PMP Practice Questions PDF

Q1: A project manager was recently assigned to an information technology project. The project is in the initiation stage, and the team found a compatibility issue in the technical infrastructure used by the vendor and the organization.\ \ What initial step should the project manager take to address...

Q1: A project manager was recently assigned to an information technology project. The project is in the initiation stage, and the team found a compatibility issue in the technical infrastructure used by the vendor and the organization.\ \ What initial step should the project manager take to address this issue effectively? A\) Examine if there is an alternate solution. B\) Escalate the issue to the technical infrastructure team. C\) Check the lessons learned database. D\) Consult the project sponsor about the issue. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Solution: C. Check the lessons learned database\ Lessons learned register must be used to retrieve information from previous projects to help other projects during initiation. The project manager needs to check if this compatibility issue happened before in other projects within the organization.\ The other answer choices are incorrect.\ Examining if there is an alternate solution should be the next step if the project manager does not find this issue in the lessons learned. The lessons learned database may have information regarding alternate solutions, what has been considered, what has been tried in the past, and other information that could provide insight and potentially save time by avoiding solutions that have already been disqualified.\ Escalating the issue to the technical infrastructure team is incorrect because the project manager cannot escalate any issue before assessing it first.\ Consulting the project sponsor about the issue is incorrect because the project manager should not consult the project sponsor for technical issues as a first option, even if the project sponsor has technical expertise. Q2: A project manager conducted an analysis with relevant stakeholders to validate project alignment with organizational strategy and expected business value. Several key stakeholders missed the analysis session and their input was not included in the analysis.\ \ What is the main consequence of stakeholders missing the analysis session? A\) Formal approval of project change requests is delayed. B\) Stakeholder dissatisfaction with key project deliverables. C\) Conflict in subsequent phases of the project may result. D\) Inconsistent input on benefits from key stakeholders. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Solution: D. Inconsistent input on benefits from key stakeholders.\ Project teams and stakeholders establish measures of progress and success, and performance is compared to plans. Quality management processes and practices help produce deliverables and outcomes that meet project objectives and align with the expectations, uses, and acceptance criteria expressed by the organization and relevant stakeholders. If all stakeholders are not present there will be inconsistent input on benefits. It may result in ambiguity and a misalignment between the project goals and the expectations of key stakeholders.\ The other options are incorrect because they are not the main consequence. There may not be a change request that needs approval, conflict may not arise, and stakeholders may not become dissatisfied. These options may be additional impacts, but the main impact would be inconsistent input on benefits from key stakeholders. Q3: A project manager is working on a deployment project to replace some equipment that will soon become obsolete. A review of the schedule and cost has revealed that a 5-month delay is likely.\ \ How should the project manager address risks from the delay? A\) Analyze the business impact in order to reprioritize the deliverables. B\) Request to negotiate with the vendors for a longer support period. C\) Ask to order new equipment immediately so there will be no support issue. D\) Acknowledge these constraints and take them into account when planning. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Solution: A. Analyze the business impact in order to reprioritize the deliverables\ The correct answer is to analyze the business impact in order to reprioritize the deliverables.\ In order to address the risks related to the delay, they must first be analyzed. An analysis must be done to determine the impact of the risks in order to plan appropriate responses. The project manager must evaluate the importance of each risk in order to categorize and prioritize individual risks for further attention. The other answer choices are incorrect because they are reactionary and do not fully address risks from the delay. They also do not address the impact that the risks may have on the project, the organization, or previously identified risks. Q4: During project execution, a project manager is informed that some resources will soon be removed from the project. What should the project manager do first? A\) Schedule a meeting to keep the stakeholders informed. B\) Inform the stakeholders at the next scheduled review meeting. C\) Update the risk register with this risk to project resources. D\) Request resource leveling. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Solution: D. Request resource leveling.\ Resource leveling is a project management technique that involves adjusting the assignment of resources to tasks in order to balance the workload and minimize the impact of resource constraints. It is the most appropriate action for a project manager to take when informed during project execution that some resources will soon be removed from the project. By requesting resource leveling, the project manager can proactively address the issue and minimize the impact of the resource removal on the project.\ The other answer choices are not as relevant or effective. Scheduling a meeting specifically for this purpose is not necessary. Waiting until the next scheduled review meeting to inform stakeholders of this change could delay the project. Updating the risk register is important, but it is not sufficient to address the issue. Q5: A stakeholder complains that a product component is not easy to use. What should be the immediate next step for the project manager? A\) Check if the component meets the design and performance specifications. B\) Collaborate with the stakeholder to confirm the acceptance criteria for the product. C\) Ask a user experience expert to meet with the stakeholder and explain the component design. D\) Raise a change request according to the stakeholder’s requirement concerns. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Solution: A. Check if the component meets the design and performance specifications.\ The immediate next step for the project manager is to check if the component meets the design and performance specifications. It is important that the project manager discovers the root cause of the problem before moving forward. This will help the project manager determine if the issue is with the component or a user experience issue.\ The other answer options should not be the next immediate step. Without knowing the root cause of the issue, the project manager can not confidently discern how to address it.\ Clarifying the product acceptance criteria or asking a user experience expert to explain the component design to the stakeholder may not resolve the issue depending on the findings during the initial investigation.\ Raising a change request may be necessary if the component does not meet the design and performance specifications, but is a premature action at this point. Q6: During the planning phase of a project, the project manager is having trouble identifying stakeholders. Without input from the correct stakeholders, getting user feedback will be challenging.\ \ What should the project manager do? A\) Review the stakeholder engagement plan. B\) Inform the project sponsors. C\) Refer to the project charter to identify stakeholders. D\) Review the project scope document. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Solution: C. Refer to the project charter to identify stakeholders.\ During the planning phase of a project, the project manager should refer to the project charter to identify stakeholders. The project charter typically includes information about the project\'s purpose, objectives, and stakeholders. By reviewing the project charter, the project manager can identify the stakeholders who are critical to the success of the project and ensure that they are included in the stakeholder engagement plan.\ Reviewing the stakeholder engagement plan, informing the project sponsors, and reviewing the project scope document may also be helpful, but referring to the project charter is the most direct and effective way to identify stakeholders.\ The stakeholder engagement plan is typically not created until stakeholders are identified and analyzed.\ Informing project sponsors is not a comprehensive or efficient approach.\ Reviewing the scope document may not be as comprehensive as the project charter and is typically not used to identify stakeholders. Q7: A project team is in sprint thirteen of a fourteen-sprint project. The project team placed a game-changing feature on the backlog for the next release. The product owner is informed that a competitor is launching a new product with a feature that closely resembles the feature placed on the backlog. The product owner is demanding this game-changing feature be incorporated in the current release.\ \ What should the project manager do? A\) Organize a review meeting with the development team to get an understanding of the magnitude of work required. B\) Meet with the product owner and relevant stakeholders to discuss the change and analyze the impact. C\) Perform the required assessments and raise a change request with the change control board (CCB). D\) Inform the product owner that this game-changing feature will be added to the next release of the product. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Meet with the product owner and relevant stakeholders to discuss the change and analyze the impact.\ The product owner is demanding a significant change late in the project that can have a substantial impact on scope, schedule, and resources. The project manager should meet with the product owner and relevant stakeholders to discuss the change, analyze the impact, and develop a plan for moving forward. It\'s crucial to involve key stakeholders in such decisions as they can provide insights into the project\'s strategic goals and priorities. This collaborative approach is at the heart of agile methodologies.\ The other options are incorrect because they do not involve all of the key stakeholders or do not consider all of the factors that must be evaluated.\ Organizing a review meeting with the development team should not be the immediate next step. The key decision-makers in the project should be involved first to discuss the feasibility and impact of this major change.\ Raising a change request to the CCB is incorrect because agile projects don\'t typically have a formal CCB, and decisions are made collaboratively with the product owner, team, and stakeholders.\ Telling the product owner that the feature can\'t be included without discussing and analyzing the change and its impact first is not the correct approach. In agile, change is embraced even late in the project to maximize customer value. Deciding whether to defer the change to the next release should be a collective decision made after analyzing the impacts. Q8: Critical project equipment is being produced by an overseas vendor. A quality survey revealed noncompliance with some of the project specifications.\ \ What should the project manager do next? A\) Assign project personnel to oversee the vendor\'s facility to ensure compliance with the specifications. B\) Review the production contract to determine if the referenced specifications were included. C\) Schedule a workshop with vendor representatives to provide an overview of the project specifications. D\) Schedule regular meetings with the vendor to personally control this situation. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Review the production contract to determine if the referenced specifications were included.\ The project manager should review the production contract to determine if the referenced specifications were included. The production contract is the legal agreement between the project manager and the vendor, and it should outline all of the project requirements, including the specifications for the equipment. Checking the contract would be the best starting point because if the specifications were not included in the contract, the vendor could not be held accountable for compliance.\ Assigning project personnel to oversee the vendor\'s facility is premature without first verifying the contractual obligations.\ Scheduling a workshop with vendor representatives doesn\'t directly address the noncompliance issue.\ Scheduling regular meetings with the vendor does not directly address the issue and would not be the initial step. Q9: A project manager is overseeing a procurement project for a company that has a dedicated procurement management team that handles all contracts. The quarterly report identifies six contracts that do not align with the company\'s objectives.\ \ What will be the most suitable action for the project manager to take? A\) Keep the six contracts despite their misalignment. B\) Suggest terminating all contracts that are misaligned. C\) Ask the project sponsor to revise the contracts. D\) Request that the customer revise the contracts. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Suggest terminating all six contracts that do not align with the company objectives.\ The project manager should recommend terminating all six contracts that do not align with the company\'s objectives. Keeping these contracts could lead to wasted resources and potentially harm the company\'s overall goals.\ The other options are incorrect.\ Keeping all six contracts ignores the misalignment with the company\'s objectives.\ The procurement management team handles all contracts, so it would be inappropriate to ask the client or the sponsor to revise contracts. The decision to revise contracts is the responsibility of the procurement management team. Revisions may not be possible or guarantee alignment. Q10: A virtual team is midway through a sprint of a complex task and is ahead of schedule. During the daily standup, a new team member interrupts and asks everyone to describe what they worked on prior to the current sprint.\ \ How should the project manager handle this situation? A\) Thank the new team member for their interest and direct them to the project documentation. B\) Explain to the new team member that the daily standup is not the best time for this discussion. C\) Request the new team member leave the meeting for interrupting the daily standup. D\) Ask all team members to list their completed tasks prior to the current sprint. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Explain to the new team member that the daily standup is not the best time for this discussion.\ To ensure that the daily standup is productive and efficient, the project manager should be polite and understanding and explain to the new team member that the daily standup is not the best time for this discussion. After the meeting, the project manager can later schedule a time to discuss the new team member\'s role, all prior work, and help the new team member get up to speed on the project.\ The other answer choices are incorrect. Thanking the new team member and directing them to the project documentation is not helpful if they are not familiar with the documentation. Requesting the new team member leave the meeting for interrupting the daily standup is too harsh and could damage the team morale. Asking all team members to list their completed tasks prior to the current sprint would take up valuable time during the daily standup. Q11: During a progress meeting, the project team learns that an identified risk has materialized. The project manager decides to execute the risk response plan, but the contingency reserve does not cover the total budget for that plan.\ \ What should the project manager do? A\) Ask the project sponsor to apply the management reserve to cover the remaining cost of the response. B\) Ask the project sponsor to provide an additional budget to compensate for the cost overage. C\) Issue a change request to modify the scope, cost, and schedule baselines to support the new plan. D\) Use the contingency reserve and assess options to reduce the budget to cover the remaining work. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Solution: C. Issue a change request to modify the scope, cost, and schedule baselines to support the new plan.\ The implementation of a risk response plan necessitates a change in the current project management plan. Issuing a change request is the appropriate action to request the necessary budget, address rescheduling, and incorporate new activities into the scope.\ The management reserve is typically reserved for unidentified risks. Since the risk has already been identified, the management reserve cannot be used to cover the cost of the risk response plan.\ Asking the project sponsor for an additional budget would require a change request.\ If the contingency reserve is not sufficient to cover the cost of the risk response plan, then the project manager should issue a change request to ask for additional funding. Q12: A dispersed project team just finished a sprint with complex tasks ahead of schedule. During the retrospective, a new member of the team interrupts and asks everyone to explain their roles and what they are planning on working on for the next sprint.\ \ What should the project manager do? A\) Address the situation immediately and answer the new team member directly. B\) Inform the team members that this would be best handled in another meeting. C\) Ask each team member to explain their role and what they will work on for the next sprint. D\) Set up one-on-one meetings with each team member and the new team member. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Inform the team member that this would be best handled in another meeting.\ The project manager should politely tell the new team member that a retrospective meeting is not the best time to discuss the roles of other team members. This helps maintain the effectiveness and efficiency of the retrospective meeting and ensures that the team\'s time is used wisely. Retrospective meetings provide an opportunity for the project team to review their work and results and suggest changes to improve processes and efficiency.\ The other answer choices are incorrect as they suggest that the project manager should accommodate the new team member\'s question at an inappropriate time. The project manager should provide time for the new team member to understand the team dynamics and provide them with the information they need without disrupting the flow of the retrospective.\ Addressing the question immediately or asking each team member to explain their roles in the retrospective meeting may lead to an extended off-topic conversation and potentially side-track the retrospective, making it less effective.\ A one-on-one meeting with each team member would be time-consuming and inefficient. Q13: During a project closing review meeting, the project manager notes that a software development task took longer to complete than was planned. Which action should the project manager take for continuous project improvement? A\) Update the performance data in the lessons learned register. B\) Update the risk register so the problem will not happen in the future. C\) Update the problem in the issue log and distribute it to the project team. D\) Update the communications management plan with details of the problem. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Solution: A. Update the performance data in the lessons learned register.\ The project is at the project closing phase, so the issue is documented in the lesson learned register for continuous project improvement.\ The other options are only employed in execution, not during closing. Q14: A project manager has received quotes from two vendors for the same parts. Vendor A has informed the project manager that they fulfilled a similar order two months ago at a price that was 2% under the original planned cost. Vendor B has a history of on-time delivery but has announced a price increase.\ \ How should the project manager evaluate this situation? A\) Review the agreements and procurement documentation for Vendor B to force them to keep the original pricing. B\) Evaluate the contract clauses to reduce the orders from Vendor B, and buy them from Vendor A to improve project indicators. C\) Use the metrics from Vendor A to request better pricing from Vendor B, keeping both providers as a risk mitigation strategy. D\) Review the work performance information of both vendors against their contracts to find the preferred supplier. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Solution: D. Review the work performance information of both vendors against their contracts to find the preferred supplier\ To evaluate the situation, the project manager should review the work performance information of both vendors against their contracts to find the preferred supplier. If the project manager decides to go for an alternative source, they must first review the vendors\' past performance. The project manager should not make a decision based solely on price. They should consider a variety of factors. By reviewing the work performance information of both vendors, the project manager can gain a better understanding of their strengths and weaknesses.\ The other answer choices are incorrect. It is unlikely that the project manager will be able to force Vendor B to keep the original pricing. Vendor B is within their rights to increase their prices. Reducing the orders from Vendor B may not be possible, depending on the terms of the contract. Additionally, this may damage the relationship with Vendor B. Lastly, Vendor B may not be willing to match Vendor A\'s pricing. Additionally, relying on a single vendor can be risky. Q15: While closing a project, the client finds some defects in the deliverable. What should the project manager do next? A\) Review the output against the acceptance criteria. B\) Extend the project until all deliverables are accepted. C\) Persuade the client to accept the output as is. D\) Pay the penalty for the defective item. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Solution: A. Review the output against the acceptance criteria\ Reviewing the output against acceptance criteria is the appropriate next action as this will confirm why the defect wasn\'t raised earlier during the monitoring and controlling phase.\ Extending the project without approval is not the appropriate next action as it would delay the project timeline.\ Persuading the client to accept the output as is may compromise the quality of the project and is not appropriate.\ Paying the penalty for the defective item is not appropriate unless that clause is documented in contract with the client. Q16: An organizational transformation project has two workstreams running in parallel between corporate headquarters and an overseas office. Before kick-off, the project manager is scheduled to meet the overseas office leader.\ \ What should the focus of the meeting be? A\) Informing the overseas office leader of the project\'s strategic value, key deliverables, and their expected involvement. B\) Reaching an agreement on the choice of procurement strategies to be employed by the overseas office. C\) Assisting the overseas office leader in communicating with the corporate headquarters staff about the project. D\) Identifying and assigning a subject matter expert (SME) to represent the project at the overseas office. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Solution: A. Informing the overseas office leader of the project\'s strategic value, key deliverables, and their expected involvement.\ Since the meeting is scheduled before the project kickoff, it is important to set expectations with all parties involved by informing the overseas office leader about the project\'s strategic value, key deliverables, and expected involvement. This will help to ensure that the overseas office leader is fully informed and prepared to contribute and that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same goals.\ The other answer choices may occur after the project has been kicked off. Q17: A client has contracted a company to manage a large project in an agile environment with many subcontractors. The client is giving direct orders to the subcontractors, rather than to the contractor\'s project manager. This has created conflict within the team.\ \ What should the project manager do to prevent this situation from occurring again? A\) Keep the team informed about client expectations. B\) Invite the client to the team planning meeting. C\) Tell the team to avoid conflicts with the client. D\) Ask the client not to give direct orders to the subcontractors. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Solution: D. Ask the client not to give direct orders to the subcontractors.\ The best way for a project manager to prevent a client from giving direct orders to subcontractors on an agile project with many subcontractors is to ask the client not to do so. This is the most direct and effective way to address the problem.\ The other answer choices are not as effective. Keeping the team informed about client expectations is important, but it will not prevent the client from giving direct orders to subcontractors. Inviting the client to the team planning meeting can help to improve communication between the client and the project team, but it will not prevent the client from giving direct orders to subcontractors. Telling the team to avoid conflicts with the client is not a realistic expectation, and it will not prevent the client from giving direct orders to subcontractors. By asking the client not to give direct orders to subcontractors, the project manager can help to create a more harmonious and productive working environment for the project team. Q18: During project execution, the project sponsor decides to replace a subject matter expert (SME) on the project.\ \ What should the project manager do? A\) Negotiate with the project sponsor to retain the SME on the project. B\) Ensure there is sufficient knowledge transfer between the SME and their replacement. C\) Indicate to the new SME that the project knowledge base has all needed information. D\) Meet with the project sponsor to explain the conflicts among the project team. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Ensure there is sufficient knowledge transfer between the SME and their replacement\ The project manager should ensure sufficient knowledge transfer between the SME and their replacement. Knowledge transfer is required when there is a change of SMEs. The question explains that the SME is being replaced, so the best option in this situation would be to ensure sufficient knowledge transfer between the original SME and the replacement. \ The other answer choices are incorrect. Relying only on a knowledge base might not be sufficient to transfer all the SME\'s project knowledge; meeting with the project sponsor may not always be the right option as it depends on the sponsor\'s reason for replacement. Regardless of the reason for replacement, the project manager should ensure sufficient knowledge transfer between the two team members. Q19: A project manager is assigned to take over an ongoing project. During the quality review, the team discovered that 40% of the deliverables have defects and require rework, with an expected worsening trend.\ \ What should the project manager\'s first step be? A\) Evaluate the cost of the rework. B\) Review the quality management plan. C\) Review the user stories. D\) Perform a root cause analysis. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Solution: D. Perform a root cause analysis.\ The first step should be to perform a root cause analysis since the defects identified are expected to increase over time. A root cause analysis is used to determine the underlying cause of variance, defect, or risk. This would allow the project manager to identify the root causes of the defects in the deliverables. The project manager can use the findings of the root cause analysis to identify and implement corrective actions to prevent similar defects from occurring in the future.\ The other answer choices should not be done until the root cause analysis has been completed. The project manager must have a comprehensive understanding of the root cause of the issue before taking corrective action. Q20: A customer reviewed a product and requested additional features that were not in the requirements documentation. The work-in-progress (WIP) limits have already been optimized for the teams working on different work components.\ \ How should the project manager begin to resolve the customer requirements? A\) Build the product according to the previously agreed customer requirements. B\) Discuss the feasibility and impact of the new features with the product owner. C\) Breakdown work on additional features with existing component teams. D\) Release increments of the additional features for customer validation. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Solution: B. Discuss the feasibility and impact of the new features with the product owner.\ The product owner is responsible for maximizing the product\'s value and is accountable for the end product. The project manager should discuss the feasibility and the impact of the new features with the product owner and work with them to manage expectations around adding scope, the implications to the budget, and the availability of project team members. As a result, new work can be thoroughly assessed, prioritized, and added to the product backlog as necessary.\ The other answer choices are incorrect.\ Building according to the previously agreed upon customer requirements ignores the customer\'s request and does not align with agile practices.\ The project manager should not begin breaking work down or releasing increments of the additional features for customer validation without discussing the changes with the project sponsor.