A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Exam Questions PDF

Página 1 de 47 Exam Title: A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Instruction: Welcome to the A320 (CFM Engines) Final Theoretical Knowledge Exam #1. Pass mark is 75% Number of questions: 120 Exam ID: E140320131736264P30...

Página 1 de 47 Exam Title: A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Instruction: Welcome to the A320 (CFM Engines) Final Theoretical Knowledge Exam #1. Pass mark is 75% Number of questions: 120 Exam ID: E140320131736264P304 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 2 de 47 Group: Section A - Aeroplane Systems (CFM) Question 1 When the gear is retracted, which exterior lights extinguish automatically? (1) NOSE and LAND (2) LOGO and LAND (3) RWY TURN OFF and WING (4) NOSE and RWY TURN OFF Question 2 Which of the following colour codings is correct for the pushbutton switches? (1) WHITE - temporary operation: GREEN - normal operation. (2) RED - immediate action: 2 DOTS “not used” part of switch. (3) GREEN - temporary operation: WHITE - abnormal position. (4) AMBER - immediate action: BLUE - temporary operation. Question 3 What happens in the event of failure of a cabin pressure controller? (1) The pilots must manually select landing elevation. (2) An emergency descent must be initiated. (3) Transfer is through manual control. (4) An automatic transfer occurs to the other controller. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 3 de 47 Question 4 Regarding the Avionics Ventilation system, which of the following statements is true? (1) The Inlet and Extract Valves must both be open on the ground. (2) The Inlet Valve should always be closed in flight. (3) The Inlet and Extract Valves may be open in flight. (4) The Extract Valve may be partially open when taxying. Question 5 Which of the following correctly completes this statement? “With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be... (1)...HI due to air conditioning temperature demands.” (2)...NORM or HI due to single pack operation.” (3)...NORM due to APU bleed supplying.” (4)...HI due to APU bleed supplying.” Question 6 Which of the following correctly completes this statement? “The pressurisation system includes... (1)...3 Cabin Pressure Controllers; 2 Outflow Valves with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor. (2)...3 Cabin Pressure Controllers; 1 Outflow Valve with 1 auto motor and 2 manual motors.” (3)...2 Cabin Pressure Controllers; 1 Outflow Valve with 1 auto motor and 1 manual motor.” (4)...2 Cabin Pressure Controllers; 1 Outflow Valve with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 4 de 47 Question 7 Regarding the A/THR indications on the 5th column of the FMA, which of the following is true? (1) ATHR in blue - [ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA)]. (2) ATHR in white - [ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA)]. (3) ATHR in blue - [ARMED (actual thrust = TLA)]. (4) ATHR in white - [ARMED (actual thrust = TLA)]. Question 8 The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped. Which of the following would cause this? (1) A cooling period (following use of APU bleed). (2) A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns. (3) The air intake flap failing to close. (4) The APU fuel pump continuing to run. Question 9 What occurs when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON? (1) The APU Fuel Pump will operate. (2) The APU Intake Flap opens. (3) The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open. (4) The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 5 de 47 Question 10 On the overhead panel, when should the AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3? (1) The Captain’s loudspeaker has failed. (2) Both RMP’s have failed. (3) The Captain’s ACP has failed. (4) The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS. Question 11 Pushing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch causes which of the following to occur? (1) Three HI/LO chimes and pink lights at the cabin area call panels. (2) One HI/LO chime and red lights at the cabin area call panels. (3) Three HI/LO chimes, red lights and a PA announcement in the cabin. (4) One HI/LO chime and a CAPT CALL message in the cabin. Question 12 In the event of an AC BUS 1 fault, how could the AC ESS bus be powered? (1) The AC BUS must be powered by the APU. (2) It will be powered by the emergency generator. (3) It can be powered from AC BUS 2. (4) It cannot be powered. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 6 de 47 Question 13 What is the effect of selecting the GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF on the EMER ELECT PWR panel? (1) GEN 1 is de-energised. (2) GEN 1 line contactor opens. (3) GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS. (4) Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS. Question 14 Which of the following conditions will cause the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate? (1) Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM. (2) If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. (3) Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON. (4) Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions. Question 15 Which of the following conditions will trigger a fire warning? (1) Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine) (2) Loss or failure of a single Loop A (Engine) (3) Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU) (4) Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine) http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 7 de 47 Question 16 What are the pitch and roll limits In Normal Law Configuration 0? (1) Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll: 67°. (2) Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°. (3) Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll: 67°. (4) Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll: 67°. Question 17 In alpha protection, what does the movement of the sidestick between neutral and fully aft control? (1) Airspeed. (2) G. (3) Altitude. (4) Alpha. Question 18 In ALTERNATE LAW, how do the indications change at the bottom of the speed scale? (1) VLS is replaced by VSTALL WARNING. (2) Alpha protection is replaced by VSTALL WARNING: it is possible to stall the aircraft. (3) There are no changes: it is possible to stall the aircraft. (4) Alpha protection is replaced by an extended VLS. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 8 de 47 Question 19 What happens in the event of SFCC 1 total failure? (1) SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. (2) SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. (3) FLAPS will be inoperative. (4) SLATS will be inoperative. Question 20 What will be the result, if, after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight, asymmetric flap travel occurs? (1) The flaps will run to the selected position, and then be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. (2) The Pressure Off Brakes will be applied to prevent further flap movement. (3) The flaps will be locked in position by the Wing Tip Brake. (4) The flaps and slats will be locked in position until maintenance action. Question 21 If a spoiler has failed, how does the system compensate for undesirable yaw? (1) F.A.C. commands. (2) ELAC turn co-ordination commands. (3) Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing. (4) Automatic rudder trim. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 9 de 47 Question 22 On an approach to land, which of the following statements is true? (1) At 50 feet, alpha floor and pitch trim are inhibited: the aircraft pitches down. (2) At 100 feet, alpha protection is lost: at 50 feet, the flare mode commences. (3) At 100 feet, alpha floor is inhibited; the pitch trim is frozen: the aircraft pitches down. (4) At 100 feet, alpha floor is inhibited: at 50 feet, the Flare Mode commences. Question 23 A-LOCK (alpha lock) is annunciated below the Slat/Flap indicator on the E/WD. Which of the following would cause this condition, and how would you recover? (1) Slats are locked in Config. 1 due to high angle of attack. To retract the slats, recycle the Flap lever. (2) Slats are locked in Config. 1 due to high angle of attack. To retract the slats, reduce the angle of attack. (3) Slats and Flaps are locked in Config. 1. To retract Slats and Flaps, recycle the Flap lever. (4) Flaps are locked in Config. 1. To retract the Flaps, reduce angle of attack. Question 24 On the IAS strip on the PFD, what does the “F” speed represent at take-off? (1) Minimum speed for present flap setting. (2) Maximum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps. (3) Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3. (4) Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 10 de 47 Question 25 After T/O, when does SRS (FMA) change to CLB? (1) Upon reaching acceleration altitude. (2) When passing thrust reduction altitude. (3) After SLAT retraction. (4) When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent. Question 26 When does the ECAM E/WD memo REFUELG appear? (1) When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL. (2) When the re-fuelling control panel door is open. (3) When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling. (4) When the END Light illuminates steady green. Question 27 What happens when the first inner tank level reaches 750 Kg? (1) One or both transfer valves in each wing will open. (2) The centre tank pumps will stop. (3) Transfer valves on the associated wing will open. (4) Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 Kg. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 11 de 47 Question 28 With all tanks full and the MODE selector in AUTO, which of the following is correct? (1) All pumps will run continuously. (2) The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended. (3) The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended. (4) The centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended. Question 29 Which of the following is true with regard to the PTU? (1) It is used as a back-up following a leak in the Green or Yellow systems. (2) It operates if the Green or Yellow system pressure falls below 2600 psi. (3) It is inhibited from electrical power-up until second engine start. (4) It is inhibited between engine starts. Question 30 Following an overheat and shut down of a hydraulic pump, how long will the FAULT light on the overhead panel remain illuminated? (1) It will extinguish when the switch is placed to OFF. (2) It is inhibited with engines running. (3) It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken. (4) It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 12 de 47 Question 31 Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves; and why? (1) All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss. (2) All systems; for use by maintenance. (3) Green and Yellow (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures. (4) Green and Yellow (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from a fire. Question 32 Which of the following defines Icing conditions? (1) In flight: SAT 10°C or below. (2) Before T/O: OAT 10°C or below, visible moisture, visibility less than 1 mile. (3) In flight: TAT 10°C down to SAT minus 30°C. (4) Before T/O: OAT 8°C or below, contaminated runway. Question 33 Following a W.A.I. test on the ground, what happens if the W.A.I. switch is left ON? (1) If W.A.I. is subsequently required in flight, it is necessary to select the Anti-Ice Switch OFF then ON again. (2) After a 30 second test cycle, the anti-Ice valves close. (3) W.A.I. will automatically activate on selection of TOGA power. (4) The Anti-Ice Valves will close after 10 seconds (on the S.D., the triangles go amber). http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 13 de 47 Question 34 What is the default situation if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti- Ice is lost? (1) Both ON. (2) Both OFF. (3) Wing Anti-Ice ON, Engine anti-Ice OFF. (4) Wing Anti-Ice OFF, Engine Anti-Ice ON. Question 35 What triggers the autobrake system after landing? (1) Main wheel spin-up. (2) Ground Spoiler extension. (3) Weight on wheels. (4) Selection of reverse thrust. Question 36 Following Gravity Extension on a fully serviceable aircraft, which of the following statements is true? (1) Braking will be normal : nosewheel steering will be lost. (2) Nosewheel steering will be normal : anti-skid will not be available. (3) Alternate Braking will be operational. (4) Brakes and Steering will be normal. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 14 de 47 Question 37 With the aircraft on the ground, which of the following is true with regard to the gear lever? (1) It can be selected up by operating the override trigger. (2) It cannot be moved if the Green hydraulic system is pressurised. (3) It cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber compression. (4) It can be selected up, but retraction is inhibited by the shock absorber being compressed. Question 38 What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel? (1) Associated gear leg is in transit. (2) Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position. (3) Associated door is not locked closed. (4) LGCIU 1 and 2 failure. Question 39 Which of the following can be tuned by RMP No. 1? (1) Associated radio navigation equipment, and dedicated radio communication equipment. (2) VHF 1 and HF 1 only. (3) Any radio communication equipment only. (4) Any radio communication equipment and any onside radio navigation receivers. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 15 de 47 Question 40 What does the left (captain’s) ND show when selected to ROSE ILS? (1) ILS receiver No. 2 signals only. (2) ILS receiver No. 2 signals and the map. (3) ILS receiver No. 1 signals only. (4) ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected. Question 41 When RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS is in operation, which of the following statements is true? (1) ILS DME is not available. (2) The ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMP’s. (3) There will be an amber light on the ACP. (4) The MCDU’s will display the tuned navaids. Question 42 Regarding the ADIRS panel, which of the following statements is true? (1) The IR Mode rotary selectors and the ADR selectors are fully independent. (2) The IR Mode rotary selectors, when selected to NAV, enable the ADR switches. (3) Rotating an IR Mode rotary selector to ATT will give attitude indications only. (4) The ON BAT light illuminates to indicate low battery volts. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 16 de 47 Question 43 What happens in the event of BMC 1 failure? (1) A left WING BLEED LEAK will not be detected. (2) An ENG 2 BLEED LEAK will not be detected. (3) An APU BLEED LEAK will not be detected. (4) BMC 2 takes over all functions. Question 44 Which of the following correctly describes the cross-bleed valve operation? (1) In auto, it will automatically open, if necessary, to equalise the duct pressures. (2) In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open. (3) In auto, it is pneumatically operated. (4) In manual, it is electrically selected and pneumatically operated. Question 45 Which of the following is true about the FADEC system? (1) It is not available until the engine MODE SEL is set to IGN/START. (2) It is self-powered above 5% N1. (3) It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running. (4) It is continuously powered from the moment the aircraft receives A.C. power. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 17 de 47 Question 46 What automatically activates the igniters for take-off? (1) Selecting ENG ANTI ICE ON. (2) Weight off wheels. (3) Extending the FLAPS whilst taxying. (4) Extending the SLATS whilst taxying. Question 47 At the start of the flight, what will be the condition of ATHR? (1) ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power. (2) ARMED at 80 kts. (3) ACTIVE on selection of TOGA or FLX power. (4) ACTIVE at 1500 feet AAL. Question 48 During a MANUAL START, when should the engine master switch be selected ON? (1) At 15% N1. (2) When IGN A + B appears on the engine System Display. (3) Immediately after selecting the MAN START to ON. (4) When the N2 has ceased accelerating (minimum of 20% N2). http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 18 de 47 Question 49 On the Engine Panel, what does an illuminated FAULT light indicate? (1) Engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure low. (2) Failure of igniters A and B. (3) A fault in the engine fire detection system. (4) Abort of an AUTOMATIC START. Question 50 When is the FUEL USED indication (on the SD) reset to zero? (1) During associated engine start, on the ground. (2) Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground. (3) When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time). (4) When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on the ground only). Question 51 Which statement is correct regarding engine limitations? (1) Under normal conditions, and after engine start : if the EGT rises above 950ºC, the EGT will pulse red. (2) EGT will pulse amber above 915ºC if Alpha Floor is activated.. (3) Max. permissible EGT is 1000ºC, a red mark will appear at its maximum value if this limit is exceeded. (4) Max. permissible EGT is 750ºC during engine start and take-off. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 19 de 47 Question 52 Regarding an Auto Start, which of the following is a correct statement? (1) Loss of the N2 grey (highlight) background signifies end of the start sequence. (2) Putting the MODE SEL to START closes the bleed valve. (3) Engine No. 2 normally uses igniter B. (4) Loss of the N2 grey (highlight) background signifies start valve closure. Question 53 What is the duration of the passenger oxygen supply? (1) 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. (2) 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation. (3) 20 minutes. (4) Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude. Question 54 Under what conditions will the Autopilot disconnect? (1) Bank Angle exceeds 33°, when High Sped Protection becomes active, if the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1° (2) Bank Angle exceeds 45°, when High Sped Protection becomes active, if the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1° (3) Bank Angle exceeds 45°, when High Sped Protection becomes active, if the speed reaches Alpha Prot (4) Bank Angle exceeds 45°, at Vmo / Mmo, if the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1° http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 20 de 47 Question 55 What is signified by “ILS APPR” being displayed at the top centre of the ND? (1) An ILS approach has been entered in the MCDU F-PLN (2) LOC and G/S have been captured (3) The ILS button on the EFIS control panel has been pressed (4) The ILS button on the FCU has been pressed Question 56 The FIRE light on the pedestal illuminates, what does this indicate? (1) The FIRE Light, when illuminated will indicate empty fire bottles. (2) The FIRE Light, when illuminated will tell the crew they forgot the fire test prior departure. (3) The FIRE Light, when illuminated will indicate a faulty loop and maintenance action is required. (4) The FIRE Light, when illuminated will identify the engine to be shut down because of fire. Group: Section B - Limitations Question 57 Maximum tyre speed is? (1) 205 kts. (2) 195 kts. (3) 185 kts. (4) 200 kts. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 21 de 47 Question 58 What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation? (1) 55 knots (gusting 60 knots) (2) 70 knots (3) 52 knots (4) 65 knots Question 59 What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down? (1) 260 kt. (2) 220 kt. (3) Green Dot (4) 250 kt. Question 60 What is the maximum runway slope? (1) +/-2% (2) +/- 1% (3) +2% / -1% (4) + 1% / -2% http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 22 de 47 Question 61 What are the maximum acceleration (G) limits? (1) Clean -1g to +2.5g and Flaps extended -1g to +2g (2) Slats extended and flaps retracted, 0g to +2g (3) Clean, and slats extended, -1g to +2.5g (4) Slats and flaps extended, 0g to +2.5g Question 62 What are the Power Plant Starter limitations? (1) After 3 failed start attempts, maintenance action is necessary. (2) The maximum speed for starter engagement is 20% N1 (3) After 4 failed start attempts, allow 15 minutes cooling. (4) The maximum speed for starter engagement is 30% N2 Question 63 What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust? (1) 70 kt. (2) 50 kt. (3) 75 kt. (4) 60 kt. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 23 de 47 Question 64 What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3? (1) 200 kts. (2) 177 kts. (3) 205 kts. (4) 185 kts. Question 65 What is the maximum cabin pressure differentials? (1) Positive 8.5 psi, Negative 0.4 psi (2) Positive 8.4 psi, Negative 1.0 psi (3) Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.0 psi (4) Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.2 psi Question 66 What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve? (1) Aircraft speed at or below 300 kt. (2) Aircraft altitude at or below 10,000 ft. (3) Aircraft must be fully depressurised. (4) Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 24 de 47 Question 67 What is the maximum continous load per generator? (1) 75%. (2) 85%. (3) 100%. (4) 50%. Question 68 In the MEL “Remarks or Exceptions” column, what is signified by (0)? (1) A procedure to be carried out by maintenance. (2) Aircraft may be flown back to base for rectification. (3) Dispatch is not allowed. (4) A procedure to be carried out by the flight crew. Question 69 What is maximum tailwind for takeoff? (1) 15 or 20 kt see FCOM. (2) 5 or 10 kt see FCOM. (3) 5 or 20 kt see FCOM. (4) 10 or 15 kt see FCOM. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 25 de 47 Question 70 What is maximum altitude at wich landing gear may be extended? (1) At aircraft max operating altitude. (2) 10.000 ft (3) 2500 ft (4) 25.000 ft Question 71 What is maximum time limit in takeoff and go-around, one engine inoperative? (1) 10 min. (2) Unlimited. (3) 5 min. (4) Captains discretion. Question 72 How many start cycles are allowed before a cooling period of 15 minutes are required? (1) You can do 3 concecutive cycles, each max 2 min and a pause between start attempts is 20 s. (2) You can do 4 concecutive cycles, each max 2 min and a pause between start attempts is 20 s. (3) You can do 4 concecutive cycles, each max 4 min and a pause between start attempts is 1 min. (4) You can do 2 concecutive cycles, each max 2 min and a pause between start attempts is 20 s. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 26 de 47 Group: Section C - Performance/Flight Planning Question 73 What is Runway Limitation determined by? (1) Clearway, Stopway, TOR (2) ASD, TOD, Taxiway (3) ASD, TOD (4) ASD, TOD, TOR Question 74 What is the required clearence above the surface at the end of the Take off distance if the runway is dry (1) 15 ft (2) 25 ft (3) 50 ft (4) 35 ft Question 75 What is the margin required for Landing Distance, that may not be exceeded? (1) 65% of required runway (2) 80% of required runway (3) 40% of required runway (4) 60% of required runway http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 27 de 47 Question 76 What is the LRC ceiling "One Engine Out" with given information: Weight 58t. ISA temp? (1) FL300 (2) FL 240 (3) FL 220 (4) FL 230 Question 77 What is the Time, Dist and Fuel for Standard Descent "One Engine Out" with given information: Weight 50.0 t / FL 250 (1) Time: 32.6 Fuel: 1166kg Dist: 212NM (2) Time: 28.9 Fuel: 1079kg Dist: 185NM (3) Time: 26.0 Fuel: 931kg Dist: 165NM (4) Time: 29.7 Fuel: 1064kg Dist: 191NM Question 78 What is Trip fuel and Flight time with M.78, FL 370, ISA, Air Dist 2000 , 0 Wind, Est Landing weight 63000kg, ENG A/I OFF (1) Fuel 10782kg / Time 4.40 (2) Fuel 11042kg / Time 4.39 (3) Fuel 12000kg / time 4.41 (4) Fuel 12118kg / Time 4.40 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 28 de 47 Question 79 What is Holding Fuel per engine and N1% at 1500ft, Green Dot Speed, 2-eng. Fuel, Weight 58t, ISA temp (1) Fuel 2040 / N1 62.7 (2) Fuel 2032 / N1 71.4 (3) Fuel 2030 / N1 69.5 (4) Fuel 1001kg / N1 54.3 Question 80 What is the required gross climb gradient, One engine INOP, in take off, second segment ? (1) 1.7 % (2) Positive Rate of Climb (3) 1.2 % (4) 2.4 % Question 81 What is the regulations for Reduced thrust (FLEX) take-off? (1) Only permitted on Dry runway (2) Only permitted on Wet runway (3) No restrictions (4) Not allowed on contaminated runways http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 29 de 47 Question 82 What is the maximum thrust reduction in percent from Full thrust? (1) 15% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 25% Question 83 What is the increment in percentage for Engine Out fuel consumption? (1) 30% (2) 31% (3) 32% (4) 33% Question 84 In the event of an engine failure in the cruise, what is the initial drift-down speed if using an obstacle strategy? (1) M.78/300kt. (2) Green dot speed (3) 210kt. (4) 250kt. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 30 de 47 Question 85 What is the definition of ‘FINAL RESERVE FUEL’? (1) The fuel required for 30mins holding at 3000ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate (2) The fuel required for 15mins holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate (3) The fuel required for 30mins holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate (4) The fuel required for 30mins holding at 1500ft AMSL in clean configuration at the destination alternate Question 86 With abnormal landing, what is the runway lenght you can use for landing distance? (1) Max 60% of available Runway (2) 50% of available Runway (3) Max 80% of available Runway (4) The entirely lenght available Question 87 What is the relation between VS1G and V2? (1) 1.3 (2) 1.11 (3) 1.23 (4) 1.13 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 31 de 47 Question 88 What determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)? (1) Maximum Zero fuel weight (2) Maximum Certified Take off weight (3) Performance limited Take off weight (4) Lowest of certified limit take off weight and performance limit take off weight Group: Section D - Mass & Balance/Servicing Question 89 Use provided Loadsheet. What is the allowed traffic load, with given information? (1) 19185 kg (2) 19000 kg (3) 18500 kg (4) 19500 kg Question 90 Use provided loadsheet. What is the index correction for 15pax in cabin section C ? (1) +4 (2) -10 (3) -1 (4) +2 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 32 de 47 Question 91 Use provided loadsheet. What is the index effect of 3000kg in cpt 4? (1) +14 (2) +5 (3) -5 (4) +12 Question 92 Use provided loadsheet. What is the correction for Pax in CO? (1) -1 (2) NIL (3) +1 (4) -2 Question 93 The ground electrical power receptacle is located? (1) Right wing root. (2) Main landing gear bay. (3) Nose section forward of nose gear bay. (4) Between the main gear. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 33 de 47 Question 94 What is the maximum re-fuelling pressure? (1) 55 psi. (2) 50 psi. (3) 45 psi. (4) 40 psi. Question 95 The APU oil filling point is? (1) By the left wing. (2) By the right wing. (3) At the rear of the fuselage. (4) By the rear right door. Question 96 The refuelling / defueling panel is located? (1) On the centre fuselage, inboard of the number 2 engine. (2) On the underside of the fuselage, forward of the nose gear. (3) In the cockpit. (4) On the fuselage, under the FO sliding window. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 34 de 47 Group: Section E - Emergency Procedures Question 97 What are the actions if loss of braking occurs (if autobrake is not selected)? (1) Maintain brake pressure, A/SKID & NWS steering – off : Brakes, maintain a minimum of 1000 psi. (2) Reverse MAX : Recycle A/SKID & N/W STRG SW : Brakes - use as normal. (3) Reverse MAX : Brake pedals RELEASE : A/SKID & N/W STRG OFF: BRAKE PEDALS - use with care (Max 1000 psi). (4) Brake pedals PUSH and hold : A/SKID & N/W STR SW OFF : Brakes - use as normal. Question 98 What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent? (1) Crew oxygen masks on -> Descend with autopilot engaged -> Turn ALT selector knob and pull -> Turn HDG selector knob and pull -> Adjust the target SPD/MACH (2) Crew oxygen masks on -> Disconnect autopilot -> Close thrust levers to idle -> Descend at VMO (3) Crew oxygen masks on -> Descend with autopilot engaged -> Select lower altitude and pull -> Select 90° left and pull -> Select thrust levers to idle -> Select expedite descent -> Always use speedbrakes immediately (4) Crew oxygen masks on -> Descend with autopilot engaged -> Turn ALT selector knob and push -> Turn HDG selector knob and push -> Adjust SPD/MACH to MACH Question 99 Following a TCAS “CLIMB” message, what are the initial actions? (1) AUTOPILOT OFF : TOGA power : VERT SPD to Green Band. (2) ATHR OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band. (3) V/S SELECT +1500: CLM power. (4) A/PILOT OFF : FD’s OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 35 de 47 Question 100 After take-off, before SLATS are retracted, the IAS becomes unreliable : what are the immediate actions? (1) AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move. (2) AP/FD ON : FLAPS - do not move. (3) AP OFF : FLAPS – retract on schedule. (4) FD OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule. Question 101 In the event of a GPWS alert including “PULL UP”, what are the initial actions? (1) AP ON : TOGA power : Select V/S 3000 ft/min. (2) AP OFF : TOGA power : Select 17° pitch-up. (3) AP OFF : TOGA power : follow pitch demands on FD. (4) AP OFF : Sidestick hard back : TOGA power. Question 102 Which of the following correctly completes this statement? “In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should... (1)...leave via a sliding window, using its associated escape rope only.” (2)...leave via a sliding window only, using either escape rope.” (3)...leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door (in either direction).” (4)...kick out the panel in the cockpit door.” http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 36 de 47 Question 103 What is the procedure during a rejected take-off following the call of “STOP” and selection of REVERSE THRUST? (1) Always use maximum foot braking. (2) Cancel reverse thrust @70 kts. (3) Monitor brake response and if in doubt, take over manually. (4) Deploy speedbrakes and call ATC. Question 104 When airborne, what are the initial actions following a “WINDSHEAR” warning? (1) TOGA PWR:follow FD pitch demand. (2) TOGA PWR:ignore FD – pitch to 17.5°. (3) TOGA PWR:sidestick fully back:maintain gear/flap config. (4) TOGA PWR:follow FD pitch demand:raise landing gear. Group: Section G - Special Req. "EFIS" Question 105 If the ECAM Upper DU fails, how can any System Display/Status be displayed? (1) By use of the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM Control Panel. (2) On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated ECAM Control Panel push-button switch. (3) On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM Control Panel push-button switch. (4) On the Captain’s left EFIS using the EIS DMC SWITCHING panel and the ECAM Control Panel. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 37 de 47 Question 106 On the ECAM E/WD, when does LDG INHIBIT in magenta appear automatically on the memo? (1) With selection of GEAR DOWN. (2) With selection of FLAP 2 on the approach. (3) Below 2000 feet radio altitude. (4) Below 800 feet radio altitude. Question 107 Which of the following correctly completes this statement? “Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch.... (1)...displays the LANDING MEMO on the E.W.D.” (2)...for more than 3 seconds, will recall any messages in CANCELLED CAUTIONS. (3)...continuously scrolls through all the System Displays.” (4)...displays the STATUS page on the lower ECAM.” Question 108 On the SYSTEM DISPLAY, what has occurred if the ELECTRICS page appears automatically, with no other caution or warning indications? (1) A PRIMARY failure has occurred. (2) An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred. (3) An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be amber. (4) An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be pulsing. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 38 de 47 Question 109 What permanent data does the status page always display? (1) G-Load. (2) Gross Weight. (3) TAT (Total Air Temperature). (4) Metric Altitude. Question 110 Regarding ECAM, which of the following statements is true? (1) Independent failures are identified by a star (*) against them. (2) Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them. (3) A Master Caution is always accompanied by an amber message on the EWD. (4) An amber message on the EWD is always accompanied by a Master Caution. Question 111 What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach? (1) The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates. (2) The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a malfunction showing on the STS page. (3) The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display. (4) The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 39 de 47 Question 112 Regarding Speed symbols on the PFD, which statement is true? (1) Mach No. is not displayed below 0.6. (2) Selected speed is represented by a Magenta speed bug. (3) Managed speed is represented by a Magenta speed bug. (4) Yellow speed trend arrow represents speed aircraft that will be reached in 15 seconds. Group: Section H - FMS Question 113 During an approach, in managed speed, the speed bug automatically goes to a speed higher than VAPP indicated on the MCDU PERF page. To what is this due? (1) The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a smaller headwind component than that entered in the PERF page. (2) The flaps are not in the configuration shown on the MCDU PERF page. (3) A sudden tailwind component has been encountered. (4) The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF page. Question 114 What will the FMA (lateral) immediately show in the event of a Go-Around? (1) G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power). (2) NAV (Managed navigation for the go-around). (3) RWY HDG (The runway heading). (4) G/A TRK (The initial track of the G/A procedure). http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 40 de 47 Question 115 Regarding ALPHA FLOOR, which of the following statements is true? (1) It will engage even if the ATHR is switched off. (2) It is only available if the aircraft is not clean. (3) It is available at all times in flight. (4) It is activated by a high pitch altitude. Question 116 The aircraft has commenced a managed descent, prior to the calculated top of descent. ATC ask you for an increase to your rate of descent, what should you do? (1) Push the altitude knob on the FCU and extend half speed brake. (2) Extend speedbrakes to FULL. (3) Pull the altitude knob on the FCU and extend half speed brakes. (4) Push the altitude knob on the FCU. Question 117 Regarding the “LAND” FMA, which of the following is true? (1) It engages at MDA. (2) It engages at 400’ RA : to leave this mode before FLARE is annunciated, you must select TOGA thrust. (3) It engages at 50’ RA. (4) It engages 400’ RA : to leave this mode before FLARE is annunciated, select a HDG or V/S on the FCU. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 41 de 47 Question 118 With FLAPS and SLATS retracted, and ATHR ON, a speed of 100 kts is selected : what speed will the aircraft fly at? (1) Green dot. (2) Alpha Prot. (3) Alpha Max. (4) VLS. Question 119 On the PFD, what causes the digital altitude to change colour? (1) Diverging > 250’ from FCU altitude - goes amber. (2) Reaching MDA - goes amber. (3) At 400’ - goes amber. (4) Passing 750’ to go to FCU altitude - goes yellow. Question 120 How is a climb altitude constraint, that cannot be met, indicated? (1) Message in MCDU scratchpad. (2) Amber altitude on MCDU F-PLN page. (3) Magenta star on MCDU PERF CLIMB page. (4) Amber star on MCDU F-PLN page. Group: New Group 8 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 42 de 47 A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Answer Sheet 1/3 (E140320131736264P304) Name: Date: Employee #: Mark: / = % a b c d a b c d 1. 31. 2. 32. 3. 33. 4. 34. 5. 35. 6. 36. 7. 37. 8. 38. 9. 39. 10. 40. 11. 41. 12. 42. 13. 43. 14. 44. 15. 45. 16. 46. 17. 47. 18. 48. 19. 49. 20. 50. 21. 51. 22. 52. 23. 53. 24. 54. 25. 55. 26. 56. 27. 57. 28. 58. 29. 59. 30. 60. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 43 de 47 A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Answer Sheet 2/3 (E140320131736264P304) Name: Date: Employee #: Mark: / = % a b c d a b c d 61. 91. 62. 92. 63. 93. 64. 94. 65. 95. 66. 96. 67. 97. 68. 98. 69. 99. 70. 100. 71. 101. 72. 102. 73. 103. 74. 104. 75. 105. 76. 106. 77. 107. 78. 108. 79. 109. 80. 110. 81. 111. 82. 112. 83. 113. 84. 114. 85. 115. 86. 116. 87. 117. 88. 118. 89. 119. 90. 120. http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 44 de 47 A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Answer Sheet 3/3 (E140320131736264P304) Name: Date: Employee #: Mark: / = % a b c d a b c d http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 45 de 47 A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Answer Key 1/3 (E140320131736264P304) Name: Date: Employee #: Mark: / = % a b c d a b c d 1. X 31. X 2. X 32. X 3. X 33. X 4. X 34. X 5. X 35. X 6. X 36. X 7. X 37. X 8. X 38. X 9. X 39. X 10. X 40. X 11. X 41. X 12. X 42. X 13. X 43. X 14. X 44. X 15. X 45. X 16. X 46. X 17. X 47. X 18. X 48. X 19. X 49. X 20. X 50. X 21. X 51. X 22. X 52. X 23. X 53. X 24. X 54. X 25. X 55. X 26. X 56. X 27. X 57. X 28. X 58. X 29. X 59. X 30. X 60. X http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 46 de 47 A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Answer Key 2/3 (E140320131736264P304) Name: Date: Employee #: Mark: / = % a b c d a b c d 61. X 91. X 62. X 92. X 63. X 93. X 64. X 94. X 65. X 95. X 66. X 96. X 67. X 97. X 68. X 98. X 69. X 99. X 70. X 100. X 71. X 101. X 72. X 102. X 73. X 103. X 74. X 104. X 75. X 105. X 76. X 106. X 77. X 107. X 78. X 108. X 79. X 109. X 80. X 110. X 81. X 111. X 82. X 112. X 83. X 113. X 84. X 114. X 85. X 115. X 86. X 116. X 87. X 117. X 88. X 118. X 89. X 119. X 90. X 120. X http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 47 de 47 A320 Final TKE #1 CFM Engines Answer Key 3/3 (E140320131736264P304) Name: Date: Employee #: Mark: / = % a b c d a b c d http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=304&PerPag... 17/09/2014  Página 1 de 47 Exam Title: A320 Final TKE #2 Instruction: Welcome to the A320 Final Theoretical Knowledge Exam #2. Pass mark is 75% Number of questions: 120 Exam ID: E150205143032842P363 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 2 de 47 Group: Section A - Aeroplane Systems Question 1 What is the maximum speed for each flap configuration? (1) Vls speed (2) Green dot speed (3) V stall speed. (4) VFE speed Question 2 The flight management part of the FMGC includes the following elements: (1) AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation (2) Performance optimization, A/THR and A/P commands (3) Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands (4) Navigation, Flight planning, Performance optimization and flight predictions Question 3 Regarding the FMA: A/THR in white means it is … (1) Off (2) Armed (3) Disconnected (4) Active http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 3 de 47 Question 4 During the takeoff phase… (1) SRS mode is not available (2) SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft AGL (3) SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2 + 10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference up to the acceleration altitude (4) SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is available Question 5 What is the standard way for the flight crew to disengage the autopilot? (1) By applying excessive force to the pitch trim wheel (2) by using the A/P pb on the FCU (3) By pressing the takeover p/b on the sidestick (4) by moving a side stick beyond a given threshold Question 6 On ECAM SD, what does an amber door indication mean? (1) The door is inoperative (2) The door is fully closed (3) The door is fully open (4) The door is not locked http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 4 de 47 Question 7 What are the thrust settings you can take off with? (1) FLEX/MCT or TO/GA (2) FLEX or MCT (3) Any manual setting (4) CLIMB or TO/GA Question 8 You are about to perform a take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still take-off? (1) Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent (2) Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the CLIMB detent (3) Not until a FLEX temperature is inserted. (4) Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the FLEX/MCT detent Question 9 During the automatic start sequence of ENG 1, you notice that only igniter B is powered. Is this normal? (1) Yes, igniter A is only used for engine anti ice (2) No, normally both igniters are used for all engine start (3) Yes, igniters are used alternatively for automatic engine start, in this case B (4) Yes, igniter B is always used for ENG 1 start http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 5 de 47 Question 10 You are performing a take-off with the thrust levers in the FLEX position. Which of the following statements is true? (1) A/THR is now in yellow (2) A/THR is now armed (3) A/THR is now active (4) A/THR is off until the A/THR pb is pressed Question 11 After take-off the A/THR will not become active until... (1) The A/THR pb is manually selected ON (2) The thrust levers are moved out of the TO/GA or FLEX/MCT detents (3) The autopilot is engaged (4) The thrust levers are retarded into the CLIMB detent from TOGA or FLEX/MCT and A/THR is displayed white in the FMA Question 12 During a manual start, what function does the FADEC perform? (1) The FADEC does not work until idle is reached (2) To control the start sequence and take corrective action in case of failure or malfunction (3) Passive monitoring of the start sequence, to close the start valve and cut off the ignition on the ground (4) The FADEC does not perform any function during a manual start and all actions have to be carried out by the pilots http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 6 de 47 Question 13 During an engine start sequence there is a grey background on N2. The indication dissapears at about 62%. What does this indicate? (1) That there is a start fault and a dry crank is in progress (2) That the start valve air pressure has dropped (3) That the igniters are no longer being powered (4) That the start sequence has finished and all engine parameters have stabilized Question 14 The STROBE lights selector is set to AUTO. In this position when do they stop flashing? (1) When the last engine has been shut down (2) When the first reverser is opened (3) When the aircraft touches down (4) When the landings lights are switched off Question 15 What happens to the cabin lights in the event of excessive cabin altitude? (1) The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs come on automatically regardless of the position of the switches (2) The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs come on automatically only if the EMER EXIT switch IS ARMED (3) The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs come on automatically only if the switches are in the AUTO position (4) The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs come on automatically only if the landing gear is down http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 7 de 47 Question 16 It is the first flight of the day. Before performing the APU fire test, you have to check that… (1) The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded, and the AGENT pb is extinguished (2) The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded, and the APU is running (3) The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded, and the AGENT light is illuminated (4) The red disk APU fire overpressure indicator is not visible on the outside of the aircraft Question 17 With reference to the engine fire system, which statement is correct? (1) Engine fire warnings are only shown on the FIRE panel (2) Each engine is equipped with two fire bottles (3) All engines have a single fire protection loop (4) Each engine has a single fire bottle wich is also connected to the other engine. Question 18 The engine ANTI ICE system… (1) Is controlled manually by the pilot through the ENG1 and ENG2 ANTI ICE pushbuttons (2) Can not be operated on ground to prevent damaging the slats (3) Operates only in flight and is fully automatic in case of icing conditions (4) When selected ON, causes idle N1 (or idle EPR) to be reduced http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 8 de 47 Question 19 In the event of electrical power supply loss… (1) The engine ANTI ICE valves remain in the position they were before (2) The engine anti ice valves will close automatically, anti icing is lost (3) The engine anti ice valves will open automatically, anti icing is assured (4) The engine anti ice valves will be controlled by the wing ANTI ICE controls Question 20 If one engine ANTI ICE system fails the second one takes over and provides anti icing for both the engines. (1) The flight crew should switch to APU bleed air to replace the unserviceable unit (2) It's not possible since the engine bleed sources are independent (3) Only with the aircraft on the ground and if OAT is below 0ºC. (4) Yes, but on the ground the 2 position (Open & Closed) valve is closed Question 21 In case of RMP1 failure …… (1) RMP3 can be used provided it is not connected to ACARS (2) RMP1 no longer controls the selected receiver and should be switched OFF, tune VHF1 through another RMP (1 RMP can control all receivers) (3) RMP1 no longer controls the selected receiver and should be switched OFF (4) The frequency display will turn amber and the green VHF (or HF) lights will remain illuminated http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 9 de 47 Question 22 With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT ON 3 position: (1) The AUDIO SWITCHING knob should be placed in STBY position (2) The captain should use the 3rd occupant (observer) headset (3) The Captain uses his acoustic equipment on ACP 3 (4) The AUDIO SWITCHING knob must be placed in ALTN position Question 23 The message F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED appears on the EWD. What does it means? (1) Due to a fault, a hydraulic device has locked the flaps and slats at their present position (2) To reduce stress on the wings during turbulence, the flap movement has been slowed down by the WING TIP BRK (3) Non alignment between 2 flaps has been detected and the flaps are locked in their present position (4) Due to a fault with a flap, the WING TIP BRK has locked it so that the remaning flaps will continue to operate Question 24 During your preliminary cockpit preparation you notice that the FLAPS lever is in the ZERO position but the EWD shows the FLAPS extended. What should you do? (1) You must check with the maintenance crew before applying hydraulic power (2) Nothing. The FLAPS will move to the position selected as soon as all the engines are started (3) You must move the FLAPS to the position corresponding to the position shown on the SD (4) Switch ON the YELLOW electric HYD pump and reclycle the FLAPS lever http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 10 de 47 Question 25 The control surfaces are electrically controlled, but are there any that have a mechanical backup? (1) No, they all required some electrical power (2) Yes, the elevators and rudder (3) Yes, the elevators and ailerons (4) Yes, the THS and rudder Question 26 How the F/CTL page appears on the flight deck during the flight controls check? (1) You can't see the page. The system is inoperative on ground (2) Automatically as soon as the side stick is moved (3) Automatically as soon as the nose wheel steering handle is moved (4) The pilot has to press the F/CTL pb on the ECP Question 27 In normal law what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected ? (1) 80º (2) 33º (3) There is no bank angle limitation (4) 67º http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 11 de 47 Question 28 In Normal Law, if one side stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft´s maximum allowable "G" load be exceeded? (1) No. The load factor protection overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive "G" loads (2) Yes. Until maximum pitch attitude is reached the alpha floor protection is active (3) Yes. Rapid side stick deflection must never be made (4) No. At maximum "G" load, the side sticks are de-activated for 5 seconds Question 29 With either AP engaged, which statement is true? (1) Both side sticks are locked. By applying a certain force, the lock can be overridden but the AP will disengage (2) Both side sticks are deactivated until the AP is disengaged (3) Both side sticks are locked. The lock cannot be overridden (4) Both side sticks are locked. By applying a certain force, the lock can be overridden but the AP remains engaged Question 30 If both pilots deflect simultaneously their side sticks fully back... (1) The "pitch up" order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected (2) The "pitch up" order is algebraically computed. The total is limited to the signal that would result in the max deflection of a single sidestick (3) No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the take over pb on his stick (4) The "pitch up" order is 1.5 times higher than with only one stick deflected http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 12 de 47 Question 31 What does the NWS DISC memo on the EWD indicate? (1) The nose wheel steering computer has finished it´s its self test. Nose wheel steering is now available (2) A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected (3) The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel (4) There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering hand wheel positions Question 32 There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do they represent ? (1) The front triangle indicates the position of that gear and the back triangle indicates the status of the brakes of that gear (2) Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two LGCIUs (3) Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear (4) Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear Question 33 After take off, you retract the landing gear and get this ECAM caution: SHOCK ABSORBER FAULT. What does it mean? (1) The right main L/G lengthening mechanism must be reset using the reset position on the LDG GEAR GRVTY EXTN sw (2) One shock absorber not extended when airborne (3) The right main L/G leg shortening mechanism has failed and the L/G will not retract (4) The right main L/G lengthening mechanism has failed and that leg will not retract http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 13 de 47 Question 34 What is the normal operating pressure in the hydraulic system? (1) 3000 psi (2) 1000 psi (3) 500 psi (4) 2000 psi Question 35 What is the correct statement about the RAT? (1) The RAT can be stowed by the crew whilst they are airborne (2) The RAT will be automatically deployed in the event of low pressure in the GREEN system (3) The RAT is able to pressurize the GREEN or the YELLOW systems (4) The RAT will deploy automatically when AC bus 1 and 2 are both lost, airspeed above 100 kt Question 36 A bidirectional power transfer unit (PTU) enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. (1) Only when the RAT has been deployed and the aircraft is using BATT power (2) It operates automatically when a predetermined differential pressure is sensed (3) Only operational on the ground (4) It has to be switched on by the flightdeck crew member when the pressure between systems (Green & Yellow) is >500psi http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 14 de 47 Question 37 At take off (or go around) what is the minimum speed at which the slats may be retracted from CONF 1+F to CONF 0? (1) Vls speed (2) S speed (3) F speed (4) Green dot speed Question 38 Approximately how long do the ADIRS take for a full alignment? (1) 10 minutes (2) 3 minutes (3) 1 minute (4) 7 minutes Question 39 When set to TA/RA, the TCAS system provides traffic and resolution advice with regard to: (1) Only other aircraft with the same transponder code (2) Only other transponding aircraft (3) All other aircraft (4) Only other aircraft on the same ATC frequency http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 15 de 47 Question 40 In what case are the batteries connected to the DC BAT BUS? (1) When battery voltage is above 27.5 V (2) On the ground with loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 when speed is below 100 kt (3) On the ground with loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 when speed is above 140 kt (4) Whenever the BAT switches are set to AUTO Question 41 What is important to remember to avoid damaging the IDG disconnection mechanism? (1) You push the IDG 1 pb until the GEN FAULT light comes on, but only for a maximum of 3 seconds (2) You must push the IDG 1 pb for a maximun of 10 seconds (3) You must push the IDG 1 pb until the GEN FAULT light comes on and then for at least 3 more seconds (4) You push the IDG 1 pb for at least 10 seconds to ensure the disconnection Question 42 What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE pb located on the EMER ELEC PWR panel ? (1) It allows the ILS and the slats/flaps to be connected to the APU battery for the approach (2) GEN 1 line contactor opens. The AC BUS 1 channel is supplied from GEN 2 through bus tie contactors. This is used during the smoke drill (3) It inhibits the RAT to allow the slats to extend for landing (4) It allows the RAT to be manually extended http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 16 de 47 Question 43 The AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by: (1) APU via a static inverter (2) AC BUS 1 (3) AC BUS 2 (4) Emergency Generator Question 44 What happens if the BUS TIE pb is set to auto position? (1) AC BUS 1 and 2 will work in paralell with both generators as suppliers (2) It has no effect on the AC system (3) Both bus tie contactors open (4) The bus tie contactors (BTCs) automatically open or close to maintain power supply to both AC BUS 1 and 2 Question 45 Which of the followings statements is correct with regard to the APU? (1) If the APU SHUT OFF p/b is pushed on the interphone panel under the nose fuselage, an emergency shut down will occur (2) If bleed air has been used, when the APU MASTER SW is released an immediate APU shut-down will occur (3) APU auto shut down can only occur on the ground (4) The APU will only shut down automatically if a fire is detected http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 17 de 47 Question 46 Which statement is correct when the APU FIRE p/b is pushed to release it? (1) An APU EMER shut down will occur (2) On the ground you should perform the ECAM actions to shut down the APU from the cockpit (3) In the air an APU EMER shut down will occur (4) An APU AUTO shut down will occur if both detection loops are operating Question 47 The lavatory and galley areas are ventilated using re-circulated cabin air. How is the system switched on? (1) The system is fully automatic and is controlled by a weight-on micro-switch on the gear (2) The extraction fan runs continously when electric power is available (3) By selecting VENT EXTRACT on the VENTILATION panel (4) The system is fully automatic, and the fan runs whenever the aircraft is pressurized Question 48 For what areas does the Avionics ventilation system provide cooling? (1) The avionics bay, the flight deck instruments and the aircraft batteries (2) The avionics bay, the flight deck instruments and the CIDS panels (3) The avionics bay and the flight deck (including the instruments and circuit breakers) (4) The radio bay, the flight deck instruments, the circuit breaker panels and the CIDS panels http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 18 de 47 Question 49 What is the purpose of the safety valves in the pressurization system? (1) To protect against the cabin differential pressure from going too high or too low (2) To protect against water ingress in the event of ditching (3) To protect against excessive cabin V/S in manual mode (4) To protect against excessive cabin altitude Question 50 Regarding the pressurization system… How are the safety valves controlled? (1) They are fully automatic and cannot be controlled manually (2) They are controlled with the MODE SEL p/b sw (3) They are controlled with the MAN V/S CTL selector (4) They are controlled with the DITCHING p/b sw Question 51 During the landing roll, a few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes to green. What does this mean? (1) The reversers are now fully deployed (2) The reverse thrust selection has been acknowledged (3) The reversers have been re-stowed (4) The reversers are unlocked http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 19 de 47 Question 52 "IRS IN ALIGN" ECAM memo display becomes amber during an IR alignment if engines are running (1) Only when 2 IRS are in disagreement regarding the aircraft position (2) Appears if 1 IRS remain un-aligned (3) If one IRS becomes faulty (4) Pulses GREEN if the alignment of at least 1 IRS is faulty Question 53 The aural alerts of the Predictive Windshear System (PWS)… (1) Never have priority over TCAS and GPWS aural warnings (2) Only have priority over TCAS warnings (3) Have priority over TCAS, GPWS and other FWC aural warnings (4) Only have priority over GPWS warnings Question 54 The A320 fuselage has: (1) Two passenger doors and two cabin emergency exits (2) Four passenger doors and four dedicated emergency exits in the cabin (3) Two passenger doors (4) Three passenger doors and one service door http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 20 de 47 Question 55 From which system is the Triple BRAKE Indicator (located on the center instrument panel) indicating HYD pressure? (1) Amber (2) Yellow (3) Green (4) Blue Question 56 Which slats in each wing can be heated with hot air from the pneumatic system? (1) All slat sections are de-iced (2) The three outboard slats (3-4-5) (3) The three inboard slats (1-2-3) (4) The even slats (2-4) Group: Section B - Limitations Question 57 What is the speed limit for operating the windscreen wipers? (1) 185 kt (2) 215 kt (3) 200 kt (4) 230 kt http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 21 de 47 Question 58 What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing? (1) 25kt (2) There is no limitation. (3) 38kt (4) 33kt Question 59 The maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended is: (1) There is no limitation (2) 20.000 ft (3) 25.000 ft (4) 10.000 ft Question 60 The maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended is: (1) 31.000 ft (2) 10.000 ft (3) 25.000 ft (4) There is no limitation http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 22 de 47 Question 61 The maximum speed for speedbrakes use is: (1) Mmo/Vmo (2) There is no limitation (3).86/350 (4) 250 kt in clean configuration Question 62 The minimum fuel quantity for takeoff is: (1) 2.400 kg (2) 15.400 kg (3) 1.500 kg (4) no limitation Question 63 The normal operating HYD PRESS is 3.000 psi +/- 200 psi. (1) Under Normal Conditions and when the RAT is providing system pressure (2) No HYD PRESS required on single engine operation (3) Under Normal Conditions (4) No HYD PRESS required for normal operation http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 23 de 47 Question 64 Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off): (1) 720ºC (2) 300ºC (3) 520ºC (4) 330ºC Question 65 The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. (1) True (2) The APU never needs OIL below FL100 (3) False (4) The APU never needs OIL below FL200 Question 66 APU air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice is permitted. (1) False (2) Only in winter time (3) True (4) Only if OAT is below ISA at SL http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 24 de 47 Question 67 Selection of reverse thrust in flight… (1) Is permitted below WX minima on WET RWY (2) Is recomended on short runways (3) Is prohibited (4) Is allowed above Vmca Question 68 Takeoff FLEX thrust is permitted on contaminated runways… (1) Above ISA -5ºC (2) Only in CONF 1+F (3) False (4) True Question 69 The FLEX temperature must not be lower than the actual OAT. (1) True (2) Must be higher than Tmax and TFLEXmax (3) False (4) Must be higher than TFLEXmax http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 25 de 47 Question 70 The flight maneuvering load acceleration limits in clean configuration are -1 g to 2.5 g (1) False (2) Only in Alternate Law (3) True (4) Only in Direct Law Question 71 The certified maximum number of passenger seats for an A320 is? (1) 189 (2) 144 (3) 180 (4) 215 Question 72 The A320 Maximum Landing Weight is… (1) 59.400 kg (2) 70.000 kg (3) 64.500 kg (4) 102.000 kg http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 26 de 47 Group: Section C - Performance/Flight Planning Question 73 What is Runway Limitation determined by? (1) Clearway, Stopway, TOR (2) ASD, TOD, Taxiway (3) ASD,TOD,TOR (4) ASD, TOD Question 74 What is the required clearance above the surface at the end of the Take off distance if the runway is dry? (1) 15 ft (2) 25 ft (3) 35 ft (4) 50ft Question 75 What is the margin required for Landing Distance, that may not be exceeded except in an emergency? (1) 65% of required runway (2) 80% of required runway (3) 60% of required runway (4) 40% of required runway http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 27 de 47 Question 76 What is the LRC ceiling "One Engine Out" with given information: Weight 58t. ISA temp? (1) FL300 (2) FL240 (3) FL230 (4) FL220 Question 77 What is the Time, Distance and Fuel for Standard Descent "One Engine Out" with given information: Weight 50.0t / FL250 (1) Time: 32.6 Fuel: 1166 kg. Dist: 212 NM (2) Time: 28.9 Fuel: 1079 kg. Dist: 185 NM (3) Time: 29.7 Fuel: 1064 kg. Dist: 191 NM (4) Time: 26.0 Fuel: 931 kg. Dist: 165 NM Question 78 What is Trip Fuel and Flight time with M.78, FL370, ISA, Air Dist 2000, 0 Wind, Est. Landing Weigth 63000 kg, ENG A/I OFF: (1) Fuel 10782 kg / time 4.40 (2) Fuel 11042 kg / time 4.39 (3) Fuel 12118 kg / time 4.40 (4) Fuel 12000 kg / time 4.41 http://caeonline.pelesys.com/exam/exam_files/printpaperexam.aspx?ID=363&PerPag... 05/02/2015  Página 28 de 47 Question 79 What is Holding Fuel per engine and N1% at 1500ft, Green Dot speed, 2-eng. Fuel, Weight 58t., ISA temp.: (1) Fuel 2040kg / N1 62.7 (2) Fuel 2032kg / N1 71.4 (3) Fuel 1001kg / N1 54.3 (4) Fuel 2030kg / N1 69.5 Question 80 What is the required gross climb gradient, One engine INOP, in take off, second segment? (1) 1.7% (2) Positive Rate of Climb (3) 2.4% (4) 1.2% Question 81 What are the regulations for Reduced Thrust (FLEX) takeoff? (1) Only permitted on Dry