Important Questions PDF

74, Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct ? 1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election. 2. The ‘Gram Sabha’ consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls....

74, Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct ? 1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election. 2. The ‘Gram Sabha’ consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls. 3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state. 4, All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) land 4only (b) 1,2 and 3 only (ec) 2and 3 only (d) 2,3 and 4 only 45. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The elections to the Panchayat are conducted by the State Election Commission. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India. The State Legislatures have the power to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 4. Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Parliament is not correct ? (a) Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people. (b) Representatives from Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by direct elections. (c) Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. (d) Lok Sabha has seats reserved for SCs and STs. 78. Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to non-citizens ? 1. Freedom of speech Protection against self-incrimination FF Freedom of conscience Non-discrimination in matters of rr employment Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 1,3 and 4 only (c) 2and3only (d) 2only 79. Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is noé correct ? (a) He is not eligible for re-election. (b) He must not be less than 35 years of | age. (c) He is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. | (d) His term of office is five years. 80. A motion of no-confidence is moved against (a) an individual Minister. (b) the Council of Ministers. (c) the Prime Minister. (d) a political party. 82. Which one of the following is not a member of the Quad group of nations ? (a) France (b) USA (c) Australia (d) Japan 19. Which one among the following is not correct about the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha? {a) The Secretary General is the advisor to the Speaker. (b) The Secretary General acts under the authority in the name of the Speaker. (c) The Secretary General works under the Speaker with delegated authority. {d) The Secretary General passes orders in the name of the Speaker. 22. Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19? (a) Article 31A and Article 31C Article 31B and Article 31D Article 12 and Article 13 Article 16 and Article 17 23. Which one of the following is not the necessary condition for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto? (a) The office must be a public office. (b) The office must be created by the Statute or by the Constitution itself. (c} The office must not be a substantive one. (d) There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appropriating such person to that office. 24. Which one of the following Commissions is related to Article 338A? (a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (b} The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (c) The National Commission for Backward Classes (d) The National Commission for Women 50. Which one among the following is not a character of a secular State? (a) It refuses theocracy. (b) It separates religion from the State. (c) A State in order to be secular must be democratic. (dj) It must prevent religious conflict and promote religious harmony. 51. A special address by the Governor refers to the address delivered by the Governor (a) when President’s Rule is called for (b) when ae national emergency necessitates dissolution of Legislative Assembly {c) at the commencement of the first session after general election and at the first session of each year (dq) whenever he/she has concluded that such is necessary 53. Which one of the following statements with regard to ‘protective democracy’ is not correct? (a) It propounds that citizen participation is essential in democracies. (b) Citizens must be able to protect themselves from governmental encroachments. (c) It is compatible with laissez-faire capitalism. (d) Political equality is understood in formal terms as equal voting rights. 74. Which of the following statements with regard to the privileges of the Members of the Parliament are correct? 1, _ Privileges would not be fettered by the Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India. Immunity is available in relation to both civil and criminal prosecution. Immunity is available in relation to freedom of speech even in his/her private or personal capacity. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c}) 2 and 3 (dq) 1 and 4 only 75. Which one of the following statements with regard to the appointment of the Members of the Parliamentary Committees is correct? {a) The Members are only appointed. (b) The Members are only elected. (c) The Members are only nominated. (d) The Members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 76. Which one of the following is not a classified category of political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of India? (a) National Parties (b) State Recognised Parties (c} Regional Parties (d) Registered Unrecognised Parties 77. Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the Constitutional Amendment, 1976? 1. Socialist 2. Secular 3. Integrity 4. Fraternity Select the correct answer using the code given below. {a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4  The South Asian Association for Regional _ Cooperation was founded in (a) Colombo — 7 (b) Islamabad’. (c) Kathmandu (d)) Dhaka Which one of the following countries is not a 3 founding member of the N ew _ Development Bank? — wo : (a) Brazil (b) Canada... (c) Russia. (d) India 12. Which one of the following statements about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation is not correct ? (a) Its permanent Secretariat is located at : Jeddah. (b>) It endeavours to safeguard and protect interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.’ (c) It is the largest inter-governmental organization of the worid. (d) It has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN. | 22. Article 871A of the Constitution. of India _ provides special privileges to (a) “Nagaland (b) Mizoram {c) Sikkim (d) Manipur 23. How many Zonal Councils were set. up vide Part-I of the States Re-organization. Act, 1956 ? (a) Eight (b) Seven (c) Six 78. Who among the following was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly? (a) B. N. Rau (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (da) Alladi Krishnaswamy 79. In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by (a) the Supreme Court only (b) the High Courts only (c) the Supreme Court and High Courts only (d) the Supreme Court, High Courts and Lower Courts 80. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India? (a) Part I (b) Part Il {c) Part IV (d) Part VI 83. The Government of India programme regarding ‘Stay in India and Study in India’ is initiated by (a) the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (b) the Ministry of Culture (c) the Ministry of Education (d) the Ministry of Tourism Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the ° Government of India has to be laid before the Parliament in respect of every financial year? — (a) Article110 (b) Article 111 (c) Article-112 (d) Article 113 24, Which provision of the Constitution of India - provides that the President. shall neat be answerable to any Court in India for the. exercise of powers of his office 7 | (a) Article 53 (b) Article 74 (c) Article 361 (d) Article 363 25. Which law prescribes that all proceedingsin the Supreme Court shall be in English language ? (a). Article 145 of the scwtaiton of India (b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India (c) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 — (d) An Act passed by the Parliament The total number of members in the Union. Council of Ministers in India shall not exceed (a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament (bh) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament (c) 10% of the total number of members of. the Lok Sabha (d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha | $6, Which one of the following States does not have a Legislative Council? _ {a) Karnataka (b) Telangana _(c) Jammu and Kashmir — (d} Arunachal Pradesh.— a8. Which one of the following is not enumerated.. in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of India 4? (a) To safeguard public property (b) To protect and improve the natural environment (&) To develop the scientific damper and spirit of inquiry | (d) To promote international peace and security | | 61. Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 is not correct ? _ (a) It extended the practice of communal representation. {(b) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature. (c). It is also known as the | Montague-Chelmsford Reforms. (@) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces. 63. Which one among the following is not a part of | the Fundamental Rights (Part IID of the Constitution of India ? (a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings. and forced labour (b) Prohibition of employment of children in i factories — (c) Participation of workers in management of industries: (d) Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business 99. Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India are not correct ? L. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under. his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only © 1,2Zand3 (d) 1,3 and 4 100. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in + {a) creation of new States (b) declaring a war (c) financial a (dq) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List 51. Which one of the following Indian States has ro international boundary ? | | (a). Bihar (b). Chhattisgarh (c) Uttarakhand (dq) Meghalaya 56. Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? 1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights Select the correct answer using the code given below. fa} 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (da) 1, 2, 3 and 4 57. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person 1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder 2. is an undischarged insolvent 3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India 4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court Select the correct answer using the code given below. fa) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (dq) 1, 2 and 3 only 58. According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States? (a) At least two States (b) At least three States (c) At least four States (d) At least five States 71. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States? (a) 9ist Amendment (b) 87th Amendment (c) 97th Amendment (dq) 90th Amendment 99. Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly? (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (dq) Tamil Nadu 100. Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct? 1. It is a discretionary power. 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw _ the Ordinance at any time. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c} Both 1 and 2 (da) Neither 1 nor 2 103. Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty? (a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (d) Declaration on the _ Right to Development 4. In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT? (a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail (b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail 112. The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to faj sexual harassment in the work- place fb) Sat (c} dowry death (a) rape 67. Which of the following terms were used in the Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period to denote a peasant ? 1. Raiyat 2 Asami 3. Muzarian 4 Majur Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) and 2only (b) 2and3 only (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) 1,3 and 4 only 82. Which one of the following was not a part of Kautilya’s Saptanga Theory of the State ? (a) Amatya (b) Janapada (c) Durga (d) Dhamma Consider the following statements about Ashoka’s faith in Buddhism : 1. Rummindei Pillar Inscription and Nigah _ Sagar Pillar Inscription provide clear evidence of Ashoka’s faith in Buddhism. 2. Minor Rock Edict-I gives evidence of a sudden change in Ashoka’s faith in Buddhism. 7 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) lonly (b) 2only (c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 93. From among the following Mahaj anapadas, identify the gana/sangha (oligarchy) : (a) Magadha (b) Vajji (c) Avanti (d) Kosala 120. Recently, archaeological studies at which one among the following revealed that by 1200 BCE there was a flourishing agrarian civilization and the cultivation of rice was well-established at this place ? (a) Raichur Doab (b) Krishna Delta (c) Vicinity of Vamsadhara river (d) Vicinity of Thamirabarani river Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List IT (Author) (Poetical work) A. Brindavan 1. Shivasankirtian Das B. Krishnadas 2. Chandimangal Kaviraj C. Mukundaram 3. Chaitanyacharitamrita Chakravarti D. Rameshwar 4. Chaitanyamangal Bhattacharya Code : A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (dq) 1 2 3 4 62. Which one of the following scholars of Akbar’s court translated Bhaskaracharya’s Lilavati into Persian ? (a) Abul Fazl (b) Faizi (c) Fathullah Shirazi (d) Ataullah Rashidi 66. In the Gandhara School of Art, initially blue schist and green phyllite were used. When did _ stucco completely replace stone as main material used by Gandhara School sculptors? fa) ist century CE (b) 2nd century CE (c) Srd century CE (da) Sth century CE 60. Who among the following Mughal emperors was a follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja UPaydulla® Ahrar? | (a) Babur (b) Humayun (c) - Akbar (d) Jahangir Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List I (Ethnic (Related Territorial ; onal Segment) - | Pattern) Code: A B Cc D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 8 4 1 2 Consider the following statements : 1, According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha's dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the SBuddha’s_ teaching to the influence of Samudra, a merchant-turned monk. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12-year-old son of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka’s coming under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only | (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) land3 Name the site that gives us valuable information about India’s maritime links on the Coromandel coast. (a) Bharukachchha (b) Karur _ (c) Arikamedu (d) Anuradhapura 78. Who is the author of the 16™ century Sanskrit text, the Vraja Bhakti Vilasa which focuses on the Braj region in North India ? (a) Todar Mal | (b) Narayana Bhatta (c) Chaitanya (d) Rupa Goswami 62. In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies? (a) Surya Sukta (b) Purusha Sukta (c) Dana Stutts (d) Uma Sutra 80. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Al-Biruni' identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as _ self- annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Cita. (b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra. (c} The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism. (d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body. $1. Consider the following statement : “So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.” Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire? (a) Francisco Pelsaert (b) -Francois Bernier {c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (dj) Niccolao Manucci 82. What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect? (a) Ginan (b) Ziyarat (c) Raag (a) Shahada 15. Consider the following clues about a State of India : 1. It is known as ‘land of red river and blue hills’. | 2. It contains three of the six physiographic divisions of India. 3. It covers about 2°39 percent of total areas of the country. Identify the State on the basis of the given clues. (a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Chhattisgarh 55. Vicky told his friends about his visit to Stewart Island, Bay of Plenty and Hawke Bay. Which country did Vicky visit? (a) Canada (b) Australia (c) New Zealand (da) Ireland 57. What will be the correct sequence of cities on the bank of river Ganga if someone moves from west to east? (a) Prayagraj, Kanpur, Bhagalpur, Patna | (b) Prayagraj, Kanpur, Patna, Bhagalpur Kanpur, Prayagrajy, Bhagalpur, Patna ~— (d) Kanpur, Prayagraj, Patna, Bhagalpur  59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-I (Day) (Date) World Wetlands Day ki. 29 July > International Tiger Day 2. 22 April Oo D World Water Day 3. 2 February International Mother 4. 22 March 0 Earth Day B Cc ND 4 1 (b) B C NU 1 4 (c) B Cc OO 1 4 (d) B Cc WU 4 1 88. Which of the following groups of planets is termed as ‘gas planets’ as they are composed primarily of lighter ices, liquids and gases? (a) Mars, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus (b) Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn (c) Saturn, Mars, Jupiter, Neptune (d) Neptune, Saturn, Mars, Uranus 103. Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type : 1. They are born through convection. 2. Only cloud type that can produce hail, thunder and lightning. 3. They are large cauliflower-shaped towers, often ‘anvil tops’. Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics. (a) Stratocumulus (b) Cumulonimbus (c) Cirrocumulus (d) Nimbostratus 106. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Visakhapatnam Port is a_ land- locked harbour. 2. Deendayal Port is a tidal port. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (da) Neither 1 nor 2  | 27. Which one of the following is the main reason of acid rains ? (a) Dissolution of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in rain (b) Dissolution of minerals in rain (c) Dissolution of dust particles in rain (d) Dissolution of soil solution in rain 33. Where are the Bermuda Islands located ? (a) Caribbean Sea (b) North Atlantic Ocean (c) Gulf of Mexico (d) Mediterranean Sea 26. Which one of the following living organisms gives litmus ? (a) Protozoa (b) Virus (c) Lichen (d) Saccharomyces Which one of the following States/Union Territories has the highest percentage of forest area to the total geographical area ? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Lakshadweep (c) Nagaland (d) Mizoram Individual lava flows are normally only a few feet thick, but over a long period of time, repeated flows may build up a volcano. Such volcanoes are termed as : (a) Shield volcano. (b) Composite volcano. (c) Strato-volcano. (d) Cinder-cone volcano. Which one of the following inputs is required in less quantity in case of non-farming activities ? (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Raw material Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a} Ramnagar Wildlife Sanctuary: Uttarakhand (b) Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary: Assam (c) Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary : Haryana (da) Kane Wildlife Sanctuary : Arunachal Pradesh Watch List T-with List If and select the corvect answer using the code given below the lists: _ ListI List I (Waterfall) (State) A. Barkana — 1. Tamil Nadu B. Dudhsagar 2. Odisha C. Duduma 3. Karnataka. ‘D. Kiliyur | 4. Goa Code A B Cc D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 4 ow s 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 1 2 4 3 Which one of the following is not a resultant of the El Nino effect ? (a) Distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation | (b). Flow of the South-East Trade Winds towards the Indian Ocean (c) Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water | (d) Reduction in the amount of planktons which reduces the number of fish in the sea With reference to Bhindawas_ Wildlife Sanctuary, Sultanpur National Park, Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary and Wadhwana Wetland, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. All of them are Ramsar sites. 2. All of them are naturally formed wetlands. 3. All of them are birding sites. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) lonly (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2and3 88. Which one of the following land surfaces has the highest albedo ? (a) Asnow covered mountain (b) Abarren rocky piedmont surface (c) Asandy desert (d) A mangrove forest Which one of following is the most important factor for the formulation of smog ? (a) Long winter nights (b) Formation of an ‘inversion lid’ (c) Presence of many air pollutant resources (d) Rapid fall in temperature’ with increasing height above the sea level Which one of the following is a cold ocean current ? (a) Brazilian Current (b) Gulf Stream {c) North Equatorial Current (d) California Current Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics : 1. They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. 2. They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. 3. They are mainly found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives : (a) Laterite soil (b) Red and yellow soil (c) Saline soil (d) Black soil Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are varieties of (a) Coffee (b) Tea (c) Sugarcane (d} Cotton Which one of the following sea ports gained significance for handling iron-ore exports to Japan ? (a) Kandla (b>) Ennore (ec) Kochi (d) Mormugao Milpa and Ladang are different names for (a) shifting cultivation. (b) mixed farming. (c) truck farming. (d)} plantation agriculture. Which one of the following approaches of human development was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and emphasised on health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing ? (a) Welfare approach (b) Basic needs approach (ec) Income approach (d) Capability approach When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions into a lake or depression, the pattern is known as (a) Trellis (b) Dendritic (c) Radial (d) Centripetal , Which one of the following statements about the Coriolis force is noé correct ? (a) Itis maximum at the Poles. (b) Itis absent at the Equator. (c) It deflects the wind to the right direction in the southern hemisphere. (d) It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere. Identify the crop on the basis of the following characteristics : 1. It is a kharif crop. 2. Aus, Aman and Boro are its three different growing periods in an agricultural year. 3. About one-fourth of the total cropped area of India is under its cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Pulses (d) Cotton Which one of the following is a type of igneous rock ? (a) Marble (b) Halite (c) Granite (d) Shale Ozone layer, which absorbs the ultra-violet radiation, is found in which one of the following layers of the atmosphere ? (a) Ionosphere (b) Troposphere (ec) Mesosphere (d) Stratosphere Which one of the following statements about primary waves of earthquakes is noé correct ? (a) They are similar to sound waves. (b) They can travel only through. solid materials. (c) They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. (d) They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. Alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally (a) poor in potash and rich in phosphorus. (b) poor in both potash and phosphorus. (c) rich in both potash and phosphorus. (d) rich in potash and poor in phosphorus. Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group of India ? (a) Sino-Tibetan (b) Austric (c) Indo-Aryan (d) Dravidian Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the Nicobar islands ? (a) Gulf of Mannar (b) Ten Degree Channel (c) Eleven Degree Channel (d) Palk Strait Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the following regions? (a) Subtropical region (b) Temperate region {c} Alpine region (dq) Tundra region The largest geographical area of India is covered by which one of the following types of soils? (a) Inceptisols (b) Entisols (c) Alfisols (d) Vertisols. The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in almost two equal parts in the month of January, is fa) 10 °C (b} 25 °C (fc) 15 °C (d) 20°C Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was highest in India in the year (a) 1991 (b) 1981 (ce) 1971 (d) 1961 Which one of the following cities is closest to the Equator? (a) Mogadishu (b) Singapore (c) Colombo (d) Manila Which one among the following is not a coral reef island? {aj} Great Barrier Reef, Australia fb) Rainbow Reef, F1j1 (c}) Swaraj Island, India fd) Kyushu Island, Japan Which one of the following statements with regard to ozone is not correct? (a) Ozone is found mostly at 15-55 km in the atmosphere. (b) Ozone is produced by gascous chemical reactions. 16th November is celebrated as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer. (d) Ozone is a form of oxygen in which three oxygen atoms are bounded together. Sea of Azov is connected to fa) Black Sea (b} Baltic Sea (c) Mediterranean Sea (a) North Sea , Climax mine, the largest producer of molybdenum, is located in fa) Canada (b) USA (c}) Austraha {ad} South Africa Which one among the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in geographical area? (a) Chandigarh (b} Puducherry {c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (d) Lakshadweep 40. Buenos’ Aires and Montevideo are situated across the banks of (a) River Plate (b) Orinoco River (c) Purus River (d) Madeira River 59. Which one of the following countries is not located on the Tropic of Capricorn? (a) Chile (b}) Brazil (c) Paraguay (dq) Uruguay 62. Which one of the following is considered as the deepest point of the oceans? (a) Tonga Trench (b) Mariana Trench (c) Philippine Trench {d) Kermadec Trench The mismatch in the regional or occupational pattern of job vacancies and the pattern of worker availability results in (a) Structural unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Altered unemployment (d) Cyclical unemployment The situation in an economy which is growing slowly along with rapid inflation (rising price level) is called (a) Stagnation (b) Deflation (c) Stagflation (d) Recession The increase in private investment spending induced by the increase in Government spending is known as (a) Crowding in (b) Deficit financing (c) Crowding out (d) Pumping out 5. The asset or assets that a borrower pledges in order to guarantee repayment of a loan is called as (a) Cheque (b) Collateral (c) Guarantee card (d) Bond 91. Under the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following individuals are predominantly aquatic? (a) Bryophytes {b) Algae fc) Pteridophyta (d} Gymnosperms 93. Pearls are harvested from fa} Prawn fb) Pila fc} Tuna (d) Oyster 94. Wings of birds and bats are considered analogous structures because they have (a) common origin and common function (b} different origin and common function ee orig; (c} common and different function (d) different origin and different function 128. Recently islands of Andaman and Nicobar were connected with mainland by Submarine Optical Fibre Cable. Which one of the following islands was not connected initially? (a} Shaheed Island (b) Swaray island (c) Little Andaman (dq) Port Blair 27. Which one of the following is the most noticeable characteristic of the Mediterranean climate 7 (a) Limited geographical extent (b) Dry summer (c) Dry winter (d) Moderate temperature  Which one of the following factors is not considered in determining the Miteienm Support Price (MSP)in India? §=:.. : (a) Cost of production (b) Price trends in international and domestic markets (c}) Cost of living index (a) Inter-crop price parity : -B) 90. Which one o of the following iis not a dimension of the Human Development Index? - (a) Along and healthy life (b) Knowledge (c) Access to —_— and other financial provisions (d): Adecent standard of living — 96. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) Elements are defined by the number of protons they possess. (b) Isobars are atoms having the same atomic number but different mass number. : (c). The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of nucleons in its nucleus. (d) Valency is the combining capacity of an : atom. : 101, The term soil impoverishment relates to which — _ one of the following ? : (a) ~~ Soil erosion (b) Soil deposition ; (c) Soil getting very deficient in plant ~ nutrients (d) Soil getting enriched with plant. nutrients 3 104. Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea ad Caspian Sea? | (a) Urals (b) Caucasus (c) Carpathians (d) Balkan mountains | 108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List If (Soil type) (Major characteristic) Oxisols Very rich in organic matter Vertisols Soil lacking horizons Histosols | Very old and highly weathered Entisols Rich in clay content and highly basic Code: D > (a) 2 pet wo wo ff hp = Nw (b) 2 ew (c) 8 fh (d) 3 = 104. Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea ad Caspian Sea? | (a) Urals (b) Caucasus (c) Carpathians (d) Balkan mountains | 105. Rains caused by thunderstorms during the hot -- weather season (mid-March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called (a) Kalbaisakhi _ {b) Mango showers (c)° Loo _ (d) Cherry blossoms 106. Which one of the following iis the hargeat fresh water lake in Radin ? (a) Chilika {b) Loktak () Dal | (a) Wular 4. Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants? (a) Calcium (b) Iron (c) Magnesium (2) Potassium 19. Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification? (a) Silverfish (b) Jellyfish (c) Cuttlefish (d) Flying fish 24. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere? fa) Deflection and advection {b) Latent heat of condensation (c) Expansion and compression of the air (d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere 25. Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence. process of precipitation? fa) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level (b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level {c) All types of clouds (d}) Cirrocumulus cloud 26. Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter? (a) Jaisalmer (b) Leh (c) Chennai (dq) Guwahati 27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-I (Hypothesis/ Theory) (Propounder) A. Planetesimal hypothesis 1. Kober B. Thermal contraction 2. Chamberlin theory C, Geosynclinal Orogen 3. Daly theory D. Hypothesis of sliding 4. Jeffreys continent Code : (a) A B Cc wy 2 4 ] (b) A B C wb 2 1 4 (c) A B C No 3 1 4 (a) A B C Cie) 3 4 1 34. When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is (a) reflection of light (b) refraction of hight (c) dispersion of light (dj) scattering of light 46. Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO? 1. Keoladeo National Park 2 Sundarbans National Park 3: Kaziranga National Park 4 Ranthambore National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (@) 1, 2, 3 and 4 47. Match List-I with List-I] and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Railway Zone) (Headquarters) A. North Central 1. Secunderabad B. North Eastern 2. Jabalpur C. West Central 3. Gorakhpur D. South Central 4. Allahabad Code : (a) A B C D 4 3 2 l (b) A B C D 4 2 3 1 (c) A B C D 1 2 3 4 (da) A B C D ] 3 2 4 75. Which one of the following is NOT correct about organic farming ? (a) It does not use genetically modified seeds (b) Synthetic pesticides or fertilizers are not used (c) It uses minimal crop rotation (d) It uses ecologically protective prac- tices 76. Which one of the following instruments is uscd for measuring moisture content of air ? (a) Hydrometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Hypsometer (d) Pycnometer 77. Bronze is an alloy of copper and (a) nickel (b) iron (c) tin (d) aluminium 81. Which one of the following pairs of Island and Sea/Ocean is NOT correctly matched ? (a) Cyprus : Mediterranean Sea (b) Falkland : Atlantic Ocean (c) Chagos - North Pacific Ocean (d) Islas Cocos : Indian Ocean 82. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Mineral) (Mine) A. Zinc 1. Amjhore B. Gold 2. Sukinda C. Chromite 3, Zawar D. Pyrite 4. Hutti Code : A B C OD (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 2 4 I (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 2 3 83. As per Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct descending order of States in India in respect of sex ratio (female per thousand of males) ? (a) West Bengal — Madhya Pradesh — Uttarakhand — Jammu and Kashmir (b) Madhya Pradesh — West Bengal —~ Jammu and Kashmir — Uttarakhand Uttarakhand — West Bengal — Madhya Pradesh — Jammu _ and Kashmir (d) West Bengal -— Uttarakhand — Madhya Pradesh — Jammu _ and Kashmir 84. Liquid water 1s denser than ice due to (a) higher surface tension (b) hydrogen bonding (c) van der Waals forces (d) covalent bonding $6. Who among the following has coined the term ‘Quark’, the fundamental parlicles that make up protons and neutrons in an atomic nucleus ? (a) Richard Feynman (b) Murray Gell-Mann (c) Albert Einstein (d) Niels Bohr 91. In March 2017, a High Court in India had accorded the status of living human entities to which two of the following rivers ? (a) Brahmaputra and Ganga (b) Ganga and Yamuna (c) Yamuna and Godavari (d) Krishna and Kavert 93. Which of the following are the necessary conditions for the growth of coral] reefs ? 1. Photic conditions 2. Clean and sediment free water 3. Sea salinity of 6% 4. Tropical sea water with temperature of 20°C to 21°C Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only ‘(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2,3 and 4 94. Which one of the following diseases 1s caused by Cadmium pollution ? (a) Minamata (b) Itai-itai (c) Fluorosis (d) Blue baby syndrome 95. Presence of ozone in the atmosphere is important because it absorbs (a) ultraviolet-A and __ ultraviolet-B radiations (b) ultraviolet-B radiations only (c) infrared-B radiations only (d) outgoing ultraviolet-B radiations and incoming ultraviolet-A radiations 96. NPP (Net Primary Productivity) 1s highest for (a) tropical forests (b) swamps (c) reefs (d) woodland and shrub land 97. Study of a single species and the environmental factors in its habitat is called (a) Genecology (b) Synecology (c) Autecology (d) Etholo - 101. Which of the following statements about the Equatorial region are correct ? 1. It is a megathermal region 2. It is a sclerophyll region 3. It is a region of high development 4. It is a region of aerial streamlets Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 102. Which one of the following statements about the Himalayas is NOT correct ? (a) They are young fold mountains (b) They have geosynclinal rocks (c) Himalayan frontal faults (HFF) separates Himalaya from Tibet (d) Indus and Sutlej rivers form antcccdent drainage in Ilimalaya 103. Which one of the following is NOT a favourable condition for occurrence of 2 thunderstorm ? (a) Conditional and convective instability (b) Adequate supply of moisture in the lower atmosphere (c) Advection of cold dry air in the lower troposphere and warm moist air in the upper troposphere (d) A synoptic situation of low level convergence and upper level divergence 104. The ecological niche of an organism relates to (a) specific habitat of the organism (b) symbiotic relationship with other organisms (c) diverse occurrence of a species under different conditions (d) its interaction with all other organisms 105. Free swimming macroscopic animals in an aquatic environment are referred to as (a) Plankton (b) Periphyton (c) Benthos (d) Nekton 106. The term Biomagnifications is referred to as (a) increase in the body weight (b) uncontrolled growth of harmful organisms (c) accumulation of increasing amount of non-degradable pollutant through food chain (d) increase in the number of bactena in a culture medium 107. Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct ? (a) Jt produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower and_ high temperatures (U) It produces larve yuaulily of mittu- gen oxides at lower and high temperatures : (c) It produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature and nitrogen oxides at high temperature (d) It produces large quantity of nitro- gen oxides at lower temperature and carbon monoxide at high temperature 113. Which one of the following is a major effect of long term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than 0-5 ppm) or no fluornde ? (a) Cavity of tooth (b) Erosion of nail (c) Deformation of bone (d) Mottling of tooth 119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List (Bird Sanctuary) (State) A. Sultanpur 1. West Bengal B. Kulik 2. Haryana C. Nawabgany 3. Uttar Pradesh D. Attiveri 4. Karnataka 41 94. Which one of the following Commissions has not examined the issue of removal of the Governor of a State? fa) Sarkaria Commission (bj) Thakkar Commission (c) Venkatachaliah Commission (a) Punchhi Commission 95. Which one of the following is the correct combination of languages included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India? fa) Nepali, Konkani, Tulu and Santhali (b) Santhali, Urdu, Konkani and Maithili (c} Santhali, Konkani, Bhojpuri and Urdu (dq) Dogri, Konkani, Bhojpuri and Urdu 105. Which one of the following statements relating to the power of the President of India to grant pardon is not correct? (a) The President has the power to grant pardon where punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. (b) The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death. {c) The Court’s power of judicial review is very limited in relation to the decision of the President on mercy petition. (d) The power to grant pardon by the President is the power that the sovereign never exercises against its own judicial mandate. 106. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947? (a) The Dominion of India got the residuary territory of India, excluding the provinces of Sind, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal and NWFP. (b) The Act sought to lay down a Constitution by the Legislative will of the British Parliament. (c) The Act proposed to set up two independent Dominions. (d) The Constituent Assembly of each Dominion was to have unlimited power to frame and adopt any Constitution. 115. Which one of the following statements with regard to Panchayats is not correct?P (a) Members of Panchayats are elected directly by the Gram Sabha. {b) The elections to Panchayats are conducted by the State Election Commission. (c) The Central Government may by law authorize a Panchayat to levy taxes. {d) Every Panchayat continues for five years from the date of convening of its first meeting. 12. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the (a) Fourteenth Amendment (b) First Amendment (c) Ninety-Third Amendment (d) Ninety-Ninth Amendment 13. Which one of the following cases in the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of ‘creamy layer’ among the backward classes ? | (a) KM Nanavati vs. State of Bombay (b) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India (c) Madhu Limaye vs. Ved Murti (d) Sajjan Singh vs. State of Punjab 20. Which one of the following judgments declared that the Parliament has NO power to amend any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India ? (a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (b) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab (c) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras (d) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Government of India 21. Who among the following leaders is associated with the concept of party less democracy ? (a) J B Kripalani (b) Jayprakash Narayan (c) Acharya Narendra Dev (d) Vinoba Bhave 22. Who among the following is empowered to establish Inter State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution of India ? (a) Parliament (b) Council of Ministers (c) President of India (d) Chief Justice of India  2. Article 16 of the Constitution of India i3 available to tho oitizons of India only 3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 101. ‘Cut Motion’ can be introduced after the presentation of : (a) any Bill introduced in the Parliament. (b) the Railway and General Budgets. (c) any Private Member’s Bill. (d) a Constitution Amendment Bill. 102. Who among the following divided governments’ into ‘Republican’, ‘Monarchical’ and *Despotic’ ? (a) Aristotle (b) Hobbes (c) Montesquieu (d) St. Augustine 109. Consider the following statements about the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909 : 1. They were named after the British Parliamentarians, Minto and Morley 2. They provided for limited self- government by increasing the number of elected Indians in the Legislative Councils 3. They contained provisions that ensured that British officials retained their majority in the Imperial Legislative Council Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and3 only (d) 1,2 and3 103. Who among the following coined the terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’ ? (a) Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph (b) Rajni Kothari (c) Sudipta Kaviraj (d) Paul Brass 1. The setting up of the Inter-State Council in 1990 was meant to : (a) substitute the National Development Council. (b) strengthen the federal provisions of the Constitution. (Cc) be an institutional interface between the Judiciary and the Government. (d) provide membership to local customary bodies. 46. ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’.are terms associated with : (a) David Washbrook (b) Helen I. Tinker (c) Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph (4) Rajym Kothan 2 = wa - a ae a r f#& 47. Which one of the following is the principal place of sitting of the National Green Tribunal ? (a) Kolkata (6b) Hyderabad {(c) Lucknow (d) New Delhi 108. The ancient Indian medical treatise for horses called Ashvashastra is attributed to which one of the following persons ? (a) Vagbhatta of the seventh century (b) The sage Shalihotra (c) Bhartrihari of the seventh century (d) Varahamihira of the sixth century 56. Ashokan inscriptions in Afghanistan are written in which one of the following scripts? (a) Brahmi (b) Sharada (c) Kharoshthi (ad) Greek-Aramaic 109. The celebrated group of poets in medieval Mathura and _ ~Vrindavana called’ the Ashta-Chhapa were the successors of which one of the following medieval Bhakti Saints ? (a) Kabir of Benaras (b) Chaitanya of Bengal (c) Guru Nanak of Punjab (d) Surdas of Braj region 55. The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi is popularly known as the (a) Battle of Talikota (b) Battle of Khanwa (c) Battle of Panipat (d) Battle of Dharmat 57. Which one of the following statements about coins struck during 200 BCE to 300 CE in the Indian subcontinent is not correct? (a) The Indo-Greeks introduced bilingual and biscript legends on their coins. (b) The Kushanas’~ minted large quantities of gold coins as well as copper coins of low denomination. (c) The Satavahanas issued coins of silver, copper, lead and potin. (d) Absence of Negama coins suggests the declining power and authority of merchant guilds. 79. The ‘Tattvabodhini Sabha’ was established by (a) Devendranath Tagore in 1839 (b) Keshab Chandra Sen in 1857 (c} Akshay Kumar Datta in 1850 (d) Dwarakanath Tagore in 1840 85. Who among the following was the first to arrive in Africa as traders that eventually led to European colonization of Africa? fa) French (b} Spanish fc) Portuguese (a) Dutch 103. Who founded the ‘Seva Samit’ at Allahabad in 1914? (a) Hridayanath Kunzru (b) G. K. Gokhale (c) Shr Ram Bajpai (ad) T. B, Sapru 104. The State of Hyderabad in the Deccan officially acceded to the Indian Union in the year (a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1949 (d) 1947 105. The Hunter Commission (1882) appointed to survey the state of education in India (a) deprecated University education (b) overruled the Despatch of 1854 (c) endorsed the Despatch of 1854 with greater emphasis on primary education (da) criticized the grants-in-aid system of schooling 107. The earliest literary references to iron in the Indian Sub-Continent are found in the : (a) Rigveda (b) Samaveda (c) Yajurveda. (d) Vinaya Pitaka  = FP AGE LS 59. Which one of the following is believed to be a compilation of the psalms sung by the women ? (a) Sumangalavilasini (b) Therigatha (c) Stridharmapaddchati (d) Ritusamhara 64. Amarasimha is the name of a: (a) famous lexicographer of ancient India (b) Rajput king of Chalukya lineage (c) poet mentioned by Kautilya in his Arthashastra (d) dance form of Odisha 65. The 7olkappiyam ts the name of : (a) astep-well of Western India (b) the book on Tamil grammar (c) acollection of Tamil bhakti poems (d) acollection of Kannada poems 5. Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as ‘Danka Shah’? (a) Shah Mal fo} Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah jc) Nana Sahib (fd) Tantia Tope 6. The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions? fa) The Talukdars were the nghtful owners of the land. (b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land, fc) The Talukdara could evict the peasants from the lands. (@} The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenue which flowed to the State. 26. Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s? fa) H. St. Clair Wilkins ib) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney {c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas (dq) Nusserwanyji Tata 27. Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta? (aj) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini (b) Sister Nivedita jc} Madame Blavatsky (a) Sarojini Naidu 33. Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947? {a} The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution. (b) India ceased to be a dependency. (c} The Crown was the source of authority till new Constitution was framed. (dq) The Governor-General was the constitutional head of Indian Dominion. 95. Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ in which of the following countries? (a) Japan (b) Austria (c) Germany (d) Malaysia 96. Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan? (a) The Hindu Mahasabha (b) The Congress (c) The Muslim League (d) The Unionist Party 97. The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944), was (a) Sahajananda Saraswat (b) Vinoba Bhave (c) Achyut Rao Patwardhan (d) Narendra Dev 119. Who took over the Eka Movement’ started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922? (a) Bhagwan Ahir (b) Madari Pasi (c) Baba Ramchandra (dq) Shah Naeem Ata 57. Which of the following statements about the Iibert Bill (1883) is/are correct? 1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India. In spite of opposition to the Biull, it was passed without § any modifications. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 92. The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor-Generals? (a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Richard Wellesley (d) William Bentinck 62. Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct? 1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members. in_ the Governor-General’s Executive Council. The members were nominated and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor-General. 3. The Governor-General did not have effective legislative power. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only 61. Which of the following § statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct? L. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 {d) 1 and 3 only 93. The Economic historian, who has used the data collected by Buchanan- Hamilton to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century India, is (a) Tirthankar Roy (b) Amiya Kumar Bagchi (c} Sabyasachi Bhattacharya (d) Irfan Habib 94. Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by (a) Joseph Banks (b) James Cook (c) Robert Fortune (d) Robert Owen 76. Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India? (a) Duarte Barbosa (b) Manucci (c) Tavernier (d) Bernier 77. The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following? (a) Village Chieftains (b) Senior Civil Servants (c) Tributary Chiefs (d) Military Commanders  78. The important source for Akbar’s reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars? (a) Arif Qandahari (b) Bayazid Bayat (c) Abdul Qadir Badauni (d) Nizamuddin Ahmad GTHY-S-XGK/41A AS 79. The aristocrat Muqgarrab Khan was a preat favourite of which Mughal Emperor? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Farrukhsiyar (d) Shah Alam 80. Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century? (a) Nawab Safdarjung (b) Nawab Saadat Ali Khan (c) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula (dq) Nawab Saadat Khan 100. Who among the following is the author of the autobiography entitled Aamar Katha (1913)? fa) Satyajit Ray (b} Rassundari Devi (c) Ganesh Chandra Ghosh (dq) Binodini Dasi 6. Which one among the following was not a part of the action programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement? (a) The Congress organisation was to reach down to the village and the Mohalla level (b) Boycott of government affiliated schools and colleges (c) Taking control of the law and order machinery of the State by the Congress Working Committee (da) Surrender of titles and honours given by the government 50. Consider the following statements about the initial development of railways in India by the British : 1. Private financial investors for railways would get land free from the British Government in India. 2. The investors would get a return of 5 percent on their capital from the government if they ran at a loss or secured inadequate profit. 3. The railways would be jointly. managed with the, government. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None 51. Which of the following industries was most affected by the ‘deindustria- lisation’ of India in the 19th century? (a) Silk manufacture (b) Cotton textiles (c) Iron and steel (ad) Woolen manufacture