Physiology of CNS MCQ PDF

Mcq of physiology of CNS 1. Most sensory receptors are a) Are stimulated by different type of stimuli b) Are stimulated by only one specific stimuli c) Have high threshold for specific stimuli d) B and C are correct answer 2. A specific stimulus when produced receptor potenti...

Mcq of physiology of CNS 1. Most sensory receptors are a) Are stimulated by different type of stimuli b) Are stimulated by only one specific stimuli c) Have high threshold for specific stimuli d) B and C are correct answer 2. A specific stimulus when produced receptor potential by a) Inhibit Na + influx into receptors b) Inhabit k+ efflux from receptors c) Enhance Na + influx into receptors d) Enhance k+ efflux from receptors 3. Receptor potential initiate by adequate stimulus a) Develop always at it full magnitude b) Undergo temporal summation c) Undergo special Summation d) Could initiate action potential 4. When stimulated by effective steady stimuli, sensory receptors:- a) continuously discharge impulses b) stop discharging after a short time c) produce an initial high rate of impulse discharge followed by decline of this rate d) differ in their response; some types discharge continuously, while other types do not respond at all 5. Slowly adapting receptors include all the following types, except:- a) Golgi tendon organs. b) warmth receptors. c) free nerve endings. d) Meissner corpuscles 6. Rapidly adapting receptors are involved in a) initiation of rapid reflex responses b) detection of joint movements c) regulation of heart rate d) only 'a' and 'b' are correct 7. The sensory receptors: a) Have the same structure in all areas of the body. b) Consist of a nerve cell body. c) Are all free nerve endings. d) Obey the law of specific nerve energies. 8. All the following receptors are phasic receptors except the: a) Hair end organs. b) Pacinian corpuscles. c) Meissner's corpuscles. d) Pain free nerve endings. 9. Concerning the adaptation of receptors: a) It occurs due to fatigue of the receptors. b) It is a decline in the rate of firing in spite of constant stimulation. c) It is due to changes in the receptors which become less responsive to stimuli. d) It occurs in all receptors by the same degree. e) (E) It is accompanied by an increase in the receptor potential. 10. The phenomenon of adaptation of sensory receptors is maximal in the: a. Hair end organs. b. Muscle spindles. c. Joint capsule receptors. d. Pacinian corpuscles. 11. The fast (rapid) adapting receptors include the: a. Proprioceptors. b. Pain receptors. c. Baroreceptors in the carotid sinus. d. Tactile receptors. 12. Adequate stimulation of a receptor leads to: a. Localized hyperpolarization due to increased permeability to K+ and CI. b. Production of a receptor potential which cannot be summated. c. Repetitive discharge of action potentials producing a specific modality of sensation. d. Production of a receptor potential which obeys the all or none law. 13. About the generator (receptor)potential, all the following is true except: a. It is a state of partial depolarization due to increased Na+ permeability. b. It cannot be blocked by local anesthetic drugs. c. It can be graded.  d. It has a long refractory period. 14. Proprioceptors are found in all the following structures except the: a. Viscera. b. Ligaments. c. Muscles. d. Tendons. 15.The tonic receptors: a. Aren’t the poorly adapting receptors. b. Include both the muscle spindles and baroreceptors. c. not Continue to discharge impulses as long as a stimulus is applied. d. Hair follicles 16. The slowly adapting receptors: a. Include the Pacinian corpuscles. b. Are also called movement receptors. c. Transmit impulses only during the first few seconds after stimulation. d. Keep the brain constantly aware of the stimulus. 17. Detection of the stimulus modality depends upon:- a) the location of the receptors in the body b) the magnitude of the stimulus.  c) the anatomical connections between the receptors and specific sensory areas in the cerebral cortex. d) the magnitude of the receptor potential. 18. Receptors detect stimulus intensity by: a) -lowering the threshold for stimulating receptors. b) b-raising the threshold for stimulating receptors. c) c-decreasing the magnitude of receptor potential d) d-raising the magnitude of receptor potential. 19.The ability to localize the site of stimuli depends upon :- a) the type of the stimulated receptor. b) -connections between the receptor and the sensory cortex. c) -the rate of adaptation of the stimulated receptors. d) the nature of the stimulus. 20.The perception of a certain modality of sensation is determined by the: a. Strength of the stimulus. b. Method of stimulation. c. Stimulated receptor and the specific nerve fiber carrying the impulses. d. Duration of stimulation  21. Which of the following tracts is an ascending tract of the spinal cord? A) Lateral corticospinal tract B) Anterior corticospinal tract C) Lateral spinothalamic tract D) Tectospinal tract 22, Which tract carries conscious information related to pain and temperature? A) Lateral spinothalamic tract B) Anterior spinothalamic tract C) Posterior (dorsal) spinocerebellar tract D) Rostral spinocerebellar tract 23.What is the destination of the lateral spinothalamic tract? A) Precentral gyrus (motor cortex) B) Postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory cortex) C) Hypothalamus D) Cerebellum 24.If the lateral spinothalamic tract is affected, what happens? A) Complete loss of pain and temperature below the level of injury bilaterally if the spinal cord is fully severed B) Contralateral loss of crude and light touch C) Ipsilateral loss of proprioception D) Loss of vibration sense 25.Which tract carries conscious information related to crude and light touch? A) Lateral spinothalamic tract B) Anterior spinothalamic tract C) Posterior (dorsal) spinocerebellar tract D) Anterior (ventral) spinocerebellar tract 26.What. is the destination of the anterior spinothalamic tract? A) Precentral gyrus (motor cortex) B) Postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory cortex) C) Hypothalamus D) Cerebellum 27.If the anterior spinothalamic tract is affected, what happens? A) Complete loss of crude and light touch bilaterally below the level of injury if the spinal cord is fully severed B) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature C) Ipsilateral loss of proprioception D) Loss of vibration sense 28. Regarding pyramidal tracts: a) Mainly inhibitory to the muscle tone. b) Fibers are mainly crossing the midline. c) All skeletal muscle has dual supply from this tract d) Fiber don’t cross 29.The main cell type that produces CSF is the a) Astrocyte b) Basket Cell c) Ependymal Cell d) Purkinje Cell 30.The main anatomical structure which produces CSF is called the a) Amygdala b) Cerebral Cortex c) Cerebellum d) Choroid Plexus 31. Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a) Maintaining the integrity of the blood-brain barrier b) Acting as a buoyancy aid c) Facilitating rapid delivery of oxygen and nutrients d) Cushioning against injury 32. Which of the following can significantly raise intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Obstruction of venous system b) Clear CSF color c) High protein levels in CSF d) Low glucose levels in CSF 33. What is the purpose of the rapid venous drainage from circumventricular organs? a) Maintaining the blood-brain barrier  b) Regulating CSF composition c) Facilitating rapid delivery of oxygen and nutrients d) Preventing injury to the brain 34. What structures allow cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to exit the ventricular system into the subarachnoid space? A. Arachnoid granulations and dural sinuses B. Ventricular foramina and spinal canal C. Foramina of Luschka and foramen of Magendie D. Choroid plexus and subarachnoid villi 35. How do arachnoid granulations function in the reabsorption of CSF? A. They act as one-way valves. B. They prevent the entry of blood into the CSF. C. They facilitate the production of CSF. D. They store excess CSF. 36. What drives the movement of CSF into the dural venous sinuses? a) The pressure gradient between CSF and venous blood b) The amount of proteins in the bloodstream c) The osmotic pressure of CSF d) The concentration of glucose in CSF 37. What condition can arise from disruptions in CSF reabsorption? A. Encephalitis B. Hydrocephalus C. Bacterial meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 38. What role does CSF analysis play in neurology? A. It serves as a vaccination method. B. It helps diagnose various conditions. C. It monitors heart activity. D. It is used for creating CSF samples. 39. What happens to arachnoid villi when cerebrospinal fluid pressure increases? A. They develop to increase their surface area. B. They regenerate rapidly. C. They disengage from the dural sinuses. D. They atrophy significantly. 40. What is the primary function of CSF within the central nervous system? A. To inhibit nerve function B. To store metabolic wastes C. To cushion and protect the brain and spinal cord D. To provide nutrients only 41. Which of the following is NOT primarily involved in CSF reabsorption? A. Other potential mechanisms B. Arachnoid granulations C. Dural venous sinuses D. Ventricular ependymal cells 42. What is the primary function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A. To cushion the brain and remove waste B. To stimulate nerve growth C. To produce hormones for brain function  D. To act as a blood reservoir for the brain 43. Where is cerebrospinal fluid primarily produced? A. In the subarachnoid space B. In the peripheral nervous system C. In the blood vessels surrounding the brain D. In specialized cells called choroid plexus 44. What type of cells primarily make up the choroid plexus? A. Choroid plexus epithelial cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Neurons D. Astrocytes 45. What is created by the tight junctions of the choroid plexus epithelial cells? A. A path for nutrient absorption B. An open passage for toxins C. Fluid-filled cavities in the brain D. A blood-brain barrier-like structure 46. What role does cerebrospinal fluid play in nutrient transport? A. It circulates nutrients throughout the brain B. It provides an energy source for nerve cells C. It stores nutrients for later use D. It allows selective nutrient permeability 46. In which area of the brain is CSF NOT produced? A. Ventricles B. Cerebellum C. Choroid plexus  D. Subarachnoid space 47. What is one of the main components of the choroid plexus structure? a. Single layer of cuboidal or columnar cells b. Smooth muscle fibers c. Elastic connective tissue d. Adipose tissue 48. Which of the following functions is NOT associated with cerebrospinal fluid? A. Reabsorbing excess brain tissue B. Transporting hormones C. Cushioning the brain D. Removing waste products 49. What is the primary role of arachnoid trabeculae in the subarachnoid space? A. They significantly increase the fluid volume. B. They help suspend the brain and spinal cord. C. They act as a barrier against pathogens. D. They produce cerebrospinal fluid. 50. Which structure primarily facilitates the reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A. Pia mater B. Dural sinuses C. Cerebral arteries D. Arachnoid granulations 51. Tuberal nuclei are located in: a) Hypothalamus. b) Median eminence. c) Infundibulum.  d) Anterior lobe of pituitary. 52. Horner's Syndrome consists of miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis. These can all be explained as due to the interruption of: A. Nerve III. B. Oculomotor nucleus. C. Hypothalamospinal and reticulospinal fibers. D. Tuberal nuclei in the hypothalamus. 53. The third ventricle is surrounded by the following structures with the EXCEPTION of: A. Anterior commissure. B. Posterior Commissure. C. Choroid plexus. D. Optic tract. 54.Preganglionic sympathetic cell bodies are located in: A. Intermediate or lateral horn (T1-L2). B. Intermediate or lateral horn (S2-5). C. Both A and B D. Edinger-Westphal, salivatory and dorsal motor nucleus of X. 55. Which set of cranial nerves contains preganglionic parasympathetic axons. A. V, VII, IX, X. B. IV, VI, XI, XII. C. III, VII, IX, X. D. I, II, VII, XI. 56.What is the tuberoinfundibular tract? A. A tract carrying releasing hormones. B. A tract carrying ADH and Oxytocin. C. A tract carrying nerve impulses to the adenohypophysis. D. A & B. 57. What kind of neurons carry signals toward the brain? a) Interneurons b) Motor neurons c) Sensory neurons d) Multipolar neurons 59. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is closer to: a) +40 b) 0 c) -65 d) +85 60. MRI shows damage to the cerebellum. Which of the following functions would be affected? a) Coordination of movement b) Inability to speak c) Memory loss d) All of these 61. 2-Which dementia is characterized by frontal lobe symptoms and a specific histology? a) A-Parkinson disease.  b) B-Front-temporal dementia. c) C-Vascular dementia. d) D-Picks disease. 63. A 71-year-old man has a six-month history of being apathetic, unmotivated with poor judgment and inappropriate social behavior. These symptoms suggest dysfunction of what part of the brain? A. Parietal lobes. B. Frontal lobes. C. Limbic system. D. Amygdala and its connections. 64. What sensory pathway carries light touch and proprioception? A. A-Medial lemniscus B. B-Lateral lemniscus C. C-Spinothalamic tract D. D-Chorda tympani 65. The following statements concerning the thalamus are correct except: a) It is the largest part of the diencephalons and serves as a relay station to al the main sensory tracts (except the olfactory pathway) b) It is separated from the lentiform nucleus by the internal capsule c) It forms the anterior boundary of the interventricular foramen  d) It may be joined to the thalamus on the opposite side 66.Which of the following is NOT gray matter of the brain: a) Corpus callosum b) Cerebellar cortex c) Basal ganglia d) Thalamus 67.The following are parts of the hypothalamus except: a) Supraoptic nucleus b) Suprachiasmatic nucleus c) Mamillary body d) Pineal body 68. Select the correct statement regarding the medial lemniscus: a) It begins in the spinal cord b) It is formed of the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts c) It is concerned with proprioception (muscle-joint sense) d) It ends in the sensory area of the cortex e) It lies lateral to the spinal lemniscus 70. What is the primary focus of the cerebellar regions discussed in the text? a) A) Motor coordination and balance b) B) Cognitive processes and higher functional networks c) C)Sensory perception and integration  d) D)Hormonal regulation and endocrine functions 71. What syndrome is associated with deficits in executive function, language, and emotion due to cerebellar damage? a) A) Parkinson’s disease b) B) Schwachman syndrome c) C)Alzheimer's disease d) D)Huntington's disease 72. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a cognitive deficit associated with cerebellar cognitive affective syndrome (CCAS)? a) A) Impaired working memory b) B) Visual acuity enhancement c) C)Agrammatism d) D)Flattening of affect 73. What type of cognitive impairment is characterized by difficulties in multitasking and organizing activities? a) A) Visuospatial disintegration b) B) Dysmetria of thought c) C)Agrammatism d) D)Simultanagnosia 74. Which emotional behavior is described as a potential symptom of cerebellar cognitive affective syndrome?  a. A) Increased empathy b. B) Pathological laughing and crying c. C) Heightened emotional awareness d. D) Enhanced emotional regulation 75. What is the primary focus of the cerebellar cognitive affective syndrome (CCAS)? a. A) Motor coordination deficits b. B) Impairments in cognitive and emotional functions c. C)Sensory processing abnormalities d. D)Visual perception issues 76. Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with CCAS (Cerebellar Cognitive Affective Syndrome) a. A) Impaired working memory b. B) Dysarthria c. C)Agrammatism d. D)Simultanagnosia 77. The term "dysmetria of thought" refers to: a. A) A physical coordination issue b. B) A cognitive disorganization and impairment c. C)A speech production disorder  d. D)A visual processing deficit 78. Which cerebellar region is primarily linked to executive function deficits in CCAS? a. A) Anterior lobe b. B) Posterior lobe c. C)Flocculonodular lobe d. D)Vermis 79.What type of emotional disturbance is associated with lesions in the "limbic cerebellum"? a. A) Euphoria b. B) Flattening of affect or disinhibition c. C)Increased empathy d. D)Heightened anxiety 80. Which of the following cognitive functions is specifically affected by disruptions in the connectivity between the posterior cerebellar lobe and cerebral association areas? a. A) Auditory processing b. B) Visual memory c. C)Multitasking and planning d. D)Motor skills 81.What is a common manifestation of the language and speech deficits in CCAS? a. A) Increased verbosity b. B) Telephonic speech c. C)Agrammatism d. D)Fluent aphasia 82. The symptoms of CCAS are attributed to disruptions in pathways connecting the cerebellum with which of the following? a. A) Brainstem only b. B) Limbic circuitry and various cortical areas c. C)Spinal cord d. D)Peripheral nervous system 83.What recent findings suggest about cerebellar grey matter in Alzheimer's disease (AD)? a. A) It is unaffected until the very late stages of the disease. b. B) It shows significant volumetric reductions in various regions. c. C)It only affects the anterior lobe of the cerebellum. d. D)It is primarily associated with senile plaques. 84. In which specific regions of the cerebellum has significant atrophy been identified in AD patients? a. A) Anterior lobe and lobule VI b. B) Right crus I and II of lobule VIIa, and lobule VI c. C)Left hemisphere and dentate nucleus d. D)Molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex 85. How do amyloid-b deposits in the cerebellum differ between early-onset and late-onset Alzheimer's disease? a. A) They are more prevalent in late-onset AD. b. B) They are primarily found in the anterior lobe in early-onset AD. c. C)They are located predominantly in the molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex in early- onset AD. d. D)They are associated with senile plaques in both types of AD. 86.What is the relationship between cerebellar atrophy and cognitive performance in Alzheimer's disease? a. A) There is no significant correlation between cerebellar atrophy and cognitive performance. b. B) Poor scoring on the MMSE is associated with smaller volume of the superior posterior lobe. c. C)Atrophy in the left cerebellar hemisphere is linked to improved abstract reasoning.  d. D)Cognitive performance is solely determined by the volume of the anterior lobe. 87. Which cognitive ability is linked to right hemisphere atrophy in patients with Alzheimer's disease? a. A) Memory recall b. B) Abstract reasoning c. C)Language comprehension d. D)Visual-spatial skills 88.What aspect of cerebellar pathology is associated with impaired constructional praxis in Alzheimer's disease? a. A) Atrophy of the anterior lobe b. B) Changes in the left cerebellar hemisphere c. C)Increased amyloid-b deposits d. D)Enlargement of the dentate nucleus 89. What did Chen and colleagues (2010) find regarding speech and language deterioration in Alzheimer's disease? a. A) It is directly linked to cerebellar atrophy. b. B) It is associated with pathology of the dentate nucleus. c. C)It is primarily caused by amyloid-b deposits. d. D)It has no correlation with cerebellar function. 90. How does cerebellar atrophy differ between familial and sporadic Alzheimer's disease? a. A) Both types show similar patterns of atrophy. b. B) Familial AD primarily affects posterior regions first. c. C)Sporadic AD initially affects posterior regions and then expands to anterior ones. d. D)Familial AD shows no significant cerebellar atrophy. 91. What is the significance of the findings regarding cerebellar atrophy in Alzheimer's disease? a. A) It indicates that cerebellar involvement is irrelevant to disease progression. b. B) It suggests that cerebellar atrophy may accelerate the progression of AD. c. C)It confirms that cerebellar atrophy occurs only in late-onset AD. d. D)It shows that cerebellar changes are unrelated to cognitive decline. 92. What type of amyloid-b deposits are predominantly found in the cerebellum of early-onset Alzheimer's disease patients? a. A) Dense senile plaques b. B) Diffuse-type amyloid-b with few fibrils  c. C)Only neurofibrillary tangles d. D)Large aggregates of amyloid fibrils 93. What role does the cerebellum play in individuals with eating disorders (ED)? a. A) It is solely responsible for motor coordination. b. B) It has no significant impact on emotional regulation. c. C)It is involved in both feeding behavior and emotion regulation. d. D)It primarily regulates sleep patterns. 94. How do bulimia nervosa (BN) patients differ from anorexia nervosa (AN) patients in terms of brain activation? a. A) BN patients show greater activation to food cues in the lateral prefrontal cortex. b. B) AN patients exhibit lower activation to food cues in the lateral prefrontal cortex. c. C)BN patients have lower activation to food cues in the lateral prefrontal cortex and greater cerebellar activation. d. D)Both BN and AN patients show similar activation patterns in response to food cues. 95. What is a significant finding regarding cerebellar atrophy in patients with anorexia nervosa (AN)?  a. A)It is unrelated to the duration of the disease. b. B)It is associated with shorter disease duration. c. C)It contributes to the maintenance of low body weight and the disease. d. D)It only affects the left hemisphere of the brain. 96. In a study involving AN patients, what was observed about those who did not reach the weight threshold at discharge? a. A) They had a larger volume in the right cerebellar crus I at admission. b. B) They showed no significant differences in cerebellar volume compared to those who did. c. C)They had a smaller volume in the right cerebellar crus I at the time of admission. d. D)They exhibited greater activation in the lateral prefrontal cortex. 97. What common alteration in intrinsic connectivity was found in individuals with eating disorders compared to healthy subjects? a. A) Greater connectivity with the parietal lobe. b. B) Lesser connectivity with the insulae and vermis. c. C)Greater connectivity with the insulae and lesser connectivity with the parietal lobe. d. D)No significant differences in connectivity patterns. 98. What is the primary hypothesis proposed by Andreasen regarding the role of the cerebellum in schizophrenia? A) Dysfunction of the frontal cortex is the main cause of schizophrenia symptoms. B) Cognitive dysmetria due to cerebello-thalamo- cortical circuitry dysfunction is fundamental to schizophrenia. C)Schizophrenia is primarily caused by genetic factors affecting the cerebellum. D)The cerebellum has no significant role in the cognitive processes of schizophrenia. 99.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a symptom or observation related to cerebellar impairment in schizophrenia? A) Impaired eyeblink conditioning B) Abnormal posture and proprioception C)Enhanced sensory processing D)Dyscoordination of sensorimotor processes 100.What structural brain change has been consistently observed in patients with schizophrenia? A) Increased volume of the cerebellar vermis B) Reduced cerebellar volumes, including diminished cerebellar vermis volume C)Enlarged frontal lobe size D)No significant changes in brain structure 101. How have changes in cerebellar volume been linked to schizophrenia? A) They are solely related to genetic predisposition.  B) They are associated with neural and behavioral abnormalities occurring in the perinatal period and other factors. C)They indicate a complete recovery from the disorder. D)They are unrelated to the clinical symptoms experienced by patients. 102.What does functional imaging reveal about blood flow in the cerebellum of schizophrenia patients during cognitive tasks? A) Increased blood flow to the cerebellar cortex and vermis B) Diminished blood flow to the cerebellar cortex and vermis C)No change in blood flow during cognitive tasks D)Fluctuating blood flow patterns unrelated to cognitive performance 103. What role does the cerebellum play in anxiety disorders according to recent studies? A)It is solely responsible for the production of anxiety hormones. B) It is connected to fear and anxiety-related areas and is involved in the neural circuitry of these disorders. C)It has no significant connection to anxiety or fear responses. D)It primarily regulates motor functions without any influence on emotional responses. 104. In patients with specific phobias, what was observed in relation to cerebellar activation? A) Cerebellar activation was absent when viewing feared stimuli. B) Cerebellar activation correlated with the level of anxiety induced by viewing feared stimuli. C)Cerebellar activity decreased when patients were exposed to their phobic stimuli. D)There was no correlation between cerebellar activity and emotional responses in phobia patients. 105. How did successful cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) affect cerebellar activity in patients with panic disorder? A) It increased cerebellar activity significantly. B) It had no effect on cerebellar activity. C)It diminished enhanced cerebellar activity observed in baseline conditions. D)It caused a complete shutdown of cerebellar functions. 106.What have MRI studies indicated about the cerebellar volume in patients with unipolar depression? A) Increased cerebellar volume B) No change in cerebellar volume C)Reduced cerebellar volume, mainly in the vermis D)Enlarged cerebellar volume in the frontal lobe 107.How is cerebellar atrophy related to treatment in patients with depression? A) It is associated with improved response to antidepressants. B) It is unrelated to the severity of depression.  C)It correlates with severity and nonresponse to antidepressant treatment. D)It indicates a higher likelihood of remission. 108.Which area of the brain is known to influence affect and has shown abnormal connectivity with the cerebellum in medication-naive patients? A) Hippocampus B) Anterior cingulate cortex C)Occipital lobe D)Temporal lobe