct Answer: Q = [(18+√P)/(4 + √P)]q QID : 251 - A body is said to be in equilibrium if _____. Options: 1) it moves horizontally 2) it moves vertically 3) it rotates about its C.G. 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these P a g e | 13 QID : 252 - Options: 1) compressive stress 2) tensile stress 3) shear stress 4) None of these Correct Answer: compressive stress QID : 253 - At yield point of a test piece, the material _____. Options: 1) obeys Hooke's law 2) behaves in an elastic manner 3) regains its original shape on removal of the load 4) undergoes plastic deformation Correct Answer: undergoes plastic deformation QID : 254 - If a concrete column 200 x 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of 1200 mm2 total cross-sectional area. What is the safe load for the column if permissible stress in concrete is 5 N/mm2 and Es =15 Ec? Options: 1) 264 MN 2) 274 MN P a g e | 14 3) 284 MN 4) 294 MN Correct Answer: 284 MN QID : 255 - A steel rod of sectional area 25 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts at the ends were tightened when the rod was heated at 100° C. If αsteel = 0.000012/C°, Esteel = 0.2 MN/mm2, the tensile force developed at a temperature of 50° C is _____. Options: 1) 80 N/mm2 2) 100 N/mm2 3) 120 N/mm2 4) 150 N/mm2 Correct Answer: 120 N/mm2 QID : 256 - The ratio of tangential and normal components of a stress on an inclined plane through θ° to the direction of the force is _____. Options: 1) sin⁡θ 2) cos⁡θ 3) tan⁡θ 4) cos⁡θ Correct Answer: tan⁡θ QID : 257 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) For a uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies linearly 2) For a uniformly distributed load, bulk modular curve is a parabola 3) For a load varying linearly, the shear force curve is a parabola 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 258 - At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of the section by _____. Options: 1) depth of the section 2) depth of the neutral axis P a g e | 15 3) maximum tensile stress at the section 4) maximum compressive stress at the section Correct Answer: depth of the neutral axis QID : 259 - The moment of inertia of a circular section about any diameter D, is _____. Options: 1) (πD2)/64 2) (πD4)/32 3) (πD3)/64 4) (πD4)/64 Correct Answer: (πD4)/64 QID : 260 - In case of principal axes of a section _____. Options: 1) sum of moment of inertia is zero 2) difference of moment of inertia is zero 3) product of moment of inertia is zero 4) None of these Correct Answer: product of moment of inertia is zero QID : 261 - The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axis to the principal axis is _____. Options: 1) straight line 2) parabola 3) circle 4) ellipse Correct Answer: ellipse QID : 262 - The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a centroidal axis parallel to its base is _____. Options: 1) 1 2) 1.5 3) 2 4) 3 Correct Answer: 3 P a g e | 16 QID : 263 - If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than _____. Options: 1) 20.5 mm 2) 30.5 mm 3) 40.5 mm 4) 50.5 mm Correct Answer: 40.5 mm QID : 264 - For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures the type of cement to be avoided is _____. Options: 1) ordinary Portland cement 2) rapid hardening cement 3) low heat cement 4) blast furnace slag cement Correct Answer: blast furnace slag cement QID : 265 - Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement is _____. Options: 1) 30% 2) 40% 3) 50% 4) 60% Correct Answer: 30% QID : 266 - Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement. Options: 1) When one thrusts one's hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm 2) The color of the cement is bluish 3) A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water should sink immediately 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 267 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. P a g e | 17 Options: 1) The maximum size of a coarse aggregate is 75 mm and minimum is 4.75 mm 2) The maximum size of the fine aggregate is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.75 mm 3) The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm is known as silt 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 268 - Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from _____. Options: 1) nala beds 2) river beds 3) sea beds 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: sea beds QID : 269 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture 2) Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand 3) With 10% moisture content by weight the bulking of sand is increased by 50% 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 270 - If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5 it is graded as _____. Options: 1) very fine sand 2) fine sand 3) medium sand 4) coarse sand Correct Answer: fine sand QID : 271 - An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S. Sieve No.9, more than _____. Options: 1) 5% 2) 10% P a g e | 18 3) 15% 4) 20% Correct Answer: 10% QID : 272 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh 2) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable 3) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 273 - Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Options: 1) A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive quantity of water 2) The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases 3) If the water cement ratio is less than 0.45, the concrete is not workable and causes honey-combed structure 4) Good compaction by mechanical vibrations, increases the strength of concrete Correct Answer: A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive quantity of water QID : 274 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement 2) The concrete cured at a temperature below 23° C, gains strength up to 28 days 3) The concrete does not set at freezing point 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 275 - Hardening of cement occurs at _____. Options: 1) rapid rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a decreased rate 2) slow rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a rapid rate P a g e | 19 3) uniform rate throughout its age 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these QID : 276 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content 2) Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand 3) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 277 - The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are _____. Options: 1) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm 2) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm 3) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm 4) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm Correct Answer: 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm QID : 278 - Pick up the correct statement from the following. Options: 1) Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete 2) Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete 3) If the slump increases, workability decreases 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these QID : 279 - The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is _____. Options: 1) 100 kg/cm2 2) 150 kg/cm2 3) 200 kg/cm2 4) 250 kg/cm2 Correct Answer: 150 kg/cm2 P a g e | 20 QID : 280 - The preliminary test is repeated if the difference compressive strength of three test specimens, exceeds _____. Options: 1) 5 kg/cm2 2) 8 kg/cm2 3) 10 kg/cm2 4) 15 kg/cm2 Correct Answer: 15 kg/cm2 QID : 281 - According to load factor method, the permissible load W on a short column reinforced with longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups is _____. Options: 1) Stress in concrete x area of concrete 2) Stress in steel x area of steel 3) Stress in concrete x area of concrete + stress in steel x area of steel 4) None of these Correct Answer: Stress in concrete x area of concrete + stress in steel x area of steel QID : 282 - The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than [bar diameter x (Permissible stress in bar )/(Five times the bond stress)] or is _____. Options: 1) 12 bar diameters 2) 18 bar diameters 3) 24 bar diameters 4) 30 bar diameters Correct Answer: 24 bar diameters QID : 283 - A short column 20 cm x 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20 sq.cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the safe load on the column should not exceed _____. Options: 1) 412 kg 2) 4120 kg 3) 412000 kg 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these P a g e | 21 QID : 284 - A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension exceeds _____. Options: 1) 10 2) 15 3) 20 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these QID : 285 - If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns _____. Options: 1) continues up 2) bend inwards at the floor level 3) stops just below the floor level and separates lap bars provided 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 286 - The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab should not exceed its effective depth by _____. Options: 1) three times 2) four times 3) five times 4) six times Correct Answer: six times QID : 287 - Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab is provided to distribute _____. Options: 1) load 2) temperature stress 3) shrinkage stress 4) All options are correct Correct Answer: All options are correct QID : 288 - In a simply supported slab the minimum spacing of distribution reinforcement should be four times the effective thickness of the slab or _____. P a g e | 22 Options: 1) 20 cm 2) 30 cm 3) 40 cm 4) None of these Correct Answer: None of these QID : 289 - The modular ratio 'm' of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is 'C' may be obtained from the equation _____. Options: 1) m = 700/3C 2) m = 1400/3C 3) m = 2800/3C 4) m = 3500/3C Correct Answer: m = 2800/3C QID : 290 - For M 150 grade concrete (1 : 2 : 4) the moment of resistance factor is _____. Options: 1) 0.87 2) 8.5 3) 7.5 4) 5.8 Correct Answer: 8.5 QID : 291 - If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as _____. Options: 1) one dimensional 2) two dimensional 3) three dimensional 4) None of these Correct Answer: two dimensional QID : 292 - Design of a riveted joint assumes that _____. Options: 1) the bending stress in rivets is accounted for P a g e | 23 2) the riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet 3) the stress in the plate is not uniform 4) the friction between plates is considered Correct Answer: the riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet QID : 293 - Rolled steel T-sections are used _____. Options: 1) as columns 2) with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks 3) as built up sections to resist axial tension 4) None of these Correct Answer: with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks QID : 294 - With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its _____. Options: 1) strength 2) hardness 3) brittleness 4) ductility Correct Answer: ductility QID : 295 - If P is the wind pressure in kg/cm2, v is the velocity in km/hour and K is constant of proportionality then _____. Options: 1) P=K/v2 2) v=K/P2 3) P=Kv2 4) P=Kv Correct Answer: P=Kv2 QID : 296 - Factor of safety is the ratio of _____. Options: 1) yield stress to working stress 2) tensile stress to working stress 3) compressive stress to working stress 4) bearing stress to working stress Correct Answer: yield stress to working stress P a g e | 24 QID : 297 - The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as _____. Options: 1) modulus of elasticity 2) shear modulus of elasticity 3) bulk modulus of elasticity 4) tangent modulus of elasticity Correct Answer: shear modulus of elasticity QID : 298 - The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field are known _____. Options: 1) power driven shop rivets 2) power driven field rivets 3) hand driven rivets 4) cold driven rivets\ Correct Answer: power driven field rivets QID : 299 - The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of _____. Options: 1) cold rivet before driving 2) rivet after driving 3) rivet hole 4) None of these Correct Answer: rivet after driving QID : 300 - Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards is _____. Options: 1) 785 kg/cm2 2) 1025 kg/cm2 3) 2360 kg/cm2 4) None of the these Correct Answer: 1025 kg/cm2 (General Intelligence & Reasoning) QID : 301 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. P a g e | 25 Red : Colour :: French : ? Options: 1) foreign 2) language 3) European 4) Country Correct Answer: language QID : 302 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Chips : Potatoes :: Soda : ? Options: 1) Fizz 2) Bottle 3) Lemon 4) Water Correct Answer: Water QID : 303 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Quadrilateral : Four :: ? Options: 1) Cylinder : Circle 2) Cube : Square 3) Triangle : 180 4) Hexagon : Six Correct Answer: Hexagon : Six QID : 304 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. FGI : HIK :: STV : ? Options: 1) UVW 2) VWY 3) XYZ 4) UVX Correct Answer: UVX P a g e | 26 QID : 305 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Dream : Area :: Frame : ? Options: 1) Farmer 2) Ear 3) Fare 4) Freer Correct Answer: Fare QID : 306 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Brine : Inert :: Beware : ? Options: 1) Arenas 2) Declare 3) Spare 4) Area Correct Answer: Arenas QID : 307 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 169 : 13 :: 225 : ? Options: 1) 22 2) 25 3) 20 4) 15 Correct Answer: 15 QID : 308 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 159 : 840 :: 345 : ? Options: 1) 654 2) 765 3) 876 4) 987 P a g e | 27 Correct Answer: 654 QID : 309 - Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 761 : 928 :: 651 : ? Options: 1) 765 2) 753 3) 807 4) 951 Correct Answer: 807 QID : 310 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) kilometres 2) feet 3) grams 4) micrometers Correct Answer: grams QID : 311 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) pros and cons 2) dead or alive 3) null and void 4) sooner or later Correct Answer: null and void QID : 312 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) Crayon and Marker 2) Pen and Eraser 3) Book and Diary 4) Pen and Marker Correct Answer: Book and Diary P a g e | 28 QID : 313 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) OU 2) YC 3) IA 4) EO Correct Answer: YC QID : 314 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) Cuisine 2) Business 3) Disinterested 4) Noisiness Correct Answer: Business QID : 315 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) DRGK 2) WMUI 3) OHAU 4) XHTV Correct Answer: DRGK QID : 316 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) 7531 2) 2468 3) 9753 4) 8642 Correct Answer: 2468 QID : 317 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. P a g e | 29 Options: 1) 15 2) 25 3) 53 4) 45 Correct Answer: 53 QID : 318 - Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) 108, 132 2) 114, 156 3) 136, 152 4) 120, 138 Correct Answer: 136, 152 QID : 319 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. Cremation, Accolade, Maestro, Chrome, ? Options: 1) Very 2) Zebra 3) Virtual 4) Time Correct Answer: Zebra QID : 320 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. Toxic, Icon, Onto, Tomorrow,? Options: 1) Owl 2) Wet 3) Rat 4) Borrow Correct Answer: Owl P a g e | 30 QID : 321 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. age, dire, genre, stumpy, ? Options: 1) splayed 2) secretes 3) preacher 4) shooed Correct Answer: splayed QID : 322 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. L, J, H, F, ? Options: 1) E 2) G 3) D 4) I Correct Answer: D QID : 323 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. eca, fdb, gec, hfd, ? Options: 1) ige 2) ieg 3) gei 4) egi Correct Answer: ige QID : 324 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. XXXXOXO, XXXXOOX, XXXXOOX, XXXOXOX, ? Options: 1) XOXXOXX P a g e | 31 2) XXXXOXO 3) XXXXOOX 4) XXOXXOX Correct Answer: XXOXXOX QID : 325 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. -2, 1, 5, ?, 16 Options: 1) 9 2) 10 3) 11 4) 13 Correct Answer: 10 QID : 326 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. -10/3, ?, -2/3, 2/3, 2 Options: 1) -2 2) 2 3) -1/3 4) 1/3 Correct Answer: -2 QID : 327 - In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 23, 29, ?, 37, 41 Options: 1) 30 2) 33 3) 31 4) 35 Correct Answer: 31 QID : 328 - If a < b, d > c and a < d, which of the following is true? P a g e | 32 I. b < c II. c > a Options: 1) Only I 2) Neither I nor II 3) Only II 4) Both I and II Correct Answer: Neither I nor II QID : 329 - The weights of five boxes are 10, 30, 40, 70 & 70 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight (in kilograms) of any combination of these boxes? Options: 1) 190 2) 180 3) 210 4) 200 Correct Answer: 200 QID : 330 - If the letters Q, B, T, A, U, E & N are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 & 7 respectively. Select that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word. Options: 1) 5617312 2) 5447134 3) 2471563 4) 3242637 Correct Answer: 2471563 QID : 331 - If PROXIMAL is coded as KILCRNZO, then how will WHY be coded as? Options: 1) DSB 2) EDC 3) CDE 4) BNM Correct Answer: DSB QID : 332 - In a certain code language, 531 means 'boy is shy', 346 means 'girl is bold', 256 means 'shy or bold'. Find the code for 'or'. P a g e | 33 Options: 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5 Correct Answer: 2 QID : 333 - In a certain code language, '+' represents 'x', '-' represents '+', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. Find out the answer to the following question. 0.1 + 500 - 240 x 6 = ? Options: 1) 90 2) 10 3) 1.25 4) 108 Correct Answer: 90 QID : 334 - If A @ B means A is father of B, A # B means A is sister of B and A ! B means A is son of B, then what does E @ F ! G # H mean, if H is a male? Options: 1) H is brother of E 2) H is father of E 3) H is son of E 4) H is E's wife's brother Correct Answer: H is E's wife's brother QID : 335 - If 45@23 = 14, 76@22 = 17, then find the value of 55@10 = ? Options: 1) 8 2) 11 3) 15 4) 5 Correct Answer: 11 QID : 336 - Which of the following words follow the trend of the given list? P a g e | 34 Zonal, Tzars, Wizen, Seize, Waltz, ? Options: 1) Unitize 2) Ablaze 3) Azure 4) Sanza Correct Answer: Unitize QID : 337 - Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list? ABC, BCAB, CABCA, __________. Options: 1) BCABCA 2) CABCAB 3) ABCCBA 4) ABCABC Correct Answer: ABCABC QID : 338 - A girl walks 3 km East starting from her home. She then turns South and walks 2 km, then she turns West and walks 7 km, then she turns to her right and walks 2 km. Where is she now from her starting position? Options: 1) 10 km to the West from her home. 2) 4 km to the East from her home. 3) 10 km to the East from her home. 4) 4 km to the West from her home. Correct Answer: 4 km to the West from her home. QID : 339 - A is standing 6 m to the East of B. A walks 9 m South, then turns to his right and walks 7 m. At the same time, B has walked 3 m West, then he turned South and walked 9 m, then he turned to his left and walked 5 m. Where is B now with respect to the position of A? Options: 1) B is 12 m to the East of A 2) B is 3 m to the West of A 3) B is 3 m to the East of A 4) B is 12 m to the West of A Correct Answer: B is 3 m to the East of A P a g e | 35 QID : 340 - In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the mentioned statements. Statement 1: All huts are made of mud. Statement 2: Things made of mud are not b. Conclusion I: All huts are b. Conclusion II: Mud huts are not b. Options: 1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Either I or II follows 3) Neither I nor II follows 4) Only conclusion II follows Correct Answer: Only conclusion II follows QID : 341 - In the question a statement is given, followed by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given arguments, if any, is a b argument. Statement : Should teachers be permitted to cane unruly children? Argument I : No, this will teach them that physical violence is an acceptable means of social behaviour. Argument II : Yes, children taught in a strict atmosphere are more successful. Options: 1) only argument II is b 2) neither argument I nor II is b 3) both argument I and II are b 4) only argument I is b Correct Answer: only argument I is b P a g e | 36 QID : 342 - Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) P a g e | 37 Correct Answer: QID : 343 - Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) Correct Answer: QID : 344 - Which of the following diagrams represent the relationship between Engineers, Software Engineers and Chemical Engineers? P a g e | 38 Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) Correct Answer: P a g e | 39 QID : 345 - Options: 1) E, F and B 2) A, E and F 3) B, A and E 4) G, F and A Correct Answer: G, F and A QID : 346 - Options: 1) P a g e | 40 2) 3) 4) Correct Answer: QID : 347 - P a g e | 41 Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) Correct Answer: QID : 348 - P a g e | 42 Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) Correct Answer: P a g e | 43 QID : 349 - Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) P a g e | 44 Correct Answer: QID : 350 - Options: 1) 21,40,04,69,01 2) 12,13,41,55,69 3) 11,41,44,85,22 4) 31,01,65,58,41 Correct Answer: 11,41,44,85,22 (General Awareness) QID : 351 - Which of the following is not a part of the human stomach? Options: 1) cardiac 2) caecum P a g e | 45 3) fundic 4) pyloric Correct Answer: caecum QID : 352 - Which of the following white blood cells is a type of agranulocytes? Options: 1) neutrophils 2) eosinophils 3) lymphocytes 4) basophils Correct Answer: lymphocytes QID : 353 - Which of the following is an insectivorous plant? Options: 1) Pitcher 2) Alstonia 3) Calotropis 4) Eichhornia Correct Answer: Pitcher QID : 354 - Which of the following represents the correct pathway of water movement in the root? Options: 1) Epidermis > Endodermis > Cortex > Pericycle > Xylem 2) Epidermis > Pericycle > Endodermis > Cortex > Xylem 3) Epidermis > Cortex > Endodermis > Pericycle > Xylem 4) Epidermis > Pericycle > Cortex > Endodermis > Xylem Correct Answer: Epidermis > Cortex > Endodermis > Pericycle > Xylem QID : 355 - Consider the following pairs. Name : Formula 1] 2-Bromopropane : (CH3)2C=CHCOCH3 2] Propan-1-amine : CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 3] Dichloromethane : CH2Cl2 4] 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one : CH3-CHBr-CH3 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? P a g e | 46 Options: 1) 1 and 4 only 2) 3 and 4 only 3) 2 and 3 only 4) 2 , 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: 2 and 3 only QID : 356 - What is the IUPAC name of Allyl bromide? Options: 1) Dichloromethane 2) Tetrachloromethane 3) 2-Chlorobutane 4) 3-Bromopropene Correct Answer: 3-Bromopropene QID : 357 - Formula for Hexamethylene diamine is ______. Options: 1) NH2(CH2)4NH2 2) NH2(CH2)6NH2 3) NH2(CH2)3NH2 4) NH2(CH2)2NH2 Correct Answer: NH2(CH2)6NH2 QID : 358 - Which of the following elements is the most electronegative? Options: 1) Aluminium 2) Boron 3) Gallium 4) Thallium Correct Answer: Boron QID : 359 - Which HTML tag is used to make a text bold? Options: 1) 2) 3) 4) None of these P a g e | 47 Correct Answer: QID : 360 - To easily access commonly used commands and tools in a word processor use the _____ bar. Options: 1) Home 2) Title 3) Menu 4) Tool Correct Answer: Tool QID : 361 - Hareli is the harvest festival of which state? Options: 1) Assam 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Chhattisgarh Correct Answer: Chhattisgarh QID : 362 - In October 2016, who was sacked as the Chairman of the Tata Sons? Options: 1) Ratan Tata 2) Narayan Murthy 3) Cyrus Mistry 4) Vishal Sikka Correct Answer: Cyrus Mistry QID : 363 - Which of the following scientists demonstrated that fermentation is caused by the growth of micro-organisms? Options: 1) Edmund Becquerel 2) Dmitri Mendeleev 3) Louis Pasteur 4) Joseph Priestley Correct Answer: Louis Pasteur QID : 364 - The line consisting of all the bundles which cost exactly equal to the consumer's income is called the ______ line. P a g e | 48 Options: 1) demand 2) utility 3) budget 4) indifference Correct Answer: budget QID : 365 - The area under the short run ______ cost curve up to any level of output gives us the total variable cost up to that level. Options: 1) average 2) marginal 3) total 4) variable Correct Answer: marginal QID : 366 - If price of an article decreases from Rs 60 to Rs 50, when quantity demanded increases from 1,000 units to 1,200 units. Find point elasticity of demand. Options: 1) 1 2) -1.2 3) -1 4) 1.2 Correct Answer: -1 QID : 367 - Which ratio is the proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves? Options: 1) Cash Reserve 2) currency deposit 3) Reserve deposit 4) Statutory Liquidity Correct Answer: Reserve deposit QID : 368 - Gross Domestic Product + Net factor income from abroad = Options: 1) Personal income 2) Personal Disposable Income P a g e | 49 3) Gross National Product 4) Net National Product at factor cost Correct Answer: Gross National Product QID : 369 - Which of the following metals is not used as a catalyst in catalytic converts fitted in automobiles? Options: 1) Platinum 2) Polonium 3) Rhodium 4) Palladium Correct Answer: Polonium QID : 370 - Bio-magnification is well established for which of the following pollutants? Options: 1) zinc 2) mercury 3) copper 4) nickel Correct Answer: mercury QID : 371 - All changes in climate and weather take place in which layer of the atmosphere? Options: 1) Stratosphere 2) Mesosphere 3) Thermosphere 4) Troposphere Correct Answer: Troposphere QID : 372 - Which type of electromagnetic radiation converts oxygen into ozone? Options: 1) Gamma rays 2) Cosmic rays 3) Infra-red rays 4) Ultra-violet rays Correct Answer: Ultra-violet rays P a g e | 50 QID : 373 - Jan Koum is the cofounder of which startup? Options: 1) Microsoft 2) Google 3) Facebook 4) WhatsApp Correct Answer: WhatsApp QID : 374 - With reference to the interior of the earth consider the following statements. 1] Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus. 2] The denser the material, the lower is the velocity of the Earthquake waves. 3] There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? Options: 1) 1 and 2 only 2) 2 and 3 only 3) 3 only 4) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: 1 and 3 only QID : 375 - Which of the following is a major tectonic plate? Options: 1) Cocos plate 2) Arabian plate 3) Pacific plate 4) Nazca plate Correct Answer: Pacific plate QID : 376 - The mean distance between the Sun and the Earth is approximately _____. Options: 1) 99.6 Million Km 2) 49.6 Million Km 3) 149.6 Million Km 4) 199.6 Million K Correct Answer: 149.6 Million Km P a g e | 51 QID : 377 - The process by which soil deposits through compaction turn into rocks is called _____. Options: 1) lithification 2) Metamorphication 3) Slatification 4) Petrification Correct Answer: lithification QID : 378 - The Rabi cropping season is from _____. Options: 1) April – June 2) June - September 3) May - August 4) October – March Correct Answer: October – March QID : 379 - With reference to India's freedom struggle consider the following statements. 1] Gandhiji's first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916. 2] During the Great War of 1914-18, the French had instituted censorship of the press and permitted detention without trial. 3] Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in Amritsar in April 1919. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? Options: 1) 1 and 2 only 2) 2 and 3 only 3) 3 only 4) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: 1 and 3 only QID : 380 - By the sixth century BC, _____ had established control over major parts of the Assyrian empire. Options: 1) Iranians 2) Greeks P a g e | 52 3) Romans 4) Mongols Correct Answer: Iranians QID : 381 - Asoka, arguably the most famous ruler of early India, conquered _____, present-day coastal Orissa. Options: 1) Pataliputra 2) Prayaga 3) Taxila 4) Kalinga Correct Answer: Kalinga QID : 382 - Ibn Battuta was a _____ who wrote about his travels to India in the fourteenth century. Options: 1) Persian 2) Egyptian 3) Turk 4) Moroccan Correct Answer: Moroccan QID : 383 - One of the earliest Bhakti movements were led by the Nayanars, who were devotees of _____. Options: 1) Shiva 2) Vishnu 3) Surya 4) Brahma Correct Answer: Shiva QID : 384 - Phonograph was invented by which scientist? Options: 1) Alexander Graham Bell 2) Thomas Edison 3) Jagadish Chandra Bose 4) George Eastman P a g e | 53 Correct Answer: Thomas Edison QID : 385 - Consider the following pairs. Event : Time interval ( in Seconds) 1] Period of atomic vibrations : 10-15 2] Period of radio wave : 10-6 3] Travel time for light from Sun to Earth : 106 4] Revolution period of the moon : 1010 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Options: 1) 1 and 4 only 2) 1 and 2 only 3) 2 and 3 only 4) 2 , 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: 1 and 2 only QID : 386 - The correct expression for the time period (T) of a particle of mass (m) performing Simple Harmonic Motion, where k is a constant, is ______. Options: 1) T = 2π√(k/m) 2) T = 2π(m/k)2 3) T = 2π(k/m)2 4) T = 2π√(m/k) Correct Answer: T = 2π√(m/k) QID : 387 - Who has a wavelength range of 700 nm to 400 nm? Options: 1) X-Rays 2) Visible light 3) Microwaves 4) Radio waves Correct Answer: Visible light QID : 388 - How far should the object be placed from a concave mirror of focal length 4.8 cm, when the image is to be obtained at a distance of 12 cm from the mirror? Options: 1) 8 cm P a g e | 54 2) 10 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 15 cm Correct Answer: 8 cm QID : 389 - The Institution of the Speaker and his role of the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the _____ constitution. Options: 1) British 2) French 3) Irish 4) Canadian Correct Answer: British QID : 390 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a Proportional Representation system? Options: 1) The country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies or districts 2) Candidate who wins the election may not get majority (50%+1) votes 3) A party may get more seats than votes in the legislature 4) Every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets Correct Answer: Every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets QID : 391 - Which of the following is false with reference to Presidential type of executive? Options: 1) President is the head of the Government 2) President is head of the state 3) The President is usually directly elected by the people 4) President is accountable to the Legislature Correct Answer: President is accountable to the Legislature QID : 392 - Which of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List? Options: 1) Banking 2) Trade Unions P a g e | 55 3) Agriculture 4) Police Correct Answer: Trade Unions QID : 393 - Independence of Judiciary means all of the following, except _____. Options: 1) Executive must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary 2) Legislature should not interfere with the decision of the judiciary. 3) Absence of accountability 4) Judges must be able to perform their functions without fear Correct Answer: Absence of accountability QID : 394 - Jwala Gutta is associated with which sport? Options: 1) Wrestling 2) Boxing 3) Badminton 4) Weight Lifting Correct Answer: Badminton QID : 395 - Who wrote the novel "Angels & Demons"? Options: 1) Dan Brown 2) Jonathan Swift 3) Daniel Defoe 4) William Shakespeare Correct Answer: Dan Brown QID : 396 - Over two-thirds of all named species on earth are ______. Options: 1) Porifera 2) Arthopods 3) Aschelminthes 4) Ctenophora Correct Answer: Arthopods P a g e | 56 QID : 397 - Which type of epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries? Options: 1) cuboidal 2) columnar 3) ciliated 4) squamous Correct Answer: squamous QID : 398 - Which is the longest river bridge in India? Options: 1) Bandra-Worli Sea Link 2) Mahatma Gandhi Setu 3) Vikramshila Setu 4) Vembanad Rail Bridge Correct Answer: Mahatma Gandhi Setu QID : 399 - Which of the following is a famous Classical Indian dancer? Options: 1) Amrita Sher Gil 2) Satish Gujral 3) Sonal Mansingh 4) Bhimsen Joshi Correct Answer: Sonal Mansingh QID : 400 - Which of the following is a recipient of the "Ashoka Chakra" award? Options: 1) Abhijeet Gupta 2) Hangpan Dada 3) Akhil Kumar 4) Sunil Chhetri Correct Answer: Hangpan Dada P a g e | 57