Indian Polity MCQs PDF

1) What does a limited government refer to in the context of Constitutionalism? (a)Accountable government with limited powers. (b)Accountable government with unlimited powers. (c)Unaccountable government with limited powers. (d)Unaccountable government with unlimited powers. 2) Which of the following statements related to the unwritten Constitution is correct? (a)The USA has an unwritten constitution. (b)In the unwritten Constitution, Constitutional laws and ordinary laws are made through different majorities. (c)The unwritten Constitution has Parliamentary sovereignty. (d)It is codified but not compiled in a book form. 3) With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were: (a)Directly elected by the people of those Provinces (b)Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League (c)Indirectly elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies (d)Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters 4) Consider the following statements about the constitution- 1. Indian Constitution is a written constitution. 2. Both British and American constitutions are unwritten constitutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only 1 is correct (b)Only 2 is correct (c)Both 1 and 2 is correct (d)None is correct 5) Consider the following statements about constitution versus constitutionalism: 1. Political systems need constitutionalism to avoid authoritarianism. 2. Every democratic political order should have a written constitution. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Which of the following pairing is correct? Article Provision 1. 15 (3) a.Abolition of untouchability 2. 16(4) b.Establishing educational institutions by religious & linguistic minorities) 3.17 c. Special provisions for women and children 4.30 d.Reserving government posts for backward classes (a)1-a,2-b,3-c,4-d (b)1-d, 2- c, 3-a, 4-b. (c)1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (d)1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 7) Which of the following rights is most likely to be infringed by the Inner Line Permit system for tribal areas ? (a)Right to Equality. (b)Right to Movement. (c)Right to Freedom of Speech. (d)Right to Education. 8) With reference to Countries having written constitutions, consider the following statements: 1. In those countries parliament is the supreme authority. 2. In those countries, every enactment of laws made by the parliament becomes part of the constitution. 3. Amending a written constitution is easier because we would know exactly where the written law is. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 9) The USA and the UK are believed to have a higher degree of Constitutionalism than India. Elaborate. (10 Marks/ 150 Words) 10) "Despite the fact that the Constituent Assembly of 1946 was not directly elected by the people, the body had public approval". Do you agree with the view ? Give reasons for your answer (150 words/10 marks). Answers 1) a 2) c 3) c 4) a 5) a 6) c 7) b 8) d 1) Consider the following regarding the features of the Indian constitution. 1. Parliamentary Democracy 2. Dual Citizenship 3. Fundamental Rights 4. Separation of Powers How many of the above-mentioned codes is/are not the features of the Indian constitution? (a)only two are the features of the Indian constitution. (b)only one is the feature of the Indian constitution. (c)None of the above is the feature of the Indian constitution. (d)All the above is the feature of the Indian constitution. 2) Consider the following statements 1. None of the states in India can have a separate constitution 2. None of the states enjoys dual citizenship. Which one of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a)Both (b)Only 1 (c)Only 2 (d)None 3) Which of the following is/are true? 1. There is the supremacy of Parliament in the USA 2. There is the supremacy of the Judiciary in the UK. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) List-I List-II (Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from) A. Fundamental Rights 1. The U.K. B. Parliamentary system 2. The U.S.A. of government 3. Ireland C. Constitutional Amendment 4. South Africa D. Directive Principles of State Policy 5. Canada Which of the following pairings is correct? (a)A- 2, B- 4, C- 5, D- 1 (b)A-5, B- 1, C- 3, D- 4 (c)A-2, B- 1, C- 4, D- 3 (d)A-1, B- 2, C- 4, D- 3 5) Assertion (A): The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is vital to ensure financial scrutiny of the Government. Reason(R): The office of CAG has been borrowed from the British Parliament. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the complete explanation for A (b)Both A and R are correct , but R is not the complete explanation for A (c)A is correct but R is wrong (d)Both A and R are wrong 6) Which of the following is the closest understanding of "Judicial Review" ? (a)The parliament checking if the judiciary is working as per the constitution. (b)The president checking if the judiciary is working as per the constitution. (c)The Judiciary checking if legislature and executive are working as per the constitution. (d)The president checking if the legislature is working as per the constitution. 7) Which of the following best explains the concept of "Presumption of Constititionality " in the Indian context ? (a)The public perception of intention of the parliament is positive. (b)The judiciary assumes that all legislative and executive steps are constitutional, until proved otherwise. (c)Center and States must work in cooperation and not in conflict. (d)There is a written remedy in case of enjoying fundamental rights 8) Consider the following statements regarding Dr. Ambedkar"s opinions on the Constitution: 1. He wanted to have an elected Governor for the states. 2. He initially wanted a Parliamentary system over the presidential system as he thought that the system would be more representative. 3. He believed that the Indian constitution is indeed a bag of borrowed materials with no unique features. Choose the incorrect statements from the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 only (b)1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 only 9) Do you think that the Indian constituton has modern values ? Give reasons for your answer. (150 words/10 marks) 10) Why is the Indian constitution the longest written constitution in the world ?(150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) b 2) d 3) d 4) c 5) b 6) c 7) b 8) c 1) Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian constitution: 1. It is based on the Objective Resolution drafted by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. 2. It is a tool of prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. 3. The words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were inserted in the preamble by the 42nd Amendment. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 2) With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: 1. The word “secular “was added by the 44th constitutional amendment act. 2. The ideals of the welfare state are enshrined in the preamble. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 3) With reference to the Indian Constitution, which of the following words were added in the Preamble through the 42nd constitutional amendment act? (a)Socialist and Secular. (b)Liberty, Equality, Fraternity (c)Socialist, Justice, Democratic (d)Sovereign, Fraternity, Socialist 4) Consider the following statements: 1. The preamble has been amended only once through the 44th constitutional amendment act 1976. 2. Secular, Socialist, and liberty were added to the constitution through the 44th constitutional amendment act 1976. Which of the above statements is true? (a)Only 1 (b)Only 2 (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Consider the following statements, 1. The word "federalism" is not mentioned in the Constitution. 2. In a true federation, States have their own identities while in the Indian system the States do not have their own identity. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Which of the following objectives are embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? 1. Liberty of thought 2. Liberty of expression 3. Economic liberty 4. Liberty of belief 5. Liberty of faith and worship Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1,2 and 3 only (b)1, 3,4 and 5 only (c)1,2,4 and 5 only (d)1,2,3 and 4 only 7) Identify the correct order in which adjectives associated with the word "republic" have been mentioned in the preamble: (a)Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic. (b)Secular, Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic. (c)Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Socialist. (d)Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic. 8) Consider the following statements: 1. ‘Sovereign’ word is part of the Preamble. 2. Sovereignty means that the Country’s government is totally Independent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 9) The preamble is the mirror of India’s constitution’. Discuss. (10 marks/150 words) 10) Discuss the significance of Preamble of the Indian constitution. (150 words/10 Marks) Answers 1) b 2) d 3) a 4) d 5) a 6) c 7) d 8) c 1) Consider the following statements with respect to secularism in India and the Indian Preamble. (1) The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism. (2) All religions in India have the same status and support from the state. (3) Constitution makers wanted to establish a religious state in India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Incorrect? (a)1, 2 and 3 Only (b)1 and 2 Only (c)3 Only (d)3 and 4 Only 2) Consider the following statements with regard to the Indian Concept of Secularism: 1. The Indian concept of secularism is similar to the Western concept of secularism. 2. As per the Indian Constitution, all religions in our country have status and support from the state as per their strength and population. 3. The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a)1 and 2 Only (b)2 only (c)3 only (d)2 and 3 only 3) Consider the following statement with respect to the philosophy of Justice in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution: 1. Social justice refers to the creation of a society without any discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, etc. 2. The term social justice has been given special importance in the Preamble. 3. Social Justice takes into account the concept of proportionate justice. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2, and 3 4) The term ‘equality’ means: 1. The special privileges to a few sections of society. 2. The provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Social Justice denotes: 1. The equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction based on caste, colour, race, religion, and sex. 2. It means the absence of privileges being extended to any particular section of society. 3. Improvement in the conditions of backward classes (SCs, STs, and OBCs) and women. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1, 2, and 3 (d)1 and 3 only 6) One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of: (UPSC 2017) (a)Privileges (b)Restraints (c)Competition (d)Ideology 7) What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950? (UPSC 2021) (a)A democratic Republic (b)A Sovereign Democratic Republic (c)A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic (d)A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic 8) Under the Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates (UPSC 2021) (a)the Right to Equality (b)the Directive Principles of State Policy (c)the Right to Freedom (d)the Concept of Welfare 9) ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitutional has been provided in (UPSC 2013) (a)the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights (b)the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (c)the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy (d)None of the above 10) What is the meaning of Democratic Socialism? What are the main goals of a socialist government? (150 words/10 Marks) 11) How the Indian concept of secularism different from the western model of secularism? Discuss. (150 Words/10 Marks) (UPSC 2018) Answers 1) c 2) a 3) d 4) b 5) c 6) a 7) b 8) b 9) b 1) The Preamble enshrines the aspirations of ‘Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.’ These are inspired by? (a)Russian Revolution (b)USA Constitution (c)Irish Revolution (d)French Revolution 2) With regard to the Preamble of India, consider the following statements: 1. It is not a part of the Constitution 2. It can not be amended. 3. It is non-justiciable in nature. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct? (a)1, and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only. (d)1, 2 and 3 3) Which of the following can be the basis for limitations on the Right to Freedom of Expression? 1. Sovereignty and integrity of India 2. Public order 3. Decency or morality 4. Defamation Choose the correct code from below: (a)1, 2, 3 and 4 Only (b)1, 2, and 3 Only (c)1 and 2 Only (d)2 only. 4) Consider the following regarding the schedules in India 1) Schedule 1 includes the names of the states of India 2) Schedule 2 deals with the salaries of constitutional posts, judges, and public offices like CAG except those exempted from charged expenditure Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Consider the following statements regarding Preamble of Indian constitution: 1. It is based on the Objective Resolution drafted by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent assembly. 2. The words Socialist, Secular, and integrity were inserted in the preamble by 42nd amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)None of the above 6) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Fundamental Rights given under the Indian constitution ? 1. They are mentioned under Part 2 of the constitution. 2. Upon their violation, you can directly approach the Supreme Court for seeking remedy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 7) Consider the following statements 1. Fraternity promotes the feeling of brotherhood or oneness transcending all religious, cultural, linguistic, and ethnic, cast-based diversities. 2. The positive character of secularism in India means that the state shall patronize all religions equally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Neither 1 nor 2. (d)Both 1 and 2. 8) Which of the following provisions mentioned in the constitution of India ensures fraternity? 1. Provision of dual Citizenship 2. The Right to travel throughout the country except in restricted areas 3. The Right to reside and settle in the territory of India except in restricted areas Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1, 2, and 3 (d)None of the above 9) Write a short note on the following-(10 Marks/ 150 Words) 1. Liberty 2. Fraternity 10) Write a short note on the following: (10 marks, 150 words). a. Equality of status. b. Equality of opportunity. Answers 1) d 2) b 3) a 4) c 5) c 6) b 7) d 8) b 1) With reference to various majorities mentioned in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Simple majority refers to a majority of not less than fifty percent of the total membership of the house. 2. Absolute majority refers to the majority of more than fifty percent of the members present and voting. 3. Effective majority refers to a majority of all the then members of the house. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)3 only (c)1 and 2 only (d)1, 2 and 3 2) A special majority of Parliament along with the consent of states is required in which of the following cases of amendments to the Indian Constitution? 1. Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. 2. Distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the States. 3. Election of President. 4. Admission or establishment of new states. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)2, 3 and 4 (d)All of the above 3) Consider the following statements about Part I of the constitution 1. India is a federation as described by Article 1 2. Article 1 states that India i.e. Bharat is a union of states Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional amendment bills 1. They can be introduced in the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha 2. They are introduced and considered as per Article 368 of the constitution of India Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Identify the cases where special majority as per Article 368 is used: 1. To pass a constitutional amendment bill that does not affect federalism. 2. Removal of CEC/CAG 3. Removal of judges of SC/HC Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1,2 and 3 (d)1 and 3 only 6) The Indian Parliament through its power under Article 368, can amend which of the following parts of the constitution? 1) Fundamental duties 2) Fundamental Rights 3) Schedules Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 only 7) Which of the following types of majority may have a variable threshold? 1. Simple Majority 2. Absolute Majority 3. Effective Majority Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Only 1 (b)1 and 2 only (c)1 & 3 only (d)1,2,3 8) Consider the following statements: 1. Simple Majority is required in a No-confidence motion and passing of ordinary law. 2. Highest form of majority In the Indian constitution is to impeach the president. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2. 9) Write a short note on Simple Majority, Effective Majority, Absolute Majority, and Special Majority with suitable examples.(10 marks/ 150 words) 10) Article 1 in the Constitution states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. What does the term "Union of States" implies? Analyze the reasons behind replacing the term "Federation of State" with "Union of State". [10 Marks/150 Words] Answers 1) b 2) b 3) a 4) c 5) c 6) d 7) c 8) d 1) A Bill contemplating changes in the area of the state, as per Article 3: 1. Need a prior recommendation from the President. 2. Need a prior recommendation from the State legislature. 3. Can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)1, 2, 3. (c)1 only (d)2 and 3 only 2) In the context of the Indian Union and its territory, which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? 1. The "Union of India" is a wider expression than the "Territory of India". 2. The union territories and the acquired territories are directly administered by the Central government. 3. Cessation of Indian territory to a foreign state can be done only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Select the answer using the codes given below: (a)1 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 3) With regard to JVP Committee, consider the following statements: 1. It consisted of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya. 2. It formally accepted language as the basis for the reorganization of states. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) Consider the following statements: 1. In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states- Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujarati-speaking people. 2. In 1966, the state of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 18th state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Which among the following were the recommendations of the Fazl Ali Commission? 1. Creation of 14 states and 6 UTs after reorganization. 2. It broadly accepted the linguistic basis for the reorganization of states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) The linguistic criteria were rejected by the Dhar Commission and JVP committee on the following arguments: 1. It may have promoted the secession/breaking up of India. 2. Hindrance to national unity. 3. It might have promoted parochial/local Interests. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 7) Consider the following statements: 1. Article 3 of the constitution empowers the parliament to alter or diminish the area of a state 2. Supreme Court opined in the Berubari Union case that Article 3 allows to ceding of territory to a foreign country. Which of the given statements is/are Incorrect? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2. 8) With reference to the SK Dhar Commission (1948), consider the following statements: 1. Reorganization should be done on a purely linguistic basis. 2. It ignored the ground of reorganization on the basis of geographical contiguity, financial self-reliance, Administrative viability, and Potential for development. Which of the above-given statements is/ are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 9) It is often contended that reorganisation of states on laguage criteria has turned out to be more of a success than a failure. Discuss. (150 words, 10 marks) 10) Trace the formation of different states and Union territories in India after independence. (150 words, 10 marks) Answers 1) c 2) a 3) b 4) a 5) b 6) c 7) b 8) d 1) Consider the following statements: 1. All the legal rights are mentioned in Part III of the Indian constitution. 2. Constitutional rights cannot be changed. 3. Fundamental rights can be enforced by the Supreme Court directly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c)3 only (d)2 and 3 only 2) Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. All constitutional rights are fundamental rights. 2. All fundamental rights are constitutional rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 and 2 3) The term "Guaranteed Fundamental Rights" is used in the context of the Indian Constitution to mean that (a)These Fundamental Rights represent the supreme law of the Indian parliamentary democracy. (b)These Fundamental Rights can not be challenged in a court of law. (c)In the case of violation of Fundamental Rights, one can approach the Supreme Court of India directly for the enforcement of these rights. (d)These Fundamental Rights are fundamental duties of the Government of India and are thus guaranteed. 4) Which among the following statements best describes natural rights? (a)These rights are those rights that are based on human consciousness. (b)Rights, freedoms, and privileges are guaranteed by the nature of existence. (c)Rights that can be enforced against individuals and also against the government (d)These are those rights that provide an opportunity for each person to lead a civilized social life. 5) Consider the following statements about the Rights of an individual: (1) The state can make a law against Fundamental Rights in order to implement a Legal Right. (2) Rights not only bind the government to act in a certain way, but they also bind each of us individually. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a)Only 1 (b)Only 2 (c)Both 1 & 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Which of the following accurately describes "Dutch Disease"? (a)A tendency of a state to disintegrate into many smaller states. (b)Cause-Effect relationship between economic slowdown and abundabce of natural resources in a region. (c)A tendency of a nation to disintegrate into many smaller nations (d)Pollution caused due to unsustainable mining. 7) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the "Constitution" of a country? ( PRELIMS 2023) (a)It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws. (b)It enables the creation of political offices and a government. (c)It defines and limits the powers of government. (d)It secures social justice, social equality and social security. 8) The General Clauses Act of the British Parliamnet 1895 defines which of the following: (a)Rule Of Law in Indian context (b)Fundamental Rights under Part III of the constitution (c)Other Authorities under Article 12 (d)Local Authorities under Article 12 9) Discuss the concept of Rights. Also differentiate among the Natural rights, human rights, Legal rights and Constitutional rights (150 words/ 10 marks) 10) What are some common reasons behind the demand of newer and smaller states in the Indian context. (150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) c 2) b 3) c 4) b 5) b 6) b 7) c 8) d 1) The term ‘Law’ in Article 13 of the constitution has been given wider connotations to include: 1. Permanent laws enacted by Parliament or state legislature. 2. Statutory instruments like delegated legislation. 3. Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law 4. Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the President and state governors. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All four 2) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. The private body falls under the ‘State’ if working as an instrument of the state. 2. The definition of the 'state' is mentioned under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution. Select the correct answer using the options given below: (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 and 2 3) The First Constitutional Amendment Act, of 1951 was related to? 1. Article 15 2. Article 19 3. 9th Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a)1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 4) Consider the following statement regarding the Doctrine of Severability: 1. The entire law is struck down if a part of the law violates the Constitution. 2. It is only applicable to pre-constitutional laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Consider the following statements with respect to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution: 1. Article 13 of the Indian constitution gives precedence to constitutional provisions over the laws made by the Parliament or the state legislature. 2. The main objective of Article 13 of the Indian constitution is to secure the paramountcy of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Which of the following is/are related to the definition of State under Article 12? 1. Mohanlal vs. Rajasthan Electricity Board Case. 2. Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib Case, 1981. 3. The test of instrumentality. 4. Doctrine of Severability. Select the answer using the codes given below: (a)1, and 3 Only (b)3 and 4 only (c)2, 3 and 4 only (d)1, 2 and 3 only 7) Consider the following statements: Statement I: Customs of a community can be declared unconstitutional if they violate fundamental rights. Statement II: Customs of a community are considered as law under Article 13(2) of the constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 8) Consider the following bodies: 1. Municipality 2. Statutory authorities 3. Constitutional Bodies 4. Courts performing administrative functions How many of the above are under the definition of 'State' as per Article 12 of the Constitution? (a)Only two (b)Only one (c)Only three (d)All are correct. 9) Discuss Article 13 with special emphasis on the Doctrine of Severability. (150 words/ 10 Marks) 10) Elaborate delegated legislation in relation to Article 13 with some examples. (10marks/ 150 words) Answers 1) d 2) a 3) d 4) d 5) c 6) d 7) a 8) d 1) Consider the following statement: 1. The constitution empowers the judiciary to protect fundamental rights under Articles 32 and 226 2. An individual can directly approach the Supreme Court in case of violation of a legal right. 3. Separation of power is part of the basic structure of the constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a)1,2, and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1 Only 2) Arrange the following cases from first to last in their chronological order of occurrence: 1. Keshavananda Bharti Vs State of Kerala case 2. Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India case 3. Golaknath Vs State of Punjab case 4. Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan case (a)4-2-3-1 (b)2-3-4-1 (c)2-4-3-1 (d)2-4-1-3 3) With reference to the Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan, 1965 case, consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court reiterated its position that the Constitutional Amendment Act is not a law under Article 13(2) and therefore, not subject to judicial review. 2. The 5-judge bench of the court gave a unanimous decision. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) If there are two conflicting provisions in the Constitution, and we wish to interpret them in such a manner that neither of them becomes useless, which of the following will most likely help us ?: (a)Doctrine of Severability (b)Doctrine of Harmonious Construction (c)Doctrine of Basic Structure (d)Doctrine of Prospective Overruling 5) Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court mentioned all the values that were a part of the Basic structure of the constitution in the Keshavananda Bharti Case. 2. The term Basic Structure is nowhere mentioned in the law or constitution. 3. Justice Mudholkar can be considered as the original proponent of the basic structure doctrine in India. Choose the correct statements from the codes given below (a)Only one statement is correct (b)Only two statements are correct (c)All the three statements are correct (d)None of the statements is correct 6) With regard to SC judgement delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), consider the following statements: 1. The court held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of the constitution and it could not be taken away by putting a law under the Ninth Schedule 2. SC said that the laws placed under the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to challenge in court if they violated fundamentals rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 19 and 21 or the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution. 3. The case gave a comprehensive list of the values that will form the part of the basic structure of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 7) With reference to the interrelationship between fundamental Rights (FRs) and DPSPs, consider the following statements: 1. As of now, any new law giving effect to articles 39(b) and 39(c) can not be put to judicial review on the ground that the said law violates articles 14 or 19. 2. Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case held that the changes introduced by the 42nd amendment in article 31(C) were unconstitutional because it disturbs the balance between FRs and DPSPs. 3. All the FRs have priority over all the DPSPs because FRs are justiciable while DPSPs are not justiciable. Which of the above statements is /are not correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 8) Consider these pairs in the context of these Judicial doctrines Doctrines Features Doctrine of Severability Certain features of the law can be removed without removing the whole law Doctrine of Prospective Conflicting visions would be Overruling implemented in such a manner that both of them get satisfied as much as possible Doctrine of Harmonious Any judgment will be applied Construction only to future cases, and not to past so as to avoid confusion The Doctrine of Basic Certain features of the Structure constitution cannot be amended by the parliament Chose the correct answer from the codes given below (a)Only one pair is correctly matched (b)Only two pairs are correctly matched (c)Only three pairs are correctly matched (d)All the four pairs are correctly matched 9) In the context of the dissenting opinions of the Sajjan Singh case 1965, analyse the mandate of parliament to amend the fundamental rights. (150 words/10 marks) 10) What was held in the Coelho case? In this context, can you say that judicial review is of key importance amongst the basic features of the Constitution? (150 words/10 marks)(mains 2016) Answers 1) b 2) c 3) a 4) b 5) b 6) a 7) c 8) b 1) Article 15(2) helps fight which among the following social evils? 1. Regionalism 2. Casteism 3. Gender Discrimination 4. Communalism Select the code from among the following: (a)1,2 and 3 only (b)2,3 and 4 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1,2,3 and 4 2) Consider the following statements - ·1. Nobody shall be a judge of their own case. ·2. Justice delayed is justice denied ·3. Everyone is entitled to a fair trial. 4. Justice hurried is justice buried. · How many of the above are believed to be the features of The Principles of Natural Justice? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All the four 3) Assertion (A): Article 14 provides equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India for both citizens and non-citizens of India. Reason(R): The right is enforceable only against the state, and not against private entities. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (a)Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A. (b)Both A & R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A. (c)A is correct, but R is incorrect (d)Both A and R are incorrect 4) Equality Before Law Equal Protection by Law It is a British Concept It is an American concept According to this, equals According to this, no one should be treated equally is above the law & in front and unequals should be of the law, everyone shall treated unequally. be equal. This considers the This does not consider underlying the underlying circumstances/backgroun circumstances/backgroun d of the individual. d of the individual How many of the above differences are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All the three differences (d)None of the difference 5) Despite provisions of equality in our Constitution, there are some exceptions to the Rule of Law in public interests. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. The President or the Governor of a State shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office. 2. No criminal proceeding whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President or a Governor in any Court during his term of office. 3. Under Articles 105(2) & 194(2), all the actions of an MP or a legislator during their tenure cannot be called into question in any court. 4. Diplomatic immunities and privileges are provided to foreign diplomats, Consular Representatives. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Only one statement is correct. (b)Only two statements are correct. (c)Only three statements are correct. (d)None of the statements is correct 6) In India, the idea of "Intelligible Differentia" is most frequenty used to classify which of the following ? (a)The principles that will be part of the basic structure of the constitution. (b)The rights that will be fundamental rights. (c)The people who will be positively discrimintated by the state (d)The principles that will be part of the idea of Natural Justice 7)Which of the following principles are considered while classifying people for positive discrimination by the state: 1. Objective criteria under Intelligible Differentia. 2. The intelligible differential must be popular with the majority of the population 3. The purpose of classification must have a rational nexus with the intelligible differentia. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 only (b)1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 8) If a mother gives more milk to her son than to her daughter, the daughter cannot approach the court citing a violation of Article 15(1). Which of the following is the most important reason for this? (a)The daughter cannot approach the court citing violation of Article 15(1) only if she is a minor. She can approach the court of she is an adult. (b)The action of the mother is considered as an act of positive discrimination under article 14 (2). (c)There is a logical relationship between the purpose of discrimination by mother and the intelligble differential of raising string children. (d)Article 15 (1) is applicable only against the state, and not individuals. 9) What do you understand by the term "equity" in political science ? Explain with examples. (150 words/10 marks) 10) Mention the exceptions provided to the right to Equality by the constitution. Do you think they are justified ?(150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) d 2) b 3) b 4) a 5) c 6) c 7) b 8) d 1) Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List II List I A. Article 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of 14 religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. B. Article 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the 15 equal protection of laws within the territory of India. C. Article 3. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. 16 D. Article 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating 17 to employment or appointment to any office under the state. Select the answer using the codes given below. (a)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (b)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (c)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 2) Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the Indian Constitution under - (a)Article 315 (b)Article 335 (c)Article 365 (d)Article 375 3) Which of the following article is related to the reservation of promotion in job for SC and ST? (a)Articel 16 (1) (b)Articel 16 (2) (c)Articel 16 (3) (d)Articel 16 (4A) 4) Choose the correct statement regarding Article 16 of the Indian Constitution- 1. Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or appointment in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority. 2. The State can provide for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class that is not adequately represented in the state services. Select the correct answer from the options given below: (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)1 and 2 both (d)None of them 5) In the context of commissions appointed under Article 340, arrange the following in chronological order: 1. BP Mandal Commission. 2. Kaka Kelkar Commission. 3. G Rohini Commission. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)2-1-3 (b)2-3-1 (c)3-1-2 (d)1-2-3 6) Consider the following statement/s regarding reservations in India. a) In no instance, total reservations can be more than 50%. b) Reservations to Scheduled castes exclude the people of Creamy Layer. c) Reservations for Other Backward Classes in public jobs are constitutionally valid. How many of the above statements are valid ? (a)Only One (b)Only Two (c)Only Three (d)None of the Above 7) Consider the following statements about Indra Sawhney Case, 1992: 1. It approved the 10% reservation for the poor. 2. 27% OBC reservation was deemed valid in this case. 3. The court held that economic criteria can not be the sole basis for determining backwardness. How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct? (a)Only One (b)Only Two (c)Only Three (d)None of the Above 8) Consider the following statements with reference to Article 16: 1) There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state. 2) The state can reserve seats for the classes of citizens who are socially or educationally backward and not adequately represented in public services. 3) On the basis of the Mandal Commission report socially and educationally backward classes are given a 27% reservation in public services but not the creamy layer of this class. How many of the above statement/s is/are incorrect? (a)Only One (b)Only Two (c)All Three (d)None 9) Write a note on the Article 16 of the Indian Constitution. (10 Marks/150 Words) 10) Discuss reservation policy in India with special emphasis on Mandal commission. (150 words/10 Marks) Answers 1) a 2) b 3) d 4) c 5) a 6) a 7) b 8) a 1) Consider the following statements with reference to Article 16: 1. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state. 2. The state can reserve seats for the classes of citizens who are socially or educationally backward and not adequately represented in public services. 3. Based on the Mandal Commission report, socially and educationally backward classes are given a 27% reservation in public services but not the creamy layer of this class. How many of the above statements are not correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 2) As per clause (5) in Article 15, State can make special provisions, by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in so far as such special provisions relate to their admission to educational institutions. Which type of educational institutions are covered under this provision? 1. Aided Private educational institutions 2. Unaided Private educational 3. Minority educational institutions Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3) What is/ are the condition(s) required with respect to matters of public employment under Article 16 (4) of the constitution? 1. The class in question must be socially and educationally backward. 2. The class must not be adequately represented in public services. Select the correct option answer from the codes given below: (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) Consider the following case: Two employees A and B are at the same level(X) in say 2017. A is from the scheduled caste and B is unreserved. B has 2 years of seniority over A. At a higher level Y, there is a vacancy for a scheduled caste employee, but not for an unreserved employee. A gets promoted to level Y in 2017. Vacancies for unreserved employees in the Y level got created in 2019, and B got promoted. Which of the following scenarios will be seen if the Catch-Up rule is considered in this case ?: (a)A will be 2 years senior to B as he got promoted earlier. (b)Both A and B will now be on same seniority level. (c) B will regain his 2 years of seniority over A at Y level. (d)The seniority will be decided by the Annual Confidential Report of the department. 5) Consider the following statements regarding the Jarnail Singh Case (2018): 1. The court upheld the judgment of the M. Nagaraj case in 2006 and held that quantifiable data is necessary to prove the backwardness of SCs and STs. 2. The concept of a creamy layer should be extended to SCs and STs as well. 3. Reservation to classes that have undergone centuries of social injustice is a fundamental right. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Only one statement is correct (b)Only two statements are correct (c)All the three statements are correct (d)None of the three statements is correct. 6) Consider the following statements: 1. The constitution defines Untouchability under Article 17. 2. Both the central and state governments can make laws related to untouchability. 3. Indian citizens must get the consent of the Prime Minister of India in order to get the title from a foreign State. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Only one statement is incorrect (b)Only two statements are incorrect (c)All the three statements are incorrect (d)None of the three statements is incorrect 7) Consider the following cases: 1. Only children belonging to upper caste can be given admission in a school. 2. Linguistic and religious minorities can open schools for their children and keep it reserved for them. 3. Overweight male cabin crew are allowed to get promotion in the national airlines but their women colleagues who gain weight are penalized. 4. A child from a backward caste is not allowed to enter and sit in a canteen. How many of the above cases can be regarded as cases of untouchability under Article 17? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All the four 8) Consider the following practices/customs /laws: 1. Making hand santization mandatory befre entering shopping malls. 2. Ban on menstruating women from entering into the sanctum santorum of Sabarimala Temple in Kerala 3. The practice of Manual Scavenging. Which of the above is/are/were cases of untouchability ? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 9) Highlighting Supreme Court Judgement in M.Nagaraj case (2006), critically examine the need for Reservation in promotions in India. [150 Words/10 Marks] 10) Trace the developement of the provision to extend reservations for backward classes in India through related court cases and Constitutional amendments. (150 words/10 marks). Answers 1) a 2) a 3) c 4) c 5) a 6) c 7) b 8) b 1) For following questions based on Assertion and Reason type. Choose the correct alternative based on the following: Assertion (A): An American citizen studying in India has the right to freedom of speech, expression and profession. Reason (R): Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners. (a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c)A is true but R is false. (d)A is false but R is true 2) With reference to Article 18 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. It prohibits the State from conferring any title, except military or academic, on citizens only. 2. Hereditary titles of nobility like Maharaja, Rai Bahadur, etc. can be continued, as these have been conferred by the colonial government before the enactment of the Constitution. 3. National Awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Bhushan, etc. don’t violate Article 18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)3 only (d)1 and 3 only 3) With reference to the protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc. which of the following sentences are NOT correct? 1. Freedom of speech and expression is the absolute right 2. Civilians have the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. Choose from the codes given below. (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) Consider the following statements about the ambit of freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a): 1. It covers verbal and printed communications only, and movies are not covered under the article. 2. Personal annoyance and inconvenience are valid grounds for restricting free speech. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) With reference to Fundamental rights, consider the following statements: 1. Rights available under Article 17 are absolute in nature. 2. Freedom of speech and expression is available with reasonable restrictions. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Ramesh Thapar versus the State of Madras case is related to (a)Reasonable restrictions as stated in article 19 (b)Right to life and liberty (c)Right to privacy (d)Right to dignity 7) Consider the following statements: 1. Bharat Ratna award recipients cannot use these awards as prefixes or suffixes. 2. If the awardee uses Padma awards as a suffix after his name, he/she would be immediately stripped of the award and penalized. 3. Supreme Court held in the Balaji Raghavan case in 1994 that civilian awards are not titles as per Article 17. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Only one statement is correct (b)Only two statements are correct (c)All the three statements are correct (d)None of the three statements is correct. 8) The Bijoe Emmanuel Case/Jehovah witness case added which of the following auxiliary right to freedom of speech ?: (a)Right of free press (b)Right to know criminal antecedents of the politician (c)Right to hoist national flag (d)Right to remain silent 9) Discuss how Article 18 ensures right to equality in India. (150 words/10 marks) 10) Along with suitable examples, discuss how the supreme court has enlarged the scope of the freedom of speech and expression. (150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) d 2) c 3) a 4) c 5) c 6) a 7) a 8) d 1) Consider the following statements: 1. Article 20 prohibits the state from enacting any type of ex-post-facto legislation. 2. Protection in respect of arrest and detention provided by Article 22 does not apply to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 2) Consider the following statements regarding Article 20: 1. No person can be inflicted with a punishment greater than what the offense provided for on the day of the commission of a crime. 2. The protection against double jeopardy is available in both the proceedings i.e. before a court of law and administrative authorities. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c)Both1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 3) With reference to article 22, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The person who is arrested shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours excluding the travel time. 2. The person also has the right to be informed about the grounds of his arrest. 3. The safeguards under Article 22(2) are also applicable to a person who is arrested under preventive detention procedures. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a)1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c)1 and 2 only (d) 3 only 4) With reference to article 20, consider the following statements: 1. Article 20 can be suspended when a national emergency is in force. 2. Protection given under article 20(1) does not cover the trial. 3. The government servant prosecuted by a court of law can’t be punished again under the proceedings of the department, for the same offense. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 5) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Article 20? 1. No ex-post-facto law shall be enacted whether in civil or criminal matters. 2. No person can be compelled to be a witness against himself or herself. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Consider the following statements: 1. Preventive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. 2. Punitive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. 3. The purpose of Punitive detention is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None of these 7) A person has been arrested under a preventive detention law. Which of the following rights are available to him? 1. The right to be produced before a judicial Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest. 2. The right to seek a review of his detention by a review Board within one month of his detention. 3. The right to choose his legal counsel for his defense. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below. (a)1 and 3 Only (b)2 Only (c)3 Only (d)None of the above. 8) Consider the following statements: 1. State Legislatures are not empowered to make legislation on Preventive Detention. 2. Punitive Detention is usually practiced to prevent the commission of an offense. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 9) What do you understand by Preventive Detention? what are constitutional provisions? (150 words/10 marks) 10) Discuss the significance of Article 20 as a Fundamental Right. (150 words/10marks) Answers 1) b 2) a 3) c 4) b 5) b 6) d 7) d 8) d 1) Right to strike is a? (a)Fundamental Right under Article 19(1) (b)Legal right with statutory restrictions attached (c)Constitutional Right (d)Strike is a non-bailable and non-compoundable offence in India 2) Which of the following Rights are implied under the Right to freedom of speech and expression? 1. Freedom of Press. 2. Freedom of Silence. 3. Right to the bandh. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a)1 and 2 only (b)1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 3) In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? (UPSC 2023) (a)1st Amendment (b)42nd Amendment (c)44th Amendment (d)86thAmendment 4) Consider the following statements regarding the Hicklin test: 1. It is victorian era test to judge the decency & morality of any content- book, movie, etc. 2. Any objectionable thing of the content must be judged in the context and not in isolation. 3. The perspective of the weakest mind consuming that content. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)Only one statement is incorrect (b)Only two statements are incorrect (c)All the three statements are incorrect (d)None of te three statement is incorrect 5) Consider the following grounds for restricting the right to form associations or unions under Article 19(4): 1. Sovereignty & integrity of India. 2. Public Order 3. Morality. 4. Security of the state How many of the above grounds are correct? (a)Only two (b)Only three (c)All the four (d)None of the four 6) During the time of Covid-19, public movement in India was restricted to control spread of the virus. Which of the following acts were used to enforce the restriction ? 1. National Disaster Management Act (NDMA) 2005 2. Unlawful Activities Prevention Act(UAPA) 1967. 3. Epidemic Diseases Act 1897. (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 7) Court Case Dealt with Aveek Sarkar Doctrine of Case 2014 Eclipse Babulal Parate Right to v/s State of Assemble Maharashtra peacefully 1961 Ambika Mills Right to Freedom case 1955 of Speech How many of the above pairings are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All the three (d)None of the above 8) Consider the following statements related to Article 20 of the Constitution: 1. The maximum punishment for any criminal offense cannot be increased retrospectively. 2. The maximum punishment for a criminal offense can be decreased retrospectively. 3. Civilian laws can be amended retrospectively. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below (a)Only one statement is correct (b)Only two statements are correct (c)None of the three statements is correct (d)All the three statements are correct 9) Elaborate the issue of freedom of speech & expression, with respect to the OTT platforms in India. (150 words/10 marks) 10) What do you understand by the doctrine of eclipse ? Trace the development of the doctrine in India. (150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) b 2) a 3) a 4) a 5) b 6) c 7) a 8) d 1) Supreme Court has declared, which of the following rights, as part of the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21) - 1. Right to privacy. 2. Right to a decent environment. 3. Right to a fair trial. 4. Right to choose a life partner. How many of the above statements are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All four 2) Consider the following statements concerning Article 23 of the Constitution: 1. It prohibits trafficking in Human beings, begar, and other forms of forced labor. 2. The state cannot compel the individual to provide service with or without payment even in the Public interest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 3) Article 26 mentions the grounds on which freedom to manage religious affairs can be restricted. Which of the following is/are not among them? 1. Public Order 2. Morality 3. Sovereignty and Integrity 4. Health Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1 and 3 only (b)3 only (c)1,2 and 4 only (d)2 only 4) The expression ‘traffic in human beings’ under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution includes which of the following? 1. Selling and buying of men, women, and children-like goods 2. Immoral traffic in women and children, including prostitution 3. Devadasis 4. Slavery Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 Only (b)1,2 and 3 Only (c)1 Only (d)1,2,3 and 4 5) Consider the following pairs: Judgement Right under Article 21 1. MC Mehta v/s UOI: Right to choose one"s life partner 2. Vishakha v/s State of Rajasthan : Right against Sexual Harassment at Workplace 3. Shakti Vahini v/s UOI: Right to clean environment 4. Aruna Shanbaug v/s : Right to die with dignity UOI Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 and 4 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 6) Consider the following statements with reference to Article 21 of the Constitution: 1. Article 21 says that no person can be deprived of his right to life except under a procedure established by the law. 2. The procedure established by the Law provides protection against executive and legislative action. 3. Due process of law is not mentioned in the Constitution, but rather a judicial innovation by the judiciary during the Maneka Gandhi Case, 1978. How many of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 7) Consider the following statement with regard to the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty: 1. Under Article 21 no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty in any case. 2. Under the Gopalan case, 1950 the Supreme Court took a very broader interpretation of Article 21. 3. Under Gopalan Case 1950 the Supreme Court held that the protection under Article 21 is available against arbitrary executive action as well as against arbitrary legislative action. How many of the statements given above are not correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 8) With respect to the right to religion, consider the following statements, 1. It is only available to Indian Citizens. 2. A religious denomination is free to manage its own religious affairs without any restriction. 3. A religious denomination can manage its property as per its own wishes. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only one statement is correct. (b)Only two statements are correct. (c)All the statements are correct. (d)None of the statement is correct. 9) Trace the evolution of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution starting from A K Gopalan to Maneka Gandhi case. (150 words) 10) The ambit of the Article 21 has been expanded over the years. Discuss. (150 words, 10 marks) Answers 1) d 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) b 6) a 7) c 8) d 1) Which of the following is/are correct with reference to Article 28? 1. No religion instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds 2. No person attending any educational institution recognized by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to take part in any religious instruction that may be imparted in such institution. Select the answer from the codes given below: (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)None of the above. 2) Consider the following statements related to cultural and educational rights provided by the Constitution of India: 1. Article 29 protects the interest of minorities only, whereas Article 30 includes both minorities and majorities. 2. The Constitution of India recognizes religious, linguistic, and ethnic minorities. 3. Article 30 includes the right of the minority to impart education to his/her children in his/her own language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)3 only 3) With regard to Article 27 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The State should not spend the public money collected by way of tax for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. 2. This article is consistent with the spirit of secularism imbibed in the Constitution of India. 3. A fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them with some special service or safety measures. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a)Only only (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 4) Which of the following is not protected under article 25 ? (a)Right to practice one"s religion (b)Right to induce others into one"s religion (c)Right to propagate one"s religion (d)Right to profess one"s religion 5) Which of the following can be considered as sources of Constitutional Morality? 1. Directive principles of state policy. 2. Fundamental Rights 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)One only (b)Two only (c)All three (d)None 6) Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Morality (CM): 1. The apex court in the Joseph Shine case highlighted the relevance of constitutional morality and observed that section 497 (related to adultery) is unconstitutional due to its paternalistic nature infringing upon women"s autonomy, privacy, and dignity. 2. In the Indian Young Lawyers Association case (Sabrimala case), the apex court observed that constitutionalism morality is not subject to fleeting fancies of time and age but is deeply rooted in fundamental aspects of human liberty, equality, and dignity. 3. The apex court in the Govt of NCT of Delhi case implied strict adherence to constitutional principles. How many of the statement(s) given is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 7) Consider the following statements with respect to the reasonable restrictions under Article 26 of the Indian Constitution? 1. Public order 2. Morality 3. Health How many of the above statement/s is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 8) Consider the following statements in reference to TEST OF ESSENTIALITY OR ESSENTIAL RELIGIOUS PRACTICE TEST: 1. This doctrine was laid down by the Apex court in the Keshavanand Bharti case. 2. Essential religious practices mean all those practices that are fundamental to a religion and not following them would result in a change of the religion itself. 3. In the Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta and Ors v. Commissioner of Police (Tandava dance case), the court ruled that what determines if a practice forms an essential part of religion is whether the absence of practice fundamentally alters the religion. 4. In the Dawoodi Bohra case, the court stated that the essential practice should be determined from the text of the religion. How many of the given statement(s) is/are correct? (a)Only One (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All are correct 9) Explain the cultural and educational rights provided under Articles 29 and 30 of the constitution of India. (150 words) 10) Critically analyse the essential religious practice test as propounded by the Supreme Court in the Shirur Mutt case. (150 words/10 Marks) Answers 1) c 2) d 3) c 4) b 5) c 6) c 7) c 8) c 1) With regard to Writs and Writ jurisdiction, consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction under Article 32, while a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction under Article 226. 2. The writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto can only be sought by the aggrieved person. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 2) With reference to the Writs mentioned in Article 32 1. Habeas corpus can be issued against a private individual. 2. Mandamus can be issued against a private individual. 3. Prohibition can be issued against administrative authorities. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None. 3) Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Article 29 deals with the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. 2. Article 30 deals with the protection of the language, script, and culture of minorities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) With reference to writs issued by the Supreme Court and High Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against public authorities only. 2. The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body. 3. The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. 4. The writ of Certiorari is available against legislative bodies and private individuals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)1 and 4 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)3 and 4 only 5) Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A.Habeas Corpus i. higher courts certify the decision given by lower courts. B.Mandamus ii. Physically brought before the court. C. Prohibition. iii. Awakens the sleeping authorities to perform their duty. D.Quo Warranto. iv. To prevent lower courts to exceed their jurisdiction E.Certiorari v. To enquire into the legality of the claim of a person or public office. A B C D E (a) i ii iii iv v (b)ii iii iv v i (c)iii iv v i ii (d)iv v i ii iii 6) Consider the following statements with regard to Public Interest Litigations (PIL): 1. A PIL can only be filed in the supreme court and not in any high court. 2. Public Interest Litigation is mentioned and defined in the Indian constitution. 3. It can only be filed by the aggrieved person/party. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? (a)2 only (b)1 and 2 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 7) Which among the following pair/s is/are correctly matched? List-I (Writs) : List-II ( meanings) 1) Mandamus : ‘To have the body of’ 2) Habeas Corpus : ‘We command’ 3) Quo warranto : ‘By what authority’ Select correct answer from codes given below: (a)1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)3 only 8) Consider the following statements with respect to Public interest Litigation (PIL) : 1. PIL rests on the principle that any member of the public can initiate legal proceedings on behalf of an aggrieved person, especially a person who is unable to move to court on his or her own. 2. The Supreme Court, by permitting PIL or social action litigation, has considerably widened the scope of Article 32 of the Constitution 3. Through the Concept of PIL, the traditional rule of “Locus Standi” that a person, whose right is infringed alone can file a petition; has been considerably relaxed by the Supreme Court Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1,2 and 3 9) Consider the following statements with respect to the Habeas Corpus: 1. The principle of locus standi is applicable in Habeas Corpus because anybody can approach the court on behalf of the aggrieved person 2. The writ can be issued against public authorities as well as private individuals 3. It cannot be issued if the detention is legal or on the orders of any court of law How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 10) The Supreme Court judgement in TMA Pai Foundation case is related to: (a)Minority educatiinal institutes (b)Forests rights (c)Freedom of speech and expression (d)Right to property 11) Compare and contrast the scope of writ jurisdictions of Supreme Court and high courts. (150 words/10 marks) 12) Discuss the provision of Article 30 of the Indian constitution. Write the advantages of minority education institution status. (150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) a 2) a 3) d 4) c 5) b 6) d 7) d 8) d 9) b 10) a 1) With reference to DPSPs of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Directive Principles are justiciable and can be enforced in a court of law. 2. Directive Principles lay the foundation of only political democracy in the country. 3. These are self-executory. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 2) Consider the following statements regarding DPSP 1. These are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced in a court of law. 2. These impart positive obligation on the state. 3. These are not legally enforceable. Which one of the above is false? a)Only 1 and 2 b)Only 2 and 3 c)Only 3 d)Only 1 3) Consider the following statement: 1. PIL is known as the backbone of judicial activism 2. The power of judicial review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) With reference to Directive Principles which were added by the 42nd Amendment 1976, consider the following statements: 1. They provide provisions to secure opportunities for the healthy development of children. 2. DPSPs aim to promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. 3. They are related to the protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)1 and 3 only (c)3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 5) With reference to Directive Principles, consider the following statements: 1. DPSPs are positive affirmations of the State. 2. The courts can declare a law violative of any DPSPs as unconstitutional and invalid. 3. The concept of DPSP has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 6) Which among the following DPSPs are inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act? 1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A). 2. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A). 3. State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities (Article 38). Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 only (b)1,2 and 3 (c)1 and 3 only (d)2 and 3only 7) Consider the following statements with respect to Articles 33 and 34 of the Constitution: 1. Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate Fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, forces in charge of maintenance of public order, etc 2. Article 34 empowers the Parliament to indemnify any act done in connection with the maintenance and restoration of public order with respect to an area where martial law is in force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)None of the Above 8) Which one of the following can be considered as liberal and intellectual Principles under DPSP 1. Living wage, etc. for workers 2. Participation of workers in the management of industries 3. Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years Choose the correct code from below (a)1 and 2 only (b)3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2, and 3 9) Explain the significance of DPSP in Indian democracy. (10 Marks/150 Words) 10) How has Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India sometimes led to concerns of judicial overreach, and what steps can be taken to mitigate these concerns? (150 words/10 marks) Answers 1) c 2) c 3) a 4) d 5) b 6) a 7) c 8) b 1) Consider the following statements: 1. 44th amendment Act 1978 removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights. 2. By the 42nd Amendment, 1976, Article 31C was amended. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only 1 (b)Only 2 (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 2) A Uniform civil code mentioned in the directive principles of the state policy ensure: (a)Economic equality (b)National security (c)National integration (d)Support for weaker sections of the society 3) Consider the following statements: 1. India follows a Parliamentary System of government. 2. In the Parliamentary system there is a complete separation of powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) Consider the following statements: 1. A Uniform Civil code will simplify the complex set of personal laws. 2. The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned under Section 44 of the IPC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions related to the protection of the environment. 1. Article 21 implies the right to a clean environment. 2. Article 48A is related to the Protection and improvement of the environment and the safeguarding of forests and wildlife. Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Niether 1 nor 2 6) Consider the following statement 1 Article 45-. Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years — The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years 2. The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. Choose the correct statement (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Niether 1 or 2 7) Consider the following statements about the DPSP: 1. Article 40 provides the organization of village panchayats. 2. Article 47 talks about the prohibition of the killing of cows, calves, and other milch and draught animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a)Only 1 (b)Only 2 (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 8) Which of the following directive principles of state policy can be classified under liberal-intellectual principles? 1. Article 45-Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years 2. Article 43-Promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas 3. Article 50-Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State 4. Article 39 A-Promote equal justice and free legal aid to the poor Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a)1,2 and 3 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)3 and 4 only 9) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I List-II A. Article 40 1. Organiation of Village Panchayats B. Article 41 2. Right to work C. Article 44 3. Uniform Civil Code D. Article 48 4. Organization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry. Choose the correct code from below: (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (c)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 10) How India has tried to achieve checks and balances in our system? (10 Marks/ 150 Words) 11) Highlight the significance and issues associated with the DPSPs. (10 Marks/150 Words) Answers 1) c 2) c 3) a 4) a 5) d 6) c 7) a 8) c 9) a 1) With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The President is the head of the government. 2. The President is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers as per the 44th amendment of the Indian constitution. 3. The President is part of both the Union Executive and the Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 2) Which Amendment made it necessary for the President to act according to the advice rendered to him by the Council of Ministers? (a)42nd Amendment of 1976 (b)69th Amendment of 1986 (c)76th Amendment 1966 (d)44th Amendment of 1970 3) Consider the following statements: 1.The President can appoint Prime Minister on his own discretion when no single political party has clear majority support of the Lok Sabha. 2.If the Council of Minsters losses the confidence of the house then the President can dismiss the ministries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) Who among the following is a part of the Union Executive? 1. Vice President 2. Prime Minister 3. CAG 4. Council of Ministers Select the answer from the codes given below: (a)1 and 2 only (b)1, 2, and 4 only (c)2 and 4 only (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 5) Consider the following statements: 1. The first amendment to the Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. 2. The right to property was a fundamental right under the original constitution of India. 3. Land as a subject is in the concurrent list under Schedule VII of the constitution. Which of the above is/are not correct? (a)1 only (b)3 only (c)1 and 3 (d)1,2 and 3 6) In the context of Fundamental Duties, consider the following statements: 1. The duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. 2. They can be enforced through a legislative action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 7) Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (UPSC 2011) (a)To vote in public elections. (b)To develop the scientific temper. (c) To safeguard public property. (d)To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals. 8) Consider the following statements: 1. A person in lieu of the right to property cannot move directly to the Supreme Court. 2. Right to Property in India is a constitutional right available only to the citizens of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 9) Consider the following statements: 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 2. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Song. 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity. How many of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All four 10) Briefly describe the discretionary powers of the president of India. (10 marks/150 words) 11) It is often stated that the Indian President is merely a rubber stamp in the hands of the Council of Ministers. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your stand with the help of logical arguments. (150 words) Answers 1) c 2) a 3) c 4) b 5) b 6) c 7) a 8) a 9) c 1) Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India is elected by direct election. 2. The aggregate votes of the States in the Electoral College for the election of the President shall be equal to that of the people of the country. 3. The dispute related to the election of the President is decided by the Election Commission of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 2) With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The vote value of MPs is the same across all the states 2. The total vote value of all the MPs is equal to the combined vote value of all the elected MLAs of all states(including union territories) Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 3) With reference to the election of the president, consider the statements: 1. Nomination for the President shall be proposed by not less than 40 electors and shall be seconded by another not less than 40 electors. 2. While calculating the vote of the value of an MLA/MP V the population of states is taken as per the census of 2011. Which of the above statements is /are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 4) If there is any dispute regarding the election of the president it can be referred to : (a)The High court of the concerned state (b)The Supreme Court of India (c)The Parliament of India (d)The Atourney General of India 5) Which of the following are the main reasons for the indirect election of the President of India? 1. To harmonize with the Parliamentary system of the Government. 2. To reduce the cost, time and energy consumed by a vast size of the electorate. Select the answer from the codes given below. (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 6) Consider these members: 1. Elected members of both houses of parliament. 2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies. 3. Elected members of all Union Territories. 4. Elected members of all the legislative councils. How many of them constitute the electoral college of the President? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)Only four 7) Consider the following statement with regard to the disputes in connection with the election of the President: 1. All doubts and disputes in connection with the election of the President can be inquired into and decided by the High courts. 2. The decision of the High Court in this regard is final. 3. The election of a person as President can not be challenged on the grounds that the Electoral College was incomplete. 4. If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force. How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All the statements are correct 8) Consider the following statements: 1. The governor is indirectly elected in India. 2. All State MLAs of the concerned state vote in the election procedure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 9) Explain the reasons for choosing the indirect election method for the President"s election. (10 marks, 150 words) 10) Discuss the issues related to the appointment procedure of the governor. Also, mention some recommendations given by various expert bodies constituted for this matter. (10 marks, 150 words) Answers 1) b 2) c 3) d 4) b 5) c 6) b 7) b 8) d 1) Vice President would ascend to the Presidency only under extraordinary circumstances such as: 1. Death of the President 2. Resignation of the President 3. Removal of the President by impeachment. 4. Invalidation of the election of the President by the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1,2 and 3 (b)1,2,3, and 4 (c)1,2 and 4 (d)1,3 and 4 2) Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the ordinance-making power of the President of India? 1. It may come into force from a previous date. 2. It can be issued even if one House is not in session. Select the correct answer using the options given below. (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 3) With reference to the Impeachment of the President, consider the following statements: 1. The procedure of impeachment of the President can be initiated in either House of Parliament. 2. The impeachment of the President is a quasi-judicial process. 3. The resolution to impeach the President must be passed in both houses of the Parliament by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 4) With reference to the Veto Powers of the President, consider the following statements: 1. The President cannot use the Suspensive veto in the case of the Money Bill and the Constitutional Amendment Bill. 2. The President exercises Absolute veto only on the advice of the Council of Ministers. 3. Till now no President in India has ever used the Pocket veto. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)None of the above 5) Consider the following statements: 1. The election of the Vice President is direct. 2. The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not take part in the election of the Vice President. 3. The Lok Sabha can initiate a resolution to remove the Vice President from his office. How many of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)None 6) Who among the following participates in the Impeachment of the President? 1. Elected members of Lok Sabha 2. Elected members of Legislative Councils of the States. 3. Nominated Members of the Rajya Sabha. 4. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territory Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a)1, 2 and 3 only (b)2, 3 and 4 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 3 and 4 only 7) Consider the following statements: 1. The vice president is also a representative of states, the same as the President of India 2. The Vice President is entitled to receive the salary of the Chairman of the Council of States. 3. While the nominated members of the two Houses of Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. 4. The Vice-President holds office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters his office. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)Only three (d)All four 8) Which among the following Powers of the President is/are considered legislative powers? 1. Issuing ordinance. 2. Summoning of houses. 3. Appointment of Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 9) With regard to Rajya Sabha, Consider the following statements: 1. The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. 2. The rationale behind the principle of nomination in the Rajya Sabha is to provide eminent persons a place in the Rajya Sabha without going through the process of election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 Only (b)2 Only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 10) Consider the following statements in reference to the ordinance-making power of the President of India: 1. An ordinance promulgated shall be subject to the limitation of the Constitution and therefore can not violate either the fundamental rights or the basic principles of the Constitution. 2. An ordinance can be used for amending the Constitution. 3. In DC Wadhwa vs State of Bihar, the court noted that the exercise of re-promulgation is justified if the legislature is overburdened with work or if the session of the legislature was too short for it to consider an ordinance. How many of the gin statement(s) is/are correct? (a)Only One (b)Only two (c)All the statements are correct (d)None of the statement is correct 11) Discuss the impeachment process of the President of India. (150 Words/10 Marks) 12) Explain the issues associated with the re-promulgation of an ordinance. Discuss in the light of relevant Supreme Court judgement. (10 marks, 150 words) Answers 1) b 2) c 3) b 4) b 5) c 6) c 7) b 8) a 9) c 10) b 1) Consider the following statements: 1. The President can appoint the Prime Minister at his own discretion when no single political party has clear majority support of the Lok Sabha. 2. If the Council of Ministers "s loses the confidence of the house then the President can dismiss the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 2) Which of the following veto power cannot be exercised by Indian President? (a)Absolute veto (b)Qualified veto (c)Suspensive veto (d)Pocket Veto 3) With reference to the Pardoning power of the President, consider the following statements: 1. Only the President can pardon the death sentence. 2. The President’s pardoning power can’t be used in a case where the punishment is given by a court-martial. 3. They are subjected to judicial review. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d)None 4) Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. 2. Article 76 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 5) Which of these powers is/are common to the President and Governor? 1. Pardon a death sentence 2. Plea against a sentence given by the military 3. Commutation of punishment 4. Remission Select the code for the correct answer: (a)1, 2 and 4 (b)4 only (c)2 and 3 (d)3 and 4 6) Consider the following statements: 1. The word Cabinet has been a part of the Constitution since its inception. 2. The Minister of State cannot attend Cabinet meetings unless invited to it. 3. Prime Ministerial form of government as a word is mentioned in the Constitution. Which of the statements given above are not correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 7) Consider the following pairs related to Article 72 of the Constitution: 1. Reprieve - Stay on the execution of a sentence for a temporary period 2. Remission - Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form 3. Commutation - Reducing the period of a sentence without changing its character Which of the above is/are matched correctly? (a)1 only (b)2 and 3 (c)1, 2 and 3 (d)None of the above 8) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Polity: 1. When the Prime Minister resigns or dies then the entire Council of Ministers automatically goes out of office. 2. Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 9) Which of the following are part of the Council of Ministers; 1. Minister of State (independent charge) 2. Minister of state 3. Parliamentary secretaries 4. Leader of the opposition enjoying cabinet rank 5. Cabinet ministers Select the correct code from the options below:- (a)1,2, 4& 5 only (b)1,2& 5 only (c)1,2, 3, 4& 5 (d)1,3& 5 only 10) Discuss the "Pardoning power of the President"? how are they different from those of the governor? (10 marks/150 words) 11) Discuss the Veto powers of the President with relevant examples. (10 Marks/150 Words) Answers 1) c 2) b 3) b 4) a 5) d 6) c 7) a 8) c 9) b 1) With reference to the Council of Ministers (COM), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. COM consists of Lok Sabha only. 2. As per the constitution, COM is the law-making body in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2) Consider the following statements: 1. A member of the Rajya Sabha can’t become the Prime Minister of India. 2. If the Prime Minister resigns then the entire Council of Ministers automatically goes out of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2. 3) Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office at the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The Prime Minister of India shall communicate to the President about the administration of the affairs of the Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 4) The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: (UPSC Prelims 2012) (a)Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months (b)Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the LokSabha within six months (c)Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament (d)Must be a member of the LokSabha 5) Consider the following statements 1. The Prime Minister of India can be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 2

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