Radiotherapy Past Paper PDF

test 2 Would you recommend adjuvant radiotherapy in patient with breast cancer after mastectomy in stage pT2pNOcMO a. Yes, with total dose 50 Gy Yes, with total dose 60 Gy Hypofractionated radiotherapy No Would you recommend postoperative radiotherap...

test 2 Would you recommend adjuvant radiotherapy in patient with breast cancer after mastectomy in stage pT2pNOcMO a. Yes, with total dose 50 Gy Yes, with total dose 60 Gy Hypofractionated radiotherapy No Would you recommend postoperative radiotherapy after mastectomy for this stage breast cancer pT1a pNo cM0? Yes b. No What is the imaging standard in multiple sclerosis? a. MRI B-lines of kerley are a sign for: a. Basal pneumofibrosis in ‘cor pulmonale’ Hemosiderosis in mitral valve c.- Interstitial pulmonary edema Peribronchitis Which are typical for malignant bone lesions? a. Periosteal reaction Osteosclerotic rim around focal lesion Thinning of the bone d. Changes in soft tissue During angiographic procedures the following is being used a. Seldinger wire technique Doppler ultrasonography Trocar technique The usual prescribed radiation dose for lymphoma is Total dose 50 Gy Total dose 10 Gy c. Total dose 30-40 Gy Total dose 60 Gy What is your standard EBRT dose for postoperative radiotherapy for breast cancer? A40Gyin20 50Gyin25 66Gyin33 Other Which joints are most commonly affected in ankylosing spondylitis: sacroiliac (SI) joints and spine Regarding MRCP which of the following are true a. No contrast and T2 weighted b. no contrast media is needed uses ionizing radiation needs contrast media application VCUG is: a. X-ray based method with the use of intraluminal CM X-ray based method with the use of intravenous CM CT based method without the use of CM Treatment machine for radiotherapy is: Computed tomography b. Linear accelerator PET/CT MRI Which of the following X-ray symptoms is missing in the rheumatoid arthritis Osteoporosis Osteolysis c. Sequestration Subluxation When the linear accelerator beam is switched off in the treatment room: a. None of the above There is a risk of staff exposure Ionising radiation is generated Has a radioactive background Which of the following tumors are radiosensitive? Liposarcoma Schwanoma c. Seminoma Spinocellular carcinoma - moderately differentiated Which are late reactions in radiotherapy regarding breast cancer dry skin desquam wet skin desquam Erythema d. Fibrosis Radio Negative contrast Barium b. Air Iodine The multimodal Linear accelerator generates Electrons and protons b. X-photons and electrons Gamma rays and electrons Photons Bone scintigraphy could be: a. Planar whole-body scintigraphy Static c. Dynamic The avascular necrosis of the femoral head is named also: a. Morbus perthes Morbus gunther Morbus kohler II Morbus scheuermann Which MRI sequence is most useful in the diagnosis of Acute ischemic stroke: Susceptibility weighted imaging (SWI) T2 FLAIR c. Diffusion weighted imaging( DWI) T2 Fat Sat. How long CT needs: a. 30-40 min Which structure is NOT affected in ankylosing spondylitis Spinal ligaments Sacro-iliacjoints Intervertebral discs d. Intervertebral joints Direct ionizing radiation is All of the above b. Electrons and protons Photons and neutrons Gamma rays Early sign of radiotherapy a. Skin erythema What can cause one side of lung to go hyper dense (multiple answers)? Pulmonary oedema b. pleural effusion Pneumothorax d. atelectasis Which is most radiosensitive? Sarcoma prostate cancer Glioblastoma d. seminoma Air bubble sign is: a. Two air bubbles in abdomen and normal gas in … Two air bubbles in abdomen… One air bubble in abdomen.. What is not visible on X-ray a. corpus callous Pons os lunatum First line imaging for jaundice: MRCP US CT MRI Bone scintigraphy for Osteoblastic Osteolytic Mixed Radio negative gallstones appear in ultrasound Hyperechoic Hypoechoic Anechoic Which of the following is a typical sign of benign bone tumor ? Thinning and ballooning of the cortex Soft tissue component Cortical destruction Discontinuous type of periosteal reaction - Periosteal reaction is typical for: bone metastasis Myeloma Osteosarcoma Osteoma - The following methods given information for kidney function Echography Intravenous urography Retrograde pyelography Radionucleid studies A+c  B+d - Osteolysis is a process in which: Only osteoblasts and osteoclasts (the organic components) of the bone are killed The number and thickness of bone beams decreases All the component elements of bone tissue are destroyed - On a face roentgenogram of the chest the left cardiac contour is formed by: Aortic arch, left branch of arteira pulmonalis, left ventricle Superior vena cava, left ventricle, left atrium Aortic arch, truncus pulmonalis, left ventricle Descending aorta, truncus pulmonalis, left ventricle Aortic arch, truncus pulmonalis left atrium - Radiofrequency ablation is a technique used to treat: Esophageal varices Liver tumors Benign adipose tissue tumors MS + spinal cord: MRI no Contrast Malignant Bone lesion: discontinuous pericardial reaction + ? Tetralogy of fallot: pulmonary hypervolemia or hypertension Breast cancer T2N0T0 after mastectomy radiotherapy ? Yes, with total dose 50 Gy Radioisotope for prostate / bone: for bone Tc-99m Periosteal reaction is typical for: Osteosarcoma Pancreas head CA symptoms: eher jaundice als pain Diagnosis MS: MRI or lumbar puncture For what is Barium contrast medium used? upper and lower GI series barium swallow - upper: hiatal hernia, GERD, ulcers lower: barium enema: ulcers, polyps, colorectal cancer, IBD - fluoroscopy in general Which structures enhance T1/T2 What are kerley B lines - sign for basal pneumofibrosis in cor pulmonale - interstitial pulmonary edema thin linear opacities, thickening in lungs - pulmonary edema Late signs of radiotherapy: fibrosis and radiation dermatitis. stenosis Benign / malignant bone lesions For what is seldinger technique used: catherization and conventional angiography, access to blood vessels and hollow organs Breast cancer - what grey 40-50 gy Lymphoma, what grey, 30-40 Ankylosing Spondylitis -Sacroiliac Angiograhy Brain without contrast: MRA or CTA Which one uses contrast: VCUG, MRCP Which contrast is used in MRI? T1- weighted and T2-weighted contrasts What measures low Bone density? - DEXA scan What measures Kidney function? -VCUG, Ultrasound, IVU - creatinine and bun blood serum Liver, center hypodense —> Hemangioma Lateral acceleration: m/ s hoch 2 Breast cancer dosage - 50 Gy (x-ray sign of air bronchogram is seen in pneumonia ) What's used for therapy -> linear accelerator Osteolysis is a process in which: the number and thickments of bone beams decrease missing in rheumatoid arthritis: sequestration what is the correct order of tissue densities: Air — fat — fluid — soft tissue — bone Meningioma properties (multiple answers): extraaxial tumors and typically enhances avidly and homogenously What can cause one side of lung to go hyper dense (multiple answers) ? pleural effusion and atelectasis Waves used for therapy - x-rays, gamma rays What happens when radiation's machines are off? Background radiation, nothing happens, still exposure to some radiation, none of above - test 1 Most radiosensitive? Sarcoma, prostate cancer, glioblastoma, seminoma CTV full form - computed tomography venography Which are late reactions in radiotherapy regarding breast cancer —> fibrosis correct What is the meaning of SRS? - stereotactic radiosurgery How is a visible Tumor called? clinically evident tumor or visible mass?? Photons are: gamma 3D conformed radiotherapy… Batwing sign… - consolidation or opacification associated with pulmonary edema, pneumonia, bronchiolitis Air bubble sign is: -Two air bubbles in abdomen and normal gas in … -two Two air bubbles in abdomen… -one air bubble in abdomen.. -one air bubble in abdomen… What type of picture did you have? Kidney nephrosis Golden S sign Pacemaker picture Hydronephrosis Aortic dissection Variant/Test 3 -contraindication mri: Metall object in eye -Negative X-ray agents for ct and fluoroscopy: air and water - Linear accelator uses: X-ray/ photons -Are gallstones seen on abdominal X-ray? no bc not dense enough.. if calcified sometimes- US and CT for gallstones -bilateral alveolar edema ddx -> bilateral alveolar pneumonia - Thyroid scintigraphy more often planar or dynamic scan -> planar(static) -Which part of bones does rickets in children effect: growth planes - Multiple osteosclerotic lesions in man older than 69 old most commonly due to prostate cancer metastases -what is a pathological fracture -> occur in abnormal bone spontaneously after trauma -simple cyst on CT -> Hypodense. non-enhancing lesion -seldinger technique used for: Conventional angiography -carcinoma of head of pancreas mostly present with -> Pain or jaundice (one only correct) -Which modality used for multiple sclerosis MRI and lumbar puncture -> MRI with contrast or without -Perthes disease: avascular necrosis of proximal femur -MRI urography with either contrast or not Barium used for: GIT studies Acute appendicitis: a contrast needed, b. can help but not really needed contraindicated Dynamic ct urography for: anatomy radionuclides(@) A. alpha B. beta C. gamma particles a+b+c - all What is vcug used for: bladder What is not visible on X-ray: A corpus callosum, B pons, C os lunatum First line imaging for jaundice: A mrcp, B us, C ct, D mri Pet ct best used for: A hodgkin lymphoma, B malt,C cns lymphoma Bone scintigraphy for: osteoblastic, osteolytic or mixed ? What of the options imaging is interventional? CT angiography CTA or IR and Fluoroscopy Meningioma is@: extraaxial and typ. enhances avidly and homogenously Tetralogy of fallot: pulmonary oligemia Imaging MS: MRI Acute ischemic stroke which imaging: DWI Imaging of brain hemorrhage after non contrast CT: mri How long CT needs: 30-40 min Degeneration and arthritis of facet joint is: spondylosis Not affected in ankylosing spondylitis: intervertebral joint Which is an indirectly ionizing particle: electrons, photons, protons Electrons used for radiation of: superficial skin tumors Indications for palliative radiotherapy: brain metastases, vena cava compression syndrome, uterine bleeding , malignant bone pain, all of the above Radionuclide imaging for: morphology, function, both Radio negative gallstones appear in ultrasound: hyperechoic Imaging bone marrow edema: T1,T2, T2 fat suppressed sequence Retake, 05.02: Picture: choledochlithiasis (ductus ) - hydrocephalus - lung embolism -bamboo sign - spondylitis arth - morbus br.. - picture skull: osteoporosis, osteosclerosis oder lyric lesions -heart margins : aortic arch, left ventricle -bowel disease picture (small bowel und eins mit large bowel disease - eventuell obstruction) -lung picture complete cloudy -> heart ok congestion, pleural effusion, pneumonia -lung picture eine Seite cloudy mit stark verzichteten Stellen-> pneumonia or atelektasis - old questions: - woran erkennt man lunge (alveolar, venous, blood vessels?) - Double ductus sign refers to which disease (disease combination) Lyric lesion - ERCP MRCP unterschied - welche ist invasive -radiotherapy ablation - 3D imagine refers to welchem ausgeschriebenen-> intensive...modelling , hypervolemic modelling ? At the end there are questions about radiotherapeutic doses for the tumors Retake 5.02, pictures were the same Images Which of the following signs is present on the image a Spinnaker sign b. Sail sign C. Silhouette sign d. Central dot sign Radiologie Version 1 – Erstversuch 25.01.2024 What do you do after this nativ CT (ohne Kontrastmittel) MRT CT Angiography Nothing, you proceed with the treatment Das ist: Subarachnoid haemorrhage Diagnosis? A. Ileus!! (Small bowel ileus) B. Perforation C. Sigmoid volvulus D. Intestinal pneumatosis What is this most likely: Possible benign Possible malignant Definitive benign Das ist ein Hemangiom (Die Diagnose wurde bei Version 2 gefragt) Radiologie Version 1 – Erstversuch 25.01.2024 what is the predominnat pattern of these changes? a. osteolytic b. mixed osetolytic and osteosclerotic c. diffuse periosteal reaction d. osteosclerotic Aortic dissection Golden S -Sign Radiologie Version 1 – Erstversuch 25.01.2024 How long after symptom onset are the first signs of ischemic stroke usually present on computed tomography: 3-6 hours Which structure is NOT affected in ankylosing spndylitis: A. Spinal ligaments B. Sacro-iliac joints C. Intravertrebral discs D. Intravertrebral joints Which of the following X-ray symptoms is missing in the rheumatoid arthritis: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteolysis C. Sequestration D. Subluxation Which MRI sequence is most useful in the diagnosis of Acute ischemic stroke: a. Susceptibility weighted imaging (SWI) b. T2 FLAIR c. T2 Fat Sat d. Diffusion weighted imaging (DWI)  The image demonstrates ( something like this) Right upper lobe pneumonia Right upper lobe atelectasis - wenn sehr weiß Right upper lobe effusion Left lower lobe pneumonia 2. These CT findings warrant (Something like this) a, Urgent surgical treatment b. Prolonged conservative treatment c.No treatment at all 5. Which of the following is NOT visible on the X-ray —Air fluid level = small bowel obstruction Visceral pleural line Emphysema 6. Which of the following is NOT present on the X-ray Ascites Left sided pneumonia Cardiac pacemaker Kerley B lines ( I think this ) 7. The findings are suggestive of Colon cancer Ascites Perforated hollow viscus Colon cancer (think it was this) 8. Which part of the GiT demonstrates abnormalities Stomach Small bowel colon Rectum Perforated hollow viscus Small bowel obstruction 9. The postcontrast behaviour of the liver lesion can best be described Progressive centripetal enhancement King like enhancement postcontrast enhancement Wash out pattern 10. This is ercp Image mrcp image Ptc image 12. Which main pathological process is presented on the image Osteoporosis Osteosclerosis Osteomalacia Osteolysis 13, This appearance is typical for Scheuermannes disease Bechterews/s disease Forestier disease. Chandier's disease 14. What type of periosteal reaction present Lamellated Solld and continuous No periosteal reaction is visible Ischemic stroke Sunburst and Codman triangle 15. What is the radiological diagnosis on this non enhanced CT is Intracranial bleeding Intracranial tumour Acute ischemic stroke 16. The most common cause of this imaging finding on this non enhance Ruptured aneurysm Ischemic stroke Extra axial tumours 17. The bleeding is ( brain) In acute phase In subacute phase In chronic phase No bleeding visible 18. The DWI image is Which is the structure outlined in red Aortic arch Right ventricular arch Left ventricular arch Right atrium arch 2. The findings on the image are suggestive of Aspirated foreign body Left upper lobe pneumonia Left upper lobe atelectasis. Tumour Left upper lobe effusion Left upper lobe pneumonia Left upper lobe atelectasis. Bleeding brain 3. Which of the following signs is visible on the image Golden S sign What is the salient abnormality Pulmonary embolism Cardiac tamponade Aortic dissection —- 5. Which of the following is visible on the chest X-Ray Pulmonary emphysema Air-fluid level Small bowel obstruction ! c. Lung collapse The X-ray findings are suggestive of a. Congestive heart failure b. Acute respiratory distress c. Pulmonary embolism d.None of the above  Congestive heart failure Pulmonary embolism b. Acute respiratory distress 7. Which of the following is NOT evident on the X-ray Calcifications in the abdomen. Free intraabdominal air Small bowel ileus All of the above are evident on the X-ray 8. What is the radiological diagnosis Free intraperitoneal air Ascites Small bowel ileus Large bowel obstruction caused by an ingested foreign body 9. The finding demonstrated on the images is Probably malignant Probably benign Definitely benign Cannot tell the image demonstrated The image demonstrates ( stones gallbladder) a. Cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis ( presence in gallbladder / presence in common bile duct) 11. Kidney image ——— MCQ 1. Which substances can be used as negative contrast media in CT based modalities Barium and lodine Alr and water Gadolinium and barium Air and barlum 2. Absolute contraindications for ct /MRI are:( depends on part 1 or 2) Young age pregnancy metal foreign body in the eye no absolute contraindications 3. Seldinger technique is used in which procedure Conventional angiography radiofrequency vertebroplasty 4@ which of the following X-Ray findings are suggestive of alveolar pneumonia Patchy, inhomogeneous opacity Air-bronchogram sign Air-fluid level Kerley B lines Kerley B-lines are a mark of: Basal pulmonary fibrosis due to chronic heart disease hemosiderosis in presence of mitral valve disease Interstitial pulmonary edema Alveolar pulmonary edema Which of the following structures are responsible for the normal lung appearance on X-ray PA view? Septal lines Bronchial tree and alveoli Blood vessels 7. An air bronchogram sign refers to a. Air-filled bronchi being made visible by a surrounding alveolar opacification b. Air-filled bronchi being made visible by the adjoining pulmonary emphysema c. Incipient mediastinal emphysema 8. What is the first modality of choice to verify suspected pleural effusion MRI Chest X-Ray AP-projection Ultrasound 9. Rib notching (peripheral erosions on the ribs) are characteristic of : septal defect tetralogy of Fallot Aortic coarctation 10. The radiological differential diagnosis of pulmonary alveolar edema includes a. Bilateral alveolar pneumonia b. Bilateral interstitial pneumonia C.Bilateral massive pleural effusions 16. Tumour in the head of the pancreas typically results in a. Pancreatitis B. Jaundice c. Pain 17. What is the first modality of choice in suspected ulcer perforation CT US MRI X-Ray 18. Most of the gall stones will be visible on abdominal X-ray a. True B. False 19. MR urography a. Always uses contrast b. Never uses contrast. c. Can be performed with and writhout contrast media 20. On ultrasound kidney stones will present as: Hyperechoic structures with distal acoustic shadowing. Hypoechoic structures the distal acoustic enhancement. 'Anechoic structures with distal acoustic shadowing, Appearance will depend on the calcium content of the stone 21. Rickets is due to deficient mineralisation primary at the site of the. Diaphysis Apophysis Growth plate Mineralization is normal in rickets 22. Periosteal reaction is typical for c. Osteosarcoma 23. Which modality is suitable for early diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis A. MRI b. Ст C.X-Ray d. US 24. Multiple osteosclerotic lesions in a 69 yr old male patient are likely due to a. Prostate cancer metastasis Multifocal osteosarcoma Multiple myeloma None of the above 25. @which of the following is suggestive of malignant bone tumour a. Sunburst type of periosteal reaction b. Wide transition zone and cortical destruction Solid periosteal reaction Perifocal osteosclerosis and cortical thinning 26. Pathological fractures a. Occur in normal bone subjected to considerable chronic mechanical b. Occur in abnormal bone spontaneously or after a minor trauma c. Occur in the still growing skeleton after trauma 27. Perthes disease is: Avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphsis in children Avascular necrosis of the distal femoral epiphysis in children Avascular necrosis of the femoral head in adults Autosomal recessive bone dysplasia 28. @Regarding CSF which of the following are correct: a CSF appears hyperintense on both T1 and T2 WI b. SF has higher density in Hounsfield units tan soft tissues c. CSF is hyperintense on T2WI and hypointense on T1 d. CSF has higher density in Hounsfield units then air 29. Which is the modality best suited for very early diagnosis of acute ischaemia Transcranial US Postcontrast CT scan c. MRI with DWI d. DAT scan 30. All brain tumours show post-contrast enhancement on computed tomography a. True B. False 31. How does subacute subdural hematoma appear on CT a. Hyperdense to the brain parenchyma Hypodense to the brain parenchyma Isodense to the brain parenchyma 32. Diagnosis and follow up of patients with multiple sclerosis is performed a. Postcontrast CT of the head b —- Contrast enhanced MRI of the brain and cervical spinal cord c. Non contrast MRI of the brain and cervical spinal cord d. Head MRI and doppler US of the neck 33. The diagnosis of hydrocephalus cannot be obtained with: chest X-ray 34. On CT, a simple liver cyst will present as Hypoderse, non-enhancing lesion Hypodense, rim enhancing lesion Hyperdense, non enhancing lesion Hyperdense, rim enhancing lesion Variant/Test 3 -contraindication mri: Metall object in eye - Linear accelator uses: X-ray/ photons -Are gallstones seen on abdominal X-ray? -bilateral alveolar edema ddx -> bilateral alveolar pneumonia - Thyroid scintigraphy more often planar or dynamic scan -> planar(static) - Which part of bones does rickets in children effect - Multiple osteosclerotic lesions in man older than 69 old most commonly due to prostate metastases or multifocal osteosarcoma -what is a pathological fracture -> examples -simple cyst on CT -> Hypodense with or without rim enhancement -seldinger technique used for -carcinoma of head of pancreas mostly present with -> Pain or jaundice (one only correct) -Which modality used for multiple sclerosis MRI and lumbar puncture -> MRI with contrast or without -Perthes disease: avascular necrosis of proximal femur -MRI urography with either contrast or not Barium used for: GIT studies Acute appendicitis: a contrast needed, b. can help but not really needed contraindicated Dynamic ct urography for: anatomy radionuclides(@) A. alpha B. beta C. gamma particles a+b+c - all What is vcug used for: bladder What is not visible on X-ray: A corpus callosum, B pons, C os lunatum First line imaging for jaundice: A mrcp, B us, C ct, D mri Pet ct best used for: A hodgkin lymphoma, B malt,C cns lymphoma Bone scintigraphy for: osteoblastic, osteolytic or mixed ? What of the options imaging is interventional? CT angiography CTA or IR and Fluoroscopy Meningioma is@: extraaxial and typ. enhances avidly and homogenously Tetralogy of fallot: pulmonary oligemia Imaging MS: MRI Acute ischemic stroke which imaging: DWI Imaging of brain hemorrhage after non contrast CT: mri How long CT needs: 30-40 min Degeneration and arthritis of facet joint is: spondylosis Not affected in ankylosing spondylitis: intervertebral joint Which is an indirectly ionizing particle: electrons, photons, protons Electrons used for radiation of: superficial skin tumors Indications for palliative radiotherapy: brain metastases, vena cava compression syndrome, uterine bleeding , malignant bone pain, all of the above Radionuclide imaging for: morphology, function, both Radio negative gallstones appear in ultrasound: hyperechoic Imaging bone marrow edema: T1,T2, T2 fat suppressed sequence Test 1: 1. Barium is used to contrast a. The GIT b. The arterial and venous vessels c. The tracheobronchial tree d. The spinal cord 2. Clinical MRI primarily images the nuclear magnetic resonance signal from a. Oxygen ions b. Hydrogen ions c. Nitrogen ions 3. Which of the following is an interventional method a. CT angiography b. Conventional (digital subtraction) c. angiography MR angiography d. Transcranial doppler US 4. @Total opacification of a hemithorax, can be caused by: (multiple answers) a. Large pleural effusion b. Large pneumothorax c. Obstruction of a main bronchus with atelectasis d. Pulmonary edema 5. Air bronchogram sign is seen in a. Pneumothorax b. Atelectasis c. Alveolar edema d. Interstitial edema 6. solitary pulmonary nodule, on a chest X-Ray, CANNOT be due to a. Metastasis b. Alveolar edema c. Hydatid cyst d. Tuberculoma 7. Which of the following is most useful in assessing interstitial lung diseases a. Chest X-Ray b. High resolution CT c. Postcontrast CT d. MRI e. Ultrasound 8. The chest X-Ray of patients with tetralogy of Fallot will present: a. Pulmonary oligemia b. Pulmonary hypervolemia c. Pulmonary venous hypertension d. cranial redistribution of the blood flow 9. Aortic dissection with an entry point immediately below the left subclavian propagation is classified as a. Stanford type A b. Stanford type B 10. A PA erect abdominal X-ray, Immediately after birth, …… some types of esophageal atresia a. True b. False 11. How would a radio negative gallstone present on ultrasound a. Will not be visible, because of the lack of calcium b. Hypoechoic with distal acoustic enhancement c. Hyperechoic with distal acoustic shadow d. Anechoic 12. The apple core lesion on barium enema study is a sign of: a. Colorectal cancer b. Diverticula c. Polyps 13. Which is the first imaging modality of choice in a patient with jaundice: a. MRCP b. CT c. X-ray d. Ultrasound 14. @Helpful in differentiating dilated small bowel from large bowel loops on radiographic film are: (multiple answers) a. The presence of air-fluid levels b. The location c. The mucosal pattern d. The thickness of the wall 15. When performing CT for a patient with acute pancreatitis a. Contrast application is essential b. Contrast application is possible, but in general not needed c. Contrast application is contraindicated 16. Visualizing a hypervascular lesion with a washout phenomenon in the live chronic hepatitis B is highly suggestive of a. Haemangioma b. Adenoma c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Angiosarcoma 17. What is the modality of choice for local staging of rectal cancer a. US b. CT c. Angiography d. MRI 18. CT urography (a scanned performed in late excretory phase) is useful in a. Calcium containing kidney stones b. Transition cell tumors c. Kidney cyst 19. VCUG/MCUG/ is the method of choice to diagnose a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Vesico-ureteral reflux c. Nephrolithiasis and hydronephrosis 20. What is the best modality to evaluate anterior cruciate ligament a. CT b. Two orthogonal plain radiographs C. MRI d. Ultrasound 21. Which of the following is a typical sign of benign bone tumor a. Discontinuous type of periosteal reaction b. Soft tissue component c. Cortical destruction d. Thinning and ballooning of the cortex 22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of rheumatoid arthritis a. Osteoporosis b. Erosions c. Sequestration d. Subluxation 23. Osteolysis is a process in which: a. Only the organic bone component is lost b. Bone trabeculae are rarified c. Bone is replaced by other pathologic substance 24. What MRI sequence is most useful in assessing bone marrow edema and will present it hyperintense a. T1 b. T2 c. PD d. STIR /T2 with suppression of the signal of the fat 25. Hematogenous Metastases typically affect a. The axial skeleton b. Small tubular bones C. Distal long bones 26. Which structure is not directly affected by ankylosing spondylitis a. Spinal ligaments b. Sacro-iliac joints c. Intervertebral joints d. Intervertebral discs 27. @Which signs are suggestive of malignant bone lesion: (multiple answers) a. Solid and continuous type of periosteal reaction b. Discontinuous type of periosteal reaction c. Perifocal osteosclerosis d. cortical destruction 28. On computed tomography, how does acute intracerebral hemorrhage a normal brain parenchyma: a. Hypodense b. Isodense c. Hyperdense 29. How long after symptom onset are the first signs of ischemic stroke computed tomography a. 3-6 hrs b. 5-10 min c. 30-40 min d. After 12hrs 30. What is the imaging standard in multiple sclerosis? a. Computed tomography of the brain and cervical spine without contrast enhancement b. Computed tomography of the brain and cervical spine with contrast enhancement c. Magnetic resonance imaging the brain and cervical spine without contrast enhancement d. Magnetic resonance imaging the brain and cervical spine with contrast enhancement 31. @Regarding meningioma, which are correct (multiple answers) a. Extra axial tumors b. Intra axial tumors c. Typically enhances avidly and homogeneously d. Typically has little to none enhancement 32. Which modality is best suited for diagnosis acute intracranial bleeding a. MRI b. CT c. US d. Conventional angiography 33. The degenerative changes in the intervertebral facet joints is called: a. Spondylosis b. Spondylarthrosis c. Osteochondrosis d. Spondylitis 34. The loss of "insular ribbon" on computed tomography is a sign of: a. Chronic ischemic stroke in basilar artery vascular territory b. Acute ischemic stroke in basilar artery territory c. Chronic ischemic stroke in middle cerebral artery vascular territory d. Acute ischemic stroke in middle cerebral artery vascular territory 35. Which of the following structures is not visible on computed tomography? a. Corpus callosum b. Putamen c. Nucleus ruber d. Pons 36. Potential complication of an angiographic procedure is: a. Pneumothorax b. An access-side subcutaneous hematoma c. Generalized lymphadenomegaly 37. Current therapy of peripheral obstructive arterial disease includes: a. Implementation of balloons and stents b. Surgical bypass procedure is the only option. c. TIPS 38. Single "cold" nodule in the thyroid gland is a sign of a. Thyroid carcinoma b. Toxic adenoma c. Has a wide differential diagnosis, including thyroid carcinoma and mus 39. [18F]FDG PET/CT for diagnosing myocardial vitality is used after: a. Physical stress b. Glucose application c. Vasodilator application 40. What body bone scintigraphy is a method for diagnostic of: a. Osteoblastic metastases b. Osteolytic metastases c. Mixed lytic and sclerotic bone metastases 41. What type of Images do we have in nuclear medicine? a. Morphological b. Functional and morphological c. Only functional 42 (18F)FDG PET/CT is used for: a. staging of lung carcinoma b. diagnosis of colorectal carcinoma C. diagnosis of prostate carcinoma 43. SPECT with radiopharmaceuticals which shows uptake in the basal ganglia is used for diagnosing a. Parkinson's disease b. dementias c. brain tumors 44. Which one from the following radionuclides is used for gamma camera imaging, SPECT and SPECT/CT? a. Tc-99m b. [18F]FDG C. Sr-89 45. [18F]FDG PET/CT is most sensitive for patients with: a. Hodgkin lymphoma b. MALT- Lymphoma c. CNS Lymphoma 46. Dynamic renal scintigraphy gives information about: a. renal anatomy b. renal function c. urinary bladder 47. @Which one of the following radionuclide emissions is used for radionuclide therapy: (multiple answers) a. a (alpha) rays/particles b. ß rays/particles c. y rays 48. Treatment machine for radiotherapy is a. MRI b. Linear Accelerator c. Computed Tomography d. PET/CT 49. When the beam of the linear accelerator is off in the treatment room a. ionizing radiation is generated b. there is a radioactive background c. there is a risk for exposure of the staff d. none of the above 50. Indirect ionizing radiation are: a. Electrons b. Photons c. protons 51. Indications for palliative radiotherapy are: a. Brain metastases b. Genital bleeding c. vena cava syndrome d. Painful bone metastases e. All of the above statements are true 52. CTV means a. clinical target volume b. gross tumor volume c. planned target volume d. none of the above 53. Early radiation side effects in patients with cancer of oropharynx, larynx and nasopharynx include: a. oral mucositis and skin erythema b. infertility c. cystitis d. fibrosis 54, What is the total radiation dose delivered in patients with breast cancer in an adjuvant setting? a. 35Gy b. 50Gy c. 70Gy d. 20 Gy e. 80Gy 55. Electrons are used for irradiation of a, superficial tumors b. in deep seated tumors c. it is not used 56. Which of the following stages is not included in the radiotherapy planning process: a. anatomical topographic planning b. Clinical-biological planning c. dosimetric planning d. morphological planning 57. Which is the most radiosensitive tumor among the listed ones: a. Sarcoma —- b. seminoma c. glioblastoma d. prostate cancer Test 2 Fragen Nora 1. Ga.68 DOTATE PET/CT is used for: identifies neuroendocrine tumors 2. the usual prescr. radiation dose for lymphoma is: total dose 30-40 Gy 3. measure unit for energy deposited by ionizing radiation in a unit mass of matter is: gray 4. F-18 PDG PET/CT - prostate carcinoma 5. Contraindication for X-ray- pregnancy 6. indication for implentation of inferior vena cava - deep venous thrombosis in lower extremities 7. osteoblastic osseous metastases characterize with: increased uptake of radiopharmaceutical 8. Alzheimers cant be diagnosed with: Brain Datscan 9. which structure is most likely affected in amkylosing spondylitis: sacroiliac joints 10. Captopril test with 99m Tc-DTPa is used for diagnostic of: renovascular hypertension 11. Calcifications in a pattern of Popcorn type: Bone tumors containing cartilage tissue 12. three-phase bone scintigraphy is an adequate method to prove: Bone metastases 13. SRS - stereotactic radiosurgery 14. what is the correct order of tissue densities: Air — fat — fluid — soft tissue — bone AFFSB 15. avascular necrosis of femoral head is: morbus perthes 16. X-ray of avascular necrosis: Bone fragmentation + changes in the form and contour of the bone 17. DEXA - measures bone mineral density 18. the side effects observed after a certain dose threshold are called: deterministic 19. The most suitable NM method for diagnosing intrathoracic struma: scintigraphy with 123/131 20. Hiatal hernia can be diagnosed with barrium swallow or upper endoscopy? 21. after surgery radiation treatment is called: adjuvant therapy 22. normal spinal curvatures from cranially to caudally are: Lordosis - Kyphosis - Lordosis. LDL 23. neonatal- double bubble sign , normal stomach, duodenum without gas 24. Fluoroscopy uses: barium and iodine OR BARIUM AIR ( angiography - IODINE AND AIR)- CT - IODINE AND WATER, MRI - GADOLINIUM AND IODINE 25. Photons are: alpha beta, gamma rays, protons, none of the above 26. fragments after accident are seen immediately: true or false 27. angiography without injecton: MRA or SWI