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Total Exam Preview questions Discipline questions UROLOGY 155 Preview ONCOLOGY and HEMATOL...

Total Exam Preview questions Discipline questions UROLOGY 155 Preview ONCOLOGY and HEMATOLOGY 313 Preview RADIOLOGY AND NUCLEAR MEDICINE 315 Preview INTERNAL MEDICINE 450 Preview ANESTHESIOLOGY and EMERGENCY 264 Preview MEDICINE About thyroid scintigraphy it can be said that: A. It can be done with 131I B. It can be done with 99mTc C. Provides especially structural details D. The image is formed in relation to tissue density E. Allows the assessment of the presence of Ca++ channels in the myocyte membrane F. It cannot be done with 99mTc MIBI G. Allows detection of ectopic thyroid tissue H. It can be done with 18F FDG I. Uses the magnetic field J. It represents the functional imaging of the thyroid About myocardial scintigraphy it can be said that: A. It can be done with the stress test B. It can be done with 131I C. Allows a differential diagnosis between ischemia and myocardial infarction D. It is always done by planar acquisition E. Images are never acquired through SPECT F. It can be done with 99mTc MIBI G. It is essential for the diagnosis of pericarditis H. It can be done with the pharmacological stress test I. It can be done with 99mTc J. Allows assessment of myocardial viability About bone scintigraphy it can be said that: A. Can allow bone MTS to be highlighted up to 6 months prior to a pathological image on radiography B. May include the multi phases ( 3 phase) acquisition C. Can be performed with 99mTc Nanocoll D. The images are acquired only in the first 30 minutes after the administration of the radiotracer E. It cannot be done if an investigation with iodinated contrast substance was previously achived F. The frequently used radiopharmaceutical is 99mTc HDP G. It can only visualize osteocondensating metastases H. Allows the diagnosis of bone metastases I. The images evaluate the attenuation of gamma radiation in relation to bone density J. It is done with the acquisition of whole body images About tumor scintigraphy it can be said that: A. It can be done with 18F FDG B. Cannot be used for brain tumors C. It cannot be done by PET-CT D. It can be done with 99mTc HDP for bone tumors E. It can be done with 131I in the case of thyroid cancer F. It can be done with 99mTc MIBI in some forms of neoplasms G. Allows the assessment of metastases but not of the primary tumor H. It can only be done with planar images I. It only allows the evaluation of primary tumors J. It can be done with 99mTc Tektrotyd for evaluation of somatostatin receptors About the field of nuclear medicine it can be said that: A. Diagnostic imaging can also be done with proton-emitting radioisotopes B. Includes full body images C. Any nuclear medicine investigation lasts a maximum of one hour after the administration of the radiopharmaceutical D. Provides functional images E. It uses gamma emitting radioisotopes in SPECT F. Includes diagnostic imaging only G. Each new image acquired after the administration of a single dose of radiotracer means an additional irradiation of the patient H. Gamma radiation is detected in both SPECT and PET I. It uses positron-emitting radioisotopes in PET J. The gamma camera device emits gamma radiation About PET it can be said that: A. It uses positron emitting radioisotopes B. The most used radioisotope is 99mTc C. The detected radiation is gamma radiation D. It is made with a gamma camera with 2 rectangular detection heads E. The detected rays are beta radiations F. The PET device emits gamma radiation G. It is an acronym for Proton Emission Tomography H. It is a useful tool for oncological post-therapeutic evaluation I. The acquisition is tomographic J. The most used radiotracer is 18FFDG About gamma radiation it can be said that: A. It is used in MRI B. They are radiations that include protons C. They are radiations produced by electronic transitions D. They are used in functional imaging diagnostics E. It represents the physical agent used in nuclear medicine F. Only in the case of the metastable state are they emitted without accompanying corpuscular radiation G. They are not detected in SPECT H. It represents one of the essential characteristics of the ideal radioisotope I. They are not detected in PET J. They are less harmful than corpuscular radiation, if they do not have high energy About the gamma camera it can be said that: A. Includes at least one scintillation crystal B. It is not allowed to park near a gamma camera that is working, but does not have a patient on the detection bed, because it emits radiation C. Emits gamma radiation  C. Emits gamma radiation D. It cannot perform tomographic image acquisitions E. Detects gamma radiation F. It can use beta plus radiations (PET) G. It cannot have 2 detection heads H. Can only take planar images I. It is a detection device in nuclear medicine J. It can acquire tomographic images About scintigraphy it can be said that: A. Dynamic acquisition are not available B. All images are acquired every 15-20 minutes C. The physical agent that forms the image comes from within the patient's body D. It can only be done by purchasing SPECT E. It is obtained after the administration of a radiopharmaceutical to the patient, depending on the explored organ F. It can only be achieved by static image acquisition G. The patient is a source of radiation after the administration of the radiotracer, for a period of time H. Gamma camera is a device that does not emit radiation I. It hasn’t a better anatomical resolution than radiography J. It cannot be achieved by purchasing the whole body About the scintigraphic method it can be said that: A. May provide information about an ectopic tissue B. The obtained images can only be in black and white C. Tomographic acquisition can be SPECT or PET D. A distribution map of the radioisotope in the explored organ is obtained E. It can be done with alpha emitting radioisotopes F. Conventional scintigraphy uses gamma-emitting radioisotopes G. Offers predominantly functional images H. Tomographic or planar images can be made, but only static ones I. It has a higher resolution than CT or MRI J. Provides predominantly structural images About 131I it can be stated that: A. It only emits gamma radiation B. It is used only in therapy C. Can be used for diagnostic thyroid scintigraphy D. It is a metastable state E. It can be used in myocardial scintigraphy F. It is a stable isotope of iodine G. It can be used for radioiodine therapy of thyroid cancer H. It can be used in renal scintigraphy I. It was one of the main radioisotopes emitted in the Chernobyl nuclear accident J. It is considered the first form of theragnostic approach About a radiopharmaceutical it can be said that: A. It is also used as a contrast agent in MRI B. It may include an alpha emitting radioisotope C. It is eliminated only through the kidney, all the time D. Can be administered intravenously E. It can be represented by radioisotope + vector (tracer) molecule F. Can be administered orally G. It is eliminated primarily by the renal route H. It is also used as a contrast substance in CT  I. May include a stable isotope J. It can be represented by the radioisotope itself, in some cases About 99mTc it can be stated that: A. It is the metastable form of technetium B. It is also used in treatment C. It has a half-life of 6 hours D. It also emits accompanying beta radiation E. It is a stable isotope F. The emission energy is 140keV G. The emission energy is 511keV H. It only emits gamma radiation I. The half-life is 7 days J. It has characteristics very close to those of the ideal radioisotope About the radioisotopes used in diagnostic nuclear medicine, it can be stated that: A. None of the radioisotopes emitted during the Chernobyl accident can be used in diagnostic nuclear medicine B. May be alpha emitters C. They can be gamma + beta emitters D. Any radioisotope of an element can also be used in scintigraphy, if it is in low dose E. The emission energy cannot exceed 100KeV F. They can be gamma emitters G. They can be positron emitters H. Some can represent the radiopharmaceutical by themselves I. It must have a half time of only minutes J. 131I is the first radioisotope used in both diagnosis and therapy About radioisotope therapy it can be stated that: A. It can be done with 131I B. It can be done with 99mTc MIBI in breast cancer C. The radioisotopes used must be corpuscular radiation emitters D. 18F FDG is used routinely E. It cannot be done with 99mTc F. Only thyroid cancer benefits from radioisotope treatment G. It is essential in the treatment of thyroid cancer H. It cannot be done with 123I I. It can be performed with 99mTcHDP in bone tumors J. In the case of thyroid cancer, 125I is used About 131I it can be stated that: A. It has emission energy of 140keV B. It is used in the therapy of thyroid cancer C. It has a half-life of the order of days D. It has a half-life of 6 hours E. It only emits gamma radiation F. It is used in PET G. It can be used in diagnostic scintigraphy, in very small doses H. It was issued in the Chernobyl accident I. It also emits corpuscular radiation J. It is only used in diagnosis About 18F FDG it can be stated that: A. The cellular uptake mechanism involves glucose transporters B. It is the most used radiotracer in PET C. It can be used in tumor evaluation  C. It can be used in tumor evaluation D. It can be used in myocardial evaluation E. The radioisotope emits only gamma radiation F. Can be used in SPECT-CT G. Can be used in SPECT H. The radioisotope has a half-life of 6 hours I. Highlight the glucose-consuming tissues J. The radioisotope is metastable About 99mTc it can be stated that: A. It is produced in a cyclotron B. Can be used in PET C. It has a half-life of 6 hours D. Can radiolabel FDG E. It can be used for tomographic acquisitions - called SPECT F. It can be used in cancer therapy G. It can be used alone to evaluate the evolution of bone cancer H. It is a pure gamma rays emitter I. it is close to the ideal radioisotope characteristics J. it is obtained from Mo99-Tc99m Generator About an "ideal radioisotope" for conventional scintigraphy it can be stated that: A. It has emission energy 100 – 200 keV B. Has not identical emission type for SPECT and PET C. It has corpuscular emission accompanied by gamma emission D. Has emission energy above 511 keV E. The radioisotope with the characteristics closest to the ideal radioisotope is 131I F. One of the radioisotopes with characteristics close to the ideal radioisotope is 99Tc G. Has pure gamma emission H. It has a short half-life, on the order of seconds I. It has a short half-life, of the order of minutes-hours J. The radioisotope with the characteristics closest to the ideal radioisotope is 99mTc Next affirmations about Nuclear medicine are true: A. It is using radio-waves B. Refers only to external radiation therapy C. It uses gamma and corpuscular emitting radioisotopes D. It is about nuclear magnetic resonance E. Parathyroide scintigraphy localize the parathyroidian adenoma F. It does not refer to radioisotope therapy G. it is about diagnosis and radio-isotope therapy H. It determine the tissue density I. It is about use of 131I in thyroid cancer therapy J. It includes somatostatin receptor scintigraphy About X-Rays we can state: A. They are produced in an vacuum tube by a negative charged target bombarded with electrons; B. They are produced in an vacuum tube by a positive charged target bombarded with electrons; C. Their discovery took place in 1895 by WC Roentgen; D. They are produced by a piezoelectric crystal; E. x-rays have short wavelenght; F. They are non-ionizing radiation; G. They are a form of magnetic radiation;  H. They are produced in fluorescent x-ray tubes; I. X-rays are a ionizing radiation; J. They are a form of electromagnetic radiation; An X-ray tube: A. Produces X-rays when a beam of electrons produced by a heated filament strikes a piezoelectric crystal on the anode; B. Is a vacuum tube containing a negatively charged cathode and an positively charged anode C. Contains a cathode which through a heated filament produces a beam of electrons by means of a positively charged focusing cup; D. Is an energy converter transforming electrical energy in x-rays and heat; E. Produces X-rays when a beam of electrons produced by a heated filament strikes the anode; F. Produces typically 99% x-rays and 1% heat; G. Contains a cathode which through a heated filament produces a beam of electrons by means of a negatively charged focusing cup; H. Is an energy amplifier accelerating electrons to the point they trnsform in x-ray photons; I. Is a vacuum tube containing a positively charged cathode and a negatively charged anode J. Produces typically 1% x-rays and 99% heat; Imaging methods using x-rays: A. Digital substraction angiography; B. MRS; C. Plain thomography D. Scintigraphy; E. Ultrasound; F. Radiography; G. Spectral Doppler; H. Fluoroscopy; I. MRI; J. Computed-tomography; About a radiographic film is true: A. When developed after exposure, black metallic silver is precipitated from those crystals containing silver ions; B. Has a supercoating layer (gelatin +antistatic protective layer); C. The number of silver ions decrease with increased radiation; D. The darkest areas in the images have been subjected to the lowest radiation intensity; E. Contain sylver bromide crystals which are ionized by photon energy; F. Has a plastic (polyester base); G. Contains an emulsion of black metallic silver; H. The non-ionized silver bromide are reduced by devoloping and become vizible; I. Contains an emulsion of silver bromide crystals; J. Has a rare earth sheath base; A radiography equipment components may be: A. Image intensifier; B. Beam forming computer; C. Gantry D. X-ray generator of 1.5 Tesla; E. Cooling system F. Various magnetic coils;  F. Various magnetic coils; G. X-ray tube; H. Filters; I. Colimators; J. Anti-scatter gridFilm-cassette; Known facts about ultrasonography (US): A. US uses sound waves with a frequency above 20.000 Hz; B. The sound wave echoes form the basis of thesectional ultrasound image, similar to the sonar of fishing boats; C. Ultrasound waves are reflected from the various tissues back to the transducer as echoes; D. US is performed by transmitting a narrow beam of ultrasound into the body; E. Because is using electricity to generate ultrasound waves the patients have to be grounded to avoid electrocution; F. US uses sound waves with a frequency below 20.000 Hz G. It uses one transducer for emission and another for receiving; H. Cannot be used on people suffering from hear loss; I. Frequencies in the 2-10 MHz range are most commonly used; J. Frequencies in the 10-20 MHz range are most commonly used; About the ultrasound transducer we may state: A. The echoes coming back from the tissue are received by the transducer and directly transmitted to the display to avoid signal loss; B. Produces ultrasound waves by means of one or several piezo-electrical crystals; C. It is hand-held; D. Transmits a narrow beam of ultrasound into the body; E. The piezo-electrical crystals in the transducer will generate the sound waves and receive the returning echoes; F. In modern ultrasound scanners the transducer crystals directly generates digital electrical signals; G. To avoid tissue heating the transducer has to be held at a safe distance from the skin; H. The sound waves are generated by a quartz crystal contain in the transducer; I. For using it needs to be placed onto the skin closed to the anatomical area of interest; J. Because of the mechanical vibrations, the lifespan of a transducer is relatively short; About the way ultrasounds transmits through the body we may say: A. In order for the ultrasound to be transmitted into the body a layer of gel has to be applied between the transducer and the skin; B. The ultrasound transmission through body tissues is independent of their acoustic impedance; C. Bone in the body is responsible for ultrasound beam hardening; D. There are no special needs for the ultrasound to work so the transducer is placed directly onto the skin; E. Air and bone do not allow for the ultrasound to pass into body tissues; F. Loss of intensity of ultrasound in any given tissue is called attenuation; G. Interposition of air between the transducer and the skin does not allow ultrasound to pass, but air within the body does not interfere with image quality; H. The ultrasound transmission through body tissues depends on their acoustic impedance; I. The intensity of ultrasounds transmitted are gradually reduced by passage through the tissues of the body; J. Bones and air have the same acoustic impedance so there is no interference between the two allowing good transmission; There are several modes of ultrasound is use, for which this/these statements are true: A. Doppler mode is only used in cardiology, since it applies to vessels; B. In Doppler pulse mode there are two separate crystals are used to transmit and receive echoes; C. In Doppler mode two crystals are used for both emitting and reiving in order to calculate the blood velocity since it needs to superimpose B-mode with colours; D. Color Flow Imaging in Doppler-mode show stationary tissues in shades of gray and vessels in colour, depending on relative velocity and direction of flow; E. B-mode (brightness- mode) - is ·used almost exclusively in radiology; F. M-mode (motion-mode) is used in cardiology to show the motion patterns of the various cardiac valve leaflets; G. In Doppler mode when intersecting a blood vessel the ultrasound will be reflected on blood red cells; H. A B-mode image gives a two-dimensional sectional display of the anatomy; I. B-mode is the only mode used in radiology; J. M-mode is the only mode used in cardiology; About the way computed tomography works the following holds true: A. With each tube rotation the detectors are sliding in opposite direction in a linear manner to provide scan depth; B. An array of electronic radiation detectorsmeasures the penetration along each ray directions on the entire 360° rotation; C. Before a CT scan a calibration is required to match specific tissue densities of every patient; D. The x-ray beam is rotated around the patient'sBody in complete 360° rotation; E. Along each pathway trough the body, the radiation penetrates to different degrees, depending on the density of tissues through it passes; F. With CT, creation of an image is a three-step process including, X-ray scanning, image reconstruction followed by conversion of the numerical image into a gray- scale image; G. With CT, creation of an image results from projecting on large area of the body an x-ray beam which lands on the digital detectors on the other side casting shadows of internal body structures; H. The detectors measurements are stored and used for image reconstruction processes; I. The detector measurements are directly converted into a gray-scale image; J. A spiral CT scan means that a contiguous scan can be obtain through automatic table advance; About the image in computer tomography with can state: A. Every voxel is given a shade of grey according to the attenuation of the corresponding pixel; B. The unit for CT attenuation is named the Hounsfield unit (HU). C. The attenuation value in a voxel is calculated based on scanner calibration for water, air and bone values; D. Each pixel in an image represents one voxel in the slice of tissue; E. During the process of image creation, every slice of tissue is formatted as an array of small-volume elements called voxels; F. Each voxel in an image represents one pixel in the slice of tissue; G. The attenuation value in a voxel is calculated based on monitor calibration for water, air and bone values; H. During the process of image creation, every slice of tissue is formatted as an array of small-volume elements called pixels; I. The attenuation value in a pixel is calculated based on scanner calibration for water,  I. The attenuation value in a pixel is calculated based on scanner calibration for water, air and bone values; J. Every pixel is given a shade of grey according to the attenuation of the corresponding voxel; Magnetic resonance imaging is the imaging modality that: A. Uses magnetic fields with high strengths from 0,1-1,5 Tesla and radiowaves pulses; B. It is also suitable for patients having cardiac pacemakers; C. Can provide sectional images in any plane of any part of the body; D. Uses high magnetic fields to increase body magnetization provided by Earth magnetic field to values that are measurable; E. Is based on the radiowaves capability to force atomic nuclei, particularly hydrogen protons, to align to the new magnetic axis provided by the external magnetic field from their previous random orientation; F. Provide sectional images only in transversal plane from which we can reconstruct the other planes of the body; G. Is the method of choice for examining any part of the body except brain; H. Uses Hydrogen nuclei (protons) which are particularly suitable due to the fact that they are in high quantity in the body tissues; I. Uses an external magnetic field to align atomic nuclei, particularly hydrogen protons, ina new magnetic axis from their previous random orientation; J. Is based on the fact that some nuclei behave like small magnets; About the MR signals and MR image it is true: A. The concentration of hydrogen protons into the tissues examined is converted by computer into an image presented on a monitor in varying shades of black and white; B. The MR signal on which the image is based is produced by a radiofrequency pulse returned from radiofrequency stimulated protons in magnetized tissues; C. Water and other fluids, having a very high proton density, should always appear bright in MR images; D. The high MR signal from the higher quantity of amniotic fluid prevents the usage of MRI in the first semester pregnancy because it obliterates the signal from the much smaller fetus; E. The MR signal is detected with the same coils used for excitation in the form of a radio signal of the same frequency with the radiowaves pulses used for excitation; F. Tissues with low concentration of protons appear bright on the MR image; G. The coils used to detect MR signal are different than those used for excitation of protons; H. Tissues with high concentration of protons appear dark on the MR image; I. The MR signal is inverse proportional with the concentration of protons in the examined tissue; J. For obtaining the MR signals radiowave pulses are essentials to excite and dtect the magnetized protons; About contrast media used in radiology the following is true: A. Iodine contrast media is used for IVU, CT and angiography; B. Micro bubbles of pure gas, gas bubbles encapsulated in various structures or liquids that release microbubbles cannot be administered intravenously because of high risk of gas pulmonary embolism; C. Iodine contrast is of two types: ionic for the intracellular space and no-ionic for the extracellular space; D. Iron oxide used in MRI is a magnetic type of contrast; E. For double-contrast studies a low density barium suspension is used; F. The most used contrast media in MRI is based on gadolinium for the paramagnetic type and iron oxide for the super-paramagnetic type; G. In conventional radiology and computed tomography, contrast media may be  G. In conventional radiology and computed tomography, contrast media may be classified as positive or negative; H. In ultrasound we can use for contrast enhancement micro bubbles of pure gas, gas bubbles encapsulated in various structures or liquids that release microbubbles; I. Because it is not absorbed from the intestine and therefore is not toxic barium sulphate can be used without restrictions in gastro-intestinal studies; J. A suspension of barium sulphate in water is used for gastro-intestinal studies in two levels of concentration for single or double-contrast studies; About contrast medium adverse reactions we can say: A. Previous adverse reaction is absolute contraindications for use of contrast media; B. Intubation and ventilation are never necessary to treat adverse reactions; C. In patients with a high risk of acute reaction to contrast medium we need to re- evaluate the indication for investigation; D. In case of a previous adverse reaction, we have to use premedication; E. Anaphylactoid shock is a severe, life-threatening reaction for which we need intubation and ventilation; F. Can be divided in mild, moderate and severe; G. For mild reactions we give Prednisolone 50 mg orally immediately after investigation; H. The quantity of contrast media administered is not related to increased risk of adverse reactions; I. Vasovagal reactions require no treatment other than Trendelenburg position and intravenous fluids; J. Among the risk factors for adverse reactions, we find allergy, renal failure, large amounts of contrast medium; About barium contrast media we can say: A. A high-density barium suspension is used for single contrast studies; B. A low-density barium suspension is used for double contrast studies; C. Since it is non-toxic it can be used in any circumstances for gastro-intestinal tract studies; D. A low-density barium suspension contains 0,5-1 g of barium sulphate/ml suspension; E. A high-density barium suspension is used for double contrast studies; F. A low-density barium suspension is used for single contrast studies; G. A high-density barium suspension contains 2-2.5 g of barium sulphate/ml suspension; H. Barium sulphate is soluble in water; I. Barium sulphate is insoluble in water, is suspended and therefore is not absorbed from the intestine; J. A high-density barium suspension contains 0,5-1 g of barium sulphate/ml suspension; About treatment for contrast medium adverse reactions we can say: A. For mild reactions no treatment is necessary; B. Vasovagal reactions require no treatment other than Trendelenburg position and intravenous fluids; C. For mild reactions we give Prednisolone 50 mg orally immediately after investigation; D. For anaphylactoid shock we use epinephrine 0,5- 1 mg subcutaneously; E. For severe- life-threatening reactions intensive care is necessary; F. For vasovagal reaction we use epinephrine 0,5- 1 mg i.v.; G. Intubation and ventilation are never necessary to treat adverse reactions; H. Premedication in patients with previous known reactions include Prednisolone 50 mg orally 12 and 2 hours before investigation;  mg orally 12 and 2 hours before investigation; I. For moderate reactions treatment is necessary but no intensive care; J. For anaphylactoid shock we use epinephrine 0,5- 1 mg i.v., oxygen 2-6 1/min, hydrocortisone 150-250 mg i.v., intubation+ ventilation; The indications for fluoroscopy of the chest are the following: A. The study of viral pneumonia B. The guidance of transthoracic biopsies C. To study the dynamics of the heart. D. To study the dynamics of vascular system E. The study the diaphragmatic motion F. Bronchiectasis G. Pulomnary emphysema H. The study of lobar pneumonia I. Acute obstructive overinflation J. TNM staging of lung cancer About ultrasonography of the chest we can say: A. We can diagnose pneumonias B. Is particularly usefull for chest evaluation C. Is an invasive method of examination D. We can localize pleural masses for biopsy E. We can localize pleural collections for drainage F. We can diagnose bronchopneumonia G. We can diagnose bronchiectasis H. We can see lesions of the chest wall I. We can evaluate loculated pleural effusions J. We can see subpleural lesions The indications for pulmonary angiography are: A. Evaluation of pulmonary emboli B. Pulmonary emphysema C. Evaluation of aneurysm D. Evaluation of arteritis E. Pleural efffusion F. Bronchogenic carcinoma G. Viral pneumonia H. Bronchopneumonia I. Evaluation of pulmonary venous occlusion J. Evaluation of arteriovenous malformations The anterior mediastinum: A. Is bounded anteriorly by the sternum B. Contains the esophagus C. Contains the aortic arch D. Is bounded above by the diaphragm E. Contains superior vena cava F. Is bounded above by the thoracic inlet G. Is bounded posteriorly by the pericardium H. Is bounded posteriorly by the vertebral bodies I. Is bounded laterally by the pleura J. Is bounded posteriorly by the great vessels The posterior mediastinum: A. Contains the azygos vein B. Is lies behind the heart and pericardium C. Contains the aortic arch  D. Contains superior vena cava E. Is bounded laterally by the pleura F. Contains the esophagus G. Is bounded above by the diaphragm H. Is bounded posteriorly by heart and pericardium I. Contains the descending aorta J. Doesn t contain the esophagus About the pulmonary fissures we can say: A. The major fissure is visible in frontal projection when there is pleural fluid B. The minor fissure is visible in frontal projection only when there is pleural disease C. The major fissure separates the right lobes D. The major fissure is often visible in frontal projection. E. The minor fissure is often visible in normal patient F. the left major fissure intersects the diaphragm more posteriorly than the right G. The normal fissures cannot be seen on the chest x-ray H. The major fissure is visible in frontal projection when there is pleural thickening I. The minor fissure is never visible in frontal projection. J. The major fissure is visible in frontal projection when there is a pleural disease The borders of the mediastinum on the postero-anterior view are the following: A. The lower border on the right side is formed by the left atrium B. On the left side we see the aortic arch C. The upper border on the left side is formed by the subclavian artery D. The upper border on the right side is the left atrium E. The lower border on the right side is formed by the right atrium F. The lower border on the left side is formed by left atrium G. The lower border on the left side is the aorta H. The lower border on the left side is formed by the left ventricle I. The upper border on the right side is formed by the brachiocephalic artery J. On the right side is the aortic arch Hyperlucency can appear in the thorax in the following conditions: A. air in pleural cavity B. air in the mediastinum C. Liquid in the pleural cavity D. Liquid in the bronchi E. Increased number of veins F. Increased number of arteries G. Decreased quantity of alveolar air H. bronchiectasis I. Increased quantity of alveolar air J. decreased vasculature Opacities in the thorax can appear in the following conditions: A. Dilatation of bronchi B. Retractile alveolar syndrome C. Decreased density of interstitial tissue D. Increased quantity of alveolar air E. Increased density of interstitial tissue F. Decreased quantity of alveolar air G. Increased vasculature H. Decreased vasculature I. Air in the mediastinum J. Nonretractile alveolar syndrome About overinflation we can say: About overinflation we can say: A. Is not seen in emphysema B. Represents an increased amount of the alveolar air with destruction of alveolar wall C. Can apear in case of incomplete bronchial obstruction D. Is never compensatory E. Is seen in emphysema F. Can apear in case of complete bronchial obstruction G. May be compensatory H. Represents an increased amount of the bronchial air I. Represents a decreased amount of the alveolar air J. Represents an increased amount of the alveolar air without destruction of alveolar wall About the postero-anterior view of the thorax we can say: A. The elbows are pushed forwardin order to medially rotate the scapula B. The elbows are pushed forward in order to laterally rotate the scapula C. e. the insufficient rotation of the scapula projects it on the lung D. Is exposed with the back of the hand placed on the iliac crest E. Is exposed with hands up F. The scapula must be projected over the lung G. Is exposed with the elbows pushed forward H. The patient stays with the posterior part of the thorax nearby the film I. We can confuse the scapula with a pleural lesion J. Is made with the patient breathing About the soft tissues of the chest we can say: A. h. Sternocleidomastoid muscle may be seen B. d.Sternocleidomastoid muscles may be seen C. c.The skin over the clavicles produces the clavicular companion shadow D. a.Breast shadow may produce increased opacity E. e.Pectoral muscles may be seen F. g. Nipple shadows may appear as round lucencies G. j. Pectoral muscles cannot be seen H. i. Sternocleidomastoid muscles cannot be seen I. f. Breast shadow may produce decreased opacity J. b.Nipple shadows may appear as round opacities About pulmonary segments we can say: A. Right lower lobe has 5 segments B. The segments of the right upper lobe are anterior, posterior C. The middle lobe has 3 segments D. Left lower lobe doesn t have the bazal medial segment E. The right upper lobe has 3 segments F. Right lower lobe has 4 segments G. The right upper lobe has 3 segments H. The segments of the right upper lobe are apical, anterior, posterior I. Left lower lobe has the bazal medial segment J. The middle lobe has 2 segments About the normal lungs we can say: A. The arteries are not close to the bronchi B. The arteries decrease in caliber from the hilum C. The vessels can be identified up to 1,5 cm of the pleural surface D. Are radiolucent E. Are radioopaque F. The vessels at the base are smaller than the upper vessels  G. The arteries are close to the bronchi H. The vessels at the base are larger than the upper vessels I. The vessels can be identified up to 2 cm of the pleural surface J. The arteries increase in caliber from the hilum Bronchial obstruction syndrome: A. Cannot appear in the main bronchi B. Cannot appear at the large bronchi C. Can be seen in COPD D. When appears in the large bronchi is bronchial carcinoma E. Can appear at the large bronchi F. When appears in the large bronchi is pneumonia G. Cannot appear at the terminal bronchiole H. Can appear in the main bronchi I. can appear at the terminal bronchiole J. Cannot be seen in COPD About interstitial syndrome we can say: A. The pattern is not nodular or linear, reticulonodular B. Is a decreased prominence of interlobular interstitial spaces C. Is an increased prominence of interlobular interstitial spaces D. Does not include viral pneumonia E. Alveolar aeration is not maintained F. Is an increased prominence of perivascular interstitial spaces G. Alveolar aeration is maintained H. Is a decreased prominence of perivascular interstitial spaces I. May be focal J. The pattern is reticular or reticulonodular The hypovascular lung: A. Appears in pulmonary artery aneurism B. Doesn t appear in pulmonary embolism C. Gives focal lucency D. Appears in left to right shunt E. Appears in right to left shunt F. Appears in pulmonary artery stenosis G. Gives diffuse lucency H. Gives focal opacity I. Appears in pulmonary embolism J. Gives diffuse opacity The pattern of the pneumococcal pneumonia on the chest x-ray is: A. Triangular opacity with the tip toward the hilum, homogeneous, medium intensity B. Opacity with air –bronchogram C. Opacity without air –bronchogram D. Homogeneous opacity, medium intensity E. Nodulaar opacity with air –bronchogram F. Triangular opacity with the volume of the affected area reduced G. Triangular opacity with the tip toward the periphery H. Opacity with medium intensity I. Triangular lucency J. Triangular opacity with the volume of the affected area normal On the chest x – ray bronchopneumonia has the following appearance: A. Nodular opacities of varying sizes B. Nodular opacities, well defined C. Bilateral nodular opacities  C. Bilateral nodular opacities D. Nodular opacities poorly defined E. Nodular opacities usually located on the bases of the lungs F. Unilateral nodular opacities G. Diffuse lucencies H. Nodular opacities with the same size I. Nodular opacities usually located on the apex of the lungs J. Nodules with the center more opaque than the periphery About the aspiration pneumonia we can affirm: A. Is a viral infection B. From the begining the opacities may become conglomerate C. Aspiration of gastric contents can give pulmonary edema D. Is a triangular opacity on the chest x-ray E. Later in the disease the opacities may become conglomerate F. Tracheo-bronchial fistula may case aspiration pneumonia G. On the chest x-ray we can see irregular radiolucent areas H. On the chest x-ray we can see irregular areas of increased density I. Chest x –ray is normal J. Is usually a mixed bacterial infection About the mycoplasmal pneumonia we can affirm: A. Can look like bronchopneumonia B. Is given by pneumococcus C. Cannot be represented by lobar or segmental opacities D. Can be represented by segmental opacities E. Is a secondary atypical pneumonia F. Can be represented by lobar opacities G. Cannot be represented by bilateral reticulo- nodular pattern H. Cannot look like bronchopneumonia I. Is a primary atypical pneumonia J. Can be represented by bilateral reticulo- nodular pattern About lung abscess we can affirm: A. On the chest x – ray lung abscess cannot be an opacity of spherical shape B. On the chest x – ray lung abscess can be a hydro-aeric image C. The differential diagnosis of the lung abscess does include pneumonia, lung cancer D. An abscess cannot appear in the lungs E. On the chest x – ray lung abscess is a diffuse lucency F. On the chest x – ray lung abscess cannot be a hydro-aeric image G. On the chest x – ray lung abscess can be a consolidation H. The cause of the lung abscess can be: aspiration of foreign material I. The differential diagnosis of the lung abscess does include hydatid cyst, fungal infection J. The cause of the lung abscess cannot be surgery of respiratory tract About primary TB we can affirm: A. Cavitation can appear B. Appears in a patient who has been previously infected with tubercle bacillus C. Cavitation cannot appear D. Appears in old patients E. Mediastinal adenopathies are present F. Appears in a patient who has not been previously infected with tubercle bacillus G. Cannot give hematogeneous spread H. Cannot have mediastinal adenopathies I. Can give hematogeneous spread  J. Appears in young patients Primary TB can have the following lesions on the chest x-ray: A. Lung calcified nodules B. Ghon focus C. Lymphangites D. Early infiltrate E. Pleural calcifications F. Cavities in the apex of the lung G. Pulmonary fibrosis H. Rancke complex I. Lymphadenopathy J. Nodule in the lower lobe Secondary TB can have the following lesions on the chest x-ray: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Ghon focus C. Cavities in the apex of the lung D. Lymphangites E. Pulmonary fibrosis F. Lung calcified nodules G. Nodule in the lower lobe H. Pleural calcifications I. Early infiltrate J. Rancke complex Early TB reinfection does have these characteristics: A. Limphadenopathy is frequent B. The lesion is localized in the upper lobe C. The opacity has eggshell calcifications D. The lesion has speculated margins E. The lesion suggests a pneumonic process F. Is an area of mottled opacity G. Is an opacity with well defined margins H. Is an opacity with poorly defined margins I. Doesn’ t have limphadenopathy J. The lesion is localized in the lower lobe The cavity in secondary TB has the following pattern on the chest x – ray: A. Round opacity B. Calcified opacity C. Radiolucency with moderately thick wall D. Radiolucency with regular margins E. Radiolucency localized in the lower lobe F. Radiolucency with very thick wall G. Don t have lymphadenopathy H. Rounded radiolucency I. Radiolucency with irregular margins J. Radiolucency localized in the upper lobe About the complications of TB infection we can say: A. The complications can appear in primary TB B. Bronchogenic spread leads to bronchopneumonia C. Bronchogenic spread leads to military TB D. Hematogeneous dissemination leads to bronchopneumonia E. The complications can appear only in postprimary TB F. The complications can appear only in primary TB  F. The complications can appear only in primary TB G. One of the complications is TB pneumonia H. Hematogeneous dissemination leads to military TB I. Fibrosis is a complication of postprimary TB J. The complications can appear in postprimary TB About the ruptured hydatid cyst we cay affirm: A. Appears when cyst ruptures into a bronchus B. Air – fluid level C. Round opacity, clearly defined D. The collapsed cyst wall floats on the fluid E. Oval opacity clearly defined F. Meniscus sign G. Crescent sign H. Water- lily sign I. Round opacity with spiculated margins J. Iceberg sign The aspect of hydatid cyst on the chest x - ray is: A. Image with horizontal air-fluid level B. Water- lily sign C. Meniscus sign D. Round opacity with high intensity E. Round mass with clearly defined margins F. Round air – fluid image with poorly defined margins G. Round opacity with poorly defined margins H. Iceberg sign I. Round lucency with irregular margins J. Air – fluid level Criteria for chest x-ray diagnosis of emphysema include: A. Elevated diaphragm B. Central pulmonary artery decreased in size C. Increased number of vessels D. Depression and flattening of the diaphragm E. Decrease of retrosternal air space F. Widely spaced ribs G. Decreased number of vessels H. Central pulmonary artery increased in size I. Smaller intercostal spaces J. Increase of retrosternal air space About endobronchial bronchogenic carcinoma we can say: A. Mediastinum is displaced toward the affected the area B. Atelectasis may be segmental, lobar or massive C. On the chest x-ray can appear atelectasis D. On the chest x-ray can appear a focal lucency E. Mediastinum is displaced toward the other side the area F. Is a tumor in the periphery of the lungs G. On the chest x-ray is possible to see the tumor H. On the chest x-ray can appear overinflation I. On the chest x-ray can appear a nodule J. On the chest x-ray is not possible to see the tumor The aspect of exobronchial bronchogenic carcinoma on the chest x-ray can be: A. High intensity opacity B. Opacity connected to the hilum  B. Opacity connected to the hilum C. Cancer feet sign D. Round opacity E. Atelctasis F. Opacity with regular borders G. Opacity in the periphery of the lung H. Low intensity opacity I. Triangular opacity J. Opacity with irregular borders About peripheric bronchogenic carcinoma we can say: A. Is a nodule with high intensity B. The nodule grows rapidly C. The nodule is localized in the center of the lung D. The nodule has irregular borders E. A cavity with irregular walls can appear F. The nodule grows slowly G. The nodule is localized in the periphery of the lung H. Is a nodule with low intensity I. The nodule has regular borders J. A cavity with regular walls can appear About hematogeneous pulmonary metastases we can say: A. Are usually single lesions B. Are smoothly round nodules C. Appear when tumor emboli become lodged in pulmonary capillaries D. Breast carcinomas don t metastasize in the lungs E. The nodules are localised in the lower part of the lungs F. i. are irregular round nodules G. Sarcomas metastasize in the lungs H. Sarcomas don t metastasize in the lungs I. Are usually multiple lesions J. The nodules are scattered throughout both lungs Pancoast Tobias syndrome consists of: A. Gardner syndrome B. A special form of central bronchogenic carcinoma C. Destruction of the clavicle D. Pain in the controlateral arm E. A special form of central bronchogenic carcinoma F. Destruction of an adjacent rib G. Pain in the ipsilateral arm H. Horner syndrome I. A mass in the pulmonary base J. A mass in the pulmonary apex Roentgen findings in sarcoidosis are: A. Adenopathy with reticular pattern B. Parenchymal involvement without adenopathy C. In stage 2: hilar and paratracheal adenopathy D. In stage 1: adenopathy with reticular pattern E. Hilar and paratracheal adenopathy F. Adenopathy with parenchymal involvment G. In stage 1: adenopathy with parenchymal involvement H. In stage 3: pulmonary fibrosis I. In stage 4: parenchymal involvement without adenopathy J. Pulmonary fibrosis  J. Pulmonary fibrosis The signs of interstitial edema: A. Focal reticular pattern B. Diffuse reticular pattern C. Include peribronchial blurring D. Include perivascular blurring E. Kerley B lines are 5-10 cm long F. Include fan-shaped opacities G. Include triangular opacities H. Are reliable as a group I. Pleural effusion is present J. Kerley A lines are 5-10 cm long About benign tumors of the lung we can affirm: A. Hamartoma can have scattered calcifications B. Lipoma is usually endobronchial C. Are more common than malignant tumors of the lung D. Hamartoma cannot have scattered calcifications E. Do not include fibroma and leiomyoma F. Can be multiple nodules G. Can be solitary nodules H. Include fibroma and leiomyoma I. Lipoma is usually exobronchial J. Are less common than malignant tumors of the lung The aspects of pulmonary embolism on chest x-ray are: A. Intraluminal filling defects B. Increased diameter of pulmonary artery C. Westermark sign D. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch E. Fleischner sign F. Triangular peripheral cone of infarct G. f. meniscus sign H. Complete cut off of pulmonary artery I. Fan-shaped bilateral opacities J. Hampton sign About the pleural effusion the following sentences are true: A. In large effusions the mediastinum is shifted toward the ipsilateral part B. Locullated pleural effusions can occur within fissures C. More than 75 ml of fluid blunt the anterior costophrenic angle D. On chest x – ray are basal opacities E. Locullated pleural effusions can shift in the pleural space F. More than 75 ml of fluid blunt the posterior costophrenic angle G. Causes of pleural effusions are silicosis and sarcoidosis H. In large effusions the mediastinum is shifted toward the contolateral part I. On chest x – ray are basal lucencies J. Causes of pleural effusions are tumor, inflammation, trauma Diagnosis of pneumothorax on the chest x-ray requires identification of: A. Pulmonary vessels extend to the visceral pleura B. Radiolucent air space with vascular markings C. Air in the pleural space D. Radiolucent air space separating visceral and parietal pleura E. Liquid in the pleural space F. Opacity separating visceral and parietal pleura  F. Opacity separating visceral and parietal pleura G. Gas in the pleural space H. Opacity without vascular markings I. Radiolucent air space without vascular markings J. Pulmonary vessels extend to the parietal pleura About malignant mesothelioma we can affirm: A. Is associated with asbestos exposure B. Is associated with silicon dioxide exposure C. On the chest x-ray we see lung volume loss D. Is a very aggressive pleural neoplasm E. Affects women more often than men F. Is a benign pleural tumor G. On the chest x-ray we see peripheral lung opacities H. Affects men more often than women I. On the chest x-ray we see pneumothorax J. On the chest x-ray we see peripheral pleural opacities Chest involvement of Hodgkin lymphoma can look like: A. Well defined pleural nodules B. Well defined pulmonary lucencies C. Ill defined pulmonary nodules D. Well defined pulmonary nodules E. Superior mediastinal nodal involvement F. Pleural effusion G. Superior mediastinal nodal involvement H. Pneumothorax I. Parenchymal consolidation J. Kerley B lines About non Hodgkin’ s lymphoma we can say: A. Pulmonary nodules can occur only with adenopathy B. On the chest x-ray there are mediastinal adenopathies C. Pulmonary nodules can occur without adenopathy D. CT is not used for diagnosis E. Is less common than Hodgkin lymphoma F. Extrathoracic spread to nasopharynx can appear G. Extrathoracic spread to nasopharynx cannot appear H. Is more common than Hodgkin lymphoma I. Progression of the disease can be noncontiguous J. On the chest x-ray there are hilar adenopathies Seminoma has on CT examination the following aspect: A. The mass is often homogeneous B. The mass doesn’ t have hemorrhage and necrosis C. Large mass in the anterior mediastinum D. Chest wall invasion is uncommon E. Chest wall invasion is common F. The mass has poorly demarcated borders G. Large mass in the posterior mediastinum H. Calcifications are common I. The mass has sharply demarcated borders J. The mass may have hemorrhage and necrosis Mature teratoma aspect on chest x - ray is the following: A. Large mass in the middle mediastinum B. Large mass in the posterior mediastinum  B. Large mass in the posterior mediastinum C. Large mass in the anterior mediastinum D. Is discovered incidentaly on chest x ray E. The lesion project mainly on one side of the midline F. Calcification and ossification may be seen G. The lesion project on both sides of the midline H. Calcification and ossification do not appear I. Are localized behind the aorta and main pulmonary artery J. Are localized in front of the aorta and main pulmonary artery Mature teratoma pattern on CT is the following: A. Cystic mass B. Large mass in the posterior mediastinum C. Solid mass D. Mass wall doesn t enhance E. Large mass in the anterior mediastinum F. Mass wall may have calcifications G. Mass wall doesn t have calcifications H. Mass wall may enhance I. Mass with thin wall J. Mass with thick wall The following mediastinal lesions can have calcifications: A. Pericardial cysts B. Thymic cysts C. Seminomas D. Mature teratomas E. Thymomas F. Nonseminomatous tumors G. Thyroid masses H. Thymic hyperplasia I. Lymphomas J. Bronchogenic cysts About thymic hyperplasia we may affirm: A. At CT is symmetrical enlargement of the gland B. At CT is a focal enlargement of the gland C. Is the most common anterior mediastinal mass in the pediatric age group D. Is not seen in association with acromegaly E. Is often seen in association with acromegaly F. At CT is asymmetrical enlargement of the gland G. Is not seen in association with myastenia gravis H. Is often seen in association with myastenia gravis I. Is the most common posterior mediastinal mass in the pediatric age group J. At CT is diffuse enlargement of the gland Radiographic and CT features of thymomas are: A. Thymomas are masses in the posterior mediastinum B. Benign thymomas are masses with uniform contrast enhancement C. Benign thymomas are masses with heterogeneous contrast enhancement D. Malignant thymomas have homogeneous attenuation E. Thymomas extend to both sides of the midline F. Malignant thymomas have heterogeneous attenuation G. Benign thymomas are poorly demarcated masses H. Benign thymomas are well demarcated masses I. Thymomas extend to one side of the midline J. Thymomas are masses in the anterior mediastinum  J. Thymomas are masses in the anterior mediastinum Chest x-ray and CT show for intrathoracic goiter the following appearance: A. The mass displaces the trachea B. Well defined regular mass C. Calcifications may be seen D. The mass has no enhancement E. The mass has marked and prolonged enhancement F. Mass in the posterior mediastinum G. Mass in the anterior mediastinum H. Calcifications are never seen I. The mass enlarges the trachea J. Well defined lobulated mass About intrathoracic thyroid carcinoma we can affirm: A. The mass canot be seen on CT B. The mass is well or ill defined C. Mediastinal inavasion suggest malignancys D. The mass doesn t have enhancement E. Areas of calcification o hemorrhage are never seen F. May have areas of calcification o hemorrhage G. The enhancement is peripheral and inhomogeneous H. Mediastinal inavasion doesn t appear I. Lymphadenopaties suggest malignancy J. No lymphadenopathies are present. Parathyroid adenoma has the following pattern on CT and MRI: A. Masses in the posterior mediastinum B. Lesions larger than 2 cm are difficult to differentiate from lymph nodes C. On CT have low signal intensity on T1 D. Lesions larger than 2 cm can be detected by CT E. Lesions smaller than 2 cm can be detected by CT F. Lesions smaller than 2 cm are difficult to differentiate from lymph nodes G. On MRI have high signal intensity on T2 H. On MRI have low signal intensity on T1 I. Masses in the anterior mediastinum J. On CT have high signal intensity on T2 Mediastinal cysts are the following: A. Pericardial cyst B. Esophageal cyst C. Bronchogenic cyst D. Neurogenic tumor E. Necrotic adenopathy F. Policystic lung G. Pancreatic cyst H. Thymic cyst I. Neuroenteric cyst J. Hydatid cyst The pattern of bronchogenic cysts on x -ray are: A. Masses near the carina B. Round masses C. Oval masses D. Masses in the middle mediastinum E. Locatad more commmonly on the left F. Well defined masses  F. Well defined masses G. Locatad more commmonly on the right H. Masses in the anterior mediastinum I. Lobulated defined masses J. Masses away from the carina About pericardial cyst we can affirm: A. The mass is located in the anterior costophrenic angle: B. Is a ill defined mass C. Is an abnormal out pouching of the parietal pericardium D. The mass cannot be demonstrated on imaging studies E. Can be a sequela of endocarditis F. A round mass is demontrated G. Can be a sequela of pericarditis H. Is an abnormal out pouching of the visceral pericardium I. Is a well defined, smooth mass J. The mass is located in the posterior costophrenic angle About intercostal nerve tumors we can say: A. They have an obtuse angle with the vertebral column B. They have an acute angle with the vertebral column C. The masses are well defined and oval D. They are retrosternal masses E. Radiologically they are paravertebral masses F. May erode the sternum G. On CT they have lower attenuation than muscles H. On CT they have water densities I. May erode vertebral bodies J. The masses are ill defined and oval About Castleman’s disease the following are true: A. Chest x-ray show central calcifications B. Cannot affect extrathoracic lymphnodes C. Is a well defined mass in the posterior mediastinum D. On CT can have central calcifications E. Cannot extend into the neck F. Can be multifocal G. Is a well defined mass in the middle mediastinum H. The cause of Castleman’s disease is TB infection I. Can affect extrathoracic lymph nodes J. Is an idiopatic cause of massive lymphadenopaty The tumors located in anterior mediastinum are: A. Intercostal nerve tumors B. Esophageal cyst C. Intrathoracic thyroid carcinoma D. Neuroenteric cyst E. Seminoma F. Bronchogenic cysts G. Thymoma H. Sympathetic ganglia tumors I. Parathyroid adenoma J. Teratoma Methods of examination for the cardio-vascular system are the following: A. Urography B. Angiography  B. Angiography C. Computed tomography D. Cystography E. ERCP F. MRCP G. Nuclear medicine H. Ultrasonography I. Plain tomography J. Magnetic resonance imaging On the chest x-ray, lateral view, the cardio-vascular margins are represented by: A. Posterior – left atrium B. Anterior – superior vena cava C. Anterior – descnding aorta D. Anterior – ascending aorta E. Anterior – left ventricle F. Posterior- right ventricle G. Anterior – right ventricle H. Anterior – main pulmonary artery I. Posterior- left ventricle J. Posterior – right atrium The indications of ultrasonography for the cardio-vascular system are: A. Evaluation of cardiac congenital anomalies B. Evaluation of pericardial effusion C. M-mode is used for ejection fraction D. Evaluation of valvular motion E. Pneumopericardium F. Doppler mode is used to evaluate valvular motion G. Gross determination of ejection fraction H. Evaluation of cardiac tumors I. Coronary artery disease J. Patients with a large amount of pericardial fat On the chest x-ray, postero-anterior view, the cardio-vascular margins are represented by: A. Left – left ventricle B. Right – superior vena cava C. Right – right atrium D. Right – aortic arch E. Right – main pulmonary artery F. Left – ascending aorta G. Right – left atrial appendage H. Left – aortic arch I. Right – inferior vena cava J. Left – decending aorta Chest x-ray findings of for mitral stenosis are the following: A. Left atrium hypertrophy B. Right ventriche hypertrophy C. Pulmonary arterial hypertension D. Pulmonary venous hypertension E. Mitral valve vegetations F. Right atrium hypertrophy G. Mitral valve calcifications H. Kerley lines I. Left ventricle hypertrophy  I. Left ventricle hypertrophy J. Aortic valve calcifications US findings of for mitral stenosis are the following: A. Left ventricular enlargement B. Pulmonary arterial hypertension C. Pulmonary venous hypertension D. Mitral valve vegetations E. Mitral valve calcifications F. Kerley lines G. Left atrium enlargement H. Multiple echoes on mitral valve leaflets I. Right ventricular enlargement J. Right atrium enlargement Plain film features for mitral regurgitation are the following,: A. Normal left atrium B. Enlargement of the left atrium C. Calcification of mitral annulus D. “Big heart disease” (cardiomegaly); E. Mitral valve vegetations F. Normal left ventricle G. Mitral valve prolapse H. Pulmonary arterial hypertension I. Pulmonary venous hypertension J. Enlargement of the left ventricle Plain film and ultrasound features for aortic stenosis are the following: A. Multiple aortic echoes B. Poststenotic dilatation of aorta C. Calcifications of aortic valve D. Left atrium hypertrophy E. Prestenotic dilatation of aorta F. Left ventricular hypertrophy G. Right atrium hypertrophy H. Enlargement of descending aorta I. Right ventricular hypertrophy J. Enlargement of ascending aorta Plain film and ultrasound features for aortic insufficiency are the following: A. Enlarged aorta; B. Enlarged left ventricle C. Normal heart D. Normal left ventricle E. Pulmonary arterial hypertension F. High frequency vibrations of the anterior mitral leaflet; G. Enlarged right ventricle H. Pulmonary venous hypertension I. Atypical valve leaflets; J. Cardiomegaly; Plain film features for atrial septal defect are the following: A. Aortic arch appears large; B. Left atrium enlargement; C. Smaller pulmonary arteries; D. Right ventricle enlargement; E. Clockwise rotation of the heart  E. Clockwise rotation of the heart F. Right atrium enlargement; G. Pulmonary arteries enlargement; H. Normal heart I. Left ventricle enlargement; J. Aortic arch appears small; Radiographic features for coarctation of aorta are the following: A. Increase pulmonary vascularity; B. Poststenotic dilatation of the aorta C. Reverse 3 sign of filled esophagus; D. Left atrium hypertrpphy E. Superior rib notching F. Prestenotic dilatation of the aorta G. Inferior rib notching; H. Right atrium hypertrpphy I. Pulmonary arteries enlargement J. Left ventricular hypertrophy; About tetralogy of Fallot the following statements are true: A. Dilated pulmonary artery B. Small pulmonary artery segment C. Is a left to right shunt D. Big heart disease E. Concave pulmonary artery segment F. Right aortic arch G. Bott - shaped heart H. Convex pulmonary artery segment I. Is a right to left shunt J. Left aortic arch Chest x –ray and US features for Ebstein's anomaly are the following: A. Increased pulmonary vascularity B. Horizontal position of the right ventricle outflow tract C. Left atrium enlagement D. Vertical position of the right ventricle outflow tract E. Displacement of the mitral leaflets F. Displacement of the tricuspid leaflets G. Decreased pulmonary vascularity H. Bott - shaped heart I. Large squared heart; J. Right atrium enlargement; The imaging methods of examination in acute myocardial infarction are: A. Plan film of the abdomen B. Thallium scintigraphy C. Angiography D. MRCP E. I-123 scintigraphy F. Chest CT G. Plan film of the chest H. US I. MRI J. Abdominal CT Radiographic features for left ventricular failure are the following: A. Right atrium enlargement  A. Right atrium enlargement B. Decreased vascular markings in the upper lobes; C. Increased vascular markings in the upper lobes; D. Right ventricular enlargement E. Alveolar edema; F. Pleural effusion G. Kerley A and B lines; H. Dilatation of pulmonary veins. I. Normal pulmonary veins; J. Increased vascular markings in the lower lobes Radiographic features for right ventricular failure are the following: A. Right heart (atrium and ventricule) enlargement B. Alveolar edema C. Decreased tranversal diameter of the heart D. Right atrium enlargement E. Dilatation of pulmonary veins F. Pleural effusion G. Right ventricular enlargement H. Left ventricular enlargement I. Left atrium enlargement J. Increased tranversal diameter of the heart About the tumors of the heart, we can affirm: A. Myxoma is usually in the left atrium B. Myxoma is usually in the right atrium C. One of the malignant tumors is the myxoma. D. Benign and malignant primary cardiac tumors are rare E. One of the benign tumors is the myxoma. F. Benign and malignant primary cardiac tumors are common. G. Chest x - ray is usefull to detect intracardiac tumors H. US and MRI are usefull to detect intracardiac tumors I. Metastatic myocardial tumors are more common than primary tumors J. Metastatic myocardial tumors are less common than primary tumors About pericardial effusion we can affirm: A. On US a hyperechoic image is visible B. Can be given by tumors, inflamation, infection. C. Is an accumulation of air in the pericardium D. The cardiophrenic angle is more accute than normal E. Is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardium F. The method of choice is MRI G. The method of choice is US H. The cardiac silhouette is normal I. The cardiophrenic angle is normal J. The enlargement of the cardiac silhouette is present Radiographic findings of adhesive and constrictive pericarditis are: A. Pleural plaques B. Pulmonary venous hipertension C. Dilated pulmonary arteries D. Calcific plaques in the thickened pericardium E. The heart is large F. Pleural effusion G. Dilated superior vena cava H. The heart is small I. Calcific plaques in the coronary arteries  I. Calcific plaques in the coronary arteries J. Pericardial effusion About percutaneous coronary angioplasty the following are true: A. Complications cannot occur B. The baloon is inflated to a diameter larger than the original diameter of the artery C. Consists of introducing a catheter with a baloon in the stenotic area D. The distension of the baloon cracks arterial wall E. Complications are occlusion and infarcts F. The distension of the baloon cracks the adjacent plaque G. Consists of introducing a contrast medium in the stenotic area H. Is an interventional procedure I. The baloon is inflated to a diameter corresponding to the original diameter of the artery J. Is an nonivasive procedure Methods of examination of the vascular system are the following: A. Lymphangiography; B. Cistography C. MRCP D. Fluoroscopy E. Colangiography F. Computed tomography; G. Phlebography; H. Urography I. Arteriography J. Magnetic resonance imaging; About computed tomography (CT) used for diagnosis of vascular pathology we can affirm: A. Contrast medium injection is desired to evaluate the pathology B. CT demonatrates the wall, lumen of the aorta C. CT characterize lesions that surround aorta D. Coronary arteries are not well demonstrated on CT E. Contrast medium injection is not necessary to evaluate vacular pathology F. CT is not used for evaluation of the aorta G. Any type of vascular pathology may be defined H. Spiral CT is not usefull in vascular pathology I. Coronary arteries are well demonstrated on CT J. CT cannot characterize lesions that surround aorta About arterial occlusive disease we can affirm: A. Acute arterial occlusions are due to obliterative arteriosclerosis B. Proximal aorta occlusion is Leriche syndrome C. Acute arterial thrombosis show on arterioagraphy cutt of the contrast and few collaterals D. For arteriosclerotic disease of the thoracic aorta CT is used E. Chronic arterial occlusions are due to arterial emboli F. Acute arterial occlusions are due to arterial emboli G. Chronic arterial occlusions are due to obliterative arteriosclerosis H. Acute arterial thrombosis show on arterioagraphy cutt of the contrast and many collaterals I. Distal aorta occlusion is Leriche syndrome J. For arteriosclerotic disease of the abdominal aorta CT is used About aneurysms the following sentences are true: A. True aneurysms are caused by the interruption of the intima and media  A. True aneurysms are caused by the interruption of the intima and media B. False aneurysms involve all three layers of the wall C. False aneurysms are caused by trauma D. The main cause of false aneurysms is atherosclerosis E. True aneurysms involve all three layers of the wall F. False aneurysms are cased by the interruption of the intima and media G. Dissecting aneurisms are caused by trauma H. Dissecting aneurisms are caused by Marfan syndrome I. True aneurysms are cased by trauma J. The main cause of true aneurysms is atherosclerosis About atherosclerotic aortic aneurysm we can affirm: A. CT can depict dilatation, intralumonal thrombus B. CT cannot depict dilatation, intralumonal thrombus C. The most common site is the abdominal aorta above renal arteries D. Intravenous contrast material is neccesary for MRI for the diagnosis when we use MRI E. An aneurysm is diagnosed when aorta is larger than 4 cm. F. CT cannot depict perianeurysmal hemorrhage G. The most common site is the abdominal aorta below renal arteries H. An aneurysm is diagnosed when aorta is larger than 2 cm. I. Intravenous contrast material is not neccesary for the diagnosis when we use MRI J. CT can depict perianeurysmal hemorrhage On spiral CT the signs of dissecting aneurysm of the aorta are: A. Most important sign is the intimal flap B. A triangular filling defect C. The splitting of the aorta D. Most important sign is the splitting of the aorta E. Two contrast –filled channels F. A linear filling defect G. Intimal flap H. One contrast –filled channel I. Normal intim J. Most important sign is the intimal flap About angiography we can affirm: A. Coronary angiography has 0,5% mobidity B. Angiography is indicated for evaluation of patients with coronary artery disease before surgery C. Among the complications of angiography is heart failure D. Angiography is indicated for evaluation of patients with coronary artery disease when noninvasive examination is diagontic E. Coronary angiography has 4,5% mobidity F. Angiography is indicated for evaluation of patients with coronary artery disease when noninvasive examination is equivocal G. The femoral arterial approach is preferred by radiologists H. Angiography is indicated for evaluation of patients with coronary artery disease only after surgery I. The femoral arterial approach is preferred by cardiologists J. Among the complications of angiography is myocardial infarction About ventricular septal defect we can affirm: A. If the shunt is significant, pulmonary arteries are enlarged B. If the shunt is significant, pulmonary arteries are normal C. In small to moderate defects patients are asymptomatic D. If the shunt is significant, left atrium is enlarged  D. If the shunt is significant, left atrium is enlarged E. In small ventricular septal defect the chest x-ray is normal F. This congenital cardiac lesion is not so common G. In moderate ventricular septal defect the chest x-ray is normal H. If the shunt is significant, right atrium is enlarged I. Is the most common congenital cardiac lesion J. In large defects patients are asymptomatic About cardiomyopathies the following statements are true: A. On chest x-ray the heart is normal B. The heart is unable to contract during diastole in dilated cardiomyopathy C. In case of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy left ventricular outflow is obstructed D. The heart is unable to contract during systole in dilated cardiomyopathy E. Decreased contractility appears F. Increased contractility appears G. In case of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy right ventricular outflow is obstructed H. The heart is unable to dilate during diastole in restricted cardiomyopathy I. The heart is unable to dilate during systole in restricted cardiomyopathy J. On chest x-ray there is cardiac enlargement The indications of embolization procedures are: A. Is used to remove the arterial blood clots B. Chemo-embolization of gastric tumors C. To stop bleeding of tumors D. Treatment of traumatic bleeding E. Chemo-embolization of renal tumors F. Chemo-embolization of bone tumors G. Chemo-embolization of liver tumors H. To treat pulmonary embolism I. Treatment of iatrogenic bleeding J. Is not used in treatment of bleeding The methods of examination used in radiology and medical imaging for oesophagus are: A. Computer-tomography; B. MRI; C. Esophagoclisis; D. Chest X-ray; E. Endoscopic ultrasound; F. Endoscopy; G. Swallow study; H. Scintigraphy; I. Barium enema; J. Barium meal; In relation with esophageal pathology Chest X-ray may detect: A. Postcaustic stenosis; B. Mass posterior to the heart; C. Mediastinal emphysema; D. Position of dilatation catheter or prosthesis; E. Hemorhage; F. Esophageal cancer; G. Fistula with the airways; H. Radio-opaque foreign bodies; I. Radio-lucent foreign body; J. Air-fluid levels; About barium examination (barium meal) is true: A. Double contrast technique is best suited for spasm and contractility disorders; B. Is the most important radiological examination of the esophagus; C. Single contrast examination allows for detailed radiographic evaluation of the mucosa; D. It evaluates motility, gastroesophageal reflux and luminal configuration; E. Double contrast technique permits detailed radiographic evaluation of the mucosa; F. Double contrast technique is useful for detecting active bleeding; G. Is not needed anymore because it was replaced by endoscopy; H. Motility is evaluated fluoroscopically; I. Single contrast examinations are suited for detecting intraluminal masses, esophageal diverticula, spasm and contractility disorders; J. When active bleeding is suspected we use non-ionic iodinated contrast; Radiological findings in achalasia are: A. Non-peristaltic contraction may be seen with mild to moderate dilatation of esophagus; B. On the Chest x-ray in supine position an air-fluid level can be seen in the thoracic esophagus; C. On the Chest x-ray in upright position an air-fluid level can be seen in the thoracic esophagus; D. Peristalsis is typically absent in the entirep esophageal body; E. With mild to moderate dilatation peristalsis alternates with non-peristaltic contractions; F. Due to the LES failure to completely relax the end portion of esophagus exhibits the appearance of a peptic stenosis; G. Non-peristaltic contraction may be seen with severe dilatation of esophagus; H. With severe dilatation the esohagus is usually atonic; I. Peristalsis is typically present in the esophageal body except in the distal end; J. The area of the lower sficter often has a bird beak appearance; About motility disorders we can state: A. Peristalsis is present down to, but not beyond, the aortic arch level in all motility disorders because in this segment there are striate muscles; B. Achalasia is a secondary motility disorder; C. Aperistalsis is only present in achalasia; D. Alcoholism never gives motility disorder of esophagus; E. Diffuse esophageal spasm manifests with obliterating non peristaltic contractions resulting in a shishkebab esophageal configuration; F. Diffuse esophagial spasm is a secondary motility disorder usually due to alcoholism; G. The easiest manifestation to recognize in secondary motility disorders is aperistaltis; H. Chalasia is a primary motility disorder; I. Motility disorder due to scleroderma manifests with normal peristalsis down to, but not beyond, the aortic arch level; J. Achalasia is a primary motility disorder; Regarding esophageal diverticula the following stands true: A. Small esohageal diverticula may present as transient outpouching only seen with peristalsis; B. Esophageal diverticula are acquired rather than congenital) and most of the time represent mucosal herniation through the muscularis – pulsion diverticula; C. The most common pulsion diverticula is Zencker diverticula just above the lower esophageal sphincter; D. Most common diverticula are located proximal to the UES (Zencker) and epiphrenic  D. Most common diverticula are located proximal to the UES (Zencker) and epiphrenic diverticula just above the LES; E. Complications are usually inflammatory, sometimes perforation or rupture, never malignancy; F. Common appearance of traction diverticula is conic, with a neck and usually in the abdominal segment of the esophagus; G. Most common diverticula are traction diverticula; H. On barium studies only small to mild diverticula may be always seen while the large one are many times obscured by food remnants; I. Pulsion diverticula are round-oval outpouching of the mucosa, which may retain barium when large; J. Traction diverticula occur in mid esophagus, are conic and have no neck at barium study; About esophageal perforation/rupture we can state: A. Fluoroscopic examinations with hydro soluble contrast is not useful except in large perforations; B. Frequent cause is Boerhaave syndrome; C. On plain films we can see mediastinal emphysema because of swallow air dissecting into mediastinum; D. Tends to occur on the left side of lower esophagus and may extend into left pleural space showing on plain films mediastinal lower density and pleural effusion; E. Boerhave syndrome cannot lead to esophageal rupture; F. Fluoroscopic examination with a water- soluble contrast material or barium confirms the diagnosis, showing extravasations in the area of rupture; G. Tends to occur on the right side of middle esophagus and may extend into right pleural space showing enlargement of mediastinum on the right contiguous with pleural effusion on chest X-ray H. Mediastinal emphysema is seen only with major trauma; I. Usually, no abnormality may be detected on plain films; J. May occur in major trauma; About hiatus hernia the following stands true: A. May be associated with reflux esophagitis; B. Part of the stomach and cardia herniated into the thorax in paraesophgeal type; C. The most reliable sign being the visualization of gastric folds above the diaphragm; D. Gastroesofageal reflux never associates with hiatal hernia; E. CT is the best method of examination for uncomplicated hiatal hernias F. Part of the stomach and cardia herniated into the thorax in sliding type; G. The most reliable sign is passage of contrast from stomach to mediastinum H. A portion of the stomach herniated through the hiatus, but the cardia remains normally located in paraesophgeal type; I. Barium examination is the best method for demonstrating a hiatus hernia; J. A portion of the stomach herniated through the hiatus, but the cardia remains normally located in sliding type; Radiological signs suggestive of esophagitis: A. Traction diverticula; B. Gastroesophageal reflux with hiatal hernia; C. Pulsion diverticula; D. Diffuse ulceration with strictures; E. Gastric folds above the diaphragm; F. String sign; G. Nodularity, thickened folds; H. Narrowing of the esophageal lumen; I. Skip lesions;  I. Skip lesions; J. Erosions of the mucosa; Caustic esophagitis radiological signs we can find: A. Sudden change in calibre; B. Skip lesions; C. Absence of peristaltis; D. String sign; E. Blurred margins of the esophagus; F. Contour irregularities; G. Traction diverticula; H. Short eccentric strictures; I. Are more prominent when caused by alkaline agents, compared with acids; J. Long strictures; About esophageal leiomyoma we can state: A. On contrast studies rarely, present as lobulated or pedunculated lesion; B. May present as large bulky lesions that have a sausage-like intraluminal mass; C. Most common location is in the proximal esophagus and dysphagia is the prevalent clinical symptom; D. On contrast studies usually demonstrate a smooth filling defect.; E. Ulceration is common; F. Pedunculation is common; G. Rare tumor of the esophagus; H. Is the most common benign tumor of the esophagus; I. On chest films are occasionally detected as a soft tissue mediastinal density, mediastinal widening or a calcified mass; J. Usually occur as solitary masses in the distal third of the esophagus; Barium meal appearance of esophageal cancer: A. Bulky endophytic mass, large ulceration; B. Long symmetric stricture; C. Frequent assume the aspect of a small sessile esophageal polyp; D. Pedunculation is a common aspect; E. Annular apple-core lesion with overhanging margins for advanced tumors; F. Irregular narrowed segment, smooth tapering stricture; G. Mediastinal widening, a soft tissue mass, an esophageal gas-fluid level, anterior tracheal bowing; H. Small lesions of less than 1 ,5 cm may show as mound-like sessile polyps or a patch of mucosal irregularity; I. Lobulated sessile 1 ,5 to 3 cm lesions that are eccentric and may show evidence of ulceration for moderate size lesions; J. Absence of peristaltis and long strictures; About plain films of the abdomen we may say: A. Given so little information is not needed anymore; B. Shows large ulcers because of high accumulation of air; C. If it is normal we can skip barium meal and make a CT; D. It shows both radioopaque and radiolucent foreign bodies; E. Radio-opaque foreign bodies; F. It is mandatory before barium meal to exclude pneumoperitoneum and bowel obstruction; G. Pneumoperitoneum suggests perforation of a hollow viscus, including the stomach; H. Distended stomach with fluid, food and air may suggest gastroparesis and pyloric obstruction; I. When air bubble of the stomach is missing it means complete obstruction of the esohagus  esohagus J. Displacement of the stomach air bubble may suggest a mass in the upper abdomen; About barium meal stands true: A. The biphasic method, is more sensitive for the detection of peptic ulcer disease than then either simple and double contrast alone; B. The patient must be fasting for at least four hours before, because even small amounts of fluid or oral medications interfere with the study; C. Is a radiographic examination of the esophagus, stomach and duodenum with oral administered barium suspension; D. The patient is examined in erect frontal and oblique positions; E. In the era of endoscopy is no longer necessary; F. Simple contrast studies are usually adequate for the detection of gastric and duodenal ulcers, polyps and masses greater than 1 to 2 cm, larger submucosal masses, gastric outlet obstruction, spasm, strictures and motility disorders of the stomach; G. The double contrast technique provides better demonstration of mucosal detail better demonstrating small erosions and polyps less then 1 cm; H. Double contrast is only necessary for staging; I. There are no special requirements for the examination; J. Single contrast is fine for all categories of lesions; About methods of examination used for stomach in radiology and imaging: A. Endoscopic ultrasound is accurate in the T and N staging of gastric adenocarcinoma and 0the confirmation of linitis plastica; B. Conventional ultrasonography is accurate in the T and N staging of gastric adenocarcinoma; C. Barium meal is detecting position and motility disorders, ulcers and benign or malignant tumors; D. CT is useful for cancer staging, detection of perforation and active bleeding; E. Plain film is obsolete and useless; F. There is no benefit from double contrast barium meal; G. CT plays no role in detecting active bleeding; H. Plain film of the abdomen is still useful but limited in information; I. Angiography is performed tor the evaluation and potential treatment of gastric or duodenal bleeding; J. If perforation is not detected by a plain film, CT is unnecessary; The term gastritis is used to describe a variety of lesions of the gastric mucosa, for which the radiological aspect may be: A. Enlargement of gastric folds is the hallmark of hypertrophic gastropathy regardless of type; B. Flat erosions without surrounding edema in early corrosive gastritis; C. Inflammatory mass in the stomach with varioliform erosion in hypertrophic gastritis; D. Varioliform erosion, which is located centrally on a small mound of edema in erosive gastritis; E. Tubular stomach with the greater and lesser curvatures roughly parallel in tertiary syphilitic gastritis; F. Large ulcers in late phase of erosive gastritis; G. Absence of folds on the greater curvature and fundus and a tubular stomach with the greater and lesser curvatures roughly parallel in atrophic gastritis; H. Inflammatory mass in the stomach with superficial erosions and enlarged mucosal folds in infectious gastritis due to secondary syphilis; I. Funnel-shape antrum with diminished or absent peristalsis in atrophic gastritis; J. Mucosal folds edema, atony, dilatation, ulcers, intramural gas and perforations in  J. Mucosal folds edema, atony, dilatation, ulcers, intramural gas and perforations in early corrosive gastritis; Radiologic features of the peptic ulcers: A. The diagnostic hallmark of peptic ulceration is the identifiable presence of a fixed niche or collection that is unchanging in size or location; B. Ulcers on the anterior wall are seen en-face, filled with barium on supine position; C. Viewed in profile, barium-filled peptic ulcers are seen as unchanging barium collections that typically project beyond the lumen; D. With double-contrast examination, the coated ulcer may be radiographed either filled or empty; E. Radiating folds are entering within the collection of barium, best seen in double contrast; F. In simple-contrast barium meal ulcers are generally identified as barium·collections that may be radiographed en face, obliquely or in profile; G. There is no peristalsis on the wall harbouring peptic ulcer; H. The typical location is on the posteromedial wall next to the cardia; I. In old ulcers the radiating folds may become fused, or became nodular in appearance; J. Ulcers on the posterior wall are filled with barium and viewed en-face, they appear as barium collections that may have associated radiating folds; Radiologic features of the peptic ulcers: A. A ulcer mound larger the a collar, but smooth and sharply delineated with the collection of barium centrally within; B. The ulcer collar, a thicker lucent band representing a mild or moderate extent of edema and inflammatory reaction surrounding the ulcer; C. There is no peristalsis on the wall harboring peptic ulcer; D. The Hampton line, a thin, sharply delineated lucency 1 mm in width, traversing the orifice of the ulcer; E. Radiating folds which are smooth and symmetric up to the ulcer bed if the inflammation is little or more peripherally if the inflammation is significant; F. The size range of peptic ulcer is typically 2-10 cm; G. Radiating folds are entering within the collection of barium, best seen in double contrast; H. Ulcers on the anterior wall are seen en-face, filled with barium on supine position; I. Clubbing, nodulari1ty or fusion of radiating folds signify very severe inflammation; J. When viewed empty on double contrast studies the ulcer appears as a ring shadow; Radiologic features of a complicated ulcer: A. Pneumoperitoneum - perforation; B. Pneumoperitoneum – penetration of ulcer into the pancreas; C. A filling defect within the ulcer – malignant transformation; D. Atony as an indirect sign of perforation E. Halo sign in double contrast studies; F. A filling defect within the ulcer – blood clot; G. Extravasation of contrast media – active bleeding; H. Lava flow pattern in double contrast studies – active bleeding; I. Obstruction at pylorus nearby due to scaring and consecutive stenosis J. Halo sign in single contrast – penetration; About advanced gastric cancer imaging we may state: A. Ulcerative form shows barium collection with irregular, raised margins, extending toward the lumen of the stomach; B. Ulcerative form shows Hampton sign and collar sign; C. Rounded filing defect with regular and smooth borders;  D. Linitis plastica demonstrate a specific aspect - "leatherbottle" stomach; E. Local staging is better achieved by CT or endoscopic ultrasound; F. Infiltrative form rigidity and narrowing of the lumen; G. There is virtually no difference between advanced and early-stage category III; H. Polypoid form shows a filling defect with irregular borders; I. Linitis plastica shows giant rugal folds with ulcerations; J. Radiating folds in ulcerative form; About methods of examination used for duodenum in radiology and imaging: A. US, CT ERCP are used for imaging periampullary region; B. Double-contrast examination of the duodenal bulb is obtained with the patient erect, the right posterior oblique view; C. Barium meal is the initial imaging technique of choice in most cases of suspected duodenal abnormalities; D. Ecoendoscopy can be used for imaging the wall of duodenum and nearby structures and guiding biopsy; E. Tubeless double-contrast hypotonic duodenography is easily obtain without drug- induced hypotonia; F. Double-contrast examination of the duodenal bulb is obtained with the patient supine, the left posterior oblique view; G. There is no benefit from double contrast barium meal; H. Barium meal is no longer used because it was replaced by endoscopy; I. Plain films can’t reveal any useful information concerning duodenal ulcer; J. Tubeless double-contrast hypotonic duodenography is obtain using glucagon 0.1- 0.3 mg, IV; Radiological aspect of duodenal ulcer include: A. Extensive fold thickening and spasm only in duodenal bulb lesion; B. Ring stricture suggestive of annular pancreas when located on the posterior wall of the bulb; C. Severe peptic scaring and shrinking with deformed duodenal bulb in sclerous form; D. Collection of barium and edema in edematous form; E. Association with radiating folds and deformity; F. Collection of barium, edema and deformity in edematosclerous form; G. Normal appearance at barium meal requiring CT; H. Fixed barium collections or rings commonly on the anterior wall; I. Post-bulbar location frequent; J. Single large barium collection is associated with Zolllinger-Ellison syndrome; About benign tumors of the duodenum the following statements are true: A. Villous adenoma may be pedunculated; B. In most cases the radiological appearance suffices for definite diagnosis; C. Leiomyomas occur as an extraluminal, intramural or endoluminal mass; D. Adenomatous polyps are usually small and may be pedunculated or sessile; E. Villous adenoma has a low incidence of malignant degeneration; F. Most common are adenomas, leiomyomas and lipomas; G. Lipomas may grow to a large size and they are visualized if are molded by the wall of the bowel; H. Villous adenomas have a characteristic appearance of cauliflower or soap bubble; I. Adenomatous polyps have typical location in periampullary region; J. Ulceration is rare with endoluminal leiomyomas; About malignant tumors of the duodenum the following statements are true: A. Ulceration is common with leiomyosarcomas; B. Carcinoid tumor or carcinoid islet tumor radiological appearance may vary from a benign intramural mass to a large, bulky, ulcerating lesion;  benign intramural mass to a large, bulky, ulcerating lesion; C. Leiomyosarcoma appear as a polypoid lesion; D. Adenocarcinoma is frequently seen as an intramural mass; E. Adenocarcinomas in the duodenum are usually seen as polypoid, stenosing or ulcerating lesions; F. Leiomyosarcoma is easily differentiated from adenocarcinoma because of cauliflower appearance; G. The sites of ·predilection of malignant tumors are the periampullary and infraampullary parts of the duodenum; H. Most frequent malignant tumors in duodenum are metastases; I. Malignant lymphomas may show nodularity together with thickened folds or with a constrictive lesion; J. Stenosis is common with carcinoid tumor; About conventional X-ray examinations of the small bowel the following are true: A. Enteroclysis should be used as the primary method in most instances; B. Small bowel enema is a method of examination that requires intubations of the stomach; C. Dedicated single contrast small bowel examination is capable of detecting most disease of the small bowel; D. Enteroclysis is seldom used because tube insertion is very invasive compared with the results; E. Plain film of the abdomen is still useful for prompt diagnosis of small bowel obstruction; F. Dedicated single contrast small bowel examination is only indicated for detecting tumors of the small bowel; G. Small bowel enema is a method of examination that requires intubations of the fourth part of the duodenum; H. Small bowel follow-through is inadequate; I. Because of the rarity of small bowel disease small bowel follow-through usually suffice as the primary method of examination; J. Plain film of the abdomen is still the most valuable radiographic study for bowel infarction; Dedicated single contrast small bowel examination: A. Is a continuation of the barium meal examination; B. Fluoroscopic monitoring, compression spot films and taken overhead films is required; C. Cannot detect small ulcerations, which would require a double contrast study; D. Compression view are not necessary since the whole examination is done in thin layer technique; E. Is a completely separate examination from barium meal; F. Is more friendly then enteroclysys because of the small amount of barium required, about 250 ml like the barium meal; G. For single contrast examination, 600 - 900 ml of barium suspension is administered orally; H. Peristaltic activity, mucosal folds and intraluminal filling defects are evaluated; I. Is capable of detecting only tumors of the small bowel, thus being of limited value; J. Small ulcerations may be detected, but double contrast techniques is superior for tiny ulcerations in Crohn disease; Enteroclysis is: A. Using a large amount of gastrografin instead of barium suspension, because with high distension the risk of perforation increases; B. Taken overhead films at half-hour or longer intervals; C. Providing excellent distention of small bowel with demonstration of the mucosal  C. Providing excellent distention of small bowel with demonstration of the mucosal detail; D. Is indicated to be used as the primary method in most instances of small bowel diseases; E. Also called small bowel enema; F. The primary method used for detection of small bowel infarction; G. A method of examination that requires intubations of the fourth part of the duodenum; H. Using a large amount of barium or a double contrast study with barium and methylcellulose solutions is injected through the tube; I. For single contrast examination, 600 - 900 ml of barium suspension is administered orally; J. Indicated only when small bowel follow-through is inadequate; About the use of sectional imaging for small bowel pathology we may state: A. CT performance in diagnosing small bowel disease largely depends on the degree to which the small bowel is filled with contrast material; B. The use of MRI is somewhat limited by respiratory and peristaltic artifacts; C. Extraluminal abscesses, omental and mesenteric masses may be identified, as well as enlarged lymph nodes may be identified by US, CT and MRI; D. Presence of bowel gas and feces prevents ultrasound from being used for small bowel pathology; E. Despite the presence of gas and feces abnormal bowel loops can be imaged with ultrasound when there is thickening of the wall; F. CT depicts clearly the intramural and extramural extension of the disease and is useful to stage the malignant tumors of the small bowel; G. US depicts clearly the intramural and extramural extension of the disease; H. Optimal contrast for bowel distension at CT is 400-600 ml of barium suspension; I. For optimal filling in CT examination, only 400- 600 ml of a 2% solution of contrast medium 45 minutes is needed to be administered orally before the examination; J. Combination between US and enteroclysys suffice for the diagnosis of all small bowel pathology; Radiographic features of Crohn disease: A. Distribution of lesions on antimesenteric side of bowel; B. Mucosal folds are thickened and may appear blurred, straightened, irregular and in some cases fused or nodular; C. Filling defects; D. Thinning and loosening of the mesentery; E. Microbowel; F. All the lesions are of same age; G. The string sign - characterizes the tubular narrowing of the intestinal lumen; H. Pinpoint fleck of barium in the centre of a round filling defect suggesting aphtous ulcers in frontal view; I. Ulceronodular pattern – cobblestone appearance; J. Fine granular pattern due to mucosal and submucosal edema; About imaging in Crohn disease we may say: A. There are no decisive features for diagnosing Chron disease; B. The radiographic appearance is typical and pose no differential diagnosis issues; C. CT clearly detect the abscesses, and may serve as a guidance tool for interventional procedures; D. CT plays no role in diagnosis, only in guiding interventional procedures; E. Lymph nodes are clearly visible at enteroclysis; F. Tendency for lesions to appear preferentially on the mesenteric side of the bowel and to show an asymmetric distribution is a fundamental characteristic;  and to show an asymmetric distribution is a fundamental characteristic; G. CT will show the thickened bowel wall, mesenteric streaking and lymph nodes; H. Is found predominantly in the jejunum; I. CT is the most accurate radiological modality for detection of enterovesical fistulas. J. There is gradation in the severity of lesions which is a fundamental characteristic; About single contrast barium enema the following are true: A. Spot films with compression of the areas of interest are taken under fluoroscopic guidance; B. Is used for detection of small polyps and fine ulcerations; C. Is performed by instilling high-density barium into the rectum and colon to coat the mucosa while the lumen is filled with air; D. Is used for detection of masses greater than 1 cm, intussusception, volvulus, diverticulosis; E. At the end of the examination the patient is allowed to evacuate the barium and the lumen is distended with air; F. Large overhead films of the filled colon are taken in a variety of projections; G. Is performed by inserting a small rectal tube and instilling low density barium into the rectum and colon; H. Films are taken also after barium is evacuated; I. After filling the colon with barium enema a single overhead film of the entire abdomen is taken; J. Provides excellent detail of the mucosa; About double contrast barium enema the following are true: A. Large overhead films of the distend colon are taken in a variety of projections; B. Is performed by inserting a small rectal tube and instilling low density barium into the rectum and colon; C. Is performed by instilling high-density barium into the rectum and colon to coat the mucosa while the lumen is filled with air; D. Severe recent disease (myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident) are not contraindications. E. Masses greater than 1 cm are not detected; F. Detection of intussusception is the second most common indication; G. Spot films with compression of the areas of interest are taken; H. Can become complicated with perforation due to overinflation; I. It is the best approach for detecting small polyps, fine ulcerations, and granularity of the mucosa; J. Provides excellent detail of the mucosa; Diseases of the colon benefits from sectional imaging: A. CT is the method of choice for the imaging of the extramural colorectal disease; B. Transabdominal ultrasound is used for staging colon neoplasms; C. MRI is useful in detecting fistulae and abscesses and also in staging of colon cancer; D. Transrectal ultrasonography distinguishes among the different layers of the rectal wall; E. Transabdominal ultrasound is used for guiding biopsies of rectal lesions; F. Transabdominal ultrasound may be useful in the diagnosis of paracolic abscesses; G. CT is used only for staging neoplasms of the colon; H. CT main indications are the staging of neoplasm and the assessment of paracolic inflammation and abs