Sikret-Wag-Mo-Send-Sa-Iba-1 PDF - Architectural Design
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This document includes questions on architectural design and urban planning. The questions cover various topics, such as street patterns, site planning, and human comfort. It appears to be a collection of exam questions, suitable for an undergraduate architectural design course.
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LEGEND: CROSS CHECKED NOT SURE KEY TERMS ADDITIONAL NOTES PLANNING - CROSS CHECKED 35 PASSING SCORE 1. Which of the following street patterns is ideal for a mountainous site? a. Meander b. Rolling c. Radial (uses roads to connect the center and outskirts) d. Grid Iron (divi...
LEGEND: CROSS CHECKED NOT SURE KEY TERMS ADDITIONAL NOTES PLANNING - CROSS CHECKED 35 PASSING SCORE 1. Which of the following street patterns is ideal for a mountainous site? a. Meander b. Rolling c. Radial (uses roads to connect the center and outskirts) d. Grid Iron (divided into squares or rectangle blocks) 2. Which of the following statements is not true about rolling terrains? a. The practice of building along contours will increase construction costs. b. Drainage problems are simpler c. More interesting land development that could attract high end buyers. d. Buildings could serve as a retaining wall for every steep site. 3. A survey is a checklist of information or data pertaining to a site. Which of the following is the first step when conducting a survey? a. Summary description of the off-site context and its changes b. Personal reconnaissance notes, sketches, and photos c. Data correlation d. Collation of existing data 4. Which is not considered a Major Road? a. Boulevard (wide avenue) b. Autobahns (federal controlled-access highway system) c. Expressway (high-speed divided highway) d. Freeways (controlled-access highway) 5. A street opens only to one end with provision for a practical turnaround at the other a. Collector Street (Low-moderate capacity road) b. Avenue (broad road/wide street) c. Cul-de-sac (dead-end street) d. Local Street (used to gain access to the property bordering it) 6. What is not a climatic factor directly influencing human comfort? a. Solar Radiation b. Humidity c. Latitude d. Air Movement 7. In developing the site for a retreat center, the sanctuary is usually best placed at the ____ of the site. a. Depression b. Ridge c. Valley d. Summit (highest point) 8. It involves the remodeling of existing landform to facilitate the functions and circulation of the site. a. Landscaping b. Grading c. Site Planning (art of arranging structures on the land and shaping spaces between them) d. Layering 9. In design, we usually consider 3 human factors: a. Physical, Psychological, Spiritual b. Cultural, Physiological, Psychological c. Psychological, Physical, Physiological d. Cultural, Social, Emotional 10. Which of the following colors is used for contour lines in Topographic Maps: a. Brown b. Blue (bodies of water) c. Black (roads, railroads, & civil boundaries) d. Green (woodlands) 11. A checklist of information or data pertaining to a site: a. Official checklist b. General Information c. Survey d. Interview 12. Bearing capacity, stability, erodibility, and fertility are attributes of: a. Soil b. Topography c. Climate d. Hydrology 13. The art of arranging structures on the land and shaping the spaces between. a. Site Planning b. Urban Design (design of towns and cities) c. Site Analysis d. Landscape Architecture (development of green spaces) 14. Are sets of imaginary lines that connect all points of some arbitrary equal elevation on the ground. a. Topographic map b. Axis lines c. Contours d. Section lines 15. Generally speaking, ________ in humidity affects an increase in body comfort. a. An increase b. Moisture c. A decrease d. Dryness 16. He articulated human's Hierarchy of Needs. a. Kevin Lynch (image of the city) b. Abraham Maslow c. Edward T. Hall (proxemics) d. Roger Barker 17. Which has the least effect over the amount of sunlight entering indoors? a. Length of overhang b. Building Orientation c. Louvered Windows d. Roof Shape 18. The local wind system is characterized by a flow from land to water late at night. a. Water breeze b. Land breeze c. Sea breeze (water to land) d. Night breeze 19. Which passive way helps reduce growth of fungi and milder? a. Maximizing sun exposure indoors b. Growing more shade trees around the building c. Reducing wind passing indoors d. Harvesting rainwater onsite 20. It is the concept of personal space a. Territoriality b. Prestige c. Dominance d. Space Bubble 21. An architect wants to know the exact measurement and the topographical characteristics of a 2.5 hectare site in Tagaytay. What is his best action? a. Hire a Geodetic Engineer to measure the site b. Measure the site with his architecture staff using his knowledge from his Surveying subject c. Extract the measurements from the maps taken from DENR-NAMRIA d. Use a drone to measure the site from the air 22. In Manila City, floor-ceiling picture windows are best to be located on which side of the building? a. South b. North c. East d. West 23. The result from high winds forcing water ashore above normal tide levels a. Storm surge b. Tsunami c. Flooding d. High tides 24. Which does not belong to the group? a. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology b. Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical, and Astronomical Services Administration c. Mines and Geosciences Bureau d. Climate Change Commision (policy-making) 25. Which does not belong to the group? a. Plant species (biological factor) b. Tree size (biological factor) c. Soil Fertility d. Introduced Invasive Species (biological factor) 26. Genius loci refers to a a. Phenomenon or experience of a place b. Distinct atmosphere of a place c. Spirit of a place d. All of the choices 27. The principle of New Urbanism promotes the following, except a. Widening of roads to lessen traffic in a neighborhood b. Slow speed streets (pedestrian-friendly street design) c. Hidden parking slots (pedestrian-friendly street design) d. On-street parking (pedestrian-friendly street design) 28. The visible form of the built-up areas which is sometimes equated with "townscape" a. Town squares b. Urban form c. Landscape d. Land form 29. Describes the design of the buildings, places, spaces, and networks that make up our towns and cities, and the ways people use them a. Urban Design Framework b. Responsive Architecture c. Urban Design Protocol d. Community Design Framework 30. It creates places for people with meaning and identity a. Legibility b. Character c. Placemaking d. Landmark 31. Qualities of good urban space a. Availability of convenient parking b. Quality Shopping c. Segregated Communities d. Walkability 32. Which is least likely to be a part of a systematic study of urban morphology? a. Construction plans b. History of the Place c. Urban Form and Shape d. Urban Plans 33. Infrastructure assets such as buildings, machines, roads, power plants, and ports are all parts of the a. Physical Capital b. Social Capital c. Natural Capital d. Financial Capital 34. Good urban design supports a. Local Organizations b. Local Government c. Local Character d. Local Businesses 35. Two ways to categorize squares or plazas are: a. By its length and width b. By its location and size c. By its quality and cost d. By its form and function 36. It affects where people can or cannot go a. Variety (range of uses) b. Visual appropriateness (detailed appearance of place) c. Permeability d. Personalization (put own stamp to place) 37. Which of the following are the basic forms of urban space? a. Circle, rectangle, square b. Circle, rectangle, elliptical c. Circle, rectangle, triangle d. Circle, square, triangle 38. The most practical of street layout a. Curvilinear b. Grid c. Circumferential d. Meandering 39. Help define the character and beauty of a city by creating soft, contrasting spaces and elements a. Buildings b. Landscape c. Public Space d. Streets 40. In the body of urban form, the streets, transit routes, pedestrian walks are referred to as the a. Nerves b. Blood c. Veins d. Arms and Legs 41. It affects the extent to which people can put their own stamp on the place a. Legibility b. Variety c. Richness d. Permeability ANSWER: Personalization 42. It affects the range of uses available to people a. Legibility b. Variety c. Richness d. Permeability 43. People involved in Urban Design Activity a. Architects b. Politicians c. Stakeholders d. All of the above 44. Well-designed buildings and groups of buildings work together to create a. New style b. Sense of place c. Unique City d. Iconic Structures 45. It is an area framed by buildings and designed to exhibit the buildings to the greatest advantage a. Square (or plaza) b. Streets c. Landmarks d. Edges 46. In the process of documenting the city, which one is not required a. Historical analysis b. Preparation of housing plans c. Legibility and permeability of the environment d. Visual study of details 47. These are principles of Urban Design except a. Respect the traditional urban development pattern b. Hidden parking lots c. Slow speed streets d. Urban sprawl 48. Where should more windows be oriented best in the tropics to catch wind and avoid sun? a. North b. South c. East d. West 49. How do we control the flow of wind indoors a. Minimizing interior walls b. Adding long overhang c. Integrating louvered openings d. Orienting entrance ways to direction of the sun 50. In the principle of New Urbanism, it is best to ______ the density of a place to enable a more efficient use of services a. Increase b. Decrease c. Maintain d. None of the Choices ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN 35 PASSING SCORE 1. Creating great modern architecture today is a balance of these? a. Artistic sensibility and scientific methodology b. Scientific methodology and Common Sense c. Financial Acumen and Structural Knowhow d. Artistic and Social abilities e. Imagination and chutzpah 2. What is the role of architecture today? a. It provides venues for human activity only b. It addresses only the current situations and needs of society c. It serves as a testimony to the human need of shelter and expression d. It responds to the community with their work, or they shape it, dictating the environment e. It serves purely as an expression of art by the architect 3. What idealized Latin phrase best describes the noble profession of architecture? a. Deus Ex Machina b. Ora et Labora c. Deus Architectus Mundi, Architectus Secundus Deus (God is the Architect of the world, Architects are second to God) d. Deo Optimo Maximo e. Requiescat in Pace 4. Functional needs in architecture is? a. Branch of Aesthetics b. Branch of Philosophy c. Branch of Dynamics d. Branch of Art e. Branch of Science 5. The basis of great architecture is the creation of? a. Spatial Delight b. Technological Delight c. Wonder and Amazement d. Spatial and Visual Delight (functionality and aesthetics) e. Structural Delight 6. Architecture is a discipline that means? a. Art and Computer Aided Technology b. Design and Logic c. Functionality and Practicality d. Art and Technology e. Art and Science 7. Which of the following fields of study is not related to Architecture? a. Psychology (study of behavior and mind) b. Philosophy (systematic study of fundamental questions) c. Physiology (functions of living organisms) d. Ethnography (culture) e. Philology (history of language) 8. Which of the following is a lesser activity for someone who studies architecture a. Designing b. Drafting c. Conceptualizing d. Sketching e. Critiquing 9. A classification system that groups of buildings into categories of like with like a. Style b. Trend c. Character d. Manner e. Catalogue 10. Which of the following is not related to Architecture a. Interior Design b. Fashion Deisgn c. Graphic Design d. Industrial Design e. Information Design 11. The business of commerce particularly in merchandise started to change 20 years ago, what manner of change is this best reflected. (especially one that started from western and developed countries) a. Commercial Retailing b. Personal Shopper c. On-Line Retailing d. Brick and Mortar Retailing (physical store) e. Catalogue Retailing 12. Retail in the future is best seen with this paradigm a. Araucaria b. Amazon c. Sherwood d. Yakushima e. Bialowieza 13.In the aforementioned, the future and contribution of architecture in mass merchandising could be the amalgamation of the following a. Distribution center b. Grocery c. Brick and mortar d. Warehouse e. Mall 14. In the aforementioned, the future and contribution of architecture in mass merchandising could be the amalgamation of the following: a. Warehouse, Inventory, Logistics, Distribution b. Brick and Mortar, Logistics, Distribution c. Shopping Mall d. Department Store, Distribution e. Manufacturer, Direct to Buyer 15. Before the arrival and popularity of shopping malls in the Philippines, Commercial Retail was best found in? a. Wet Markets b. Shopping centers c. Supermarkets d. High Street e. Downtown 16. A high-end commercial stip with a designated open area for eating and shopping is called; a. Shopping center b. Mall c. Downtown d. High Street e. Tiangge 17. Today almost anything can be found in a shopping mall, which of the following is not ideal. a. Wet market w/ good hygiene parameters b. Schools c. Funeral parlour, d. Lumber and construction e. Walk-in clinics 18. In the aforementioned question of a store type not advised to be placed in malls, what consideration negates the reason why its presence inside a shopping mall is not ideal a. Trends of suicide rates b. 24-hour operation and culture c. Hygiene and perception of style d. Wet and dry conditions of sidewalk vendors e. Bittersweet conditions 19. These stores serve as primary retailers, whose size and nature of merchandise or activity directs people to their location a. Magnet b. Polars c. Big stores d. Activity Center e. Food Court 20. In the aforementioned study on retail design, these spaces similarly serve the same function and are usually identified by the big retailers found in opposite ends of a Mall Development. a. Department store (kind of anchor) b. Atrium c. Parking d. Anchors (large retail store that attracts custom to the mall) e. Grocery (kind of anchor) 21. Ergonomics is an applied science often used in designing and planning built spaces. It relates human scale to his built space. This study allows people and things to interact most efficiently and comfortably. Which among these is not an example of ergonomics. a. 1.10 m from FFL b. Stair riser should not exceed 200 mm c. Roof minimum slope is 3% d. Door clear height is recommended at 2.10m from FFL e. Acceptable ceiling height of 2.70m. 22. Naturally ventilated toilets and bath are highly recommended for structures with small occupancies such as single family dwelling due to: a. Not effective in dispelling foul smell and odor. b. Natural light allows sanitation of room. c. Allows wash to be hung in toilets. d. Provides privacy. e. Saves on air cooling devices. 23. Which of the following floor finishes can be best used for PWD ramps. a. Marble b. Glazed floor tiles (glossy/slippery) c. Tactile pavers (feature rather than finish) d. Vinyl Tiles e. Carpet Tiles (avoided) 24. Which of the following values is the maximum accessibility ramp gradient according to the Accessibility Law. a. 12” b. 1:12 c. 12% d. 1.20 meters e. 0.12 inches 25. How many intermediate handrails must be provided for a stairway having a width of 9 meters. a. 1 b. 2 (“Every stairway required to be more than 3.00 m in width, shall be provided with not less than one intermediate handrail for every 3.00 m”) c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 26. Which of the following need not be seen in a site development plan a. Road and traffic b. Foot paths and walkways c. Labeling d. North Orientation Symbol e. Solar Path (site analysis) 27. Which of the following is not required in site development plans a. Soft and Hardscape b. Roof Slope Direction c. Type and Genus of Trees d. Line gradation to indicate slope e. Shaded columns and walls (floor plans) 28. Slope information in architecture may be presented using the following except a. Percentages b. Ratios c. Degrees d. Fractions e. Anglation 29. Which among the following best represents a context-sensitive design process. a. Site and User Analysis > Behavior Design > Conceptual Development b. Program > Economic Review > Space Matrix c. User Analysis > Space Equipment Program > Form Studies d. Site and User Analysis > Problem Analysis > Form Studies e. Program Analysis > Conceptual Development 30. Which of the following could best be identified as an “anti-social” bench? a. 0-shaped bench b. S-shaped bench c. L-shaped bench d. C-shaped bench e. I-shaped bench 31. This of these drawings is the most ancient decorative symbol in the Christian Church a. Chi rho b. Fish c. Cross d. Burning Bush 32. Most of the developers in the Philippines follow the maximum parking efficiency of 35.00 square meters per slot. In a parking building footprint of 2,500 square meters, what would be the maximum parking slots required? a. 61 parking slots b. 91 parking slots c. 71 parking slots (2500sqm/35 = 71) d. 100 parking slots 33. Under the PD 1096 (NBCP) rule, what are the minimum parking dimensions for a 180 degrees layout? (90 degrees is perpendicular) a. 2.15 x 6.00 meters (parallel parking) b. 2.15 x 5.00 meters c. 2.50 x 5.00 meters (“Parking slot must be computed at 2.5m x 5.00m for Perpendicular/Diagonal Parking”) d. 3.00 x 6.00 meters 34. The plan of the building, based on a dialogue between circles and squares summarizes the fundamental relationship between God and man. The circle stands for Heaven, the sacred, the spiritual world. The square, on the other hand, represents a. The Cosmos b. The Terrestrial Condition c. The Material Things d. All of the Above 35. What is the allowable percentage of slope which allows for parking slots to be placed along the inclined surfaces a. 11% b. 7% c. 9% d. 5% 36. In the absence of the pulpit and lectern, this is the speaker’s stand at the center in the front of the church a. Altar b. Ambo c. Lectem d. Pulpit 37. Which of the following is not considered a transit building a. Airports b. Bus Terminal c. Subway Station d. Waiting Shed e. Pier 38. Which of the following is not considered an integral feature of transit buildings a. Pedestrian overpass b. Pedestrian underpass c. Waiting shed d. Zebra crossing e. Sidewalk 39. Which of the following can be considered not an adjunct building to a Transit Terminal? a. Garage or trailer b. Parking building c. Commercial shopping mall d. Religious structures e. Arenas 40. Number of modes for a building to be considered a Transit or Transport Building a. More than 2 b. More than 4 c. Minimum of 1 d. No number required e. As many as possible 41. Which of the following establishments is not suited for Transport Buildings? a. ATMs b. Car showrooms c. Creche (Tableau of Jesus Christ’s birth) d. Drug store and clinic e. Massage services 42. Which of the following are described as active layby or vehicular concourse bays in the Philippine Setting? a. Point-2-Point UV Vans b. Buses c. Jeepneys d. Tricycles and Pedicabs e. Taxis, Ubers, and Grab 43. Determining movement and traffic flow within transport terminals is controlled by which office a. Building Management Office b. Building and Grounds Office c. Dispatch Office (according to Planning and Designers Handbook) d. Traffic Management Office e. Security and Traffic Control Office 44. In an office that provides a schedule of tasks and monitoring of item transport, what is the primary modern design requirement for this activity? a. Clear Unobstructed View of the Concourse b. Visible to pedestrian traffic c. Ingress and Egress Visibility d. Wide Flat Wall e. Room with a View 45. In a security and traffic control office, the ideal design parameter for this activity would be.. a. View of Pedestrian Concourse b. View of Ticketing and Queueing Area c. Clear and Unobstructed view of Concourse and Flat Wide Wall d. View of Ingress and Egress and Passenger Concourse e. View of building perimeter 46. Designing Vehicular Ramps, the most important considerations would be? a. Driver’s Skills b. Acceptable Slope c. Vehicular Worthiness d. Vehicular Dynamics (Mechanics of the conveyance - particularly crucial in designing ramps for cars and other land vehicles) e. Vehicle Load 47. Defined as a mode, system, or means of transport a. Transit System b. Transport System c. Terminal System d. Modal System e. Transport Network 48. This is concerned with ensuring that all aspects of transport design meet the needs of people engaging with design, safety, and efficiency a. Ergonomics and Anthropometry b. Human Factor and ergonomics (concerned with ensuring all aspects of transport design meets the needs of people engaging with those designs, safety, and efficiently) c. Human Behavior and Anthropometry d. Human Transport and Eugenics e. Anthropometry and Neurotics 49. These factors provide a multidisciplinary effort to generate and compile information about human capabilities and limitations and apply that info to equipment, systems, facilities, procedures, jobs, environments for safe, comfortable, and effective human performance a. Public Transport b. Ergonomics c. Human transport d. Human Factors e. Transport Network 50. The following parking provisions are based on BP 344 except for: a. Accessible parking slots must be at least 3.7m by 5.0m b. Parking must have dropped sidewalks or curb ramps leading to the parking level where the access walkways are raised c. Parking must have pavement marking, upright, pole mounted signages d. Parking must have walkways of at least 0.9 width e. Parking must be handicap friendly THEORY OR ARCHITECTURE - CROSS CHECKED 35 PASSING SCORE 1. As architecture is both art and science, pick another answer that is also true: a. Architecture is a predictive solution based on current best evidence b. Artistic expression in architecture is above the law c. Architecture must always be universally beautiful d. Architecture will always be universally beautiful 2. STATEMENT (1) Louis Khan defined architecture as: “Architecture is what nature cannot make”. (2) Cryll M. Harris defined architecture as “The art and science of designing and building structures, or large groups of structures, in keeping with logical and functional criteria” a. BOTH statements are TRUE b. BOTH statements are FALSE c. The FIRST statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE d. The FIRST statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE (Cyril not Cryll ; according to his Dictionary of Architecture & Construction) 3. Complete this definition: A theory is a system of _____ intended to explain something, especially one based on ______ ______ independent of the thing to be explained a. Thoughts; hard truths b. Ideas; general principles c. Concepts; accepted truths d. Principles; secondary evidence 4. According to Vitruvius, there are three requirements of Architecture, Venustas pertains to beautiful composition, economy and economy of materials a. The FIRST statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE b. The FIRST statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE c. BOTH statements are TRUE d. BOTH statements are FALSE 5. The General influences of man affect what kind of architecture we need. Therefore, we must also consider the need for safety of our clients and would-be users of what we design. a. The FIRST statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE b. The FIRST statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE c. BOTH statements are TRUE d. BOTH statements are FALSE 6. “Archaic” architecture is a direct response to man’s climate. For today’s architecture, we do not have to consider the context or even design in response to nature a. The FIRST statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE b. The FIRST statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE c. BOTH statements are TRUE d. BOTH statements are FALSE 7. In the Phases of Development, “Decadence” meant “sureness of technique”. The more ornate experimentation of new forms of expression include the styles: rococo, renaissance, and art nouveau. a. The FIRST statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE (Decadence should be Mastery) (Rococo is considered as late baroque which is also under Decadence together with Renaissance and Art Nouveau) b. The FIRST statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE c. BOTH statements are TRUE d. BOTH statements are FALSE 8. Among the choices, which of the following is false: a. A point joins, links, supports, surrounds, or intersects other non-visual elements b. Volumes have three dimensions: length, width, and depth c. All volumes have points, lines, and planes d. A point has no length, and no depth 9. Among the choices, which of the following is false: a. A plane has width and length b. A plane is static and has no movement c. A plane defines the boundaries of a volume d. A plane can hold color, pattern, and texture 10. STATEMENT (1) There are four Primary Elements of Form. (2) These are: plane, line, solids, and point. a. The FIRST statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE b. The FIRST statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE (Solid should be Volume) c. BOTH statements are TRUE d. BOTH statements are FALSE 11. The “non-visual” Element of Design is the interior enclosed space as seen by the mind’s eye. The “General to Particular” Design Approach, it is understood that we: a. Give more emphasis on the Non-Visual before the Visual b. Start with the Floor Plans c. Give more emphasis on the details d. Start first with the Visual before the Non-Visual 12. What aspect of architecture does engineering NOT require? a. Utility b. Economy c. Beauty d. Strength 13. What phase of architectural development are the classical styles of Greece and Rome? a. Archaic (Prehistoric, Mesopotamian, Egyptian) b. Defense c. Mastery (Classical Styles, Medieval, Romanesque, Gothic) d. Decadence (Renaissance, Baroque, Art Deco, Art Nouveau, Bauhaus, and Modern) 14. What phase of architectural development is Renaissance Architecture? a. Archaic b. Defense c. Mastery d. Decadence 15. Trulli houses in Italy are examples of what solid? a. Cone b. Cube c. Cylinder d. Sphere 16. This scheme uses a primary color and the 2 colors adjacent to its complementary a. Split-complementary b. Monochromatic c. Analogous d. Complementary 17. _____ are symbols that people are familiar with because of long-time association. An example would be the symbol for toilets (man+woman) a. Learned symbols b. Biogenic symbols c. Replica d. Representation 18. This scheme is made of 2 colors that are opposite each other on the color wheel a. Monochromatic b. Complementary c. Analogous d. Split Complementary 19. This scheme uses variations in lightness and saturation of a single color and can be integrated with neutral colors a. Monochromatic b. Complementary c. Analogous d. Split Complementary 20. Most formal form of approach a. Distant View b. Frontal c. Spiral d. Oblique 21. A form of approach the Greeks considered for their temples a. Distant View b. Frontal (primary approach to Greek Temples were typically frontal, emphasizing the main entrance facing east) c. Spiral d. Oblique 22. Which entrance promotes continuity? a. Recessed b. Implied c. Flushed d. Projected 23. ______ is a type of linear path that can have branches to highlight points of interest a. Looped b. Zigzag c. Curved d. Segmented 24. Which extroverted entrance is used in hospitals and commercial areas? a. Projected b. Implied c. Recessed d. Flushed 25. Spaces with an open plan are usually _________ a. Pass by spaces b. Pass through spaces c. Are their own space d. Terminates in a space 26. The common material used for beams and columns using the post and lintel construction method for skyscrapers a. Tempered Glass b. Stones and Bricks c. Reinforced Concrete (Skyscrapers are not typically made of bricks; Materials commonly used in Skyscrapers are Steel and Reinforced Concrete) d. Wood 27. The customs, arts, social institutions, and achievements of a particular nation, people, or other social groups a. Civilization b. Territoriality c. Culture d. Boundaries 28. The introduction of a roof skylights in the Mall of Asia lobby and skating rink are examples of a response to context in terms of _________ a. Temperature and Humidity b. Wind c. Vista d. Sunlight 29. __________ are considered in the construction of buildings and development of sites in sloping terrain such as in Baguio City and Tagaytay City a. Property Boundaries b. Land Contours c. Surface Drainage d. Water Bodies 30. Site analysis is only composed of analysis of wind direction and sun path orientation a. True b. False 31. The designer of the Bonifacio High Street mall in Taguig City applied the circulation approach in consideration of the __________ a. Existing structures b. Vistas c. Noise d. Vehicular-pedestrian traffic systems 32. _____ will be used by potential contractors to prepare quotations and setting out the price they would change to construct the building a. Contract documents b. Schematic Drawings c. Presentation Drawings d. Initial Expenditure 33. During the Design Development stage, what is prepared to ensure that the design is within the established budget? a. Cost estimate b. Contract documents c. Initial outlay d. Contingency budget 34. This site consideration is in regards to the property lines (setbacks), topography, and other physical features a. Orientation b. Location c. Access d. Envelope 35. In Marcel Breuer’s Whitney Museum of American Art, the inverted pyramid symbolized ____ a. The earthly and the divine b. Men and art c. Perspectives on art perception d. Public and Private contributions to art 36. The siting of Richard Meier’s Getty Center is reminiscent of what style? a. Roman b. Neoclassic c. Roman d. Greek 37. In response to the restraints of budgets and space, in the Chapel of St. Ignatius, Stevel Holl chose to rely on ____ to bring meaning and beauty to the project a. Natural landscape b. Space c. Form and Massing d. Light 38. The following hinder conceptualization except __________ a. Small budget b. Incompatible activities c. Imagination d. Underutilized land 39. Which is NOT part of the programmatic concept of grouping? a. Service b. Activity c. Site d. People 40. The programmatic concept of ____ is related to how a person can maintain his individuality within a space. a. Home base b. Grouping c. Relationships d. Address 41. The scarcity of energy was the main concept that drove the deconstructivist vocabulary of the Pompidou Center in Paris a. True b. False 42. Trees provide a natural barrier to protect architectural development and therefore must be preserved and not cut, as much as possible a. True b. False 43. In Rem Koolhaas’ Educatorium, he works with the concept that reflects blurred boundaries brought about in the Industrial revolution a. True b. False 44. Concepts are rudimentary in character and need to be further developed a. True b. False 45. Concepts may be product or process oriented and can occur only during the schematic design phase a. True b. False 46. The correct interrelation of spaces promotes efficiency and effectiveness of people and their activities a. True b. False 47. Free address refers to a designated group or team space assigned for a specific period of time a. True (Types of Address: Fixed - traditional work setting where one person is assigned to a workplace Free - specific period of time Group - assigned or free within it) b. False 48. As a programmatic concept, flexibility covers expansibility, convertibility, and versatility a. True b. False 49. The architectural design process is organized to ensure that objectives are reached according to cost efficiency a. True b. False 50. A space or form as a free-standing object with separate functions is categorized as “space-within-a-space” a. True b. False ENGINEERING SCIENCE - CROSS CHECKED CONCEPTS 21 PASSING SCORE 1. Which of the following is a “non-hookean” material? a. Steel b. Rubber c. Aluminum d. Copper 2. Newton’s First Law of Motion states that: a. If the resultant force acting on a particle is zero, the particle remains at rest (if originally at rest) or will move with constant speed in a straight line (if originally in motion) b. If the resultant force acting on a particle is not zero, the particle will have an acceleration proportional to the magnitude of the resultant force and in the direction of this resultant force (F=ma) c. Each force (of “action”) has an equal and opposite force (of “reaction”) d. None of the given choices 3. The point through which the whole weight of the body acts is called ______ a. Inertial point b. Centroid c. Central point d. Center of gravity 4. A block 100mm x 100mm base and 10mm height. What will be the direct shear stress in the element when a tangential force of 10kN is applied to the upper edge to a displacement 1mm relative to the lower face? a. 1 Pa b. 10 MPa c. 1 MPa d. 100 N/sq.mm 5. States that strain produced within elastic limits is proportional to the stress producing it. a. Bernoulli’s Law b. Hooke’s Law c. Stress Law d. Poissoin’s Law 6. The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to the area. a. Shear Stress b. Thermal Stress c. Normal Stress d. Parallel Stress 7. A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections in the span of a beam a. Bending Moment Diagram b. Shear and Bending Moment Diagram c. Stress Diagram d. Shear Force Diagram 8. A condition in which the resultants of all forces acting on the body is zero. a. Equilibrium b. Resultant c. Statics d. Rigid Body 9. True or False: Statics of rigid bodies is the study of materials, objects, or particles at rest or moving under constant velocity a. True b. False 10. A combination of large number of particles in which all particles remain at a fixed distance from one another before and applying a load a. Static Body b. Dynamic Body c. Rigid Body d. None of the above 11. For the figure below, what are the reaction forces at A and B? a. +64lb; +96lb b. -64lb; -96lb c. +96lb; +64lb d. -96lb; -64lb 12.. If the x- and y- components of the forces on the figure shown are -105 N and -200 N, respectively, what is the magnitude of the resultant force? (w/diagram) a. +225.90 N b. -225.90 N c. +170.22 N d. -170.22 N 13. States that the moment of a force about a point is equal to the sum of the moments of the force’s components about _____ a. Varignon’s Theorem b. Principle of Transmissibility c. Hooke’s Law d. Poisson’s Law 14. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it, the stress produced is ______ a. Compressive b. Transverse c. Shear d. Tensile 15. Stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load a. Elastic Point b. Plastic Point c. Yielding Point d. Breaking Point 16. Find the support reaction Av a. 2.33 kN b. 3.33 kN c. 4.33 kN d. 5.33 kN\ 17. SI unit for bending moment. a. kN b. kN/m c. kN m d. kN 𝑚 2 18. Refers to the gravitational force (attraction) of the earth acting on a body. a. Mass b. Acceleration c. Weight d. Velocity 19. In the figure below, find the reaction at point A or Ra a. 10 kN b. 15 kN c. 16 kN d. 28 kN 20. In the figure below, find the computed shear at C or Vc’ a. -3kN b. 6 kN c. 10 kN d. 16 kN 21. A beam is said to be uniform strength, if _______. a. Bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis b. Shear stress is the same through the beam c. Deflection is the same throughout the beam d. None of the given choices 22. In the figure below, if the system is in equilibrium, what is Fbc=? a. 4150 lbs b. 5250 lbs c. -1250 lbs d. -3750 lbs 23. In a beam, which layer is neither elongated nor shortened during bending? a. Axis of load b. Centroidal axis c. Center of gravity d. Neutral Axis 24. A _____ isolates a body from its surroundings, and one considers all the forces and only those forces, acting on the body. a. Shear and Bending Moment DIagram b. Free Body Diagram c. Stress Diagram d. None of the given choices 25. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, how many independent stress components are present? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 26. A man raises a 10kg joist, of length 4 m, by pulling on a rope as shown in the picture. How many concurrent forces are acting upon the joist? a. 4 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3 27.. SI unit for shear force a. kN/m b. kN-m c. kN d. m/kN 28. A ______ body is one which does not deform. The distance between the individual particles making up the body remains unchanged under the action of external forces. a. Rigid b. Static c. Dynamic d. None of the given choices 29. Two forces act on a bolt at point A. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force a. 35.04 N b. 97.73 N c. 72.11 N d. 99.91 N 30.. True or False: The types of normal stresses are shear and bending a. True b. False (Tensile and Compressive) BUILDING UTILITIES - CROSS CHECKED 35 PASSING SCORE 1. What is the minimum size of a THWN wire (in AWG) for lighting fixtures? a. 1.6 sq. mm#16 AWG b. 2.0sq. mm#14 AWG (THHN for Lighting fixtures) c. 3.5 sq. mm#12 AWG (TW, THW, or THWN for Lighting fixtures) (THHN - General Purpose Outlets) d. 5.5 sq. mm#10 AWG (TW, THW, or THWN for General Purpose Outlets) (THHN - Special Outlet) 2. Which of the following condition is not true in terms of providing cleanouts in the piping system? a. At the base of soil or waste stacks b. At every horizontal soil or waste branch less than 15 meters long (At every horizontal soil or waste branch MORE THAN 15 meters long ) c. At every change of direction greater than 45 degrees d. At the inlet to a septic tank 3. A component of an electricity supply system that divides an electrical power feed into subsidiary circuits, while providing a protective over current device for each circuit in a common enclosure a. Cable tray (unit of assembly of units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid structural system used to support cables) b. Lighting rod c. Duct d. Panel board (A single or group of panel units designed for assembly in the form of a single panel; consist of a metal cabinet containing overcurrent protective devices and other devices) 4. It is the persistence of sound in an enclosed space resulting from repeated reflection or scattering of sound. a. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another) b. Absorption (material, structure or object absorbing sound energy when sound waves collide with it, as opposed to reflecting the energy.) c. Reverberation d. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or coherent.) 5. In acoustics, what Is the unit of loudness level? a. Rays b. Hertz (unit of Frequency) c. Decibel (measure of sound intensity) d. Phon 6. A suction created by the flow of liquid in pipes; a pressure less than the atmospheric pressure a. Backpressure (A pressure within the sanitary drainage system or vent piping system that is greater than atmospheric pressure (>14.7 psi) b. Backflow (The flow of water or wastewater in pipes in a reverse direction from that normally intended) c. Siphonage d. Flow pressure (The pressure in the water supply pipe near the faucet or water outlet while the faucet or water outlet is wide open and flowing) 7. What is the code-prescribed minimum drain pipe size of a water closet? a. 50 mm b. 75 mm c. 100 mm d. 150 mm 8. The overhead service conductor from the pole or other aerial support to and including the splices, if any, connecting to the service entrance conductors of a building. a. Service entrance b. Service lateral (underground service conductors between the street main, including any risers at a pole or other structure or from the transformers, and the first point of connection to the service entrance conductors in a terminal box or meter other enclosure, inside or outside the building wall.) c. Service drop d. Service raceway (raceways that encloses the service-entrance conductors) 9. Metal pipe into which electrical conductors may be drawn; it has a wall section thinner than a rigid metal conduit and used for both exposed and concealed work? a. Electrical metallic conduit b. Surface metal raceway (raceway consisting of an assembly of metal backing and capping) c. Cellular food metal raceway (hollow spaces of cellular metal floors together with suitable fittings which may be approved enclosure for electrical conductors) d. Intermediate metal conduit (a metal raceway of circular cross-section with integral or associated couplings, connectors, and fittings approved for the installation of electrical conductors.) 10. A factory assembly of one or more conductors, each individually insulated and enclosed in metallic sheath of interlocking metal tape, or a smooth corrugated metallic tube. a. Shielded Non-metallic Sheather Cable (Type SNM) (a factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors in an extruded core of moisture-resistant, flame- resistant nonmetallic material, covered with an overlapping spiral metal tape and wire shield, and jacketed with an extruded nonmetallic material resistant to moisture, flame, oil, corrosion, fungal growth, and sunlight.) b. Metal Clad cable (Type MC) c. Mineral Insulated, metal sheathed cable (Type MI) (factory assembly of one or more conductors insulated with a highly-compressed refractory mineral and enclosed in liquidtight and gastight continuous copper or alloy steel sheathe) d. Armored Cable (Type AC) (a fabricated assembly of insulated conductors in a flexible metal enclosure.) 11. That portion of the hoistway extends below the level of the bottom landing or floor to provide for overtravel and clearance for parts which requires space below the bottom of the car travel. a. shaft or hoistway (vertical passageway for the car and counterweight) b. elevator pit c. landing d. elevator machine room (room directly above the hoistway in which the elevator machine is housed) 12. Resistance in alternating current (ac) also known as impedance is a combination of _____ and _______. a. Admittance and resistivity b. Resistance and reactance c. Conductance and resistance d. Capacitance and inductance 13. A device or appurtenance provided with a cap or plug with female(?) design to provide access or means of removing instructions or deposits inside pipes in vertical or horizontal installations. a. Clean-out b. Handhole c. Stub-out d. Manhole (An opening constructed in any part of plumbing system, of sufficient size for a person to gain access thereto.) 14. These are electronic cables connecting an elevator car to a fixed electrical outlet in the hoistway? a. Traveling cables b. Hoisting cables c. Counterweight cables d. Car cables 15. It is the persistence of sound in an enclosed space resulting from repeated reflection or scattering of sound. a. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another) b. Absorption (material, structure or object absorbing sound energy when sound waves collide with it, as opposed to reflecting the energy.) c. Reverberation d. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or coherent.) 16. Creep is a phenomenon whereby sound travels along a: a. straight line direction inside an anechoic chamber b. rectangular-shaped cavity c. flat surface d. curve surface 17. A vertical line of soil, waste or vent pipe a. Stack b. Riser (A water supply pipe that extends vertically one full storey or more to convey water to fixture branches or group of fixtures.) c. Downspout (The vertical portion of a rainwater conductor.) d. Upfeed pipe 18. The bending of the travel of sound caused by an obstacle in its path. a. Diffraction b. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or coherent.) c. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another) d. Reflection (When a sound wave encounters a sharp discontinuity in the density of its medium, some of its energy is reflected.) 19. What working principles are involved in the operation of an air-conditioning system in a building? a. Warm air generated inside a room Is collected by compressor and brought to a condenser and releases it to the air outside. Warm air in compressor > condenser > warm air out b. Refrigerant is compressed and conveyed to the evaporator which collects warm air temperature and conveys it to the condenser releasing to the outside air. c. Refrigerant contained in the condenser absorbs hot air temperature and releases it outside via the evaporator d. Refrigerant contained in the condenser absorbs hot air temperature and releases it outside via the evaporator (Refrigerating Cycle: Refrigerant > Compressor > Condenser > Expansion Valve > Evaporator) 20. In water supply system, it is the first section of water supply piping in a building after the water meter. a. Water main b. Building supply pipe c. Water distributing pipe d. Water service pipe (Water Main -> Water Service Pipe -> Building Supply Pipe -> Riser or Upfeed Pipe -> Downfeed pipe -> Branch or Lateral -> Fixture Branch -> Fixture Supply -> Valve) 21. What type of wave transports energy by moving particles of the medium are moving back and forth in a leftward and rightward direction. a. Longitudinal (waves in which the displacement of the medium is in the same direction as, or the opposite direction to, the direction of travel of the wave.) b. Electromagnetic c. Transverse (a moving wave that consists of oscillations occurring perpendicular (or right angled) to the direction of energy transfer) d. Soundwave 22. A value derived based on the load-producing characteristics of fixtures measured in terms of volume per unit time rate a. Flow rate (The volume of water used by a plumbing fixture in a given amount of time. Usually expressed in gallons per minute (gpm).) b. Fixture units c. Plumbing unit d. Discharge rate 23. These are rectangular cast-iron blocks stacked in a frame and supported at opposite ends of the cables to which the car is fastened and balances the car. a. Deadweight b. Ballast (dense material used as a weight to provide stability to a vehicle or structure) c. Counterweight d. Buffer (device designed to stop a descending car or counterweight beyond its normal limit of travel by absorbing and dissipating the kinetic energy of the car or counterweight) 24. Circuit breakers are ruled in what unit? a. Amperes b. Watts c. Volts d. Farad 25. As per PEC, what is the maximum load given to each lighting outlet? a. 20 watts b. 100 watts c. 40 watts d. 120 watts 26. What is the minimum recommended slope percentage value for horizontal excrete drainage pipes having a size of less than 102 mm? a. 1% (piping 102 mm or larger) b. 2% (average horizontal drainage piping) c. 3% d. 4% 27. A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper or aluminum bar, strip or rod used for conducting, carrying, and distributing large electric currents a. Bus (busbar; rigid electric conductor, usually a metal bar, hollow tube, or rod, which forms a connection between electric circuits) b. Grounded Conductor (A system or circuit conductor that is intentionally grounded.) c. Main Conductor d. Conductor (A substance that has free electrons or other charge carriers which permit charge flow when an emf (electromotive force) is applied across the substance) 28. Which of the following describes an armored cable? a. A cable consisting of two or more insulated conductors protected by a flexible metal wrapping b. A tube, pipe or duct enclosing and protecting electrical wires or cables (electrical conduit) c. A cable enclosed within a metallic sheath in order to reduce the effects of external electric or magnetic fields (shielded cable) d. A pliable metallic strand, twisted or woven assembly, often insulated with a dielectric material and used as a conductor of electricity. (wire) 29. The part of the drainage system that extends from the end of the building drain and conveys its discharge to the public sewer, private sewer, individual sewage disposal system, or other appropriate point of disposal? a. Building drain (That part of the lowest horizontal piping of a plumbing system which receives the discharge from soil, waste and other drainage pipes inside a building and conveys it to the building sewer/house sewer.) b. Building storm drain (part of the piping of a stormwater drainage system that begins at the connection to the building drain at a point 5 feet outside the established line of the building or structure, and that conveys stormwater to the approved point of disposal) c. Building sewer d. Building sewage pipe 30. What kind of material is used to convey refrigerant (refrigerant line) from the condenser to the fan coil unit (PCU) of a split type air conditioning unit? 1107.5.2 Copper and Copper-Alloy Pipe Standard iron-pipe size, copper and copper-alloy (not less than 80-percent copper) pipe shall conform to ASTM B42 and ASTM B43. a. Plastic b. Copper c. Rubber d. Fiberglass 31. Which of the following fittings is categorized under sanitary drainage fittings? a. Union patente (not; type of union fitting) b. Upright wye branch ((type of sanitary drainage fittings)) c. Street elbow (type of sanitary drainage fittings) d. Service tee (type of sanitary drainage fittings) 32. In acoustics, it is defined as the obscuring or covering up of one sound by another. a. Focusing - is used to obtain an acoustic image in ultrasonic viewers, in the ultrasonic microscope, and in systems for acoustic holography. b. Masking - The process by which one sound is used to obscure the presence of another. c. Attenuation - To reduce the level (volume, loudness, energy) of an acoustical (or electrical) signal. d. Amplification- the process of increasing the amplitude (or loudness) of an audio signal 33. A single conductor or multi-conductor assembly provided with or without an over-all covering, primarily used for services a. Integrated gas spacer cable (factory assembly of one or more conductors, each individually insulated and enclosed in a loose-fit nonmetallic flexible conduit as an integrated gas spacer cable rated at 0 – 600 volts) b. Messenger supported wiring (exposed support system using a messenger wire to support insulated conductors) c. Medium voltage cable (a single or multi-conductor solid dielectric cable rated at 2001 volts or higher) d. Service Entrance Cable 34. Which of the statements does not conforms to the general plumbing principles for a sound and efficient system of plumbing? a. Each vent terminal shall not be extended to the outer air to minimize the possibility of clogging and the return of foul air to the building (Each vent terminal SHALL EXTEND to the outer air to minimize the possibility of clogging and the return of foul air to the building) b. Plumbing systems shall be maintained in a sanitary and serviceable condition c. The plumbing system shall be subjected to such tests as well effectively disclose all leaks and defects in the work d. No water closet shall be located in a room or compartment that is not properly lighted ventilated 35. The following are four major components of a unitary or window type air conditioning unit except ____. 4 major components: evaporator, condenser, compressor, and expansion valve a. Evaporator b. Air handling unit c. Compressor d. Condenser 36. In an elevator, a piston or spring device which absorbs the impact of a descending elevator car in the elevator pit? a. Shock absorber - general term b. Bumper - A device other than a buffer for stopping a descending car or counterweight beyond its bottom terminal by absorbing the impact. c. Buffer - a piston or spring device for absorbing the impact of a descending elevator car or counterweight at the extreme lower limit of travel. d. Plunger- is used to remove contaminants from productive natural gas wells, such as water (in liquid, mist, or ice forms), sand, oil and wax. 37. A packaged assembly for air-conditioning components consisting of coils, fibers, fan, humidifier, etc. which provides for the treatment of air before it is distributed to an air-conditioned space. a. Evaporator b. Condenser c. Air handling unit d. Cooling tower 38. A vent stack must be extended vertically upwards and terminated at the vent stack through roof through _______ a. A branch vent (a vent connecting one or more individual vents with a vent stack or stack vent.) b. A loop vent (employed where two or more fixture traps are installed on a horizontal soil or waste branch.) c. A stack vent d. A dry vent (a vent pipe that is used to provide a path for air to enter the plumbing drainage system) 39. Sound Transmission Loss (STL) Is/are affected by the following: a. Intensity of sound from source b. material density c. Medium d. all of the above 40. Which material would exhibit the highest sound absorption coefficient (SAC) value? a. Marble b. Wood c. Plastic d. Carpet 41. A vertical length of soil or waste stack at least eight feet in height (a storey height), within which the horizontal branches from one storey or floor of the building or structure are connected to the stack a. Fixture branch (A drain serving two or more fixtures that discharges to another drain or to a stack.) b. Branch drain (That part of the lowest piping of a drainage system that receives the discharge from soil, waste and other drainage pipes inside) c. Branch interval d. Branch pipe 42. The phenomenon in sound propagation whereby a sound wave moves around an object whose dimensions are smaller than or about equal to the wavelength of the sound. a. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another) b. Diffraction c. Reflection (When a sound wave encounters a sharp discontinuity in the density of its medium, some of its energy is reflected.) d. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or coherent.) 43. In this type of circuit, the voltage across each component is the same, equal to the source voltage and the current through each component varies according to the impedance of each element loads are connected across the lines a. Parallel circuit (When two or more electrical devices are connected so that each one offers a separate path for the flow of current between the two points) b. Series circuit (When all parts of the circuit are electrically connected end-to-end.) c. Branch circuit d. Open circuit (When its conducting elements are disconnected in such a manner as to prevent the flow of electricity.) 44. A reflected sound reaching a listener's ear with a delay after the initial creation of sound. a. Noise b. Phon c. Reverberation d. Echo 45. Which of the following conditions will result in the loss of trap seal due to capillary action? a. Temperature change b. Minus pressure c. When an absorbent is suspended in the trap with one end on the fixture side and the other on the drain side d. Momentum of sewage flowing from upper fixture traps 46. Which of the following arrangement of components will produce a cooling effect in a refrigerating cycle? a. Condenser, evaporator, expansion valve, compressor b. Compressor, evaporator, expansion valve, condenser c. Evaporator, condenser, compressor, expansion valve d. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, evaporator 47. The trade name for the type letter THWN Insulated Conductor is ______. a. Moisture and heat resistant thermoplastic, nylon coated b. Heat resistant thermoplastic (RHW) c. Thermoplastic (T) d. Perfluoroalkoxy 48. Which of the following describes a covered conductor? a. A conductor encased in a material that is recognized by the code as electrical insulation (Insulated Conductor) b. A conductor that is stranded and insulated with an approved material c. A conductor encased in a material that is not recognized by the code as electrical insulation d. A conductor having no covering or insulation (Bare Conductor) 49. A vertical pipe which conveys only wastewater or liquid waste free from fecal matter a. Waste stack (a large-diameter pipe that receives water from toilets and other drains and runs all the way through the house vertically.) b. Waste pipe c. Soil pipe (pipe that conveys the discharge of water closets or similar fixtures containing fecal matter, with or without the discharge of other fixtures to the building drain or building sewer) d. Soil stack (A vertical pipe which conveys the discharge of water closet, urinal or fixtures having similar function, with or without the discharges from other fixtures to the building drain or building sewer.) 50. An enclosure for housing and protecting electric wires and/or cables that are joined together in connecting or branching electric circuits a. Junction box (box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining different runs of raceway or cable, and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the enclosed conductors.) b. Cable tray (unit of assembly of units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid structural system used to support cables) c. Duct d. Wire BUILDING TECHNOLOGIES 35 PASSING GRADE 1. The specified strength of concrete will be reached after how many days of curing? a. 14 b. 21 c. 30 d. 28 2. Fieldstone or roughly dressed stone with or without mortar - Coursed Rubble 3. The two methods for controlling consistency of concrete mixes and strength a. Compressive strength and cylinder test b. Slump test and cylinder compression test c. Cylinder and hydraulic test d. Compressive and tension stress test 4. A masonry unit of clay formed into a rectangular prism while plastic and hardened by drying in the sun or firing a kiln a. CHB (block made of concrete and has space between its walls.) b. Sandstone (cemented silica grains) c. Marble (metamorphic rock which are crystallized) d. Bricks 5. A malleable alloy of iron and carbon (combined) produced by smelting and refining of pig iron and/or scrap steel a. Steel b. Wrought Iron (A tough, malleable, readily soft iron; easily forged & welded.) c. Cast Iron (hard, brittle, non-malleable iron-based alloy) d. Galvanized Iron (Iron coated with zinc to prevent rust.) 6. A fluid cement mortar that will flow easily without segregation of the ingredients, used to fill narrow cavities in masonry and consolidate the adjoining materials into a solid mass a. Grout b. Sand mortar (mixture of binder [lime or cement] and sand) c. Bond d. Epoxy (two-part adhesive that forms when you mix epoxy resin and hardener) 7. A matte textured surface with no gloss as a result of a pressurized flow of sand and water a. Polished b. Sandblasted c. Honed d. Abrasive 8. It is a fabrication process that joins materials, usually metals, or thermoplastics by causing coalescence a. Soldering (process used for joining metal parts to form a mechanical or electrical bond) b. Annealing (heat treatment process that changes the physical and sometimes also the chemical properties of a material to increase ductility and reduce the hardness to make it more workable) c. Brazing (process for joining two pieces of metal that involves the application of heat and the addition of a filler metal) d. Welding 9. Which among the following materials has the best sound-absorbing qualities? a. Concrete b. Glass c. Stone d. Wood 10. A ferrous material which is tough and ductile and is produced from pig iron in a way to remove carbon and other impurities a. Wrought iron b. Weathering steel c. Stainless steel d. Galvanized Iron 11. An iron coated with zinc through a process of hot-dipping to prevent rust a. Wrought iron b. Weathering steel c. Galvanized iron d. Stainless steel 12. An admixture which delays the setting time of concrete especially during hot weather conditions a. Retarder b. Air-entraining (concrete will be highly resistant to corrosion) c. Set inhibiting agent (delays curing; applied immediately) d. Dispersal agent (bonding agent [spray or paint] that improves bond between old and new concrete) 13. Features on steel reinforcements to increase adhesion to concrete a. Oil (can hinder bonding) b. Rust (form of corrosion; weakens steel) c. Lugs (intentional deformations; increase surface area promoting strong bond) d. Ties (used to hold reinforcing bars; structurally integral to material but not designed for adhesion) 14. Rough fragments of broken stone that have at least one face good for exposure on a wall a. Dimension stone (quarried and squared) b. Ashlar (cut stone, masonry laid out in regular/irregular courses) c. Rubble d. Flagstone (flat stone slabs; flooring or horizontal surface) 15. A fabrication process usually done on metals or thermoplastics by melting the work pieces and adding a filler material which cools to form a strong joint a. Soldering (two or more metal items are joined together) b. Welding c. Brazing (filler metal or alloy is heated to melting temperature above 450°C) d. Annealing (heating the material (until glowing) for a while and allowing it to cool slowly.) 16. A mixture of cement, sand and water used as a bonding agent in masonry construction a. Adhesive b. Plaster c. Grout d. Mortar 17. [NO DATA YET] 18. An artificial stone-like material made by mixing water with cement and co… a. Masonry b. Concrete c. Plaster d. Grout 19. An alloy of copper and zinc which is relatively resistant to tarnishing a. Wrought Iron b. Brass c. Aluminum d. Copper 20. Iron coated with zinc to prevent rust a. Weathering Steel b. Aluminum c. Galvanized Iron d. Stainless Steel 21. A common alloy for corrosion resistance a. Manganese b. Tungsten c. Aluminum d. Chromium (component of Stainless Steel) 22. It is a type of building board made of 3 or more layers of veneer joined by ____ each layer a. Hardboard (also called high-density fiberboard) (made from processed wood chips or fibers subjected to high pressure steam in pressure vessels, released and exploded forming into filtered cellulose) b. Plasterboard (also called Drywall or Gypsum board) c. Fiberboard (kind of natural fiber composite that is made from wood or non wood fiber materials) d. Plywood 23. It is made from hardboard from relatively small particles , graduated from coarse at the center of the board to fine at the surface to produce a smooth dense surface a. Fiber cement board (composite materials made of sand, cement, and cellulose fibers) (ideally used for flooring, making furniture, wall cladding/paneling and even gates) b. Building Board (also known as cement particle boards; made from wood particles that are bonded together with cement) c. Medium-density fiberboard (engineered wood product formed by breaking down softwood into wood fibers) d. Particle board 24. A wall or ceiling board having a chalk-like material as a core clad with paper … a. Medium-density board (engineered wood product formed by breaking down softwood into wood fibers) b. Gypsum board (Wallboard or Drywall) c. Hardboard (also called high-density fiberboard) (made from processed wood cips or fibers subjected to high pressure steam in pressure vessels, released and exploded forming into filtered cellulose) d. Particle board 25. A tile made with finer clay particles fired at higher temperatures to achieve a … water-resistant than ordinary tile and this allows for the tile to be manufactured.. a. Homogenous tiles b. Vitrified tiles c. Porcelain tiles d. Ceramic tiles 26. Tiles which are tougher and less porous than a ceramic tile in which the color of the surface is consistent throughout the tile a. Porcelain tile b. Ceramic tiles (thin slabs of clay, water or other inorganic materials, hardened at high temperatures in a kiln and usually coated with some kind of glaze) c. Vitrified tiles (ceramic tile with very low porosity) d. Homogenous tiles (either porcelain or ceramic) 27. This component dissolves the paint to make it usable and workable a. Binder b. Solvent c. Veh d. Thinner- is a solvent used to thin oil-based paints 28. A base coat applied to improve the adhesion of substance a. Sealer b. Solvent c. Primer d. Binder 29. A paint defect which shows uneven coating due to excessive application paint on wet paint a. Sagging (heavy coat of paint; resulting in a uneven coating) b. Wrinkling (when uncured paint forms a skin) C. Blistering//Blocking d. Leaching (tan/brown spots; drip-like effect) 30. This waterproofing type mixed with concrete and does not require skilled workmanship in creating a waterproof structure a. Integral waterproofing (admixture added directly to concrete mix) b. Liquid-applied membrane waterproofing (liquid membrane coating onto surface) c. Bituminous waterproofing (bitumen sheets applied unto material requiring workmanship) d. Cementitious waterproofing (mixing cement, sand, and additives to create waterproof coating on the surface of concrete) 31. A float glass which can be cut, drilled, and polished but has not been heat-strengthened and underwent a process of a controlled cooling to prevent residual stress a. Tempered glass (controlled thermal or chemical treatments) b. Annealed glass (float glass; breaks into large jagged shards) c. Insulating glass (double glazing; thermal insulation & noise reduction) d. Laminated glass (safety glass; have protective vinyl layer bet. 2 pcs of glass; holds together when shattered) 32. A type of safety glass processed by controlled thermal or chemical treatments to increase its strength by putting the outer surfaces into compression and the interior into tension such that the glass shatters into small granular chunks when broken instead of splintering into jagged shards a. Tempered glass (controlled thermal or chemical treatments) b. Annealed glass (float glass; breaks into large jagged shards) c. Plate glass (poured molten glass on casting tables) d. Laminated glass (safety glass; have protective vinyl layer bet. 2 pcs of glass; holds together when shattered) 33-34. [NO DATA YET] 35. A single spread footing supporting freestanding column or pier a. Combined footing b. Stepped footing c. Matt footing d. Isolated footing 36. A structure composed of chords, diagonal and vertical web members to create a rigid framework a. Post and lintel b. Truss c. Rafter d. Floor joist 37. An arrangement of braces fixed between floor joists to keep them in place and distribute the load to adjacent floor joists a. Floor bracing b. Floor beam c. Bridging d. Corbel 38. A beam supported only on one end a. Overhanging beam b. Cantilever beam c. Secondary beam d. Intermediate beam 39. Prevents water penetration and /or provide water drainage especially between a roof and wall a. Downspout b. Gutter c. Flashing d. Downspout 40. A channel of metal, wood, or concrete set below and along the eaves of a building to catch and carry off rainwater from the roof a. Roof drain b. Fascia c. Downspout d. Gutter 41. Class A Concrete has a mixture ratio 1:2:_? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 42. Term which means to connect or join 2 similar materials, usually in a straight line by fastening the ends by means of mechanical connectors, welding, or wire connection a. Splice b. Adjoin c. Pliers d. Joint 43. [NO DATA YET] 44. The measure from the top of the concrete beam to the center of the bottom bar a. Developed length b. Embedment length c. Effective depth d. Efficient length 45. The relative movement of parts of a structure caused by uneven settlements ? underlying soil a. Primary consolidation b. Differential settlement 46-49. [NO DATA YET] 50. Concrete cover for cast-in-place for concrete exposed to weather a. 25mm b. 40mm c. 75mm d. 30mm PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE 35 PASSING SCORE 1. For residential 5 (R5) The allowable highest grade of the building should be: a. 36m - 54m b. 12m - 16m c. 25m - 40m d. 30m - 50m 2. For R3, High density Housing or multiple-family dwelling units should be allowed to have the Building Height limit of ___m a. 20 meters b. 36 meters c. 45 meters d. 20 meters 3. The allowable storeys or number of floors for Commercial 2 above the established grade is ____ a. 6 storeys b. 10 storeys c. 20 storeys d. 15 storeys 4. PUD, Planned Unit Development at reclamation area close to an operating airport should not go beyond__m as ATO prescribed BHL. a. 10-20 meters b. 10-30 meters c. 10-45 meters d. 10-50 meters (48.00 m is prescribed) 5. For Institutional Structure, the duly approved BHL is a. 10 meters b. 15 meters c. 20 meters d. 30 meters 6. The office authorized to enforce the provisions of the NBC and its IRR in the field, as well as the enforcement of orders and decisions made pursuant thereto? a. Secretary of DPWH b. City or Municipal Mayor c. Office of the Building Official d. Executive Dept. 7. Under Section 104 (general Building Requirements) buildings or structures intended to be used for the manufacture and/or production of any kind of article or product shall observe adequate a. Safety standards b. Health standards c. Universal design d. Environmental safeguards 8. Any physical change made on buildings/structures to increase the value, quality, and/or to improve the aesthetic a. Renovation b. Repair c. Alteration d. Demolition 9. The administration and enforcement of the provisions of the NBC ( also known as the “code”) and its IRR, including the imposition of penalties for administrative violations thereof, is vested upon? a. Secretary of DPWH b. City or Municipal Mayor c. Office of the Building Official d. Executive Dept 10. Which of the following is NOT a qualification for being appointed as a Building Official? a. A duly registered Architect or Engineer b. Five (5) years of diversified training in Management systems c. Member and of good standing in his accredited professional organization d. Attended and successfully completed a seminar workshop on PD 1096 and its IRR conducted by the DPWH 11. A type of occupancy of building for residential structure for executive use of single-family occupants a. Group A Division A-1 b. Group A Division A-2 c. Group A Division B-1 d. Group B Division B-2 12. Building type for educational institutions like schools, colleges, universities, concert halls, museums, etc. a. Group A Division C-1 b. Group A Division C-2 c. Group A Division B-1 d. Group B Division B-2 13. If the first two floors of a five-storey building are for commercial use, and the upper floors are for residential use, each one of these occupancies should have a complete separation a. True b. False 14. Residential R-1 is a low-density residential zone, characterized mainly by single family dwelling. a. True b. False 15-19. [NO DATA YET] 20. Lot location in relation with fault lines and soil characteristics help determine a Building Height. a. True b. False 21. General Institution is use or occupancy, characterized mainly as a low-rise, medium-rise, or high rise building./structure for educational training and related activities, e.g. school and related facilities a. True b. False 22. The size of a standard truck or bus parking/loading slot must be computed at a minimum of 3.60 meters by 13.00 meters a. True b. False 23. One (1) car slot for every five (5) classroom; is for Private elementary, secondary, vocational and trade school. a. True b. False 24. A jeepney or shuttle parking/loading/unloading slot must be computed at minimum of 4.00 meters by 10.00 meters a. True b. False 25. Length of an automobile parking slot for parallel parking (2.15m X ____). a. 5.00 meters b. 5.50 meters c. 6.50 meters d. 6.00 meters 26. Doors in smoke partitions shall be automatically self-closing a. True b. False 27. The owner or his/her authorized representative shall not be responsible for the annual inspection and testing of doors and its assembly and automatic closing doors. Hardware shall be examined and other defective parts of its assembly shall be replaced immediately with the same fire rating and mechanism. Reports shall be included in FSMR. a. True b. False 28. Doors in smoke partitions shall be automatically self-closing a. True b. False 29. The maximum length of travel from any point of the building towards the location of such openings should not be over 45.00 meters in any place of assembly for spaces not protected by automatic fire suppression and 60.00 meters in areas so protected. a. True b. False 30. Places of assembly in building of other occupancy may use exits common to the place of assembly and the other occupancy, provided that the assembly area and the other occupancy, considered separately, have exits sufficient to meet the requirements a. True b. False 31. Fire extinguishers shall be installed even if the property is equipped with automatic sprinklers, standpipes, and hose, or other fixed fire protection equipment a. True b. False 32. According to Section 1. The Green Building Code is also referred to as a. GB code b. PhilGB Code c. PGBC d. Green Code 33. The green building code is a referral code of a. RA 9266 b. PD 1096 c. BP 344 d. PD 957 34. According to section 4. Of the Green Building Code, the Principles include the following except: a. Resources must be used efficiently to equitably meet the developmental and environmental needs of the present and future generations b. People in the building industry have must ensure that buildings are planned, designed, constructed, operated, and maintained to the required efficiency level c. This practice complements the conventional building design concerns that we do not need to address immediately d. Occupants of green buildings will benefit from improved indoor environmental quality., which promotes higher productivity and better comfort 35. According to Section 10 of the Green Building Code, energy efficiency requires the adoption of the following except: a. Building Envelopes must be air tight with moisture protection b. Reduce the amount of glass or glazing with respect to the wall in order to reduce heat gain c. Windows must at least be 10% of the floor area of regularly occupied spaces d. Building envelope should always be in dark colors in order to reduce heat transfer 36. Under Rule 10, arcades are allowed in buildings provided that they are uniform in height and width all throughout. What is the prescribed minimum height clearance of arcades from the finish grade level of a sidewalk? (SECTION 1004. Arcades (a) Whenever required by existing building and zoning regulations, arcades shall be constructed on sidewalks of streets. The width of the arcade and its height shall be uniform throughout the street provided, that in no case, shall an arcade be less than 3.00 meters above the established sidewalk grade.) a. Typically accounts for more than 50% fifty percent of total electricity costs in a centrally conditioned building b. 20% better if it’s not centralized c. Is more efficient if it is never turned off d. Should be changed every two years 37. What do you call the permanent roofed structure above a door attached to and supported by the building and projecting over a wall or sidewalk? a. Window b. Light Shelf c. Light tube d. Clerestory Correct Answer: Canopy/Marquee 38. What is the prescribed vertical clearance between the undermost surface of the awning and the pavement or ground line? a. 2.00 meters b. 2.40 meters c. 2.80 meters d. 3.20 meters 39. Which of the following condition/situation is NOT considered as a good construction practice? a. Materials and equipment properly stored b. Materials and equipments not obstructing any hydrant or police alarm box c. Materials that are stored and stacked properly to avoid toppling d. Mixing of mortar, concrete, and other similar materials on public streets 40. What is the prescribed width (minimum) of temporary walkways to be provided in and around construction sites as protection for pedestrians? a. 1.80 meters b. 1.60 meters c. 1.40 meters d. 1.20 meters 41. The width of any access corridor serving 50 or more persons shall not be less than 1.12 meters a. True b. False 42-50. [NO DATA YET] HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE - UNSURE 35 PASSING SCORE 1. Cauli as called by middle easterns turned to Corea or Korea TRUE 2. What is not a part of Domus? Parts of Domus: - Fauces - Taberna - Atrium - Impluvium - Tablinum - Peristyle/Hortus - Alae - Cubiculum 3. Filipino architect known for cinema theaters Juan Nakpil or Pablo Antonio cnu ba jan 4. Regarded as the most beautiful Rocco building in Prague St. Nicholas Church 5. The largest military fortification is great wall of China - TRUE 6. The largest and longest baroque structure in Prague - Czernin Palace Černín 7. Capital of Incan Empire - Cusco or Sacsahuaman 8. Capital of Chimu Empire - Chan Chan 9. How many layers is the Pyramid of the Sun, in Teotihuacan - 4 Levels 10. The cathedral in the Alps contains the family tree of Duke William St. Michael’s Cathedral 11. Was constructed after a plague in Prague passed Saint Nicholas Church 12. Placed at the top of fortifications Crenellations 13. An Italian term, a scroll that supports Italian window Brise Soleil 14. What is not included in the five elements of Buddhist nepal Five Elements: - Prithvi (Earth) - Jal (Water) - Agni or Tej (Fire) - Vayu (Air) - Akasha (Space) 15. Colorful patterns used in Zamboanga and Sulu Vinta 16. Question about Song Dynasty China 17. Color of Chinese Column Red 18. Question that is related to Dolmen, Cromlech, Etc. -Cromlech 19. Ambulatory/Circulation around Stupa Pradakshina Patha 20. Architectural style that is theatrical and dramatic Baroque 21. Question about Mastaba Step pyramid of Djoser, by architect Imhotep 22. The most beautiful train station (NYC) Grand Central Station 23. Not work of Nakpil Perez-Samanillo Building (1st United Nations Bldg. 24. Byzantine and Ottoman Empire UNESCO World Heritage Site Hagia Sophia 25. A system of wooden brackets that can support the overhanging roofs is commonly found in Chinese architecture. Dougongs 26. Minoan Civilization on the Island of Crete King Minos 27. Is a decorative technique that involves the application of enamel to metal objects Cloisonné Technique 28. A train station that was converted into a museum Gare d’Orsay 29. Was made famous in the novel Phantom of the Opera Palais Garnier 30. Most beautiful Roccoco structure known for its stairs Palace of Versailles 31. Also known as rows of columns Colonnades 32. The tallest tower in the world that held its title for 25 years after its construction in 1973, Sears Tower 33. Slab where the column is based Plinth 34. Assyrian protective deity Lamassu 35. The old name of Korea is Cauli 36. What is not designed by Antoni Gaudi Works: - Sagrada Familia Church - Park Gueli - Casa Batlo - Casa Mila ans. : Casa lucilla 37. Filipino architect known for cinema and theaters Pablo Antonio 38. Vienna church that is known for its dome Karlskirche 39. The most beautiful Rococo structure known for its stairs is the Palace of Versailles 40. Father of Renaissance Petrarch 41. Opulent Renaissance Style Baroque 42. Who is not a national artist for Architecture Victorio Edades 43. Art Nouveau Characteristics - Organic - Flowing Lines - Asymmetrical 44. Buddhism and Catholicism are prominent during the three kingdoms TRUE 45. Governor general in charge of the Murillo Velarde map Fernando Valdez y Tamon 46. Which is not a learning institution established during the American Period UST 47. The title given to graduates of Liceo de Manila University is Maestro de Obra 48. Architects of Perez-Samanillo Building (Friend of Juan Nakpil) Andres Luna de San Pedro and Juan Nakpil 49. Ambulatory circulation around Stupa Pradakshina Patha 50. Oldest town in the world Jericho 51. Which is not a characteristic of Gothic Architecture in the Netherlands 52. Juan Arellano designed MANILA METROPOLITAN THATER with US architect? Thomas Lamb 53. Which is not a building by Andres Luna San Pedro? Manila Post office 54. Bu 1. Slab where column is based - PLINTH 2. Assyrian protective deity - LAMASSU 3. Cauli as called by middle easterns which turned to Corea or Korea -TRUE (came from Marco Polo) 4. Earthen burial mound - TUMULI 5. The largest military fortification is great wall of China - TRUE OR FALSE 6. Capital of Incan Empire - CUZCO/CUSCO or SACSAHUAMAN 7. Capital of Chimu Empire - CHAN CHAN 8. Train Station in Paris turned into what - MUSEUM (Musee d’Orsay) 9. Considered as the grandest station in NYC - GRAND CENTRAL 10. Filipino architect known for cinema and theaters - PABLO ANTONIO 11. Cathedral in the alps that contains Duke Williams Family Tree - ST. MICHAEL’S CATHEDRAL, MUNICH 12. Vienna Church known for its dome - KARLSKIRCHE 13. Father of Renaissance - FILIPPO BRUNELLESCHI (Renaissance Architecture) or PETRARCH (Renaissance Humanism) 14. Opulent Renaissance Style - BAROQUE 15. Who is not a National Artist - VICTORIO EDADES (Filipino Painter) 16. Color of Chinese Columns - RED 17. Paraw in Zamboanga and Sulu - VINTA 18. Governor General in charge of the Murillo Velarde Map - FERNANDO VALDES Y TAMON 19. Which is not a learning institution established during the American Period - UST 20. Not a characteristic of Gabaldon Schoolhouse - DEEP EAVES 21. Which is not a work of Juan Nakpil - PEREZ-SAMANILLO BUILDING (First United Building) 22. What is the given title for graduates in Liceo de Manila University for Architecture - MAESTRO DE OBRAS 23. Ambulatory/Circulation around Stupa - PRADAKSHINA PATHA 24. Buddhism and Catholicism is prominent during the Three Kingdoms - TRUE OR FALSE 25. Row of columns supporting a roof - COLONNADE 26. Architectural style that is theatrical and dramatic - BAROQUE 27. Prague largest church VITUS CATHEDRAL 28. Hagia Sophia 29. Rock Stratum like Sandstone forming a cliff - ROCK SHELTERS OR CLIFF DWELLINGS 30. Defense pattern along parapet - CRENELLATIONS OR BATTLEMENTS?? 31. Most beautiful Rococo structure known for its stairs 32. Art Deco Building - NOT AN ART DECO BUILDING? - SEARS TOWER 33. Art Nouveau characteristic 34. Which is not a characteristic of Gothic Architecture in Netherlands - 35. How many layers is the Pyramid of the sun, in teotihuacan - 4 LAYERS 36. What is not designed by Antonio Gaudi? (___ Church, Casa A, Casa B, Park __) CASA A 37. What is not a part of Domus? 38. The largest and longest baroque structure in Prague - CERNIN PLACE 39. Regarded as the most beautiful Rocco Palace in Prague - Zwinger one of the choices 40. Was constructed after a plague in prague has passed 41. Placed at the top of fortifications 42. An italian term, a scroll like that supports italian window - INGINOCCHIATA 43. What is not included in the five elements of buddhist nepal 44. Question about Song style (STYLE AFTER SONG DYNASTY??? - YUAN, MING QING) 45. Question that is related to Dolmen, Cromlech, etc. (Stonehenge is a Dolmen, Cromlech? - Cromlech) 46. Question about Mastaba 47. Dougongs are Dovetail Joints? - FALSE - 48. King Minos 49. “Friend of Juan Nakpil” FERNANDO AMORSOLO 50. Cloisonne Technique STONE IN BRICK DURING BYZANTINE (FOUND IN MONASTERY CHURCH) 51. Water feature (Garden) / Water is a Chinese garden feature??? - TRUE 52. Duke William - ST. MICHAELS CHURCH 53. UNESCO 54. Sears Tower 55.