Practice Test Chapters 14 & 15 PDF

Practice Test 6 for chapters 14 and 15 1. Lymphatic system contains what? a) Lymph b) Lymph and Lymph Vessels c) Lymph vessels d) None of the above 2. Lymph Organs contains which of the following? a) Lymph nodes b) Lymph nodes and thymus c) Lymph nodes, Thymus, s...

Practice Test 6 for chapters 14 and 15 1. Lymphatic system contains what? a) Lymph b) Lymph and Lymph Vessels c) Lymph vessels d) None of the above 2. Lymph Organs contains which of the following? a) Lymph nodes b) Lymph nodes and thymus c) Lymph nodes, Thymus, spleen d) Lymph nodes, Thymus, Tonsils, and spleen 3. Interstitial fluid in tissue spaces carry what and will be returned to what? a) Proteins molecules and other substances protein will be carried or returned into the blood, but lymph will be left behind b) Proteins molecules and dissolved substances will be carried or returned into the blood, but lymph will be left behind c) Substances molecule will be carried into the blood, but lymph will be left behind d) Plasma will be transported or returned into the blood, but lymph will be left behind 4. Lymphatic capillary’s function is to do what? a) Valves that only permit one way movement of lymph, microscopic in size, sheets containing a single layer of simple squamous epithelium, poor fit between adjacent cells resulting in porous wall allowing large molecules including protein to slip into vessels, allowing for the lymph to move from the capillaries to the lymphatic venules to lymph veins. b) Tiny blind ended tubes distributed in tissue spaces allowing for lymph to leave tissue spaces 5. Lymph vessel’s function is to what? a) Drain lymph from the right upper extremity and right side of the head, neck, and upper torso b) Valves that only permit one way movement of lymph, microscopic in size, sheets containing a single layer of simple squamous epithelium, poor fit between adjacent cells resulting in porous wall allowing large molecules including protein to slip into vessels, allowing for the lymph to move from the capillaries to the lymphatic venules to lymph veins.  c) Tiny blind ended tubes distributed in tissue spaces allowing for lymph to leave tissue spaces 6. Right lymphatic Duct function is to what? a) Tiny blind ended tubes distributed in tissue spaces allowing for lymph to leave tissue spaces b) Valves that only permit one way movement of lymph, microscopic in size, sheets containing a single layer of simple squamous epithelium, poor fit between adjacent cells resulting in porous wall allowing large molecules including protein to slip into vessels, allowing for the lymph to move from the capillaries to the lymphatic venules to lymph veins. c) Drain lymph from the right upper extremity and right side of the head, neck, and upper torso 7. Thoracic Duct? a) Contains the largest lymphatic vessel b) Contains an enlarged pouch along its course called Cristerna Chyli c) Drains lymph from about ¾ of the body d) Lymphatic capillaries are in the small intestines called Lacteals e) Tiny blind ended tubes distributed in tissue spaces allowing for lymph to leave tissue spaces f) Valves that only permit one way movement of lymph, microscopic in size, sheets containing a single layer of simple squamous epithelium, poor fit between adjacent cells resulting in porous wall allowing large molecules including protein to slip into vessels, allowing for the lymph to move from the capillaries to the lymphatic venules to lymph veins g) Drain lymph from the right upper extremity and right side of the head, neck, and upper torso 8. Lymph node’s function and consist of what select all that apply? a) Lymph travels from its origin toward the thoracic or lymphatic ducts and then to the Venus blood filtered by passing through the lymph nodes b) Most are in clusters along the lymphatic pathway c) Mass of the lymphocytes and related cells inside organ, which provides immune function and development of immune cells d) Lymph node and other lymphoid organs have functions that include defense and WBC formation e) Lymphatic capillaries are in the small intestines called Lacteals f) Tiny blind ended tubes distributed in tissue spaces allowing for lymph to leave tissue spaces  g) Contains the largest lymphatic vessel h) Flow of lymph to node via several afferent lymphatic vessels and drained from node by one or more efferent lymph moves slowly through the sinus or a node i) Breasts have a unique extensive network of lymphatic drainage draining excess fluid that may accumulate when breast are producing milk, can also serve as a pathway for infections and cancer j) Lymph is filtered so bacteria, cancer cells, virus infected cells and damaged tissue cells are removed and prevented from entering the blood and circulating throughout the body 9. Thymus includes what select all that apply. a) Small lymphoid tissue organ located in the mediastinum and secretes hormone thymosin which influence T cell development b) Small lymphoid tissue organ located in the mediastinum, secretes hormone thymosin which influence T cell development, Vital and control role in immunity c) Small lymphoid tissue organ located in the mediastinum, secretes hormone thymosin which influence T cell development, Vital and control role in immunity, source of lymphocytes before birth especially important in maturation or development of T cells. d) Small lymphoid tissue organ located in the mediastinum, secretes hormone thymosin which influence T cell development, Vital and control role in immunity, source of lymphocytes before birth especially important in maturation or development of T cells, Thymus tissue gradually replaced by fat and connective tissue during childhood in a process called involution, By Gyros lymphoid tissue about half of its maximal dimension and virtually gone by the age of 80yrs, Total weight is 35-40g little more than an ounce. 10. Tonsils are Composed of three masses of lymphoid tissue around the opening of the mouth and throat Palatines are usually called the tonsils? a) True b) False 11. Palatine Tonsils consists of what? a) The Tonsil’s  b) Adenoids c) Lingual Tonsils 12. Pharyngeal Tonsil’s consists of what? a) The Tonsil’s b) Adenoids c) Lingual Tonsils 13. Tonsils Function is to what select all that apply? a) Protect against bacteria that may invade tissues around the openings between nasal and oral cavities b) Second line of defense from exterior subject to chronic infection c) Do not necessarily need to be removed if antibiotics are not effective in fixing chronic infections or if enlargement impairs breathing d) Protect against bacteria that may invade tissues around the openings between the nasal and oral cavities, first line of defense from exterior subject to chronic infection, and the Tonsil’s may need to be removed if antibiotic is not effective in fixing chronic infection or if enlargement impairs breathing 14. Spleen contains what and function is to what? a) Contains the largest organ in the body b) Located below the right upper quadrant of abdomen lateral to the stomach c) Contains less than 500ml of blood and does not serve as a reservoir for blood that can be returned to the cardiovascular system when needed d) Contains the Largest lymphoid organ in the body, located in the upper left quadrant of abdomen lateral to the stomach, Protected by the ribs often injured by trauma to the abdomen, contains more than 500ml of blood and serves as a reservoir for blood that can be returned to the cardiovascular system if needed, and if damaged a splenectomy may be  required, major functions are to produce phagocytosis of bacteria and old RBCS which is also a reservoir for monocytes 15. Splenectomy is a procedure that may be required to stop blood loss and ensure survival if spleen is injured due to trauma. a) True b) False 16. Functions of the immune system is to what? a) Protect the body from pathological bacteria, foreign tissue cells, and cancerous cells b) Made up of defense cells and molecules c) Both A and B 17. What is called innate immunity? a) Nonspecific immunity b) Specific immunity c) Natural immunity d) Artificial immunity 18. Innate immunity is defined as? a) Something we are not born with and does require prior exposure to antigen b) Called first responders because of rapid immune response c) Inflammatory response attracts immune cells to site of injury increasing local blood flow, increases vascular permeability which promotes movement of RBC to the site of injury or infection d) Something we are born with and does not require prior exposure to antigen, called first responders because of rapid immune response, Inflammatory response attracts immune cells to site of injury increasing local blood flow, increases vascular permeability which promotes movement of WBC to the site of injury or infection, and produce the  characteristic signs of inflammation, which include heat, redness, pain and swelling 19. Adaptive immunity is another name for which type of immunity? a) Nonspecific immunity b) Specific immunity c) Natural immunity d) Artificial immunity 20. Adaptive immunity is defined as what? a) Is called adaptive immunity because of the ability to recognize, respond to and remember harmful substances or bacteria b) Not attacked by bacteria or viruses, disease symptoms which no not occur as body fights to destroy threating organism c) Is called adaptive immunity because of the ability to recognize, respond to and remember harmful substances or bacteria, first attacked by bacteria or viruses, disease symptoms may occur as body fights to destroy threatening organism, stops the second attack of same organism 21. Natural immunity is defined as what? a) Active disease that produces immunity and the exposure is not deliberate b) Immunity that passes from mother to baby or fetus through the placenta or from mother to child through mother’s breast milk c) Natural immunity is exposure to causative agent and is not deliberate, also last much longer than passive immunity d) Exposure to causative agent and is not deliberate 22. Active immunity is defined as? a) Active disease that produces immunity and the exposure is not deliberate b) Immunity that passes from mother to baby or fetus through the placenta or from mother to child through mother’s breast milk  c) Natural immunity is exposure to causative agent and is not deliberate, also last much longer than passive immunity d) Active immunity is a disease that produces immunity, and the exposure is not deliberate also lasts much longer than passive immunity 23. Passive immunity is defined as? a) Immunity that passes from mother to baby or fetus through the placenta or from mother to child through mother’s breast milk b) Disease produces immunity exposure does not deliberate c) Exposure to causative agent which is not deliberate d) Immunity that passes from mother to baby or fetus through the placenta or from mother to child through mother’s breast milk, passive immunity is temporary but provides immediate protection 24. Artificial immunity is defined as what? a) Vaccination results in activation of immune system b) Protective material developed in another individual immune system and injected into a previously nonimmune individual c) Exposure to causative agent and is deliberate 25. Active artificial immunity is defined as what? a) Vaccination results in activation of immune system b) Protective material developed in another individual immune system and injected into a previously nonimmune individual c) Exposure to causative agent and is deliberate 26. Passive Artificial immunity is defined as what? a) Vaccination results in activation of immune system b) Protective material developed in another individual immune system and injected into a previously nonimmune individual c) Exposure to causative agent and is deliberate 27. Cytokines are chemicals released from cells to act as direct agents of innate nonspecific immunity. a) True b) False 28. Antibodies consists of what? a) Protein compounds with nonspecific combining sites b) Combining sites attach to antigens to specific antibodies foreign proteins forming an antigen antibody complex called humoral immunity, or antibody mediated immunity c) Protein compounds with specific combining sites, combining sites attach antibodies to specific antigens foreign proteins, forming antigen antibody complex called humoral immunity or antibody mediated immunity 29. Antigen antibody complexes may? a) Neutralize toxins b) Clump or agglutinate enemy cells c) Promote phagocytosis d) Neutralize toxins, Clump or agglutinate enemy cells, and promote phagocytosis 30. Complement proteins are a group of protein enzymes normally present in an inactive state in blood, may be activated by triggers process rapid fire cascade called complement cascade and is an important mechanism of action for antibodies, causes cell lysis by permitting entry of water through a defect created in the plasma membrane? a) True b) False 31. Phagocyte’s function is to what? a) Ingest and destroy foreign cells or other harmful substances via phagocytosis b) Most abundant short lived phagocytic cells pus is mostly dead neutrophils c) Develop into phagocytic macrophages and migrate to tissues engulfing bacteria whenever found  d) Produced bone marrow and released into the bloodstream often found at or near the external environment e) Act as antigens on their outer surface to trigger specific immune cells 32. Neutrophils is defined as? a) Most abundant short lived phagocytic cells pus is mostly dead neutrophils b) Ingest and destroy foreign cells or other harmful substances via phagocytosis c) Develop into phagocytic macrophages and migrate to tissues engulfing bacteria whenever found d) Produced bone marrow and released into the bloodstream often found at or near the external environment e) Act as antigens on their outer surface to trigger specific immune cells 33. Monocytes? a) Most abundant short lived phagocytic cells pus is mostly dead neutrophils b) Ingest and destroy foreign cells or other harmful substances via phagocytosis c) Develop into phagocytic macrophages and migrate to tissues engulfing bacteria whenever found d) Produced bone marrow and released into the bloodstream often found at or near the external environment e) Act as antigens on their outer surface to trigger specific immune cells 34. Dendritic Cells? a) Most abundant short lived phagocytic cells pus is mostly dead neutrophils b) Ingest and destroy foreign cells or other harmful substances via phagocytosis c) Develop into phagocytic macrophages and migrate to tissues engulfing bacteria whenever found  d) Produced bone marrow and released into the bloodstream often found at or near the external environment e) Act as antigens on their outer surface to trigger specific immune cells 35. Macrophages and DC’s? a) Act as antigens on their outer surface to trigger specific immune cells b) Most abundant short lived phagocytic cells pus is mostly dead neutrophils c) Develop into phagocytic macrophages and migrate to tissues engulfing bacteria whenever found d) Produced bone marrow and released into the bloodstream often found at or near the external environment e) Ingest and destroy foreign cells or other harmful substances via phagocytosis 36. Development of B cells? a) Develops from stem cells from bone marrow and migrate to the thymus gland b) Develops from primitive stem cells which migrate from bone marrow and go through two stages of development 37. Development of T cells? a) Develops from stem cells from bone marrow and migrate to the thymus gland b) Develops from primitive stem cells which migrate from bone marrow and go through two stages of development 38.First stage of B cell development include which of the following? a) Stem cells develop into immature B cells takes place in the liver and in bone after birth and only in children b) B cells are small monocytes with antibodies molecules which synthesize in plasma membranes c) After they mature inactive B cells migrate chiefly to lymph nodes  d) Stem cells develop into immature B cells takes place in the liver and in bone marrow before birth and in the bone marrow only in adults B cells are also lymphocytes with antibody molecules which they synthesize in their plasma membranes after they mature inactive B cells migrate to lymph nodes 39 Second stage of B cells development incudes? a) Second stage inactive b cells develop into activated B cells initiated by inactive B cells contact with antigens which bind to surface antibodies, plus cytokines signals chemicals from T cells b) Activated b cells divides repeatedly forming two clones of cells effector cells and memory cells plasma cells secrete antibodies into blood memory cells are stored into lymph nodes c) Second stage inactive b cells develop into activated B cells initiated by inactive B cells contact with antigens which bind to surface antibodies, plus cytokines signals chemicals from T cells, Activated b cells divides repeatedly forming two clones of cells effector cells and memory cells plasma cells secrete antibodies into blood memory cells are stored into lymph nodes, if subsequent exposure to antigen that can activated B cell occurs, memory cells become plasma cells and secrete antibodies. 40. B cells indirectly produce humoral immunity, and activated B cells develop into plasma cells, plasma cells secrete into antibodies into blood, circulating antibodies produce humoral immunity. a) True b) False 41. First stage of T cell development include which of the following? a) Occurs in the thymus during few months before and after birth T cells migrate chiefly to lymph nodes. b) T cells develop into activated T cells when and if antigen binds into T cell surface proteins and a chemical signal is received from another T cell.  42. T cells produce cell mediated immunity. a) True b) False 43. Cytotoxic T cell function is to what? a) Release chemicals to suppress immune response b) Release chemicals that attract and activate macrophages to kill cells by phagocytosis and produce chemicals that help activate B cells c) Kill infected or tumor cells by releasing a substance that poisons infected or tumor cells 44. Helper T cells function is to what? a) Release chemicals to suppress immune response b) Release chemicals that attract and activate macrophages to kill cells by phagocytosis and produce chemicals that help activate B cells c) Kill infected or tumor cells by releasing a substance that poisons infected or tumor cells 45.Regulatory T cells function is to what? a) Release chemicals to suppress immune response b) Release chemicals that attract and activate macrophages to kill cells by phagocytosis and produce chemicals that help activate B cells c) Kill infected or tumor cells by releasing a substance that poisons infected or tumor cells 46. Function of the respiratory system is to filter, warm, and humidify air we breathe. a) True b) False 47. Respiratory organs include which of the following?  a) Vocal cords b) Sinus c) Pharynx d) Larynx e) Trachea f) Bronchi g) Lungs h) All of the above 48.specialized epithelium help produce speech and make possible the sense of smell? a) True b) False 49. smell primary function is the exchange of gas which has a secondary function to remove excess acid form the body but does not balance body PH? a) True b) False 50. what type of transport process of diffusion is responsible for exchange of gases that occur during respiration? a) Passive b) Active 51. upper respiratory tract includes which organs choose all that apply? a) Nose b) Pharynx (Throat) c) Larynx (Voice box) d) Trachea (Windpipe) e) Bronchial Tree  f) Lungs 52.Lower respiratory tract include which of the following? choose all that apply. a) Nose b) Pharynx (Throat) c) Larynx (Voice box) d) Trachea (Windpipe) e) Bronchial Tree f) Lungs 53. Head cold includes which respiratory tract? a) URI b) LRI 54. Chest cold includes which respiratory tract? a) URI b) LRI 55. Respiratory Mucosa contains which of the following? a) Specialized membrane that lines the air distribution tubes in the respiratory tree b) Made up of ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium c) More than 125ml of mucus produced each day by Goblet cells and forms a mucus blanket over much of the respiratory mucosa d) Mucus serves as an air purification mechanism by trapping inspired irritants such as dust and pollen e) Specialized membrane that lines the air distribution tubes in the respiratory tree , Made up of ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium, More than 125ml of mucus produced each day by Goblet cells and forms a mucus blanket over much of the respiratory mucosa , and Mucus serves as an air purification mechanism by trapping inspired irritants such as dust and pollen. 56. Function of the Respiratory Mucosa include which of the following? a) Cilia on mucosal cells beat in only one direction, moving mucus upward to the pharynx for removal called ciliary escalator. b) Cigarette smoke and other irritants are detected by cilia, which beat rapidly in attempt to clear contaminants c) Prolonged cigarette smoke both increases production of mucus and eventually paralyzes cilia, causing accumulation of contaminated mucus to build up in the respiratory passageways for longer periods of time. d) Cilia on mucosal cells beat in only one direction, moving mucus upward to the pharynx for removal called ciliary escalator, Cigarette smoke and other irritants are detected by cilia, which beat rapidly in attempt to clear contaminants, Prolonged cigarette smoke both increases production of mucus and eventually paralyzes cilia, causing accumulation of contaminated mucus to build up in the respiratory passageways for longer periods of time which results in a typical smokers cough body’s effort to clear these large quantities of contaminated mucus. 57. Nose function is to what? a) Air enters the external nares or nostrils b) Nasal membranes sperate exterior of nose into two cavities c) Mucus membrane lines nose d) Air enters the external nares or nostrils, Nasal septum sperate interior of nose into two cavities, mucus membrane lines nose e) Frontal, maxillary, sphenoid, and ethmoidal sinus drains into nose. 58. function of the nose is to warm and moisten inhaled air, and contains sense organs of smell. a) True b) Fals e 59. which of the following is the function of the respiratory tract?  a) Two ducts from lacrimal sac which collect tears from the corner of each eyelid drain into the nasal cavity which explains why your nose drip after producing excess tears, as in crying, allergies, and eye irritation. b) Mucosa that lines the sinuses is continuous with nose sinus infection can develop from colds with inflamed mucosa causing pain, pressure, external tenderness, swelling and redness c) Chronic cases may cause infection to spread to adjacent bone or cranial cavity inflaming meninges or brain tissue treatment includes decongestants, analgesics, and sometimes surgery to improve drainage of upper respiratory tract. d) All the above 60. Pharynx called throat is about 12.5cm or 5 inches long, divided into nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx, contains two nasal cavities, mouth, esophagus, larynx and auditory tubes all have openings into pharynx, air and food pass through the pharynx on the way to lungs or stomach and air enters by way of nasal cavity or oral cavity which leaves the larynx and causes the RT and LT eustachian tubes open into the nasopharynx form the middle ear and provide equalization of air pressure/flow,. a) True b) False 61. Lingual and palatine tonsils are in the oropharynx, while pharyngeal tonsils are in the nasopharynx. a) True b) False 62, upper respiratory tract function is for which of the following? a) Passageway for food and liquids b) Air distribution passageway for air c) Both A and B 63. Larynx and voice box contain what?  a) Mucus lining b) Nine pieces of cartilage from framework c) Epiglottis partially covers opening into larynx and forms a flap to close off the larynx during swallowing d) Two short fibrous bands called vocal cords stretch across interior of larynx can tense or relax causing high- and low-pitched sounds e) All the above 64. Function of the Larynx includes? a) Air distribution passageway for air to move to and from the lungs b) Voice production c) Both a and B 65. Obstruction is the blockage of trachea occludes the airway and if blockage is complete causes death in minutes? a) True b) False 66. Trachea branches into right and left bronchi? a) True b) False 67. Each bronchus branches into smaller and smaller tubes eventually leading into bronchioles? a) True b) False 68. Bronchioles end in alveolar sacs, the walls of which are made up of alveoli. a) True b) False 69. Alveoli function is the exchange of gases between air and blood it is made up of single layer of squamous epithelium cells type 1 cells capillaries surround and lie in contact with them between blood in the capillaries and air in each alveolus is a barrier less than 1micorn this is the respiratory membrane there are millions of alveoli so together create enormous surface for gas exchange about 84 meters allowing large amounts of O2 and CO2 to be rapidly exchanged while type two cells helps reduce surface tension keeping the alveoli form collapsing as air moves in and out. a) True b) False 70. Lungs large enough to fill the chest cavity except for the middle space right lung has how many lobes? a) 2 lobes b) 3 lobes 71. Left lung has how many lobes? a) 2 lobes b) 3 lobes 72. Apex is defined as? a) Broad lower part of each lung rest on diagram b) Narrow upper part of each lung under collarbone c) Mosit smooth slippery membrane that lines chest cavity and covers outer layer pf lungs reducing friction between the lungs and chest wall during breathing d) Adheres to the thoracic cavity e) Adheres to each lung f) Space lies between 73. Base is defined as? a) Broad lower part of each lung rest on diagram  b) Narrow upper part of each lung under collarbone c) Mosit smooth slippery membrane that lines chest cavity and covers outer layer pf lungs reducing friction between the lungs and chest wall during breathing d) Adheres to the thoracic cavity e) Adheres to each lung f) Space lies between 74. Pleura is defined as? a) Broad lower part of each lung rest on diagram b) Narrow c) upper part of each lung under collarbone d) Mosit smooth slippery membrane that lines chest cavity and covers outer layer pf lungs reducing friction between the lungs and chest wall during breathing e) Adheres to the thoracic cavity f) Adheres to the thoracic cavity g) Adheres to each lung h) Space lies between 75. Parietal pleura is defined as? a) Broad lower part of each lung rest on diagram b) Narrow upper part of each lung under collarbone c) Mosit smooth slippery membrane that lines chest cavity and covers outer layer pf lungs reducing friction between the lungs and chest wall during breathing d) Adheres to the thoracic cavity e) Adheres to the thoracic cavity f) Adheres to each lung g) Space lies between 76. Thoracic cavity and visceral pleura? a) Broad lower part of each lung rest on diagram  b) Narrow upper part of each lung under collarbone c) Mosit smooth slippery membrane that lines chest cavity and covers outer layer pf lungs reducing friction between the lungs and chest wall during breathing d) Adheres to the thoracic cavity e) Adheres to the thoracic cavity f) Adheres to each lung g) Space lies between 78. Intrapleural space lines between spaces? a) True b) False 79. conditions when discussing lungs include infant distress syndrome. a) True b) False 80.Pleurisy is inflammation of the tissues that line the lungs and chest cavity infections such as the flu and other medications can cause pleurisy. a) True b) False 81. Pneumothorax is described as a condition that occurs when air leeks into the space between lungs and chest wall due to a blunt or penetrating chest injury certain medical procedure, or lung disease can cause Pneumothorax. Symptoms include shortness of breath when pneumothorax is at large a needle or tube is used to remove excess air. a) True b) False 82.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a group of lung diseases that block air flow and make it difficult to breathe emphysema and chronic bronchitis are the most common conditions that make up COPD when damage to the lungs occur COPD cant be reversed. Symptoms include shortness of breath, wheezing, and chronic cough. a) True b) False 83.Chronic bronchitis causes edema, and excess mucus major cause is smoking. a) True b) False 84. emphysema is air trapping. a) True b) False 85. Mechanics of breathing include a) Inspiration b) Inhalation c) Active process d) All the above 86. Inspiratory muscles include diagram and external intercostals. a) True b) False 87. Diaphragm flattens during inspiration includes which of the following? a) Increases the size of the thorax from the front to the back and from side to side b) increases top to the bottom length of thorax 88. External intercostal contraction elevates the ribs? a) Increases the size of the thorax from the front to the back and from side to side b) increases top to the bottom length of thorax 89. During expiration the thorax returns to its resting size and shape. a) True b) False 90. Elastic recoil of lung tissues aids in expiration? a) True b) False 91. Expiratory muscles used in forceful expiration are internal intercostals and abdominal muscles a) True b) False 92. Internal intercostals include? a) Elevates the diaphragm thus decreasing size of the thoracic cavity from the top to bottom b) thorax from front to Contraction depresses the rib cage and decreases the size of the back 93. Contraction of abdominal muscles? a) Elevates the diaphragm thus decreasing size of the thoracic cavity from the top to bottom b) thorax from front to Contraction depresses the rib cage and decreases the size of the back 94.Reduction is the size of the thoracic cavity decreases its pressure and air leaves the lungs. a) True b) False 95.Spirometer measures what?  a) Amount of air exchanged throughout the lungs b) Amount of air exchanged in breathing c) Largest amount of air that we can inhale deeply and exhale fully d) Amount of air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful expiration 96. Tidal volume include? a) 500ml of air into our lungs with each normal inspiration and expel it with expiration b) Largest amount of air that we can inhale deeply and exhale fully 97. Vital capacity includes? a) 500ml of air into our lungs with each normal inspiration and expel it with expiration b) Largest amount of air that we can inhale deeply and exhale fully 98. Expiratory reserve volume is described as? a) Amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after expiring the tidal volume b) Amount of air that can be forcibly inspired over and above the normal inspiration c) Amount of air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful expiration 99. Inspiratory Reserve Volume can be described as? a) Amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after expiring the tidal volume b) Amount of air that can be forcibly inspired over and above the normal inspiration c) Amount of air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful expiration 100. Residual Volume includes? a) Amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after expiring the tidal volume b) Amount of air that can be forcibly inspired over and above the normal inspiration c) Amount of air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful expiration 101. Homeostasis of blood gases permits the body to adjust to varying demands for oxygen supply and carbon dioxide removal a) True  b) False 102. Brainstem control of respiration is the most important central regulatory center in medulla are called respiratory control centers inspiratory and expiratory centers? a) True b) False 103. Cerebral cortex control of respiration is what kind of movement? a) Voluntary b) Involuntary 104. chemoreceptors respond to changes in carbon dioxide oxygen and blood acid levels are located in the carotid and aortic bodies. a) True b) False 105.Eupnea is described as? a) Rapid and deep respirations b) Slow and shallow breaths c) Labored and difficult respiration d) Stopped respiration e) Failure to resume breathing after a period of apnea f) Normal breathing 106. Hyperventilation can be described as? a) Rapid and deep respirations b) Slow and shallow breaths c) Labored and difficult respiration d) Stopped respiration e) Failure to resume breathing after a period of apnea f) Normal breathing 107. Hypoventilations include? a) Normal breathing b) Failure to resume breathing after a period of apnea c) Stopped respiration d) Labored and difficult respiration e) Slow and shallow breaths f) Rapid and deep respirations 108. Dyspnea? a) Rapid and deep respirations b) Labored and difficult respiration c) Slow and shallow breaths 109. Apnea? a) Stopped respiration b) Failure to resume breathing after a period of apnea c) Normal breathing 110. Respiratory arrest include? a) Normal breathing b) Failure to resume breathing after a period of apnea c) Stopped respiration 111. Pulmonary gas exchange includes carbaminohemoglobin breaks down into carbon dioxide and hemoglobin carbon dioxide moves out of the lung capillary blood into alveolar air out of the body in expired air oxygen then moves from alveoli into the lung capillaries and hemoglobin combines with oxygen producing oxyhemoglobin which includes gas exchange and transport. a) True b) False