Professional Practice Correlation Exam PDF

MAPUA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY SCHOOL OF ARCHITECTURE, INDUSTRIAL DESIGN AND THE BUILT ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE CORRELATION EXAM ARCHT. CRISTINA SUMERA-MIRAFLOR INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write the letter of your choice in the examination booklet. MULTIPLE CHOICE: 1. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by government agencies or private institutions undertaking a project? a. architectural competition c. direct selection b. comparative selection d. bidding 2. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by an individual undertaking a relatively small project? a. architectural competition c. direct selection b. comparative selection d. bidding 3. Which of the following describes the architectural competition method in selecting an architect? a. based on personal acquaintances c. limited to relatively small projects b. used only for government projects d. most expensive and time consuming 4. Which compensation method for architect's services is made by adding all costs of technical services and uses a multiplier to take care of overhead and profit? a. multiple of direct personnel expenses c. per diem b. percentage of construction cost d. professional fee plus expenses 5. Which compensation method for architect's services is flexible and any change will not affect owner- architect agreement? a. multiple of direct personnel expenses c. per diem b. percentage of construction cost d. professional fee plus expenses 6. Which of the following does not describe the multiple of direct personnel expenses method of compensation? a. based on value of creative design c. applicable to supervision work b. multiplier depends on project complexity d. applicable to pre-design services 7. Which of the following describes the percentage of construction cost compensation method for architect's services? a. related to size and type of project c. applicable to supervision work b. uses multiplier for overhead and profit d. applicable to pre-design services 8. Among the methods of compensation for architect's services, which is considered the most fair to both architect and client? a. percentage of construction cost c. lump sum or fixed fee b. multiple of direct personnel expenses d. professional fee plus expenses 9. In the architect's regular design services, under which phase does preparation of forms for contract letting, invitation/instruction to bidders, and bidders' proposals fall? Bidding or Negotiation Phase a. construction phase c. schematic design phase b. design development phase d. contract documents phase 10. In the architect's regular design services, under which phase does submission of probable/preliminary project construction cost fall? a. schematic design phase c. contract document phase b. design development phase d. construction phase 11. In the architect's regular design services, under which phase shall the preparation of construction drawings, specifications and Bill of Quantities fall? a. schematic design phase c. contract document phase b. design development phase d. construction phase 12. Which of the following activities of an architect does not fall under Construction phase? a. checking of samples of materials c. checking of billing b. checking of progress of work d. checking of salaries of workers 13 Upon completion of contract documents phase, what percentage of the fee is expected to have been given to the architect by the owner? (50%-90%) a. 65 % c. 70% b. 85% d. 90% 14. If the architect's professional fee is P 200,000.00, which of the following amount shall be paid to the architect upon signing of the Agreement? (5% of Recommended Professional Fee) a. 10,000.00 c. 15,000.00 b. 20,000.00 d. 5,000.00 15. For a residential project worth P 3,000,000.00, which of the following amount shall be the architect's professional fee if the method of compensation used is percentage of construction cost and the rate is based on UAP Schedule of Minimum Basic Fee? (10% of Recommended Professional Fee) a. 300,000.00 c. 200,000.00 b. 100,000.00 d. 400,000.00 16. An architect has done the renovation of a residence in Valenzuela. Project construction cost is P 3,000.000.00. Using UAP standards, how much does the architect expect to receive as minimum basic fee from his client? (150% of Recommended Professional Fee) a. 450,000.00 c. 600,000.00 b. 200,000.00 d. 300,000.00 17. If the architect's fee is three million pesos, how much is he expected to receive upon completion of the project, assuming that he has been compensated fully for the first three phases of his services? (15% of Construction Cost) a. 450,000 pesos c. 400,000 pesos b. 200,000 pesos d. 150,000 pesos 18. What percentage of project construction cost is the architect's minimum basic fee for projects involving extensive detail, such as furniture design, interiors, landscape designs, etc.? (RPF for Architectural Interiors & Site Development Planning: 10%-15%) a. 20% c. 15% b. 18% d. 10% 18. What percentage of project construction cost is the architect's minimum basic fee for monumental buildings/other facilities requiring consummate design skills/precise detailing? (12%, DAEDS\7.5%, DADS) a.20% c. 15% b. 12% d. 10% 19. What is generally the basis of the architect's minimum basic fee? a. owner's offer c. architect's professional/community standing b. type of structure d. project construction cost 20. In a typical owner-architect agreement, who is responsible for payment of taxes on professional services (exclusive of income taxes)? a. architect c. owner b. contractor d. project manager 21. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following is chargeable to the owner? a. structural/electrical/sanitary engineering c. miniature models b. drafting fee d. five sets of contract documents 22. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following, is not part of architect's professional fees? a. structural/electrical engineering c. sanitary engineering b. special interior design d. five sets of plans 23. Under the owner-architect agreement, which of the following include (s) the contract documents phase of architect's basic services? a. assistance in securing govt. approvals c. all listed items b. preparation of general conditions d. preparation of construction drawings/specs. 24. Who is responsible for payment of professional services required by architect such as normal structural, electrical, plumbing and mechanical engineering services? a. architect c. project manager b. owner d. contractor 25. Which of the following is not included in the Project Construction Cost? a. plumbing c. architect's fee b. sprinkler d. salaries of construction inspectors 26. Which of the following must be paid separately by the Owner to the Architect if designed and planned by the Architect? a. landscaping c. architectural b. structural d. electrical 27. Who is responsible for insurance for liabilities on materials, workmanship, labor and property? a. architect c. contractor b. construction manager d. owner 28. For every day of delay in construction time, contractor is obligated to pay the owner. What do you call this payment? a. performance bond c. liquidated damages b. retention fee d. security 29. Under the owner-contractor agreement, who pays for taxes, licenses, permits, and fees? (taxes, licenses, permits are Reimbursable Fees) a. project manager c. architect b. contractor d. owner 30. In a typical owner-general contractor agreement, which of the following is generally NOT included? a. contract amount c. labor contingent b. performance/payment bond d. insurance/other conditions 31. Under what condition may owner exercise the right to terminate a contract? a. after 10 days notice c. after 5 days notice b. bankruptcy/insolvency of contractor d. after 15 days notice 32. Under General Conditions, who is generally responsible for payment of permits, taxes and licenses? a. architect c. owner b. building supervisor d. contractor 33. Within what period is the effectivity of a contractor guarantee bond ensuring all materials/workmanship installed are of good quality? a. three years c. one year b. two years d. five years 33. Within what period is the effectivity of a contractor guarantee bond ensuring all materials/workmanship installed are of good quality? a. three years c. one year b. two years d. five years 34. Within how many days from receipt of request for payment must the architect check the billing of the contractor? a. 10 days c. 15 days b. 20 days d. 30 days 35. Within how many days from receipt of written notice by the Owner must the Contractor rectify defective work? a. 10 days c. 15 days b. 20 days d. 30 days 36. Which of the following is not a requirement for the release of the final payment? a. Certificate of Occupancy c. Keying Schedule b. guarantee bond d. retention 37. Which of the following cannot be considered act of God? a. earthquakes c. flood b. typhoon d. mutiny 38. Which of the following is not a valid reason for suspension or termination of contract by the contractor? a. issuance of temporary restraining order b. failure of architect to act on the billing of the contractor c. failure of the owner to pay the contractor d. failure of the architect to provide necessary details requested by the contractor 39. Who shall be responsible for the death or injury of any employee or laborer of the Contractor? a. architect c. site engineer b. owner d. contractor 40. What do you call the amount of money that is being deducted from the contractor every billing until 50 % of the contract has been accomplished and which shall be released 3 months after the date of final payment? a. guarantee c. retention b. performance bond d. security 41. Within what period should a contractor file a request for time extension from occurrence of delay? a. 21 days c. 10 days b. one month d. 15 days 42. When should a contractor give a written notice to architect prior to beginning, suspending or resuming of work (except in case of accidents)? a. 10 days c. 15 days b. 30 days d. 21 days 43. Which of the following is NOT a reason for Owner to terminate a construction contract? a. failure to make prompt payment to subcontractors b. written notice within ten days c. disregard to architect's instructions d. failure to provide competent superintendent 44. Which of the following describes a performance bond? a. guarantees work execution according to terms and conditions b. guarantees payment on all contract obligations c. guarantees material/workmanship quality d. guarantees contract agreement with owner if awarded a construction work 45. Shop drawings are prepared by the a. engineer c. foreman b. contractor d. architect 46. In master development plan formulation, which component is concerned with movement of people/goods from one place to another? a. economic c. physical b. socio-cultural d. transport 47. In the architect's specialized allied services, under which category does the architect prepare plans of contiguous sites for industrial estates, tourist center, housing subdivisions and the like? a. Landscape design c. Interior Design b. Industrial Planning d. Physical Planning 48. In the architect's specialized allied services, under which services does the architect prepare schedules of shrubs, trees and other plants and other landscaping elements? a. Environmental Planning c. Landscape Design b. Acoustics d. Interior Design 49. Which of the following conditions describe the design build services on guaranteed maximum cost? 1. 10 percent maximum excess over guaranteed maximum cost 2. Savings on project construction cost divided equally between architect and client 3. 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost divided equally between architect and client 4. More than 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost paid by architect. 5. All items listed. a. 1,2,3 c. 1,3,4 b. 2,3,4 d. 5 50. Which of the following specialized allied services describes landscape design? a. Master development planning b. Furniture layout/provision of fixtures and decorative items c. Sound control design/electronics and communication systems d. Land use/ siting of buildings and communication routes 51. Which of the following post construction services is concerned with the monitoring of security and janitorial services? a. Building and equipment maintenance c. Post-construction evaluation b. Building and grounds administration d. None of items listed 52. When the architect rejects materials, equipment or workmanship which are not in conformity with the Contract Documents, he is fulfilling his responsibility to whom? a. Contractor c. Owner b. Client d. People 53. In the formulation of the master development plan, which component is concerned with the locality's assets and its management? a. physical c. economic b. transport d. socio-cultural 54. In the formulation of the master development plan, which component is concerned with land use and changes/activities occurring within the physical environment? a. socio-cultural c. economic b. physical d. transport 55. Under the architect's specialized allied services, under what category does the architect lead the formulation of a master development plan consisting of several planning components? a. Physical Planning c. Comprehensive Planning b. Landscape Design d. Design Development 56. One of the specialized allied services of the architect is comprehensive planning services which, together with other specialists, include the preparation of a development plan. What do you call this development plan? a. National Development Plan c. Regional Development Plan b. Master Development Plan d. Comprehensive Plan 57. Which of the following is NOT part of specialized services of the architect? a. Acoustics c. Feasibility Studies b. Planning d. Interior Design 58. What is the normal fee for interior design as a specialized allied service of the architect? a. 15 to 20% c. 10 to 20% b. 12 to 20% d. 10-15% 59. Under the architect's design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost, which of the following conditions should be observed? a. architect's services basically the same as design-build by administration b. all listed items c. revolving capital provided to architect by client d. client given a guaranteed maximum cost for project construction 60. Under the architect's design-build services, which of the following work is/are included in design- build by administration? a. materials/equipment procurement c. construction personnel hiring b. all listed items d. schedule of works/bill of materials 61. Which of the following conditions is NOT TRUE in design-build services on guaranteed maximum cost? a. Architect's fee is 10 percent of project construction cost in addition to fee for regular design services. b. More than 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost paid by architect. c. Architect's fee is built-in in guaranteed maximum cost including fee for regular design services. d. 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost divided between architect and client. 62. Under the design-build services by administration, what would be the architect's fee if the project cost is 700 million pesos? (7% of RPF) a. 42 million pesos c. 10 million pesos b. 35 million pesos d. 49 million pesos 63. Which of the following is a study to determine the viability of a project? a. Economic Feasibility Studies c. Commercial Feasibility Studies b. Financial Feasibility Studies d. Income-expense Studies 64. For the preparation of detailed engineering drawings and specifications on roads, drainage, sewerage, power and communication system, an additional fee of how many percent of the cost of the development is to be charged? a. 2% c. 4% b. 3% d. 5% 65. A component to be considered in the formulation of a master development plan is a a. legal and administrative component c. competition component b. construction component d. design component 66. Under BP 220, which among the following is maximum length of a block? a. 250 m c. 400 m b. 350 m d. 300 m 67. Under BP 220, which among the following is the minimum lot area requirement for detached dwelling unit? (72m² for Economic; 64m² for Socialized) a. 63 sq.m. c. 72 sq.m. b. 70 sq.m. d. 81 sq.m. 68. Which among the following is the minimum corner lot area requirement for semi-detached dwelling unit under BP 220? (54m² for Corner Lot; 36m² for Row House) a. 63 sq.m. c. 54 sq.m. b. 72 sq.m. d. 36 sq.m. 69. Which among the following is the minimum lot area requirement for rowhouses under BP 220? (36m² for Economic; 28m² for Socialized) a. 63 sq.m. c. 54 sq.m. b. 72 sq.m. d. 36 sq.m. 70. Which among the following is the minimum horizontal dimension of courts & yards under BP 220? a. 2.30 m. c. 2.00 m. b. 2.60 m. d. 3.00 m. 71. Which among the following is the minimum floor area for multi-family dwelling unit under BP 220? (22m² for Economic; 18m² for Socialized) a. 20.00 sq.m. c. 36.00 sq.m. b. 25.00 sq.m. d. 30.00 sq.m. 72. Which among the following is the minimum floor area for single-family dwelling unit under BP 220? (22m² for Economic; 18m² for Socialized) a. 20.00 sq.m. c. 36.00 sq.m. b. 25.00 sq.m. d. 30.00 sq.m. 73. Which of the following is the parking requirement for multi-family dwelling under BP 220? (1 Slot Per 8 Living Units) a. 1 slot per unit c. 1 slot per 10 units b. 1 slot per 20 units d. 1 slot per 30 units 74. Which among the following is the maximum saleable lots for subdivision projects with an area of 1 hectare under PD 957? a. 70% c. 65% b. 60% d. 75% 75. Which among the following is the minimum lot area requirement for duplexes under PD 957? (96m² for Open Market; 80m² for Medium Cost) a. 72 sq.m c. 150 sq.m. b 54 sq.m. d. 100 sq.m. 76. Which among the following is the minimum lot area requirement for single detached dwelling unit under PD 957? (120m² for Open Market; 100m² for Medium Cost) a. 72 sq.m c. 150 sq.m. b 54 sq.m. d. 100 sq.m. 77. For residential condominium projects, which among the following is the minimum floor area for household dwelling unit under PD 957? (36m² for Open Market; 22m² for Medium Cost) a. 31 sq.m. c. 36 sq.m. b. 40 sq.m. d. 45 sq.m. 78. For residential condominium projects, which among the following is the minimum floor area for single occupancy dwelling unit under PD 957? (36m² for Open Market; 22m² for Medium Cost) a. 31 sq.m. c. 36 sq.m. b. 40 sq.m. d. 45 sq.m. 79. For residential condominium projects, which among the following is the parking requirement under PD 957? a. 1 slot per unit c. 1 slot per 10 units b. 1 slot per 20 units d. 1 slot per 30 units 80. Which among the following is the minimum no. of elevator for a 4-storey residential condominium under 957? a. 0 C. 1 b. 2 d. 3 81. Which among the following is an integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building structure with outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by heat or combustion products from fire? a. Fire alarm c. Sprinkler System b. Standpipe d. Automatic Fire Suppression System 82. Which among the following is the maximum distance of elevators from the entrance of a building? a. 40 m. c. 30 m. b. 50 m. d. 20 m. 83. Which among the following is the minimum clear width of ramps? a. 1.20 m. c. 1.30 m. b. 1.40 m. d. 1.50 m. 84. Which among the following is the maximum gradient of ramps? a. 1:10 c. 1:11 b. 1:12 d.1:13 85. Which among the following is the maximum length of ramps? a. 4 m. c. 5 m. b. 6 m. d. 8 m. 86. Which among the following is the minimum dimension of elevator? (1.40m x 1.2m) a. 1.10 m. x 1.40 m. c. 1.20 m. x 1.60 m. b. 1.10 m. x 1.50 m. d. 1.20 m. x 1.50 m. 87. Which among the following is the minimum clear width of corridors? a. 1.20 m. c. 1.30 m. b. 1.40 m. d. 1.50 m. 88. Which among the following is the minimum area of water closet stall? a. 1.50 m. x 1.50 m. c. 1.70 m. x 1.80 m. b. 1.60 m. x 1.60 m. d. 1.80 m. x 1.80 m. 89. Which among the following is the minimum distance of eaves over required windows from the side and rear property lines? a. 0.75 m. c. 0.80 m. b. 0.70 m. d. 0.85 m. 90. Which among the following is the minimum open space requirement for an inside lot? a. 25% c. 10% b. 20% d. 15% 91. Which among the following is the minimum horizontal dimension of court? a. 2.00 m. c. 2.30 m. b. 2.60 m. d. 3.00 m. 92. Which among the following is the minimum ceiling height for habitable rooms provided with natural ventilation? a. 2.50 m. c. 2.60 m. b. 2.70 m. d. 3.00 m. 93. Which among the following is the minimum area of rooms for human habitation? a. 5.00 sq.m. c. 6.00 sq.m. b. 7.00 sq.m. d. 8.00 sq.m. 94. Which among the following is the required no. of exits for a storey of a building having an occupant load of 700? (3 Exits for Occupants of 500-999) a. 3 c. 2 b. 1 d. 4 95. Which among the following is the required total width of exits of a storey of a building having an occupant load of 1650? (The total width of exits in meters shall not be less than the total occupant load served divided by 165.) a. 8 m. c. 9 m. b. 10 m. d. 11 m. 96. Which among the following is the maximum distance of a point in a building without sprinkler system from an exterior exit door? (45m w/ Sprinklers; 60m w/out Sprinklers) a. 45 m. c. 50 m. b. 55 m. d. 60 m. 97. Which among the following is the minimum width of court and/or yard at fifth floor of a building? a. 2.30m. c. 2.60m b. 2.90m. d. 3.20m. 98. Which of the following is not a condition in the granting of temporary/special permit to a foreign national? a. his country permits Filipino professionals to practice his profession b. he is legally qualified to practice architecture in his country c. must work with a Filipino counterpart d. must register with SEC 99. How many years is the liability 'of the architect for the building he design under the Civil Code? a. 5 years c. 10 years b. 15 years d. 20 years 100. Which of the following is not a qualification of applicant for licensure examination? a. Filipino citizen b. of good moral character c. graduate of Bachelor of Science in Architecture d. 21 years old PRACX Contract documents phase - The third phase of an architect's regular services. Pre-design services - Project financing falls under what kind of service of the architect. Specialized allied services - Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect. - The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed 10% maximum cost aside from his fee for regular design services. 10% - What percentage of an architect's work is liability under the civil code. - For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage 50% of the fee upon submission of the final design. - When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for 85% construction as prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee. - The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering PHP 500.00 service as an expert witness shall be. 12% - The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building. - The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 6% 50 million pesos. - The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million 8% pesos. - In design-build services, the single-point-responsibility of project Architect delivery puts the legal liability for both the design and construction on the. - The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how 3 months many months from the date of final payment. - Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspect General conditions of the contract. - An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of Schedule of material and finishes materials to be used. - A price given by a contractor, sub-contractor, material supplier or Quotation vendor to furnish materials, labor or both. - A statement from the architect confirming the amount of money due the Certificate of payment contractor for work accomplished. - A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to Performance bond execute the work in accordance with the terms of the contract. Bid - An offer to perform the work prescribed in a contract at a specified cost. 7% - The fee of the architect for design-build services by administration. - A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without Closed specification provision for substitution. - A list of instructions stipulating the manner on which bids are to be Instruction to bidders prepared. - The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner 2 months after the expiration of how many months from the final acceptance of the work. - The Guarantee Bond is released how many months after the date of 12 months / 1 yr final payment. - How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of 30 days occupancy after final inspection of the project. - A statute specifying the period of time within which legal action must be Statute of Limitation brought for alleged damage or injury. Statutory Bond - A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statute. - A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and Statute of Frauds in writing or unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged. - A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, Lease etc., for a fixed period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'. Leasehold - A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. - The person receiving a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., Lessee by lease. - The person granting a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., Lessor by lease. 2-2.5 - Range of the multiplier for Multiple of Direct Personnel Expense. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses - This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work. TRUE - Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false. Percentage of Construction Cost - A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services. - This method of compensation is applied only to pre-design services, Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses supervision work, and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized allied services. - This type of compensation is similar to the concept being charged by Percentage of Construction Cost realtors, developers, and lawyers. - For reimbursable expenses, how many kilometers from the Architect's 50 kms office shall a work be located to allow reimbursable expenses. - This method of compensation is frequently used where there is Professional Fee Plus Expenses continuing relationship on a series of projects. - The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control Architect and supervision of the ___. - Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in Letter of transmittal duplicate. - How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor 3 submit to the Architect? - Who shall have the responsibility of securing, but not liable for non- Contractor issuance, of the final occupancy permit. - True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of establishing the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and TRUE benchmarks provided that the owner pays the contractor for such works? - Who shall have the responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary Owner lines, easements, and benchmarks? - Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification of the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, Contractor trenches, pipe work, culvert work, utility lines, and other similar works required by the contract. 1-1.5% - Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor. 1.5-3% - Professional fee for the Construction Manager. Firm Fixed Price, Fixed Price Incentive, - Four types of Contracts for construction management CPIF / CPAF, Cost Plus Fixed Fee - Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that 1/6 of the road right- of-way? - At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should 2% the former fail to pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing? - What code holds the architect responsible for the building/structure he Civil Code designed for a certain period of time. - What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's Per Diem+Reimb. Expenses personal time is required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.? - What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from Payment Bond the contract? - What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and Lump Sum / Fixed Fee entails more paper works and is advantageous to both client and architect. 2-5% - Professional Fee for the Project Manager. - If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the Project Manager responsibility of hiring the Construction Manager? - True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal TRUE responsibility insofar as design and construction is concerned. - His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the owner of many of the anxieties that usually beset , Project Manager particularly those concerned with forecasting cost and completion dates. - In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has Public / People responsibility to seek opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs? - What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various PD 223 professionals. - Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by People / Public professional consensus and years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom? - Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before Bid Bulletin date of bidding. - The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract Proposal documents when made out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed. - The cashier's check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder, as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into a Proposal Bond contract with the owner for the construction of the work, if the contract is awarded to him. - Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement Special Provisions and/or modify drawings, specifications, and/or general conditions of the contract. - Written or printed description of work to be done describing qualities of specifications or specs material and mode of construction. - Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or Written Notice corporation at the last known business address of such individual, firm or corporation. - Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or Work other facilities necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract. - Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object Install specified ready for the intended use. Furnish - Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite. Provide - Means to furnish and install. - No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when 50% how many percent of the contract has been completed? - No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how many percent 65% of the contract price. 30% - The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price? - How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon 30% completion of the preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase? - Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on 2.5 completed contracts. - Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the 12 sqm architect is built by the contractor as temporary facilities for the project. - All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within 50 / Contractor ___ meters shall be done by the ___ at his own expense. - If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawings and Specifications specifications, what shall be followed? - How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's 15 Days clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect? - How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a 15 Days contract with a valid reason? - Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public 90 Days authority through no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract. - True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should False (30 days) fail to pay the contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration - True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should False (15 days) fail to act upon any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect. - Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a Contractor contract? - True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that materials and equipment left by the contractor which do TRUE not belong to him can be used and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor. - True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed TRUE including expenses incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner. - True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he FALSE takes over the work from the contractor for failure to complete the project. - How many days prior to canceling an insurance be given to the owner 10 days stipulating the intention to cancel? 15% - How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond? 15% - How many percent of the contract amount is the Payment Bond? - A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the Penalty Clause event of his breach. - Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial 5,000 for First 50 Hectares estates, commercial centers, sports complex, resorts, etc. R.A. 6451 - Predecessor of PD 1096 - What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of PD 1308 environmental planning? - It is a right enforceable against specific property to secure payment of Liens an obligation. 6% - Minimum basic fee for simple projects. 50% - Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations. - When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advise, clarification 200 / hr or explanation on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee shall be ___. - When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect is 500 compensated ___/ hr. 12% - Minimum basic fee for Group 5 Projects (monumental). Repetitive Construction - What is Group 6 Project classification? 10% of 1st unit ; 60% of MBF 2nd-10th Unit ; - Minimum Basic fee for housing projects. 30% of MBF 11th and above - Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Group 3 (Exceptional Character) Buildings fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character) - Under what classification of Project does Stadium fall? - Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From PHP 750.00 office. Construction Phase Service - On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go. - Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should 5 days be done within how many days after written notice by owner? - Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the owner right to remove said work at contractor's expense and 10 days contractor shall pay the owner the expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work? 7th day / Notice to Proceed - Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___. Civic Center - An area of a city where municipal buildings are grouped. - Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any Chattel interest in land that is less than a freehold. - No person who is not a citizen of the Philippines may take the board Reciprocity exams or practice the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___. Roster of Architects shows the names and places of business including other personal material and relevant data of all registered professional architects service agreement means a duly notarized written contract or equivalent public instrument stipulating the scope of services and guaranteeing compensation of such services to be rendered by an architect registered and licensed under R.A. no. 9266 Architect Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card issued by the professional regulatory board of architecture and professional regulation commission consulting architect professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or recognized expertise or specialization in any branch of architecture architect-in-charge of construction construction supervision of the project architect-of -record who shall assume the civil liability for the plans, specification and contract documents he/she has signed and sealed 0.30m under bp 220, firewalls shall extend vertically from the lowest portion of the wall adjoining the living units up to a minimum height of _______ above the highest point of the roof. 0.80m and 1.20m under bp 220, handrails or stairs shall not be less than _______ or more than _______ 70 percent Under PD 957, open market and medium cost subdivision projects with an area of one hectare or more, the percentage allocation of land for sealable area shall not exceed of the gross area 30 percent Under PD 957, open market and medium cost subdivision projects with an area of one hectare or more, the percentage allocation of land for non-sealable area shall not exceed of the gross area 40 percent Under PD 957, price of saleable lots intended for single-detached units shall not exceed ___ of the maximum selling price of house and lot packages 120sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum lot area for single detached under open market housing project shall be 96sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum lot area for duplex/single attached under open market housing project shall be 60sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum lot area for row house under open market housing project shall be 100sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum lot area for single detached under medium cost housing project shall be 80sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum lot area for duplex/singe attached under medium cost housing project shall be 50sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum lot area for row house under medium cost housing project shall be 12.00m Under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage for Single Detached (corner lot) housing for both open market and medium cost housing project 10.00m Under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage for Single Detached (irregular lot) housing for both open market and medium cost housing project 6.00m Under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage for Single Detached (interior lot) housing for both open market and medium cost housing project 8.00m Under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage for Duplex/single attached housing for both open market and medium cost housing project 4.00m Under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage for Rowhouse attached housing for both open market and medium cost housing project 6.00m Under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage for Single Detached (interior lot) housing for both open market and medium cost housing project 20 units Under PD 957, the number of row houses shall not exceed ___ per block/cluster but in no case shall this beyond 100m in length 250m Under PD 957, block exceeding ___ shall be provided with an alley approximately at mid length 100sq.m Under PD 957, area allocated for parks and playgrounds shall in no case be less than 42sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum floor area for all types of dwelling units in open market housing 150 liters per capitaL per day Under PD 957, the average daily demand for both open market and medium cost housing projects is ___ household connection 400m Under PD 957, maximum length of block shall not exceed 20 percent Under PD 957, the water tank capacity shall be __average daily demand plus fire reserve 50sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum area for a single park/playground shall be__ increments of 3. 00sq.m for every additional family dwelling type in excess of 10 units shall be added 50sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum area for a single park/playground shall be__ increments of 3. 00sq.m for every additional family dwelling type in excess of 10 units shall be added 30sq.m Under PD 957, the minimum floor area for all types of dwelling units in medium cost housing 200 meters Under PD 957, off-site parking shall not be located ___ away from the condominium BUILDING PERMIT No person shall construct any building or structure without first obtaining from the Building Official assigned in the place where the subject building is located 1 YEAR A building permit shall expire and become null and void if the building or work authorized therein is not commenced within a period of ___ from the date of such permit 120 DAYS A building permit shall expire and become null and void if the building or work authorized therein is suspended or abandoned at any time after it has been commenced 15DAYS The applicant/permittee may file an appeal within ___ days from the date of receipt of advice of the non-issuance, suspension or revocation of building permits. CERTIFICATE of OCCUPANCY No building or structure shall be used occupied and no change in the existing use or occupancy classification of a building or structure or portion there of shall be made until the building official has issued a _____ 30 DAYS A certificate of occupancy shall be issued by the building official within___ if after final inspection and submittal of a certificate of completion 750 mm. Under PD 1096, eaves over required windows shall be not less than from the side and rear property lines 3.00 m. Under PD 1096, the height of buildings shall be measure from the highest adjoining sidewalk or ground surface and shall not exceed such maximum height by more than 6.00 m. Under PD 1096, towers, spires and steeples, erected as part of a buildings and not used for habitation or storage are limited as to height only by structural design 90 PERCENT Under PD 1096, the dwelling shall occupy not more than __% of a CORNER LOT 80 PERCENT Under PD 1096, the dwelling shall occupy not more than__ % of an INSIDE LOT 2.00 m Easement on light and view of the Civil Code of the Philippines shall be at least from the property line Scope of the Practice of Architecture encompasses the provision of professional services in connection with site, physical and planning and the design, construction, enlargement, conservation, renovation, remodeling, restoration or alteration of a building or group of buildings 250mm & 600mm Under PD 1096, footing shall be of sufficient size and strength to support the load of the dwelling and shall be at least ___ thick and ___ below the surface of the ground 200kg per sq.m / 150kg per sq.m Under PD 1096, the live load of the first floor shall be at least _______. per square meters and for the second floor, at least _______ per square meter. 750mm Under PD 1096, the minimum clear width of stair shall be at least. 200mm Under PD 1096, the maximum height of riser shall be 200mm Under PD 1096, the minimum height of run shall be 1.20 METERS Under PD 1096, the court, yards and light wells shall be measured clear of all projections from the wall enclosing such well or yards with the exception of roofs leaders, wall copings, sill, or steel fire escaping not exceeding__ in width 2.00 m. Under PD 1096, the minimum horizontal dimension of court shall be not less than 1.20m. Under PD 1096, all inner courts shall be connected to a street or yard, either by a passageway with a minimum width of___ or by a door through a rooms 2.40m Under PD 1096, habitable rooms provided with artificial ventilation have ceiling heights measured from the floor to ceiling Under PD 957, single occupancy units in residential condominium projects, shall have a minimum floor area of 18sq.m Under PD 1096, for buildings of more than one-storey, the minimum ceiling heights of first floor shall be 2.70m and for the second floor ___ and succeeding storey shall have an unobstructed typical head-room clearance of not less than 2.10m above finished floor 2.40m Under PD 957, the minimum floor area of family condominium units shall be Under PD 1096, rooms for human habitations shall have a minimum area of 6. 00sq.m with a least dimension of ___ meters 2.00m Under PD 1096, kitchens shall have a minimum area of 3. 00sq.m with at least dimension of ___ meters 1.50 m Under PD 1096, room with natural ventilation shall have ceiling height not less than 2.70m Under PD 1096, every room intended for any use, not provided with artificial ventilation system, shall be provided with a windows with a total free area of openings equal to at least ___ of the floor area of room. 10 percent Under PD 1096, footings located at least 2.40m below the grade along national roads or public highways may projects not more than ___ beyond the property line 300mm. Under PD 1096, foundations may be permitted to encroach into public sidewalks to a width not exceeding 500mm; provided that the top the said foundations is not less than___ below the established grade 600mm. Under PD 1096, the clearance between the established grade of the street and/ or sidewalk and the lowest under surface of any part of the balcony shall not be less than 3.00m Under PD 1096, the horizontal clearance between the outermost edge of the marquee and the curb line shall be not less than 300mm Under PD 1096, every corner building or solid fence on a public street or alleys in width shall be truncated at the corner 3.60m Under PD 1096, every buildings or usable portion thereof shall have at least __ exit One Under PD 1096, every buildings or usable portion thereof shall have at least __ exit One Under PD 1096, in all occupancies, floor above the first storey, having an occupant load more than 10 shall not have less than __ exit Two Under PD 1096, in a building equipped with a complete automatic fire extinguishing system the distance from exits may be increased to ____ 60m Under PD 1096, every required exit doorway shall be of a size as to permit the installation of a door not less than ____ in width and not less than _____ in height. 900mm and 2m Under PD 1096, door leaf width of an exit door shall not exceed ___ in width. 1.2 m Under PD 1096, every corridor or exit balcony shall not be less than ____ in width. 1.1 m Under PD 1096, doors any position shall not reduce the required width of the corridor by more than ______ One- half Under PD 1096, corridors and exterior exit balconies with dead ends are permitted when the dead end exceed _____ in length 6.00 m Under PD 1096, stairways serving an occupant load of more than 50 shall not be less than _____ in width 1.10 m Under PD 1096, private stairways serving an occupant load of less than 10 may be ____ in width. 750 mm Under PD 1096, trim and handrails shall not reduce the required width by more than _____ 100 mm Under PD 1096, stairways serving occupant load of 50 or less than may be __ wide 900m Under PD 1096, the rise of every step in a stairway shall not exceed 200mm Under PD 1096, the run of every step in stairway shall not be less than 250mm Under PD 1096, every landing shall have a dimension measured in the direction of travel equal to the width of the stairway. Such dimension need not exceed__ when the stairs has a straight run 1.20m Under PD 1096, landings when provided shall not be reduced in width by more than___ by a door when fully open 100mm Under PD 1096, vertical distance between landings shall not be more than 3.60m Under PD 1096, handrails shall be placed not less than ___ nor more than __ above the nosing of treads and ends of handrails shall be returned or shall terminate in newel post 800mm & 900mm Under PD 1096, every required stairway shall have a headroom clearance of not less than 2.00m Under PD 1096, in building ___ in height, one of the required exits shall be a smoke proof enclosure 5 storey and more Under PD 1096, every aisle shall be not less than___ wide if serving both side 1.00m Under PD 1096, every building____ in height shall be equipped with one more dry standpipes 4 storey and more Under PD 1096, the number of wet standpipe when required shall be so determined that all portions of the buildings are within ___ of the nozzle attached to a hose 23.00 meter in length 6.00m Under PD 1096, all interior wet standpipes shall be connected to a street main not less than ___ in diameter 100mm Under PD 1096, fire hose shall be equipped with a suitable brass or bronze nozzle and shall be not over __ in length 23.00m. is the art, science or profession of planning, designing and constructing buildings in their totality taking into account their environment, in accordance with the principles of utility, strength and beauty Architecture means a person professionally and academically qualified, registered and licensed under this Act with a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card issued by the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture and the Professional Regulation Commission, and who is responsible for advocating the fair and sustainable development, welfare and cultural expression of society's habitat in terms of space, forms and historical context; Architect means an architect registered and licensed under this Act, who is directly and professionally responsible and liable for the construction supervision of the project Architecture-in-charge of construction means the architect registered and licensed or permitted to practice under this Act, who is professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or recognized expertise or specialization in any branch of architecture Consulting Architect means the act of planning and architectural designing, structural conceptualization, specifying, supervising and giving general administration and responsible direction to the erection, enlargement or alterations of buildings and building environments and architectural design in engineering structures General Practice of Architecture means the act of conceiving, choosing and developing the type, disposition, arrangement and proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work giving due consideration to safety, cost-effectiveness, functionality and aesthetic Structural Conceptualization means a sole proprietorship, a partnership or a corporation registered with the proper government agencies Architectural Firm refers to the author or authors of a set of architectural plans or specifications who are in charge of their preparation, whether made by them personally or under their immediate supervision Authorship refers to the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture Board means the Professional Regulation Commission Commission means a duly notarized written contract or equivalent public instrument stipulating the scope of services and guaranteeing compensation of such services to be rendered by an architect registered and licensed under this Act Service Agreement means the existing official national organization of all architects of the Philippines in which all registered Filipino architects shall be members without prejudice to membership in other voluntary professional associations Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization refers to a sustaining and progressive learning process that maintains, enhances, or increases the knowledge and continuing ability of architects "Continuing Professional Development The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of three (3) years after appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified Term of Office a.Prescribe and adopt the rules and regulations necessary for carrying out the provisions of this Act; b. Supervise the registration, licensure and practice of architects; c. Administer oaths in connection with the administration of this Act Powers and Functions of the Board The chairman and members of the Board shall receive compensation and allowances comparable to that being received by the chairman and members of existing regulatory Boards under the Commission as provided for in the General Appropriations Act. Compensation and Allowances of the Board The Board shall submit an annual report to the Commission after the close of each year giving a detailed account of its proceedings during the year and making such recommendations as it may deem proper Annual Report All applicants for registration for the practice of architecture shall be required to undergo a licensure examination to be given by the Board in such places and dates as the Commission may designate in accordance with the provisions of Republic Act No. Examination Required To be qualified as having passed the licensure examination for architects, a candidate must obtain a weighted general average of seventy percent (70%), with no grade lower than fifty percent (50%) in any given subject Rating in the Licensure Examination The Board shall submit to the Commission the ratings obtained by each candidate within thirty (30) calendar days after the examination Report of Ratings All successful candidates in the examination shall be required to take an oath of profession before any member of the Board Oath No person shall practice architecture in this country, or engage in preparing architectural plans, specification or preliminary data for the erection or alteration of any building located within the boundaries of this country or use the title "Architect, Registration of Architects Required All architects registered at the time this law takes effect shall automatically be registered under the provisions hereof, subject, however, to the provisions herein set forth as to future requirements Vested Rights: Architects Registered When this Law is Passed A person who is not a citizen of the Philippines at the time he/she applies to take the examination shall not be allowed to take the licensure examination unless he/she can prove, in the manner provided by the Rules of Court Reciprocity Requirements To promote public interest and to safeguard life, health and property, all practicing architects shall maintain a program of continuing professional organization shall have the responsibility of developing a continuing professional development program for architects. Other entities or organizations may become CPD providers upon accreditation by the Board. Continuing Professional Development (CPD) Any person who shall practice or offer to practice architecture in the Philippines without being registered/licensed and who are not holders of temporary or special permits in accordance with the provisions of this Act Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture and Penal Clause Any person or entity, whether public or private, Filipino or foreigner, who/which shall entice, compel, coerce, require or otherwise force an architect registered and licensed under this Act to undertake/perform any service under the general practice of architecture as defined under this Act Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture It shall be unlawful for any person or firm or corporation to seek to avoid the provisions of this Act by having a representative or employee seek architectural work in their behalf, unless and until, such persons have duly qualified and are duly registered/licensed Liability of Representatives of Non-Registered Persons The Architecture profession shall be integrated into one (1) national organization which shall be accredited by the Board, subject to the approval by the Commission, as the integrated and accredited professional organization of architects Integration of the Architecture Profession Within sixty (60) days after the effectivity of this Act, the Board, subject to the approval of the Commission and in coordination with the integrated and accredited professional organization, shall adopt and promulgate such rules and regulations, Code of Ethical Conduct and Standards of Professional Practice, to carry out the provisions of this Act Implementing Rules and Regulations The Chairperson of the Professional Regulation Commission shall immediately include in the Commission programs the implementation of this Act, the funding of which shall be included in the annual General Appropriations Act. Appropriations This Act shall not be construed to affect or prevent the practice of any other legally recognized profession. Act Not Affecting Other Professionals It shall be the primary duty of the Commission and the Board to effectively enforce the provision of this Act. All duly constituted law enforcement agencies and officers of national, provincial, city or municipal government or of any political subdivision thereof, shall, upon the call or request of the Commission or the Board, render assistance in enforcing the provisions of this Act and to prosecute any person violating the provisions of the same Enforcement of the Act A roster showing the names and place of business of all registered professional architects shall be prepared and updated by the Board and copies thereof shall be made available to any party as may be deemed necessary Roster of Architects A duly licensed architect shall affix the seal prescribed by the Board bearing the registrant's name, registration number and title "Architect" on all architectural plans, drawings, specifications and all other contract documents prepared by or under his/her direct supervision. Seal, Issuance and Use of Seal shall be unlawful for any architect to sign his/her name, affix his/her seal, or use any other method of signature or architectural plans, specifications or other contract documents made under another architect's supervision, Signing of Architectural Plans, Specifications and Other Contract Documents Drawings and specifications and other contract documents duly signed, stamped or sealed, as instruments of service, are the intellectual property and documents of thr architect, whether the object for which they are made is executed or not. It shall be unlawful for any person to duplicate or to make copies of said documents for use in the repetition of and for other projects or buildings, whether executed partly or in whole, without the written consent of architect or author of said documents Ownership of Plans, Specifications and other Contract Documents Persons not registered as an architect shall not claim nor represent either services or work as equivalent to those of a duly qualified registered architect, or that they are qualified for any branch or functions of function of architectural practice, even though no form of the title "Architect" is used. Non-Registered Person Shall Not Claim Equivalent Service It shall be unlawful for any unregistered person to collect a fee for architectural services except as an employee collecting a fee as representative of a Registered Architect. Collection of Professional Fees f any clause, provision, paragraph or part hereof shall be declared unconstitutional or invalid, such judgment shall not affect, invalidate or impair any other part hereof, but such judgment shall be merely confined to the clause, provision, paragraph or part directly involved in the controversy in which such judgment has been rendered Separability Clause Republic Act No. 545, as amended by Republic Act No. 1581 is hereby repealed and all other laws, orders, rules and regulations or resolutions or part/s thereof inconsistent with the provisions of this Act are hereby repealed or modified accordingly Repealing Clause his Act shall take effect after fifteen 15 (5) days following its publication in the Official Gazette or in two (2) newspapers of general circulation Effectivity Prior to the start of any Pre-Design Services, a______ between Owner/Client and Architect is necessary PROFESSIONAL SERVICE AGREEMENT The Architect should request for a ___ % ACCEPTANCE FREE based on agreed professional fee 5 PERCENT Client shall make progress payments upon request of the Architect within ___ from the submission of the statement of the account 7 CALENDAR DAYS SIMPLEST UTILIZATION AND CHARACTER GROUP 1 MODERATE COMPLEXITY GROUP 2 Exceptional Character GROUP3 For Detailed Architectural Design Services (DADS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 2 RESIDENCES GROUP 4 MONUMENTAL BUILDINGS GROUP 5 REPETITIVE CONSTRUCTION of similar buildings without amending the drawing and the specifications fall under what group GROUP 6 HOUSING PROJECT involving the CONSTRUCTION OF SEVERAL RESIDENTIAL UNITS ON A SINGLE SITE with the use of one set plans/designs, specifications and related documents GROUP 7 Projects involving EXTENSIVE DETAIL such as designs for built-in components or elements, built-in equipment, special fittings, screens, counters, architectural interiors, and development planning GROUP 8 For Detailed Architectural and Engineering Design Services (DAEDS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 1 5 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural Design Services (DADS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 1 3 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural and Engineering Design Services (DAEDS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 2 6 PERCENT 3.6 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural Design Services (DADS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 2 For Detailed Architectural and Engineering Design Services (DAEDS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 3 7 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural Design Services (DADS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 3 4.2 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural and Engineering Design Services (DAEDS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 4 10 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural Design Services (DADS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 4 6 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural and Engineering Design Services (DAEDS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 5 12 PERCENT For Detailed Architectural Design Services (DADS) what is the recommended professional fee for GROUP 5 7.5 PERCENT Upon completion of SCHEMATIC DESIGN PHASE, the Owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to ____% of the agreed Professional Fee 15 PERCENT Upon completion of DESIGN DEVELOPMETN PHASE, the Owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to ____% of the agreed Professional Fee 20 PERCENT Upon completion of CONTRACT DOCUMENT PHASE, the Owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to ____% of the agreed Professional Fee 50 PERCENT For regular design services of the Architect, within 15 DAYS after the award of the winning bidder the payment to the Architect shall be adjusted so that it will amount the sum equivalent to the ___% of the Professional Fee 90 PERCENT Upon COMPLETION OF THE WORK, the Owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to ___% of the agreed Professional Fee 10 PERCENT Under regular design services, Architect's fee for its liability under the civil code is equivalent to ___% of the agreed Professional Fee 5 PERCENT Under regular design services, Architect's fee for periodic construction supervision is equivalent to ___% of the agreed Professional Fee 5 PERCENT Construction phase of the Architect's regular design services is equivalent to __% of the agreed Professional Fee 10 PERCENT When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as prepared by the Architect, The Architect is entitled to receive as compensation the sum corresponding to ___ the Architect's Fee 90 PERCENT The suspension of construction exceeds a period of ____, the fee for the remaining works (Periodic Construction Supervision) shall be DOUBLED6 MONTHS Refers to the Architect's Service that deals with specific expertise for further enhancement of the architectural interior and exterior components of the proj. SPECIALIZED ARCH'L SERVICES The fee of the design Architect for coordinating and relating the work of the Specialist Consultant to the design concept 5 PERCENT Recommended Professional Fee for the Specialized Architectural Services, the cost of the work depending on the complexity of the work required by the proj, 10-15 PERCENT For Specialized Architectural Services, the Owner shall pay the Architect sum equal to the fee upon submission of the FINAL DESIGN 50 PERCENT Recommended Professional Fee for the Physical Planning for the Building Sites, is ___ per hectare for the first five hectares new to the architect 50K If the land is rugged with steep terrain, Recommended Professional Fee for the Physical Planning for the Building Sites, shall increase by _____ 20-30 PERCENT For Physical Planning, the owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to percentage of the recommended professional fee upon completion of the Framework Development Plan 30 PERCENT For Physical Planning, the owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to percentage of the recommended professional fee upon completion of the Conceptual Master Development Plan 30 PERCENT For Physical Planning, the owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to percentage of the recommended professional fee upon completion of the Preliminary Master Development Plan 20 PERCENT For Physical Planning, the owner shall pay the Architect a sum equal to percentage of the recommended professional fee upon completion of the Detailed Master Development Plan 20 PERCENT The recommended Professional Fee for FULTIME CONSTRUCTION SUPERVISION SERVICES is____ of the project construction cost 1-1.5 PERCENT Under BP 220, are allocated for parks and playgrounds be less than 100sq.m Under BP 220, subdivision projects abutting a main public road must provide sufficient setbacks with a minimum dimension of ___ in depth and ____ in length at both sides of the subdivision entrance 3.00m & 5.00m Under BP 220, alley shall have a width of ____ intended to break a block to serve both pedestrian and for emergency purposes, both ends connecting to streets. It shall not be used as access to the property 2.00meters Under PD 1096, no point building without a sprinkler system shall be more than__ from an exterior exit door, a horizontal exit, exit passageway, or an enclosed stairway, measured along the line or travel 45m. Under PD 1096, toilet and bath shall have a minimum area of 1. 20sq.m with at least dimension of __ meters 0.90m Under PD 957, parks/playground or other recreational facilities may not be required if the condominium is located within ___ from a publicity accessible park/playground/or other recreational facilities 800 meters Under PD 1096, mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height not less than 1.80m Under PD 957, provision of street lighting per pole is mandatory at___ distance and every other pole if distance is less than 50 meters 50 meters 2.00meters Under BP 220, alley shall have a width of ____ intended to break a block to serve both pedestrian and for emergency purposes, both ends connecting to streets. It shall not be used as access to the property Under BP 220, path walks shall have a maximum length of 60meters Under BP 220, roads should intersect at right angles as much as practicable. Multiple intersections along major roads shall be minimized. Distance between offset intersections should not less than___ from cornet to corner 20 meter Under BP 220, the minimum lot area of single detached housing for economic housing project shall be 72sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum lot area of Duplex/singe attached housing for economic project shall be 54sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum lot area of RowHouse housing for economic housing project shall be 36sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum lot area of single detached housing for socialized housing project shall be 64sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum lot area of Duplex/singe attached housing for socialized housing project shall be 48sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum lot area of RowHouse housing for socialized housing project shall be 28sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of Single Detached (Corner Lot) for economic housing projects 8.00m Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of Single Detached (Regular Lot) for economic housing projects 8.00m Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of Single Detached (Irregular Lot) for economic housing projects 4.00m Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of Single Detached (Interior Lot) for economic housing projects 3.00m 6.00m Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of Duplex/Single Attached for economic housing projects Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of RowHouse for economic housing projects 4.00m Under BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of RowHouse for socialized housing projects 3.50m Under BP 220, the minimum floor area requirements for single-family for economic housing 22sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum floor area requirements for single-family for socialized housing 18sq.m Under BP 220, the minimum front setback of dwelling unit both for economic and socialized housing projects 1.50m Under BP 220, the minimum rear yard of dwelling unit both for economic and socialized housing projects 2.00m Under BP 220, if ground reservoir is to be put up, it shall be protected from pollution b providing buffer from sources of pollution/contamination 25.00m Under BP 220, Private open space for interior lot (Residential) 50percent Under BP 220, Private open space for inside lot (Residential) 20percent Under BP 220, Private open space for corner and /or through lot (Residential) 10percent Under BP 220, Private open space for lots bounded on 3 or mores dies by public open spaces (Residential) 5percent Under BP 220, minimum ceiling height for habitable rooms shall be measured from the finished floor line to the ceiling line. Where ceilings are not provided, a minimum headroom clearance of ___shall be provided 2.00m Under BP 220, mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height 1.80m Under BP 220, mezzanine floors shall not cover ___ of the floor below it 50 percent Under BP 220, doors shall have a minimum clear height of 2.00m Under BP 220, bathroom and mezzanine door shall have a minimum clear height of 1.80m Under BP 220, mezzanine floors shall not cover ___ of the floor below it 50 percent Under BP 220, doors shall have a minimum clear height of 2.00m Under BP 220, bathroom and mezzanine door shall have a minimum clear height of 1.80m Under BP 220, minimum clear width of main doors shall be.80meters Under BP 220, minimum clear width of service/bedroom doors shall be.70meters Under BP 220, minimum clear width of bathrooms' doors shall be.60m Under BP 220, room for habitable use shall be provided with windows with a total free area of opening equal to at least ___ of the floor area of the room 10percent Under BP 220, bathrooms shall be provided with window/s with an area not less than ___ of its floor area 1/20 Under BP 220, stairways shall have minimum clear width of.60m Under BP 220, stairs shall have maximum riser height of 0.25m Under BP 220, stairs shall have a minimum tread width of 0.20m Under BP 220, stairs shall have a minimum headroom clearance of 2.00m Under BP 220, every landing shall have a dimension measures in the direction of travel equal to the width of the stairway. Maximum height between landings 3.60m Under BP 220, handrails on stairs shall not be less than ___ or more than ____ above the upper surface of the tread, measured vertically to the top of the rail from the leading edge of the tread.80m & 1.20m Under BP 220, firewalls shall extend vertically from the lowest portion of the wall adjoining the living units up to a minimum height of ___ above the highest point of the roof 0.30m Under BP 344, accessible ramps shall have a minimum clear width of 1.20m 1:12m Under BP 344, accessible ramp shall have a gradient not steeper than Under BP 344, accessible ramp shall have a maximum length of 6.00m Under BP 344, accessible ramps with a total length of longer than 6.00m shall be provided with intermediate landings with a minimum length of 1.50m Under BP 344, level area not less than ___ at the top and bottom of any ramp shall be provided 1.80m Under BP 344, a ___ long extension of the handrail shall be provided at the top and bottom of ramps 300mm Under BP 344, curbs on both sides of the ramp shall be provided with a minimum height of 100mm Under BP 344, any ramp with a rise greater than 170mm and leads down towards an area where vehicular traffic is possible, should have railing across the full width of its lower end, not less than __ form the foot of the ramp 1.80m Under BP 344, handrails shall be required for accessible having changes in grade higher than 170mm Under BP 344, handrails shall be installed at ___ above stairs or ramps 700mm & 900mm Under BP 344, railings for protection should be installed height of110mm Under BP 344, handrails and grab bars that require full grips should have an outside diameter of at least ____ and not exceed ___ 38mm & 45mm Under BP 344, handrails attached to wall should have a minimum clear distance of __ from the wall 50mm Under BP 344, accessible parking slots shall have a minimum width of 3.70m Under BP 344, accessible parking slots shall have a minimum length of 5.00m Under BP 344, a walkway with a minimum clear width of ___ provided between the front ends of parked cars 1.20m Under BP 344, should signage protrude into sidewalk/walkway or route, a minimum vertical clearance 2.00m Under BP 344, signs on walls and doors should be installed at a maximum height from FFL to the center of the sign 1.50m Under BP 344, maximum height of riser of stairs shall be 150mm Under BP 344, the minimum width of treads of stairs shall be 300mm Under BP 344, curbs ramp shall only be allowed if the width of sidewalks is more than with a corresponding curb height of 150mm 3.30m Under BP 344, for drop off points for person with disabilities at loading bays, the minimum width of a curb ramp should be 900mm Under BP 344, sidewalks/ walkways shall have a minimum width of 1.20m Under BP 344, pedestrian crossing shall not be located street corners but at a minimum distance of ___ from the corner 2.00m Under BP 344, entrances with vestibules shall be provided with a level area with at least ___ depth and a ___ width 1.80 & 1.50m Under BP 344, all doors shall have a minimum clear width of 900mm Under BP 344, clear openings shall be measured from the face of a fully open door at __ and the door jamb 90 degrees Under BP 344, minimum clear level spaced of ___ shall be provided before and extending beyond a door 1500mx1500m Under BP 344, for doors with peepholes, provided a secondary peephole at a height of __ from the finished floor for wheelchairs user 1.10m Under BP 344, corridors shall have a minimum clear width of __ to allow for both a wheelchair user and a non-pwd to pass 1.20m Under BP 344, turnabout spaces should also be provided at or within__ of every dead end corridor 3.50m Under BP 344, accessible toilet compartments shall have a minimum area of 1.70m x 1.80m Under BP 344, accessible elevator should be located not more than __ from the entrance and should be easy to locate with the aid of direction signs 30m Under BP 344, accessible elevator cars shall have a clear door opening of not less than 900mm 8m. As per PD 957, what is the minimum width for roads or right-of-way for residential condominium projects Water As per BP 220, which among the following is the highest in the hierarchy of basic needs of human settlements, the provision of which shall be based on the actual setting which the project is located 200 / 250 mm As per BP 220, what is the minimum dimension for stairway tread and riser respectively. 42 sqm. What is the minimum floor area for open market housing units as per PD 957? 1.8 m. As per BP 344, a level of area not less than how many meters shall be provided at the top and bottom of any ramp. ii, iii, iv Degree of hazard is determined by; i. Fire resistance rating, ii. Probability that a building, structure or facility may catch fire, iii. Difficulty in evacuating people, iv. Difficulty in suppressing fire Fire Trap A building is unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes 55 cm. As per PD 1185, what is the unit of exit width used to measure means of egress? 1.95 m. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum headroom clearance for class B stairs? Retaining Wall Any wall used to resist the lateral displacement of any material; a subsurface wall built to resist the lateral pressure of internal loads. 10 For hotels, minimum required parking is 1 slot per how many rooms? 50 For public Buildings such as theaters and cinemas, minimum required parking is 1 slot per how many sqm. of spectator area? 50 For places of worship and funeral parlors, minimum parking is 1 slot per how many sqm. of congregation area? 5 For colleges and universities, minimum required parking is 1 slot per how many classrooms? Firewall Any wall which subdivides a building so as to resist the spread of fire, by starting at the foundation and extending continuously through the storey to, or above the roof. 25 For hospitals, minimum required parking slot is 1 slot per how many beds? 10 For elementary, secondary, vocational, and trade schools, minimum required parking slot is 1 slot per how many classrooms? Business and Mercantile As per PD 1096, under what classification shall gasoline filling and service stations be classified? 0.75m As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear width for group A dwelling stairs? Latest Income Tax Which is not Requirement in applying for building permit? Alteration What is referred to in works to building/structures involving changes in the materials used, partitioning, location/size of openings, structural parts , existing utilities, but does not increase the height and/or floor area? 60m. As per BP 220, what is the maximum length of an alley in a residential block? 0.60m. As per BP 220, What is the minimum clear width of stairways? Orientation What is the basic principle applied in the basic planning requirements of BP 344 standards so that finding a person's way inside and outside of a building or open space shall be made easy for everyone? Business and Mercantile As per PD 1096, under what classification shall factories and workshops using less flammable or non-combustible materials be classified? Aesthetic Value which of the following is not covered in the framework of minimum standards and requirements for buildings under PD 1096? 2.5m. x 5m. As per PD 1096, what is the size of automobile parking slot for perpendicular or diagonal parking? 20% As per PD 1096, how many percent of parking requirements be provided if adequate public parking lot/multi-floor parking garages area available within 200 meters of the proposed building/structures? 4.50m. As per PD 1096, What is the minimum front setback for a Residential R-1 lot? Type III As per PD 1096, What is the classification of buildings of masonry and wood construction with a one-hour fire- resistivity throughout and exterior walls of incombustible fire-resistive construction. 14cum. As per PD 1096, What is the minimum air space per person for a habitable room with natural ventilation? 50% For residential occupancies, how many percent of an interior lot is open space? 3m. As per PD 1096, What is the minimum width for access road to interior lots? Parpet Wall That part of any wall entirely above the roof line. 1 Multi Family living units regardless of number of stories with an average living unit floor area of more than 100 sqm. shall have 1 parking slot per how many living units? 60m Parking areas for the physically handicapped shall be within how many meters of the facility being served measured from the farthest parking space along the accessible path to closest accessible distance 5 For residential hotels, minimum parking slow is 1 slot per how many units? 100m. As per BP 344, what is the maximum length for row house units? 2.25m. As per BP 344, accessible public washrooms and toilets shall permit easy passage of a wheelchair and must allow how much turning space for wheelchairs? 60sqm. What is the minimum lot area for open market row house units as prescribed in the PD 957? 1% As per BP 220, how many percent of the gross subdv. area shall be allocated for community facilities if the density is not more than 150 dwelling units per hectare in socialized housing? 150sqm. For markets, minimum required parking is 1 slot per how many sqm. of market? 4 Multi-family living units regardless of number of stories with an average living unit floor area above 50 sqm. to 100sqm. shall have 1 parking slot per how many living units? 2 In all occupancies, floors above the first story having an occupant load of more than 10 shall not have less than _____ Exits 22sqm. What is the minimum floor area for economic housing units as provided for in BP 220? 3.5m. What is the minimum lot frontage for row house units in economic housing as provided in BP 220? 100sqm. As per BP 220, what is the minimum area for parks and playgrounds? 3.7m. As per BP 344, how much is the parking sloth width for handicapped drivers and passengers providing sufficient clear space between parked cars to allow them to transfer to a wheelchair? Consider Climate As per BP 220, Which of the following is not an important planning consideration for circulation system layout? 6 As per BP 344, how many seats shall be designated for disabled persons in passenger trains Project Cost Which of the following is not included in the outline prescribed by the Department of Environment and Natural Resources for the preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement? Multi-Family Dwelling A dwelling on one lot containing separate living units for 3 or more famil

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