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The dual pathway model of bulimia nervosa suggests that binge eating episodes are triggered by: Question 1Answer a. dieting. b. negative affect. c. interaction between dieting and negative affect. d. All of the given options are correct. e. None of the given options is correct. Question ...

The dual pathway model of bulimia nervosa suggests that binge eating episodes are triggered by: Question 1Answer a. dieting. b. negative affect. c. interaction between dieting and negative affect. d. All of the given options are correct. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **2** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Historically the term \'anorexia\' refers to: Question 2Answer a. neurosis. b. mixed depression and anxiety. c. loss of appetite. d. abnormal eating behaviour. e. refusal to eat. Question **3** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which option is the most accurate regarding the treatment of bulimia nervosa? Question 3Answer a. Antidepressant medication is more effective than placebo in reducing binge eating. b. Cognitive behaviour therapy is more effective than antidepressants in reducing binge eating. c. Medication is associated with high dropout rates. d. Medication is associated with high relapse rates. e. All of the given options are correct. Question **4** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following would exclude an individual from meeting DSM-5 criteria for binge eating disorder? Question 4Answer a. binge eating for a period of more than three months b. eating alone during binges c. becoming distressed by his/her binge eating d. meeting criteria for anorexia or bulimia e. None of the given options is correct. Question **5** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Anorexia nervosa is mainly a disorder of: Question 5Answer a. middle-aged men. b. middle-aged women. c. young men. d. young women. e. All of the given demographic categories are equally affected. Question **6** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Behavioural weight-loss treatments for overweight people with binge eating disorder: Question 6Answer a. result in an increase in binge eating. b. result in a decrease in binge eating. c. discourage dietary restriction and exercise. d. must be administered by specialist mental health professionals. e. result in an increase in purging. Question **7** Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is an alteration that was made to the diagnosis of bulimia nervosa in the DSM-5? Question 7Answer a. binge eating behaviour occurring at least once per week b. weight-control behaviour occurring at least once per week c. bulimia nervosa cannot occur at the same time as anorexia nervosa d. diagnostic specifiers for severity and remission e. All of the given options are correct. Question **8** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Current limitations in the treatment of eating disorders include: Question 8Answer a. limited number of treatments available. b. resistance to treatment. c. effective prevention of eating disorders. d. understanding of eating disorders in men. e. All of the given options are correct. Question **9** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Currently, the most evidence-based treatment for anorexia nervosa is: Question 9Answer a. cognitive behaviour therapy. b. medication. c. both cognitive behaviour therapy and medication. d. neither cognitive behaviour therapy nor medication. e. None of the options listed is correct. Question **10** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Anorexia nervosa is: Question 10Answer a. ten times as common in females as in males. b. twice as common in females as in males. c. equally common in males and in females. d. twice as common in males as in females. e. ten times as common in males as in females. Question **11** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Family therapy studies suggest that family therapy: Question 11Answer a. is not helpful for those with an eating disorder. b. is helpful for those with a late onset of their eating disorder. c. is helpful for those with an early onset of their eating disorder. d. actually reduces self-esteem. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **12** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The most common problem for patients with binge eating disorder is: Question 12Answer a. obesity. b. fluctuating electrolyte levels. c. low-self esteem. d. personality disorders. e. generalised anxiety disorder. Question **13** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Bulimia nervosa differs from the binge eating/purging variant of anorexia nervosa in that: Question 13Answer a. people with bulimia nervosa are not overweight. b. people with bulimia nervosa are not underweight. c. people with bulimia nervosa do not overemphasise shape and weight. d. All of the given options are correct. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **14** Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The DSM-5 uses less strict criteria for the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge eating disorder. This should: Question 14Answer a. result in an overdiagnosis of these disorders. b. result in an underdiagnosis of these disorders. c. reduce the number of individuals falling into the residual eating disorder categories. d. increase the number of individuals falling into the residual eating disorder categories. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **15** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Recovery from anorexia nervosa is: Question 15Answer a. typically a lengthy process with most recovering fully. b. typically a lengthy process with a significant number failing to recover fully. c. typically a relatively brief process with most recovering fully. d. typically a relatively brief process with high rates of relapse. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **16** Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text For each year that first use of alcohol is delayed, the risk of developing alcohol use disorder decreases. However, this may be due to: Question 16Answer a. conduct disorder. b. availability of alcohol and drugs to young people. c. increase in self-harm behaviour during youth. d. reduction in peer pressure. e. All of the options provided are correct. Question **17** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In the DSM-5, pathological gambling is renamed as: Question 17Answer a. gambling disorder. b. a personality disorder. c. an impulse control disorder. d. a mood disorder. e. an anxiety disorder. Question **18** Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of these addictive substances is the one most commonly abused in Australia? Question 18Answer a. alcohol b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opioids e. hallucinogens Question **19** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following terms accurately describes individuals who would meet the formal diagnosis for gambling disorder? Question 19Answer a. problem gamblers b. non-gamblers c. heavy gamblers d. disordered gamblers e. All of the given options are correct Question **20** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The addiction model of gambling views gambling as an addiction based on the fact that: Question 20Answer a. gamblers repeatedly engage in their behaviour to achieve a euphoric state. b. gambling behaviour is repetitive. c. gambling behaviour continues despite serious consequences. d. gamblers appear to have features similar to tolerance and withdrawal. e. All of the given options are correct. Question **21** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In the neurochemistry of substances of dependence, the most important neurotransmitter is: Question 21Answer a. amphetamine. b. dopamine. c. glutamate. d. endorphin. e. serotonin. Question **22** Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text According to data from the United Kingdom (2011), adults with a substance abuse disorder have a life expectancy approximately: Question 22Answer a. 5 years less than the general population. b. 10 years less than the general population. c. 14 years less than the general population. d. 20 years less than the general population. e. 25 years less than the general population. Question **23** Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Compared to the general community in Australia, individuals who use methamphetamine are: Question 23Answer a. at the same risk of psychosis. b. 11 times less likely to experience psychosis. c. 11 times more likely to experience psychosis. d. unlikely to experience psychosis. e. likely to experience a milder form of psychosis. Question **24** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text High levels of comorbidity of substance use disorders and other mental disorders have been explained by saying that: Question 24Answer a. people with mental health problems self-medicate with addictive substances. b. mental health problems are caused (or made worse) by substance abuse. c. both problems may have the same underlying cause(s). d. All of the given options are correct. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **25** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text It is generally accepted that the development of pathological gambling is due to: Question 25Answer a. biological factors. b. psychological factors. c. sociocultural factors. d. All of the given options interacting. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **26** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a criterion for gambling disorder? Question 26Answer a. a need to gamble with increasing amounts of money b. lying to conceal the extent of gambling c. frequent gambling when feeling distressed d. gambling when alone e. preoccupation with gambling Question **27** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The reason that share trading is not defined as gambling is that: Question 27Answer a. people win more than they lose on the stock market. b. no one owns the stock market. c. stock market wins and losses are not determined by chance. d. the stock market is not recreational. e. None of the given options is correct. Question **28** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text With increasing age, people are: Question 28Answer a. more susceptible to the effects of alcohol. b. less susceptible to the effects of alcohol. c. just as susceptible to the effects of alcohol as younger people. d. more susceptible but only for women. e. more susceptible but only for men. Question **29** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Monozygotic twins have higher concordance rates for substance use disorder: Question 29Answer a. only for alcohol. b. only for cannabis. c. only for tobacco. d. for alcohol, cannabis and tobacco. e. only for alcohol and only for males. Question **30** Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Substance use disorders cluster in families because: Question 30Answer a. relatives of individuals with substance abuse are more likely to suffer from the disorder. b. substance use disorders have a strong genetic component. c. children model their substance use on their parents\' behaviour and environment. d. All of the options given are correct. e. None of the options given is correct. Which of the following is true of individuals who return home to a family with high expressed emotion after a psychotic episode? A. They are neither more likely than others to relapse nor to receive high levels of emotional support from their families. B. They are more likely than others to relapse. C. They are less likely than others to relapse. D. They are more likely than others to relapse and they receive high levels of emotional support from their families. E. They receive high levels of emotional support from their families. ANSWER: B Psychotic delusions are usually categorized in terms of their: A. Sensory modality. B. Frequency. C. Persistence. D. Response to treatment. E. Content and bizarreness. ANSWER: E Negative symptoms in psychosis are easily confused with: A. Adverse medication effects. B. Laziness. C. Symptoms of depression. D. None of the given options is correct. E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: E The dimensional approach to psychosis argues that: A. None of the given options is correct. B. All of the given options are correct. C. Psychotic experiences are normally distributed across the population. D. Psychotic diagnoses represent arbitrarily defined categories. E. There is no clear cut-off point between those diagnosed with schizophrenia and those who are not. ANSWER: B Some research suggests that excessive dopaminergic activity in schizophrenia is linked with: A. Anhedonia. B. Positive symptoms. C. Negative symptoms. D. All of the given options are correct. E. Waxy flexibility. ANSWER: B Some evidence suggests that the risk of suicide may have increased in people diagnosed with schizophrenia over the past 100 years. Which of the provided options is not a reason for this? A. Side effects of antipsychotic medications. B. Effects of withdrawal from antipsychotic medication. C. A move away from institutionalization. D. High levels of anxiety in people with schizophrenia. E. Brief hospital admissions as opposed to long-term admissions as occurred in the past. ANSWER: E The hallucinations reported by people with schizophrenia are most often: A. Tactile (touch). B. Visual (sight). C. Olfactory (smell). D. Auditory (hearing). E. Gustatory (taste). ANSWER: D The use of \'schizophrenia\' as a diagnosis has been challenged because: A. None of the given options is correct. B. There is a large overlap between schizophrenia and other mental disorders. C. All of the given options are correct. D. It leads to stigma and distress in clients. E. Psychotic phenomena occur in the general population. ANSWER: C Psychotic disorders are often misperceived as involving the presence of only: A. Hallucinations and delusions. B. Manic episodes. C. Disorganized behavior. D. Thought disorder. E. Negative symptoms. ANSWER: A Eugen Bleuler invented the term \'schizophrenia\', referring to: A. The social stigma that is commonly experienced. B. Split personality, which he believed was common in this illness. C. The loosening of connections between thought structures. D. None of the given options is correct. E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: C With regard to treatment during the acute phase of psychosis, research trials have indicated which of the following treatment options results in symptom reduction? A. Cognitive behaviour therapy with no antipsychotic medication B. 24-hour support in a home-like setting (Soteria model) C. Pharmacological approaches D. Cognitive behaviour therapy and antipsychotic medication E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: E Formal thought disorder includes the following except: A. Circumstantiality. B. Derailment. C. Lack of coherence of thought. D. Echolalia. E. Catalepsy. ANSWER: E Use of cannabis by people with psychosis: A. Does not increase their rate of relapse nor reduce their symptoms of psychosis. B. Increases their rate of relapse and reduces their symptoms of psychosis. C. Reduces their symptoms of psychosis. D. Increases their rate of relapse. E. Does not increase their rate of relapse but does reduce their symptoms of psychosis. ANSWER: D What are the criteria for identifying individuals in the prodromal phase of psychosis? A. Transient psychotic features B. Less severe features, such as suspicious thinking C. All of the given options are correct. D. Deterioration in general psychological health E. Family history of psychosis ANSWER: C The Zubin and Spring stress vulnerability model of causes of psychosis suggests that vulnerability to psychotic illness: A. Is independent of psychosocial and biological factors. B. Is biological but not psychosocial. C. Can include both psychosocial and biological factors. D. None of the given options is correct. E. Is psychosocial but not biological. ANSWER: C The International Society for the Study of Trauma and Dissociation guidelines for the treatment of dissociative identity disorder emphasize all of the following treatment components except: A. Establishment of a safe environment. B. Integration. C. Confronting traumatic memories. D. Hypnosis. E. Rehabilitation. ANSWER: D Which of the following is true of the finding that symptoms of anxiety and depression are common among people with medically unexplained physical symptoms? A. It challenges the view that the traditional physical model of illness is well-suited to managing these disorders. B. None of the given options is correct. C. It supports the theory that psychological distress is converted into somatic symptoms. D. It confirms that the traditional physical model of illness is well-suited to managing these disorders. E. It challenges the theory that psychological distress is converted into somatic symptoms. ANSWER: C Most individuals with dissociative identity disorders also meet criteria for: A. None of the given options is correct. B. Schizophrenia. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: D Which answer best describes factitious disorder? A. An individual deliberately feigns illness for an obvious gain. B. All of the given options are correct. C. None of the given options is correct. D. An individual deliberately feigns illness for no obvious gain. E. An individual deliberately feigns illness. ANSWER: D The posttraumatic model of dissociative identity disorder argues that most individuals with this disorder show the following except: A. All of the given options are correct. B. High trait anxiety. C. Posttraumatic stress disorder. D. None of the given options is correct. E. A reported history of childhood trauma and abuse. ANSWER: B According to the fantasy model of dissociative identity disorder: A. None of the given options is correct. B. Highly dissociative persons have difficulty fantasizing. C. Highly fantasy-prone individuals easily dissociate. D. All of the given options are correct. E. Highly dissociative individuals are highly fantasy prone. ANSWER: E The predominant neurobiological model of pain is the: A. Trauma theory. B. Somatoform theory. C. Gate control theory. D. Diathesis-stress theory. E. Conversion theory. ANSWER: C According to the iatrogenic theory, dissociative identity disorder is the product of: A. Therapy or the popular media. B. Physical abuse in childhood. C. None of the given options is correct. D. Emotional abuse in childhood. E. Lack of social contact. ANSWER: A The most common precipitants of depersonalisation include all of the following except: A. Depression. B. Stress. C. Anxiety. D. Amnesia. E. Substance abuse. ANSWER: D Treatments for chronic somatic symptoms and related disorders include all of the following except: A. Graded exposure. B. Relaxation. C. Distraction. D. Exploring unconscious thoughts. E. Challenging unhelpful thinking. ANSWER: D The case of Anna O and the account of psychoanalytic treatment of somatic symptoms is historically important because: A. It described somatic symptoms occurring in the context of trauma. B. It was the first case of psychoanalysis described. C. All of the given options are correct. D. It established psychotherapy as a treatment. E. It described different states of consciousness. ANSWER: C The most common acute somatic symptom is: A. Body dysmorphic disorder. B. Pain. C. Conversion disorder. D. Hypochondriasis. E. Somatisation disorder. ANSWER: B People with somatic disorders have been found to have higher levels of: A. Alexithymia. B. Anhedonia. C. Anxiety sensitivity. D. None of the given options is correct. E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: E There has been one addition in the DSM-5 to the criteria used in diagnosing dissociative identity disorder. What is it? A. Imaginary playmates are included. B. Pathological possession is included. C. Pathological daydreaming is included. D. Pathological fantasizing is included. E. Religious beliefs are included. ANSWER: B According to Freud\'s psychoanalytic theory, a man who develops paralysis in his arm after seeing his wife flirting with another man, would be displaying signs of: A. Dissociative fantasizing. B. Suppression of an unacceptable aggressive impulse. C. Hysteria. D. Dissociative disorder. E. Unacceptable sexual fantasies. ANSWER: C A mental disorder is a syndrome characterized by: A. Heightened sensations. B. Disturbances in cognitions and behaviour. C. Disturbances in social skills. D. Depression. E. Extreme anger. ANSWER: B Which of the following is not one of the reasons experts have proposed a dimensional system of classification for the DSM-5? A. There are high rates of comorbidity among psychiatric disorders. B. Psychiatric disorders are shown to exist on a continuum of severity. C. The point on a continuum at which a diagnosis is made is largely arbitrary. D. Psychiatric disorders are separate and independent. E. It may improve the validity of the diagnostic system. ANSWER: D Among mental health professionals, a crucial element of defining dysfunctional behaviour is: A. If a person experiences elevated mood, self-esteem, and creativity. B. If a person\'s behaviour interferes with his/her ability to carry on with everyday life. C. If a person defines his/her own behaviour as abnormal. D. If an individual imposes suffering on his/her own self. E. If a person engages in risky behaviours. ANSWER: B Psychoanalysts believe that defence mechanisms operate by: A. Overcoming negative behaviour patterns. B. Distorting impulses into acceptable forms or making them unconscious. C. Activating the fight-or-flight response. D. Reducing re-uptake of neurotransmitters and hormones. E. Correcting dysfunctional thought patterns. ANSWER: B The pattern and rates of co-occurrence among the mental disorders are thought to reflect: A. The presence of personality disorders. B. Clinical bias. C. Separate, independent causation. D. Classical conditioning. E. The existence of higher-order dimensions of psychopathology. ANSWER: E Critical psychologists argue that: A. Mental health professionals can be agents of oppression. B. All of the given options are correct. C. The social perspective is neglected in mental health services. D. None of the given options is correct. E. Abnormal behaviour must be considered within its context. ANSWER: B Most modern explanations of mental disorder include: A. A diathesis-stress model. B. A continuum model. C. An evolutionary model. D. A family systems model. E. A categorical model. ANSWER: A Emil Kraepelin classified mental disorders in terms of their: A. Severity. B. Causes. C. Symptoms. D. All of the given options are correct. E. Adverse life events. ANSWER: D The rational-emotive therapist Albert Ellis believed that people respond to: A. Social expectations. B. Their conditioning. C. Modelling. D. Interpersonal relationships. E. Their interpretations of events. ANSWER: E According to psychoanalytic theory, both normal and abnormal behaviours are the result of: A. The pleasure principle. B. Conflict between the id, ego, and superego. C. Repressed memories. D. Conflict between the Oedipus complex and the pleasure principle. E. The Oedipus complex. ANSWER: B Humanistic theories and therapies are not: A. Easy to measure and evaluate. B. Inclusive of human individuality and choices. C. Used widely in counselling. D. Non-pathologising of the individual. E. Influential in the personal growth movement. ANSWER: A Which one of the following has not been suggested as an advantage of using both a categorical and a dimensional system of diagnosis for psychiatric disorders? A. Clinicians will be able to use the dimensional approach to assess initial severity. B. Clinicians will find the combination system simpler to use than the current system. C. Clinicians can use the dimensions to note changes in severity during treatment. D. Clinicians can still use familiar categories to facilitate efficient communication. E. Clinicians can use the dimensions to identify a patient\'s strengths and weaknesses. ANSWER: B A functional analysis of behaviour: A. Describes behaviour and its environmental determinants objectively. B. Interprets behaviour in terms of unconscious conflicts. C. Connects behavioural responses to cognitive distortions. D. Associates a relaxation response with imagined feared stimuli. E. Reduces incongruence and results in self-actualization. ANSWER: A According to the biopsychosocial approach, human behaviour can best be explained by: A. Upbringing. B. An individual\'s biological and psychological vulnerabilities. C. Genetics. D. A variety of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. E. The diathesis-stress model. ANSWER: D According to psychoanalytic theory, the reasons for much human behaviour are: A. Situational. B. Sociocultural. C. Learned. D. Hidden in the unconscious mind. E. Genetic. ANSWER: D According to Barlow (2002), the hallmark of anxiety is: A. Panic attacks. B. Distorted thoughts. C. True alarms. D. False alarms. E. Vicarious acquisition. ANSWER: D What changes to the diagnostic criteria for GAD were enacted in the DSM-5? A. Removed the criterion that worry should be difficult to control. B. Reduced the number of associated symptoms. C. Excessive anxiety and worry must be present for three, rather than six, months. D. Included the presence of behavioural symptoms such as time spent planning for potential threat. E. No changes were made in the DSM-5. ANSWER: A In the triple vulnerability model of anxiety, negative affectivity is: A. Feeling grumpy and irritable. B. A pessimistic display of emotions. C. Subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust and anger. D. Feeling enthusiastic, active and alert. E. Feeling sad and lethargic. ANSWER: C The Rapee (1991) information processing model of the development of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) suggests that individuals with GAD selectively attend to: A. Body sensations of impending panic. B. Memories of trauma. C. Threatening information. D. Stress neurochemicals. E. Negative social cues. ANSWER: C Individuals with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) typically experience worries about: A. Physical threat but not social threat. B. Social threat, physical threat and contamination threat. C. Neither social threat nor physical threat. D. Both social threat and physical threat. E. Social threat but not physical threat. ANSWER: D Seligman\'s preparedness theory suggests that: A. Humans are prepared to deal with certain threats. B. False alarms lead to heightened vigilance. C. Anxiety is due to expectation of negative outcomes. D. Phobias are founded in unconscious mental conflicts. E. There is a biological/evolutionary component to phobic fears. ANSWER: A, E Development of a panic disorder requires: A. A generalized biological vulnerability. B. All of the given options are correct. C. A generalized psychological vulnerability. D. A specific psychological vulnerability. E. None of the given options is correct. ANSWER: B In vicarious acquisition, fear is acquired by: A. None of the given options is correct. B. All of the given options are correct. C. Classical conditioning. D. Verbal transmission of fear-related information. E. Observing another person responding with fear to a threat. ANSWER: B The most effective treatment for a specific phobia is: A. Counselling. B. Conditioning. C. In vivo exposure. D. Imaginal exposure. E. Empathy. ANSWER: C Which of the following is not true of benzodiazepine medications in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder? A. They were frequently prescribed in the past. B. The anxiety symptoms do not return after the medication is stopped. C. They produce drug tolerance and dependence. D. They quickly reduce anxiety. E. The anxiety symptoms return after the medication is stopped. ANSWER: B The intolerance of uncertainty model identifies three processes that maintain generalized anxiety disorder symptoms. One of them is: A. Having a high level of confidence in one\'s ability to solve problems. B. Holding positive beliefs about worry as a coping strategy. C. Having low self-esteem. D. Experiencing vivid negative images. E. Holding negative beliefs about worry as a coping strategy. ANSWER: E Which of the following is not a change to anxiety disorders in the DSM-5? A. A distinction is made between performance social phobia and generalized social phobia. B. OCD is listed within \'Anxiety and Obsessive-Compulsive Spectrum.\' C. Specific phobia and panic disorder are combined into one diagnosis. D. There is a minimum period to receive a specific phobia diagnosis. E. Agoraphobia has become a distinct disorder from panic disorder. ANSWER: C According to the Wells meta-cognitive model of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), an individual with GAD is likely to have: A. Both positive and negative beliefs about worrying. B. Only negative beliefs about worrying. C. None of the given options is correct. D. Only positive beliefs about worrying. E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: B According to Clark\'s model of panic disorder, people with this disorder: A. Are low on a measure of anxiety sensitivity. B. Hyperventilate. C. Typically avoid places where a panic attack may occur. D. Catastrophize bodily sensations as dangerous. E. Are highly anxious. ANSWER: C, D Which of the following is not typically true of GAD? A. Most sufferers do not seek help. B. GAD occurs more often in women than men. C. None of the given options are correct. D. Without treatment, GAD has a chronic course. E. It is not comorbid with other disorders. ANSWER: E If John spends eight hours a day checking that electrical appliances in his house are switched off, he is: D. Being obsessive. A. Being compulsive. B. Distracting himself from unwanted impulses. C. Being overly cautious. E. Showing poor insight into his behaviour. ANSWER: A There are two models that attempt to explain the aetiology of OCD---the neuropsychological model and the cognitive model. Which of the following is not recognised as a possible trigger of OCD? A. Failure to inhibit \'behavioural macros\' triggered by internal or external stimuli. B. Differences in the caudate nucleus and the basal ganglia. C. Misinterpretation of intrusive thoughts. D. Fearful, obsessive or intrusive thoughts that are ignored and left untreated. E. Behavioural responses driven by the desire to reduce threat. ANSWER: D According to Australian research, what is a common element of obsession in individuals with OCD in the Australian population? A. Acting on an impulse such as stabbing a friend. B. All of the listed options are correct. C. Losing one\'s mind. D. Fire, robbery or being assaulted. E. Being contaminated by germs. ANSWER: B Trichotillomania is: A. Recurrent pulling out of one\'s own hair. B. Shoplifting. C. Intrusive thoughts about death. D. Obsession with what others are thinking. E. Repeated waxing or plucking of facial hair. ANSWER: A Obsessive-compulsive disorder has a prevalence rate of about: A. 0.1 per cent. B. 1 per cent. C. 2--3 per cent. D. 0.2 per cent. E. 0.3 per cent. ANSWER: C Diana is concerned about her physical appearance. She constantly thinks that her body is the wrong shape and size, despite having had cosmetic surgery. Diana is displaying signs of: A. Obsessions. B. Generalized anxiety. C. Anorexia nervosa. D. Bulimia. E. Body dysmorphic disorder. ANSWER: E According to the DSM-5, the presence of OCD is diagnosed using which criteria? A. Obsessions and compulsions that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning. B. Obsessions or compulsions that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning. C. Obsessions, compulsions, poor insight, history of a tic disorder and distress that interfere with social and occupational functioning. D. Obsessions and/or compulsions that cause distress, are time-consuming, interfere with social and occupational functioning and are not attributed to a substance, medical condition or other disorder. E. Obsessions and/or compulsions that are not a product of the person\'s own mind and that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning. ANSWER: D Based on research evidence, which of the following is more likely to result in PTSD? A. War-related trauma B. Interpersonal trauma C. Sudden accidents D. Natural disasters E. None of the given options is correct. ANSWER: B Attempts to prevent PTSD with early intervention have been challenged by: A. Natural remission rates. B. The low rate of people who develop PTSD. C. All of the given options are correct. D. The variation in the types of trauma experienced. E. None of the given options are correct. ANSWER: C For posttraumatic stress disorder, the treatment with the best long-term outcome according to randomized controlled trials is: A. Hypnotherapy. B. Supportive counselling. C. Prolonged exposure. D. Imaginal exposure. E. Stress management. ANSWER: C In the psychological treatment of PTSD, which of the following is a component of cognitive behavior therapy for PTSD? A. Imaginal exposure B. Cognitive restructuring C. Psychoeducation D. Anxiety management E. All of the given options are correct. ANSWER: E In the treatment of PTSD, which pharmacological therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing symptoms? A. Tetracyclic antidepressants B. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor D. All of the given options are correct. E. None of the given options is correct. ANSWER: D Which of the following options is not an example of a re-experiencing symptom of PTSD? A. Nightmares B. Flashbacks C. Reliving the event D. Avoidance E. Intrusive memories ANSWER: D Which of the following is a change to the PTSD diagnosis in the DSM-5? A. The term \'traumatic stress\' was extended to include reactions such as guilt, anger and shame. B. The cluster group involving negative alterations in cognitions and mood was removed. C. All of the given options are correct. D. Acute stress disorder was added to the DSM-5. E. The diagnosis of PTSD could be made following events that caused shock but were not life threatening. ANSWER: C Aaron Beck\'s cognitive theory of depression suggests that in individuals with depression: A. Neither do dysfunctional negative cognitions result in depressive symptoms nor do depressive symptoms lead to negative cognitions. B. Dysfunctional negative cognitions result in depressive symptoms and depressive symptoms lead to negative cognitions. C. Depressive symptoms lead to negative cognitions. D. Dysfunctional negative cognitions result in depressive symptoms. E. Depressive symptoms result in negative cognitions. ANSWER: D An Australian research team has argued for a subtyping model with three broad classes of depressive disorders: psychotic, melancholic and non-melancholic. Which of the following are theorized to be primarily biologically based? A. Psychotic and non-melancholic depression B. Melancholic, non-melancholic and psychotic depression C. Melancholic and non-melancholic depression D. Psychotic and non-psychotic depression E. Psychotic and melancholic depression ANSWER: E Behavioral theories of depression focus on the environmental conditions and contingencies and suggest that depression is maintained because of: A. Reduced opportunity for positive reinforcers. B. Negative beliefs about the self and others. C. None of the given options is correct. D. Dysfunctional parent--child relationships. E. Reduced serotonin. ANSWER: A Within six months following treatment, approximately what percentage of people with major depression will experience recovery? A. 5 per cent B. 50 per cent C. 35 per cent D. 80 per cent E. 15 per cent ANSWER: B A major depressive disorder with melancholia has all of the following features except: A. Excessive guilt. B. Early-morning wakening. C. Weight loss. D. Catatonic symptoms. E. Inability to experience pleasure. ANSWER: D What percentage of people with a major depressive disorder also experience significant anxiety symptoms? A. 50 per cent B. 10 per cent C. 5 per cent D. 70 per cent E. 25 per cent ANSWER: A Which of the following is not a specifier to major depressive disorder? A. Inability to experience any positive feeling. B. Elevated mood (mixed features) C. Movement disturbances D. Onset of depression during season changes E. Onset due to grief ANSWER: E The association between depression and physical/medical illness is not explained by: A. Increased rates of death following a cardiac event. B. Ongoing stressors of dealing with a medical illness. C. Unhealthy lifestyle choices by people with depression. D. Better immune functioning in people with depression. E. Physical/hormonal changes due to medical illness. ANSWER: D The instability model of bipolar disorder relapse assumes four mechanisms that trigger relapse. They include all of the following except: A. High state of anxiety. B. A biological vulnerability. C. Medication non-adherence. D. Disrupted routines (e.g., working longer). E. Dysfunctional cognitions. ANSWER: A Which of the following is not typically associated with a manic episode? A. High trait anxiety B. Risk taking C. Inflated or expansive mood D. Inflated self-esteem E. Grandiosity ANSWER: A Bipolar disorder is commonly comorbid with several other psychiatric illnesses, except: A. Social phobia. B. Schizophrenia. C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. D. Anxiety. E. Posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: B The goal dysregulation model suggests that mania is the result of: A. Mood swings. B. Stress. C. Psychomotor retardation. D. Cognitive distortions. E. Excessive goal engagement. ANSWER: E Pharmacological treatments for bipolar disorder vary according to: A. Experience of psychotic episodes. B. How many manic episodes an individual has experienced. C. None of the options given is correct. D. Whether the patient is in an acute or maintenance phase of the condition. E. Response to psychological intervention. ANSWER: D Which of the options listed is a common measure of state/trait anxiety in Australia? A. Measure of Attachment Quality B. Beck Depression Inventory C. Behavioural Inhibition Scale/Behavioural Activation Scale (BIS/BAS) D. Interpersonal Issues Inventory E. Brief Symptom Inventory ANSWER: C With regards to bipolar I disorder: C. It is more common in men. A. The gender ratio is unknown. B. It is more common in women. D. It is found only in women. E. It is equally common in men and women. ANSWER: E For a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, a person must have experienced at least one: A. Dysthymic episode. B. Psychotic episode. C. Major depressive episode. D. Manic or hypomanic episode. E. Anxiety episode. ANSWER: D