PSYCH 226 Exam 2 Study Guide PDF

Chapter 6 - Recruiting Strategies Nowadays, what percent of job candidates are recruited through print media? ANSWER: Nowadays only 2% of hires are recruited through print media Employment agencies are allowed to charge companies what percent of the applicant’s first-year salary?...

Chapter 6 - Recruiting Strategies Nowadays, what percent of job candidates are recruited through print media? ANSWER: Nowadays only 2% of hires are recruited through print media Employment agencies are allowed to charge companies what percent of the applicant’s first-year salary? ANSWER: charge company 10% - 30% of 1st year salary OF THE APPLICANT What is meant by the term “realistic job preview”? ANSWER: Discussion, movie, or written material that provides an entirely realistic definition of what’s good and bad about the job Why are companies reluctant to release information about former employees? ANSWER: Companies hesitate to provide a negative reference for fear of being sued What is the first step in the selection process? ANSWER: Job Analysis (a systematic process of studying a job to understand its requirements, responsibilities, and the skills needed to perform it) What is the best predictor of future job performance? ANSWER: The best predictor of future performance is past performance What selection tool is used more than any other? ANSWER: Application Blank (form that job applicants fill out to provide information about their qualifications and availability to potential employers) Chapter 7 - Selection Interview What are the limitations of the selection interview? ANSWER: LACKS UNIFORMITY – the nature, length, and content vary with each interview and interviewer. Poor reliability/consensus exists between interviewers. Different interviewers: Have their own styles and approaches Treat candidates differently Vary in how many criteria they assess Vary in which criteria they assess Vary in the standard they use to assess and weight criteria INTERVIEWS ARE NOT AN INFALLIBLE TEST OF SOCIAL BEHAVIOR. They are situation-specific samples of behavior that may not generalize to job performance. THE INTERVIEW DEPENDS A GREAT DEAL UPON LANGUAGE. THE SELECTION INTERVIEW LACKS OBJECTIVITY. There are many types of interviewer biases: Leniency = to go easy on a candidate and give a higher rating than is warranted. ○ Possible Reasons: Based on looks, nepotism ( giving family members unfair advantages), etc. Strictness = rate candidates too negatively, or to have a stringent bias ○ Possible Reasons: Discrimination, interviewer feels threatened, etc. Central Tendency = inclination to perceive most individuals (applicants) as average ○ Possible Reason: Interviewer is indecisive Contrast Effect Halo Effect What is the first step in the selection interview? ANSWER: OPENING THE INTERVIEW STEP 1. Getting Started Establish Rapport Set Structure Check for Knockout Factors (questions or criteria that immediately eliminate candidates from consideration in the hiring process) What is the HALO EFFECT? ANSWER: OCCURS WHENEVER ONE PERSON MAKES A JUDGMENT ABOUT ANOTHER; IT HAPPENS WHEN THE INTERVIEWER ALLOWS ONE ASPECT OF THE PERSON’S APPEARANCE OR BACKGROUND TO INFLUENCE THEIR OVERALL RATING OF THE PERSON; HALO EFFECT CAN BE POSITIVE OR NEGATIVE Physical attributes of candidate Perceived similarity with the candidate Stereotypes on the basis of age, gender, race, national origin, ethnicity, work experience, education Incorrect assumptions about non-verbal behavior What factors determine how favorably you would be evaluated in an interview? ANSWER: 1. Time of day, certain day during the week (don’t want to get interviewed Monday or Friday, or in the early morning); how the interviewee is feeling the day of the interview. 2. Would want to be interviewed in the middle of the week, not too early, not too late, not during lunch time. 3. Knockout factors: Questions that determine if they are qualified to get the job or not (Accountant but CAN’T do math = disqualified) What are appropriate techniques for EXPANDING TALK in an interview? ANSWER:When the interviewer has been unable to hear, listen or understand, rather than ignore what has been said, the interviewer should follow-up. There are times when straightforward probes are MOST appropriate. Such probes can be brief. EXAMPLE: How so? In what way? Tell me more about it. Go on. And then what happened? What are the advantages of OPEN-ENDED QUESTIONS? ANSWER: 1) PUTS THE BURDEN OF CARRYING THE CONVERSATION ON THE INTERVIEWEE. 2) REDUCES THE NUMBER OF QUESTIONS YOU HAVE TO ASK. 3) ARE DIFFICULT TO ANSWER WITH PAT RESPONSES. 4) ALLOW THE INTERVIEWEE TO CHOOSE THE SPECIFICS OF WHAT TO TALK ABOUT. What would be an example of a CLARIFIER question? ANSWER:“I used to work for the xyz corporation before joining the abc company.” ---> “WHAT is the xyz company?” What would be an example of a DISQUALIFIER question? ANSWER: Same as a knockout question. Relates to the specific duties and responsibilities of the job, the requirements to handle the job, “do you have a license?”, “are you able to carry 50 lbs from point a to point b?” What would be an example of a PAST-/FUTURE-FOCUSED QUESTION? ANSWER:Past Focused-“if you had to discipline employees in the past, how did you go about it?” asking about something that occurred in the past. Future Focused-“how would you handle a situation where an african american shopper comes up to you the store manager and says that he is being followed around the store by the security manager (racial profiling)?” how the interviewee would handle something in the future. What questions would be ILLEGAL to ask IN AN INTERVIEW? ANSWER: Maiden name of a married woman If you have ever worked under another name, state name and dates Original name of an applicant whose name has changed by court order or otherwise. Names, addresses, ages, number or other information concerning applicant's spouse, children or other relatives NOT EMPLOYED by the company Of what country are you a citizen? Chapter 8 - Psychological Testing What is meant by the term objective test? ANSWER: OBJECTIVE (Multiple choice, true or false, fill ins) vs. SUBJECTIVE (Essay) What type of test would you use to test the LARGEST number of people in the SHORTEST amount of time? ANSWER: Group Speed Test What are the LIMITATIONS of PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTS? ANSWER: a. Sloppy test administration b. Unfair rejection of applicants c. Faking responses d. Over acceptance e. Conformity What is meant by the term APTITUDE TEST? ANSWER: Specific capacities for acquiring particular knowledge or skills What do INTELLIGENCE TESTS measure? ANSWER: COGNITIVE ABILITY (Intelligence; general capacity for learning and problem solving) What are EXAMPLES of TESTS OF COGNITIVE ABILITY? ANSWER:Group: Wonderlic Personnel Test (WPT) Individual: a. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) b. Stanford Binet Intelligence Test (SBIT) What are the BIG FIVE PERSONALITY FACTORS? - O.C.E.A.N.  ANSWER: a. Openness to experience (inventive/curious vs. consistent/cautious) b. Conscientiousness (efficient/organized vs. extravagant/careless) c. Extraversion (outgoing/energetic vs. solitary/reserved) d. Agreeableness (friendly/compassionate vs. critical/rational) e. Neuroticism (sensitive/nervous vs. resilient/confident) What are EXAMPLE of PROJECTIVE PERSONALITY TESTS? ANSWER: a. Rorschach Inkblot Test b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) c. Rotter Sentence Completion Test What is the PREMISE for TESTS OF INTEGRITY? ANSWER: Based on the premise that peoples' attitudes about theft as well as their previous theft behavior will accurately predict their future honesty Overt Integrity Tests: Directly assesses attitudes toward theft and other dishonest behaviors ○ Applicant Review What TYPE OF TEST would be the LEAST USEFUL PREDICTOR OF JOB PERFORMANCE? ANSWER: INTEREST Tests (Least predictive of effective job performance) a. Strong Interest Inventory (measures career and leisure interests) b. Career Occupational Preference Survey (explore career interests based on likes and dislikes) What ASSESSMENT TOOLS are used in ASSESSMENT CENTERS? ANSWER: Management Game: Handed out info about a role that they occupy in an imaginary company. Who is the person that emerges as the sunshine chairman Leaderless group discussion Role Play: (The candidate interacts directly with a trained role-player (actor). This actor often plays the role of a subordinate, coworker, or customer and responds to the candidate according to a script. Working on their own, but interacting with one of the assessors who is also playing a role) In-Basket: Designed to simulate the administrative tasks of a job and assess the candidate's ability to MANAGE MULTIPLE TASKS, prioritize and delegate work, and analyze information quickly (Told that their BOSS is DEAD, and they have to step up to the position) What is NOT a REQUIREMENT of an ASSESSMENT CENTER? ANSWER: TRADITIONAL TESTING AND AN INTERVIEW ARE NOT TYPICALLY PART OF THE ASSESSMENT CENTER APPROACH. What is the REASON why MOST PEOPLE LEAVE or GET FIRED FROM JOBS? ANSWER: They DON’T FIT IN-they DON’T GET ALONG WITH COWORKERS/SUPERVISORS What is meant by the RELIABILITY OF A TEST? ANSWER: CONSISTENCY or STABILITY of a test What METHODS are used to MEASURE RELIABILITY? ANSWER: Test-Retest Method = Give test to a group of people; re-administer the same test to the same group at some point in the future; correlate their performance on the first administration with their performance on the second administration Parallel Forms/Equivalent Forms = Create two (2) forms of the test; administer both forms to a group of people, one form RIGHT AFTER THE OTHER; correlate their performance on one form with their performance on the other form Internal Consistency/Split-Half Reliability = Give one test to a group of people (Let’s say test has 100 questions); correlate their performance on the FIRST HALF (Q 1-50) with their performance on the SECOND HALF (Q 51 – 100) OR correlate their performance on the even numbered questions with their performance on the odd numbered questions What is meant by the term CONTENT VALIDITY? ANSWER: The degree to which a test covers a REPRESENTATIVE sample of the quality being tested. NO STATISTICS INVOLVED. essentially asking for opinions What is meant by the term PREDICTIVE VALIDITY? ANSWER: The degree to which tests scores obtained at one point in time predict a criterion obtained at a later time (Administer the test to all applicants; hire all applicants; wait until job performance can be measured; correlate test performance with on the job performance) What is meant by the term CONCURRENT VALIDITY? ANSWER: The degree to which tests scores obtained at one point in time predict a criterion obtained at the same point in time. (Administer the test to a group of current employees; correlate their performance on the test with some measure of on the job performance) What is meant by the term FACE VALIDITY? ANSWER: The degree to which the test taker views the test questions as being relevant to the purpose of the testing What do the APA GUIDELINES say about HOW TESTS SHOULD BE USED? ANSWER: i. Users should be free of bias and adhere to standardized testing procedures ii. Tests should be kept secure; questions should not be reprinted; sale of tests should be restricted iii. Scores should only be given to those qualified to interpret them iv. Tests should be based on appropriate research What is the SELECTION RATIO? ANSWER: The number of job openings divided by the number of applicants What are the TAYLOR-RUSSELL TABLES used for? ANSWER: Even though a test is reliable and valid it is not necessarily useful. These tables estimate the percentage of future employees who will be successful on the job if an organization uses a particular selection instrument (test) What is meant by the terms MULTIPLE REGRESSION, MULTIPLE CUTOFFS, and MULTIPLE HURDLES? ANSWER: Multiple Regression = A statistical technique to estimate how well a series of tests forecast a measure of job performance Multiple Cutoffs = Passing or cut-off scores are set for each test Multiple Hurdles = Cut-off scores are set for each test; tests are administered in a predetermined order; applicants take the next test only if they scored at or above the cut-off on the previous test What is meant by the term PETER PRINCIPLE? ANSWER: The act of promoting a person to his/her level of incompetence Chapter 9 - Performance Evaluation Link to chapter: https://brightspace.cuny.edu/d2l/le/content/436556/viewContent/13636529/View What are the PURPOSES of CONDUCTING a PERFORMANCE EVALUATION? ANSWER: a. Identify employee's training/development needs b. Validate selection process c. Make and document decisions regarding pay, promotion, demotion, transfer, layoff, firing Why are EMPLOYEES CRITICAL of PERFORMANCE EVALUATIONS? ANSWER: a. Employees - prefer not to be told of deficiencies b. Managers - dislike playing role of God; untrained or poorly trained so they screw it up c. Unions - prefer decisions be made based on seniority What is meant by the term LIKERT SCALE? ANSWER: LIKERT SCALE (Subject/Vague) = Most often used in businesses 1 - poor 2 - fair 3 - average 4 - above average 5 - outstanding What is meant by the FORCED CHOICE METHOD of PERFORMANCE EVALUATION? ANSWER: Evaluation is conducted by deciding which of two statements is most descriptive of the employee How many PAIRED COMPARISONS would a supervisor have to make if he/she had 10 EMPLOYEES? ANSWER: FORMULA = N (N-1)/2 N = Number of Employees 10(10-1)/2 = 90/2 = 45 Paired Comparisons Evaluate your employees in pairs. For example, if you have 5 employees (A, B, C, D, and E), evaluate them as follows: A vs. B; A vs. C; A vs. D; A vs. E B vs. C; B vs. D; B vs. E C vs. D; C vs. E D vs. E What is meant by the FORCED DISTRIBUTION METHOD of PERFORMANCE EVALUATION? ANSWER: Employees are placed in categories identified by senior management. Very subjective and could be biased. 10% (TOP) 20% 40% 20% 10% (BOTTOM) What are some of the RATING ERRORS made BY SUPERVISORS in CONDUCTING PERFORMANCE EVALUATIONS? ANSWER: Halo Effect = When one person makes a judgment about another, rater focuses on one aspect of appearance to make a judgment about their overall appearance, can be positive or negative Leniency Central tendency = Rating in the middle of scale  Strictness Most recent Inadequate info = Not enough info, rates in the middle Contrast = If you're a manager doing a review with your top employee, the next person may not look as good as your fav employee What is meant by the term CONTRAST EFFECT? ANSWER: If you're a manager doing a review with your top employee, the next person may not look as good as your fav employee What is meant by FRAME OF REFERENCE TRAINING? ANSWER: Evaluations should be based on the findings of a job analysis. KSAO's: Knowledge, ect. ON TEST: Companies fail to train their managers on what? ANSWER: how to conduct effective performance reviews In 1959, social psychologists John French and Bertram Raven identified five bases of power ANSWER: 1. Legitimate 2. Reward 3. Expert 4. Referent 5. Coercive