PILOT BRIEFINGS-PRIVATE PILOT.pdf

PILOT BRIEFINGS PRIVATE PILOT BRIEFINGS This document provides you with the necessary material to complete the presolo written exam and the pilot briefing sessions, or the tutoring sessions, assigned in the Jeppesen Private Pilot Online Syllabus syllabus. Each briefing is a series of questions designed to provide you with a systematic method of checking your student’s knowledge level. Each briefing should be completed before the appropriate flight lesson to gain optimum benefit. The session is not necessarily limited to the questions found in the briefing, since they may stimulate further questions in the same subject area. In addition, a checklist is provided to help you prepare your students for the FAA practical test. PRESOLO WRITTEN EXAM AND BRIEFING 14 CFR Part 61.87 outlines the requirements for student pilot solo flights. As specified in this regulation, the student must demonstrate satisfactory knowledge of the required subject areas by completing a knowledge test. This exam is to be administered and graded by the instructor who endorses the student pilot certificate for solo flight. As indicated in AC 61-101, Presolo Written Test, flight instructors must include questions on applicable portions of 14 CFR Parts 61 and 91. In addition, instructors should modify the written exam as necessary to make it appropriate for the aircraft to be flown and the local flying environment. GENERAL QUESTIONS Instructions: All students should answer the general questions. 1. What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have before you fly solo? No student pilot may operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student’s pilot certificate and logbook have been endorsed by an authorized flight instructor for the make and model aircraft to be flown. The logbook endorsement must be dated within 90 days prior to the student’s solo flight. [61.87] You must also have a photo identification. [61.3] 2. What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire? A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or cargo. A student pilot also may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation/hire or the furtherance of a business. Additional limitations are listed in the regulations. [61.89] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 1 of 35 3. Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds. A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft when flight or surface visibility is less than three statute miles during daylight hours or five statute miles at night. A student pilot may not act as pilot in command when flight cannot be made with visual references to the surface. [61.89] 4. Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo? When a student is flying solo, the student pilot is the pilot in command and has the final authority and responsibility for the flight. Included in this responsibility is the requirement to determine if the aircraft is in an airworthy condition for safe flight. [1.1] [91.3] [91.7] 5. Discuss what preflight action concerning the airport and aircraft performance is specified in the regulations for a local flight. Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. For any flight, this information must include the runway lengths at airport(s) of intended use, and the associated takeoff and landing distance information pertinent to the aircraft being flown. [91.103] 6. During engine runup, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operations of an aircraft? Yes. Any operation that endangers the life or property of another is considered careless or reckless. [91.13] 7. You may not fly as pilot of a civil aircraft within ______ hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while having ______ % by weight or more alcohol in your blood. No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within eight hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage; while under the influence of alcohol; while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in a way contrary to safety; or while having.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. The FARs also includes conditions that limit the carriage of passengers under the influence of alcohol or drugs. [91.17] 8. What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses? During takeoff and landing, and while enroute, each required flight crewmember shall keep the seat belt fastened. If installed, each required crewmember also must keep his or her shoulder harness fastened during takeoffs and landings. In addition, each person on board a U.S. civil aircraft must occupy a seat with a safety belt and, if installed, a shoulder harness properly fastened. A child less than 2 years old may be held by an adult. [91.105] [91.107] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 2 of 35 9. What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based? During day VFR conditions, the fuel reserve must be sufficient to fly to the first point of intended landing (considering the wind and forecast weather conditions) and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes. [91.151] 10. A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above _________ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below _________ feet AGL. 10,000, 2,500 [91.215] 11. What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo? A — Airworthiness certificate legible to the pilot and passengers R — Registration certificate issued to the aircraft’s owner R — Radio station license (not required except for communication with facilities outside the U.S.) O — Operating limitations for that airplane W — Weight and balance data for that aircraft (part of the operating limitations) [91.203] [91.9] [23.1519] 12. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a(n) ____________ ____________. collision hazard [91.111] 13. Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time? While on final approach to land, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of- way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another aircraft. [91.113] 14. What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the right-of-way? What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft? If another airplane is converging from the right, who has the right-of-way? When overtaking, the pilot of the overtaking aircraft shall alter the course to the right since the aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way; for a head-on collision course, the pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right; and, when aircraft of the same category are converging, the aircraft to the other’s right (the aircraft on the right) has the right-of-way. [91.113] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 3 of 35 15. Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes when flying over congested and uncongested areas? No person may operate an aircraft below an altitude that would preclude an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property. Over congested areas or an open air assembly, no person may operate an aircraft below 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Over other than congested areas, no person may operate an aircraft below 500 feet AGL, except over open water or sparsely populated areas, where you may not operate closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. [91.119] 16. If an altimeter setting is not available at an airport, what setting should you use before departing on a local flight? The altimeter should be set to the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure. [91.121] 17. What altitudes should you use when operating under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3,000 feet AGL? On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, maintain any odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (3,500, 5,500, etc.). On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, you should maintain any even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.). [91.159] 18. When practicing steep turns, stalls, and maneuvering during slow flight, the entry altitude must allow a recovery to be completed no lower than ________ feet AGL. 1,500 19. When is a go-around appropriate? Anytime the pilot is not satisfied with the approach or is unsure that a safe landing can be completed. 20. What general steps should you follow after an engine failure in flight? In a single-engine airplane, this is an emergency. The pilot should know the recommended emergency procedures contained in the POH and be able to recall them immediately. Generally, these procedures include at least the following steps: Establish the best glide airspeed. Pick a suitable landing site and turn toward it. Attempt to identify the problem and restart the engine, if possible. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 4 of 35 AIRCRAFT QUESTIONS Instructions: All students should answer the aircraft questions. If necessary, the instructor may include additional questions pertaining to the make and model of aircraft to be flown. 1. List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight. A single-engine land aircraft with a carburetor, air-cooled engine, fixed gear, and fixed-pitch propeller requires an airspeed indicator, altimeter, magnetic direction indicator, tachometer, oil pressure gauge, oil temperature gauge, and a fuel gauge for each tank. Additional minimum equipment also includes safety belts and shoulder harnesses as specified in the regulations. [91.205] 2. Fill in the V-speed definitions and the corresponding speed for your training airplane. DEFINITION SPEED VSO Stall, landing configuration _________ VS1 Stall, clean configuration _________ VX Best angle of climb _________ VY Best rate of climb _________ VFE Maximum flap extension _________ VA Maneuvering _________ VNO Maximum structural cruise _________ VNE Never exceed _________ 3. What is the best glide speed for your training airplane? 4. What is the maximum allowable flap setting for takeoff in your aircraft? 5. The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is _________ gallons. On a standard day (sea level, temperature: 59°F, altimeter: 29.92 in. Hg.), the fuel consumption rate during normal (approximately 75% power) cruise is _________ gallons per hour. 6. What grade or grades of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed? Generally, using a fuel grade lower than specified causes cylinder head and engine oil temperatures to exceed normal operating limits. This can damage the engine and/or cause it to fail. When the recommended fuel grade is not available, using the next higher grade may be acceptable, if approved by the manufacturer. Aviation fuel has a dye additive to help pilots and maintenance personnel identify the proper grade. Grade 80 is red, 100 LL is blue, and 100 is green. If various grades of aviation fuel are mixed, the color tends to become clear. The color of turbine fuel is also clear. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 5 of 35 7. The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is _________ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity to begin a flight is _________ quarts. 8. The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructor for solo takeoffs and landings in the training aircraft is _________ knots. Although the instructor must provide the correct answer to this question, the student should be aware of the regulatory basis. Regulations require that a student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft in a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot’s logbook by the instructor. [61.89] 9. When do you use carburetor heat? What are the indications of carburetor icing? Procedures for checking carburetor heat during the engine runup and using it during flight vary with different aircraft. POH recommendations should be followed. In general, the carburetor heat should be turned on periodically to check for ice build up when conditions favoring carburetor icing are present. In many airplanes, carburetor heat should be used whenever power is reduced below the normal engine r.p.m. operating range (below the green arc). A drop in engine r.p.m followed by engine roughness in aircraft with a fixed-pitch propeller indicates carburetor icing. 10. What is the takeoff and landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for your aircraft at your airport? Assume maximum certificated takeoff weight, 80°F, winds calm, and an altimeter setting of 29.52. AIRPORT AND LOCAL AIRSPACE QUESTIONS Instructions: Flight instructors may assign only those questions that pertain to the student’s airport environment and surrounding local area. However, if necessary, instructors may assign additional questions for a particular flying area. 1. What are the traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for the traffic pattern? 2. How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What, if any, radio communications are required? Normal entry is at the midpoint of the downwind leg, and the entry is made at a 45° angle. Exit may be straight out or with a turn when beyond the departure end of the runway and after reaching a safe altitude. Two-way communications are required at controlled airports. [AIM] [AC 90-66] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 6 of 35 3. What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport? What radio calls are required at your airport? For arrival, pilots should announce their position about 10 miles out, and then call downwind, base, final, and when clear of the runway after landing. For departure, pilots should make a self-announce call when taxiing to the runway, taxiing onto the runway, and when clear of the pattern. [AIM] [AC 90-42] 4. What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a visual display indicating a nonstandard traffic pattern. In a standard pattern, all turns are to the left. A nonstandard pattern (right turns) may be indicated by an L-shaped extension on the segmented circle. Nonstandard patterns are also noted in aeronautical publications, such as the Airport Facility Directory. [AIM] [AC 90-66] 5. What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport(s). A common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) is designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices at uncontrolled airports. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS, or a tower frequency, depending on the facilities and operation status at an airport. The usual CTAF procedures include requesting airport advisory information (when it is available) and self-announce calls by pilots to state their position and intentions. All pilots should remain on the CTAF, whenever practical, and listen for traffic advisory information. [AIM] 6. How can you determine if a runway is closed? Large “Xs” painted on runways or taxiways indicate that they are closed and unsafe for normal use. [AIM] 7. What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be met prior to entry? Class D airspace typically extends from the surface up to 2,500 feet AGL. The lateral dimensions are depicted on sectional charts as blue dashed lines. Two-way radio communications with the control tower must be established and maintained within Class D airspace. [91.129] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 7 of 35 8. What is the maximum speed permitted for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? What is the maximum speed allowed in Class B airspace? What is the maximum speed allowed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace? The maximum speed permitted below 10,000 feet MSL is 250 knots indicated airspeed. The same speed limit applies in Class B airspace. Maximum speed in VFR corridors through Class B airspace is limited to 200 knots. This limit also applies to the areas underlying Class B airspace. If the minimum safe speed for a particular operation is greater than the maximum allowed speed, the aircraft may be operated at the minimum safe speed. [91.117] 9. If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate an FAR, what should you do? A pilot should not compromise safety or violate an FAR; it is the pilot’s responsibility to request an amended clearance. [91.123] 10. What is the meaning of each of the following ATC light signals? In flight:  Steady green — Cleared to land  Flashing green — Return for landing  Flashing red — Airport unsafe, do not land  Steady red — Give way to other traffic and continue circling On the ground:  Flashing red — Taxi clear of runway in use  Flashing green — Cleared to taxi [91.125] 11. In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other requirement(s), if any, must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within Class B airspace? The student must receive both ground and flight instruction on operations within that particular Class B airspace, and the instructor who provided the instruction must endorse the student’s logbook within the preceding 90 days prior to solo flight within that airspace. [61.95] 12. Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirement(s) when operating within or near Class B airspace. Although certain exceptions are specified in the regulations, the general requirements include an operating Mode C transponder (or a Mode S capability) up to 10,000 feet MSL when you are within 30 miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace. An operating Mode C transponder (or a Mode S capability) is also required in all U.S. airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. [91.215] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 8 of 35 13. Describe the Class B airspace boundaries that affect your airport, or an airport nearby. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class B boundaries. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.) 14. You have called ATC just prior to entering the Class B airspace, and the controller tells you to, “Squawk 2466 and ident.” Are you now allowed to enter the Class B airspace without any further instructions? Explain. No. Appropriate authorization from ATC must be received prior to entering Class B airspace. This means a clearance from ATC is required to enter the Class B airspace. [91.131] 15. On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around the airport indicate? A dashed magenta line surrounding an airport is the sectional chart symbol for Class E airspace around that airport. This means the airport does not have an operating control tower, and the base of this Class E airspace begins at the surface. [Sectional Chart Legend] 16. Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VFR flight in Class D airspace. Three miles visibility and a 1,000-foot ceiling [91.155] [AIM] 17. Can a student or recreational pilot request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace when visibility is less than three miles? Explain your answer. Under normal circumstances, no. The minimums for a special VFR clearance include a ground visibility of only one statute mile (flight visibility may be used if ground visibility is not reported at that airport). Since the minimum visibility for student and recreational pilots is three statute miles, they should not request a special VFR clearance. [61.89] [91.157] 18. You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to “Standby.” Are you now allowed to enter this airspace without any further instructions? Explain. Yes. Communications have been established if the controller responds to the radio call with, “(aircraft call sign) Standby.” If the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft call sign, communications have not been established and the pilot should not enter the Class C airspace. [AIM] 19. Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace? Class C airspace consists of two circles of airspace, both centered on the primary airport. The inner circle begins at the surface and has a 5 n.m. radius from the center Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 9 of 35 of the airport. The outer circle begins at 1,200 feet AGL and has a radius of 10 n.m. Both circles have an upper limit of 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. There is an outer area that begins at the 10 n.m. radius and extends to a 20 n.m. radius. The outer area extends from the lower limits of radar/radio coverage up to the ceiling of the approach control’s airspace. In the outer area, participation in the radar service is not mandatory, however, it is recommended. [AIM] 20. Describe the Class C boundaries that affect your airport, or an airport nearby. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class C inner and outer circles, as well as the outer area. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.) SOLO CROSS-COUNTRY BRIEFING Although the student has flown solo before the solo cross-country, regulations require that the student receive additional ground and flight instruction prior to conducting solo cross- country flight. The following briefing is designed to assist you in determining if the student has an acceptable level of knowledge to conduct these operations safely. 1. Plan a cross-country flight by obtaining a weather briefing and completing a navigation log. 2. Select at least 10 examples of good checkpoints along your route of flight. Also, select at least 10 checkpoints that would be difficult to see from the air. 3. By referring to the chart used to plan the cross-country, determine all you can about the destination airport. 4. Where can you find additional information about the destination airport? Airport/Facility Directory, sectional chart, Jeppesen Pilot Resource Services, flight service station (FSS), and NOTAMs. 5. Can you buy fuel at your destination? Sectional charts indicate services available by tick marks around the airport diagram. A/FD entries include airport hours of operation and specific types of fuel available. 6. Explain how to determine your position by using VOR or ADF and how you can use VOR or ADF to fly to your destination. Using the sectional chart, select a nearby navaid. Tune and identify, note the radial or bearing, and plot it on the chart. Plotting from two navaids provides a fix. To fly to your destination, tune the navaid at or near the destination airport, center the needle (with a "TO" indication for VOR), and fly the course inbound. If your destination does not have a nearby navaid, you must intercept and fly a radial or bearing from the navaid that you used to determine your position. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 10 of 35 7. Once airborne, how will you open your flight plan? Contact the nearest flight service station. 8. If you determine you are falling behind your ETA, what action should you take? If you are 15 or more minutes later than planned, inform flight service. 9. Upon arrival at your destination, how will you close your flight plan? Contact an FSS or request any ATC facility to relay your cancellation to flight service. [AIM] 10. If your flight plan is not closed, how long after your ETA will a search begin? 30 minutes after your ETA, the controlling FSS will begin a telephone search to locate your aircraft. If unable to find your aircraft, flight service will initiate search and rescue procedures. [AIM] 11. If you have a problem with the airplane enroute, where can you land? As part of your flight planning, note available airports along the route of flight. Once in flight, be aware of their locations. Also keep note of fields and open areas for use in the event of a forced landing. 12. Explain how to obtain current weather reports and forecasts while enroute. What will you do if the weather along your route of flight deteriorates? Navaid communications boxes on the sectional charts indicate whether a HIWAS is available on the navaid frequency. Enroute flight advisory service (EFAS) is available on 122.0. Automated weather information, such as AWOS or ATIS, may be obtained from nearby airports. If weather deteriorates enroute, remain VFR and proceed to an alternate or return to the departure airport. [AIM] 13. If you become lost, what will you do? First, try to become oriented by reference to prominent landmarks and navigation instruments. Climb as necessary for better visibility and navaid reception. Communicate with an ATC facility or FSS. If unable to establish radio communications, transmit on 121.5. You can request a DF steer from an FSS or radar vectors from ATC. [AIM] 14. What are the minimum VFR fuel reserves required by FARs for day and night flight. Day: 30 minutes; Night: 45 minutes. [91.151] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 11 of 35 PRIVATE PILOT PRACTICAL TEST BRIEFING This is the last pilot briefing and one of the most important, since it prepares the student for the practical test. Remember that there isn’t any formal division between the oral and flight portions of the practical test. Oral questioning can be used at any time to determine if the student’s knowledge of a subject area is adequate. Your briefing of each student should be conducted on a private, individual basis in a manner similar to an actual practical test. The sample questions listed below are not designed for teaching purposes, but to indicate the types of questions that could be asked. Preparation for this should include a discussion of 14 CFR Parts 61, 91, and NTSB 830, with emphasis on the rules that apply to private pilots. You can also anticipate that the examiner will ask specific questions about the required flight maneuvers, as well as the aircraft and its systems. A useful aid when preparing for oral questioning is your student’s written test results. Each FAA question incorrectly answered by the student should be thoroughly discussed, since the examiner may emphasize these areas. AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATES AND DOCUMENTS 1. What documents must be on board the aircraft before operation? Where are they normally located? These documents must be available in the aircraft at all times: Aircraft airworthiness certificate(must be at the cabin or cockpit entrance, legible to crew and passengers) Aircraft registration certificate Aircraft radio station license (not required except for communications with facilities outside of the United States). These items must be carried on the aircraft, and are normally kept in the cockpit: Weight and balance records Minimum equipment list, if applicable Approved airplane flight manual, placards, or markings Also, the pilot in command must have a valid pilot certificate, photo identification, and medical certificate. If communicating with radio facities outside the United States, someone in the airplane is required to have a restricted radiotelephone operator's permit. [91.203, FAA-H-8083-3, Airplane Flying Handbook (AFH)] 2. Which of the documents is not an FAA requirement? The FCC restricted radiotelephone operator’s permit is not required within the U.S. However, it is an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) requirement for communications with facilities outside of the U.S. 3. Must the engine and aircraft logbooks be carried on board the aircraft? No, but they must be made available upon request. [91.417] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 12 of 35 4. Locate the last annual inspection in the aircraft logbooks and determine when the next inspection is due. The next annual inspection is due by the last day of the 12th calendar month since the previous annual inspection. [91.409] 5. If the engine logbook does not reflect a current annual inspection but the aircraft logbook does, is the aircraft legal for operation? No, you should have the discrepancy resolved. 6. When is a 100-hour inspection required? A 100-hour inspection is required if you are carrying any persons for hire or giving flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which you provide. This can be exceeded by 10 hours flight time to get the aircraft to a place where the inspection can be performed. [91.409] 7. If the aircraft has a transponder, locate its last inspection in the log book. When is its next inspection due? 24 calendar months since the previous annual inspection. [91.413] 8. If an airplane is equipped with a transponder and the aircraft logbook indicates the inspection has expired, can the transponder still be used? No, Part 91.413 prohibits use of a transponder when the inspection time period has expired. 9. Describe the items that you can use to determine the operating limitations of the aircraft. Approved airplane flight manual and/or the applicable pilot’s operating handbook (POH), placards, markings, or any combination of these. [91.9] 10. Where can you find the aircraft’s empty weight and moment? What is the empty weight and moment for your aircraft? The airplane’s weight and balance records. AIRPLANE SYSTEMS 1. What is the minimum grade of fuel required for operation of your aircraft? What color is the fuel? Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 13 of 35 2. In the event that the specified grade of fuel is not available, should you use a lower or higher than normal grade? Why? If approved by the manufacturer, you may use the next higher grade for a short time. Using a lower grade than recommended can be extremely harmful to the engine. [FAA- H-8083-25 Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (PHAK)] 3. What is the total fuel capacity of the aircraft? How many gallons are unusable? 4. Where is the fuel selector located? What is the correct procedure for switching fuel tanks, if appropriate? 5. What is the purpose of an auxiliary electric fuel pump? When should you use it? It provides fuel under pressure for engine starting and as a backup in case the engine- driven pump malfunctions. Refer to the POH. 6. What is the purpose of the fuel tank quick drains? They allow you to take samples and visually check them for contamination. 7. What is the purpose of the fuel tank vent? It is to equalize air pressure inside the tank with that outside the tank. This prevents a vacuum from forming which would keep fuel from flowing out of the tank. [PHAK] 8. When should you check the fuel tanks for fuel contamination? Usually, before each flight. 9. What are some ways to reduce the possibility of fuel contamination? Refill the tank after the last flight of the day and make sure fuel caps are properly secured. [PHAK] 10. What is the electrical system voltage when the alternator is running? What is the battery voltage? 11. Does your aircraft have a generator or an alternator? Does it produce alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)? 12. What are the basic advantages of an alternator over a generator? Lighter weight, lower maintenance, and uniform output, even at low engine r.p.m. [PHAK] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 14 of 35 13. What is the purpose of the voltage regulator? Normally, it controls the alternator’s rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the voltage output. Also, if the voltage is too high or low, it removes the alternator from the electrical system. Refer to your POH. [PHAK] 14. How do you detect alternator or generator failure? Check the ammeter, warning light, and/or loadmeter for abnormal indications as described in the POH. 15. Why is an ammeter or loadmeter installed in the aircraft, and what does each indicate? An ammeter monitors current flowing to or from the battery. A charging ammeter (needle on the plus side) is normal after engine start, and it should decrease to near zero. A negative reading may mean a faulty alternator or the electrical load is excessive. A loadmeter shows the amount of current being drawn from the alternator by the electrical system. [PHAK] 16. Is the electrical system protected by circuit breakers or fuses? Some aircraft use circuit breakers, some use fuses, and many aircraft use both. Refer to the POH. 17. What is the procedure for resetting a tripped circuit breaker? If you push to reset a circuit breaker for an essential system, and it trips again, there is either an overload or short. Attempting to reset it again normally is not advisable. Refer to the POH. 18. Describe how you should use the primer during cold and warm weather operations. In warm weather, the engine needs less priming than in colder weather. Refer to the POH. 19. After priming the engine during a cold weather start, is it advisable to “pump” the throttle after engaging the starter? Explain. This depends on the airplane. Refer to the POH. 20. During a cold weather start, the oil pressure gauge does not indicate any oil pressure for nearly 30 seconds. What should you do? In cold weather, it may take up to 1 minute for an oil pressure indication on the gauge. If it does not show any pressure at that time, shut down the engine and have it checked by a mechanic. Refer to the POH. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 15 of 35 21. During the magneto check before takeoff, when you switch from BOTH to the RIGHT position, the r.p.m. remains the same as it was in the BOTH position. Does this mean that the aircraft has an exceptionally good magneto? Explain. No. There may be improper magneto grounding or timing, and it should be checked by a mechanic. [PHAK] 22. Is it possible for carburetor icing to develop during a taxi operation? Explain. It may be possible, since carburetor ice is more likely to occur at low power settings. However, carburetor heat should not be used during taxi, because unfiltered air may be introduced into the system. Refer to the POH. 23. Should you normally use carburetor heat during the takeoff? Explain. No. Warm air from carburetor heat reduces engine performance. The engine r.p.m. should be in the normal range during the runup before takeoff. [PHAK] 24. What might cause engine roughness during runup at a high elevation field (5,000 feet MSL) during hot weather? What action is appropriate in this situation? The fuel mixture may be too rich, and should be adjusted (leaned) until the engine runs smoothly. Refer to the POH for recommended leaning procedures. 25. What is the first indication of carburetor icing on an airplane with a fixed-pitch or a constant-speed propeller? A gradual loss of engine r.p.m. with a fixed-pitch propeller and a loss of manifold pressure with a constant-speed prop. [PHAK] 26. What methods should you use to decrease or prevent engine overheating during climbs? Climb at a higher airspeed, enrich the mixture, or momentarily level off. [PHAK] 27. Describe the technique used to achieve a lean fuel mixture during cruise flight. Follow the procedure recommended in the POH. 28. Define the term “basic empty weight.” It includes the weight of the standard airplane, optional equipment, unusable fuel, and full operating fluids including full engine oil. [GAMA Spec. No. 1] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 16 of 35 29. Is it acceptable to use the empty weight posted in the pilot’s operating handbook sample problem for weight and balance computations? Explain. No, because the weight and center of gravity information for the sample airplane is not likely to represent the airplane at hand. You must refer to the weight and balance records for the individual airplane. 30. What is the “reference datum?” Where is it located on this aircraft? The reference datum is an imaginary vertical plane, fixed at a point along the longitudinal axis of the airplane, from which all horizontal distances are measured for weight and balance purposes. Refer to the POH and/or the weight and balance records. 31. Define the term “allowable center of gravity (or moment) range.” Center of gravity (CG) limits, both forward and aft, are established by the manufacturer for each weight of an airplane. The computed CG of an airplane with a given load must fall between these limits (or range) to allow for safe operation. [PHAK, FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook] 32. What is the center of gravity (or moment) range for your training airplane at its maximum takeoff weight? 33. Compute a weight and balance problem for the actual flight test conditions. Does the center of gravity (or moment) fall within limits? 34. What flight characteristics may you expect if the aircraft is loaded with the CG too far forward or too far aft? A CG too far forward creates a nose-heavy condition and causes problems in controlling and raising the nose, especially during takeoff and landing. Loading with a CG too far aft reduces the airplane’s capability to recover from stalls and spins. It also produces light control forces, making it easier for the pilot to overstress the airplane. [AFH] 35. What is the maximum allowable baggage weight if the CG is within the center of gravity envelope? 36. How do you know if the weight and balance data of the aircraft have been changed? How is the change and the nature of the modification recorded? This information should be available in the airplane’s weight and balance records. If data has been changed, it will be marked superseded, along with the effective date of the new information. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 17 of 35 PERFORMANCE 1. Name 5 to 10 factors that can affect takeoff distance. Airplane weight, density altitude (pressure altitude and temperature), humidity, wind, runway surface and condition, and runway gradient (slope). Depending on the airplane, other factors may include flap setting, power setting, use of carburetor heat, propeller pitch, CG location, use of brakes during engine runup, and control application. [AFH] 2. Compute the density altitude given the following factors. Field elevation: 5,000 ft. Altimeter setting: 30.12 in. Hg Outside air temperature: 35°C A chart may be used to find the density altitude (DA), including the correction for nonstandard pressure. To use a flight computer, first apply the pressure correction (29.92 – 30.12 = –.20) x 1,000 = –200 feet. Enter pressure altitude of 4,800 feet and temperature of 35°C. The computed DA is 8,088 feet. [PHAK] Use the pilot’s operating handbook of the airplane you will use for the practical test to answer questions 3 through 9. 3. Given the following conditions, compute the takeoff distance. Runway: Hard surfaced Flaps: Up Aircraft weight: Maximum takeoff Headwind: 10 kts. Field elevation: 4,000 ft. Outside air temperature: 29°C 4. Given the following conditions, determine the landing distance. Field elevation: 3,000 ft. Outside air temperature: 10°C Headwind: 10 kts. Aircraft weight: Maximum landing 5. Assume you depart an airport that is at sea level and climb to a cruising altitude of 8,500 feet. Calculate the time, fuel, and distance you will need to complete the climb. 6. During a short-field landing, what technique provides maximum braking effectiveness? Lower the nose as soon as practical after touchdown and smoothly apply maximum braking. Usually, braking is more effective when back pressure is applied to the control wheel, transferring more weight to the main wheels. Flap position should be according to the manufacturer’s recommendation. Refer to the POH. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 18 of 35 7. When landing on a sod runway, should you expect a longer or a shorter than normal landing roll? What should you expect on a runway covered with water, snow, or slush? A sod runway is usually softer than a paved surface. Deceleration may be rapid and the landing roll may, under some circumstances, be shorter with a very soft surface. However, according to some POHs, with a dry grassy surface, ground roll may increase by as much as 45 percent. Water, snow, or slush will also tend to decelerate the airplane; however, braking effectiveness is reduced, and hydroplaning could be a problem causing increased landing roll distances. Consult the POH for data pertinent to your airplane. 8. Define best angle-of-climb and best rate-of-climb airspeed. What are these airspeeds for your aircraft? Best angle-of-climb (VX) is the airspeed that provides the greatest gain in altitude for horizontal distance traveled. Best rate-of-climb (VY) is the airspeed that gives the greatest gain in altitude over a period of time. [AFH] 9. How do you convert indicated to calibrated airspeed? Is this conversion necessary during normal operations? Use the airspeed correction table in the POH. For light training airplanes, the difference between CAS and IAS is very small, and the conversion is seldom necessary. LIMITATIONS 1. Under which category is your aircraft certificated? Are spins approved? The aircraft category is included on the airworthiness certificate. Some aircraft may fall under two categories, utility and normal, depending on how they are loaded. Spins are prohibited in normal category airplanes. Spins may be practiced in acrobatic category aircraft, and may be approved for some utility category aircraft under specific loading conditions. Placards and/or the POH include applicable limitations. 2. What is the maximum positive G-loading approved in this airplane with the flaps up? What is the maximum G-loading with flaps down? 3. State the V-speed value of each color code on the airspeed indicator and define its meaning and significance. White: Flap operating range Green: Normal operating range Yellow: Caution range Red: Never-exceed speed [PHAK] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 19 of 35 4. Define maneuvering speed and its significance to the aircraft. Is this speed designated by a colored marking on the airspeed indicator? Maneuvering speed (VA) is the maximum speed at which full and abrupt control movement may be used at gross weight without overstressing the airplane. At VA or below, the airplane will stall before an excessive load is produced. VA is not displayed on the airspeed indicator. [AFH] 5. What other airspeed limitations exist for this aircraft? 6. What are the maximum takeoff and landing weights for this aircraft? WEATHER AND CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHT PLANNING 1. How can you obtain weather reports and forecasts? Where do you find a listing of appropriate telephone numbers? FSS and NWS telephone briefing numbers are listed in the A/FD and in telephone directories under the U.S. Government listings. Other sources include DUATS and TIBS. [AIM] 2. How can you update weather reports and forecasts during flight? Enroute flight advisory service (EFAS) on 122.0 up to 17,500 feet MSL. HIWAS is available on selected VORs. [AIM] 3. If your destination does not issue a terminal aerodrome forecast, how can you determine the forecast weather at your ETA? For a flight under VFR, you may use an area forecast or terminal forecasts for nearby airports. 4. What is a PIREP? How significant is it? A pilot report of weather conditions encountered in flight. These real-time reports confirm the existence of conditions which may or may not be forecast, including cloud tops, icing, and turbulence. [AIM, AC 00-45] 5. Plan a cross-country flight, obtain a complete weather briefing, and complete a navigation log. 6. Is the weather satisfactory for the planned flight? If not, could a change in routing or a delay in the planned departure time allow you to proceed with the flight? Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 20 of 35 7. If weather deteriorates enroute, what should you do? Depending on the weather, options include turning back to your departure airport, changing your route, or diverting to an alternate airport. 8. If you encounter moderate to severe turbulence, is it advisable to slow the aircraft to somewhat less than maneuvering speed? Explain. During gusty or turbulent conditions, the aircraft should be flown at or below the design maneuvering speed (VA). The load factor that can be imposed on the wing below this speed is within safe limits. At or below VA, the airplane will stall before excessive G-forces can build up. [AFH] 9. If you discover you are lost, what should you do? Normally, you should climb and try to find significant landmarks. Attempt to tune in a navaid. If you are unable to orient yourself, call for help on an ATC or FSS frequency, or the emergency frequency of 121.5. [AIM] AERONAUTICAL CHARTS AND AIRPORT OPERATIONS To answer questions 1 through 20, have the student use the sectional chart appropriate to the local area. Select a controlled airport and an uncontrolled airport with an FSS on the field (if available) to answer the first 10 questions. 1. Provide at least 10 different items of information pertaining to the controlled airport. 2. Is Class D airspace designated around the controlled airport? If so, when is it in effect? 3. What is the minimum MSL altitude you can use to overfly a tower-controlled airport without establishing two-way communications with the control tower? The ceiling of Class D airspace is typically 2,500 feet AGL, and is shown on sectional charts in feet MSL. You should be above this altitude, and if above 3,000 feet AGL, fly at the appropriate VFR cruising altitude. [91.129, 91.159] 4. At what times is the control tower in operation at this airport? 5. If you cannot contact the control tower on the normal frequency, can you receive an airport advisory on the UNICOM frequency? Explain. It depends. The UNICOM may or may not provide advisories. If a CTAF frequency is shown, you should use it. [AIM] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 21 of 35 6. What frequency should you use to obtain an airport advisory at the uncontrolled airport? Use the designated CTAF frequency. [AIM] 7. What other frequencies can you use to communicate with the FSS? The sectional chart legend states that 122.2 and 121.5 are normally available at all FSSs and are not shown. Other frequencies are shown above the communication boxes. Where an FSS is located at the airport, the local airport advisory frequency is 123.6. [Chart Legend] 8. What is the minimum weather required at the uncontrolled airport before you can land under VFR? Whether or not an airport has an operational control tower, if operating beneath the ceiling within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface, you must have a 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 s.m. visibility. If the airport is located in Class G airspace, daytime operations require only 1 s.m. visibility and clear of clouds. [91.155, 91.157] 9. Assume that all attempts to contact the FSS at the uncontrolled field are unsuccessful because your communications radio is apparently inoperative. According to regulations, is it legal to enter the surrounding Class E airspace without establishing two-way radio communications? Yes, as long as you remain in VFR conditions. [91.155] 10. In this situation, what is the proper procedure for determining the runway in use? How do you enter the traffic pattern? Can you use ATC light signals? Observe local traffic, or fly over the airport and look for a segmented circle and/or wind direction indicators. Normally enter at 45° to the downwind on a left-hand pattern unless the segmented circle indicates otherwise. Normally, light signals would not be used at an uncontrolled field. [91.127, AIM] 11. How are VORs, VORTACs, and VOR/DMEs identified on a sectional chart? See the Chart Legend. 12. Are VOR radials aligned to magnetic or true north? Magnetic north Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 22 of 35 13. Locate an example of each of the following types of airspace and explain its lateral and vertical limits, as well as its significance to a VFR flight.  Class D Lateral limits vary, but the vertical limit is typically 2,500 feet AGL, unless otherwise indicated. You must contact the control tower prior to entry and maintain radio contact within the Class D airspace. Also you must have VFR weather minimums as specified in Part 91.155. [91.129]  Class E Limits vary. Even though radio contact is not required, IFR traffic may be operating in Class E airspace. Controlled airspace weather minimums apply. [AIM Glossary]  Uncontrolled airspace (Class G) Overlying controlled airspace may be 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, 14,500 feet MSL, or otherwise indicated. Lower cloud clearance and visibility minimums are allowed, and there is not air traffic control. [AIM Glossary]  Restricted airspace Dimensions are as shown on aeronautical charts. Permission must be obtained to fly through a restricted area. [AIM]  Military operations area (MOA) Dimensions are as shown on aeronautical charts. VFR operations are not prohibited, but you should exercise extreme caution while flying within an active MOA. Since the status of activity in an MOA may change frequently, contact any FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operations. Prior to entering an active MOA, contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories. [AIM]  Military training route (MTR) MTRs are normally established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. However, route segments may be defined at higher altitudes for route continuity. Both VFR (VR) and IFR (IR) routes are included. Route centerlines are depicted on sectional charts. Width varies for each MTR and can extend several miles on either side of the charted MTR centerline. You are not prohibited from flying within an MTR; however, extreme vigilance is recommended for flight through or near these routes. Contact FSSs within 100 NM of a particular MTR to obtain current information or route usage in their vicinity. Information available includes times of scheduled activity, altitudes in use on each route segment, and actual route width. [AIM] 14. Locate an MTR on the sectional chart. Explain all you can about the MTR, based on its designation. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 23 of 35 15. What are the sources for obtaining current Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs)? Textual TFRs are available via an FSS briefer, or an approved online source. Graphical TFRs are available at the FAA’s website Web site (www.faa.gov). 16. Obtain a current textual TFR and draw the airspace limits on the appropriate sectional or terminal chart. 17. What is a Flight Restricted Zone (FRZ)? An FRZ is airspace where all flights are prohibited except DOD, law enforcement, and aeromedical services in communication with ATC. [AIM] 18. What is an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)? An ADIZ is airspace in which all aircraft entering or leaving must have a flight plan filed and be in communication with ATC. [AIM] 19. On the sectional chart, locate an airport within Class D airspace. If the weather at that airport is reported as IFR due to ground fog, would you need to establish two-way communications with the control tower to fly VFR through the lateral limits of this Class D airspace area at 6,000 feet AGL? Class D airspace normally extends up to 2,500 feet AGL, so you would be in the overlying class of airspace. If you can maintain VFR conditions according to Part 91.155, you could operate in Class E or G airspace without two-way communications with the tower. [91.129, 91.155] 20. Assuming the airport is reporting a 600-foot ceiling and one-mile visibility, could you conduct a VFR flight to and from the airport? No, but a private pilot might be able to obtain a special VFR clearance during daylight hours. Student pilots, however, are required to observe the three mile visibility limitation specified in Part 61.89. [91.155, 91.157] 21. What are the VFR and special VFR weather minimums for Class D airspace? For VFR flight, the ceiling must be 1,000 feet or greater and visibility at least 3 s.m. Special VFR in the daytime requires one mile ground visibility or one mile flight visibility, if ground visibility is not reported, and clear of clouds. At night, you need an instrument rating, instrument currency, and the aircraft must be IFR equipped. [91.155, 91.157] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 24 of 35 22. Locate an obstruction on the sectional chart. Immediately adjacent to it are two numbers (one in parentheses). What is the significance of each number? The upper number is the elevation of the top in feet MSL. The lower number, in parentheses, is the height AGL. [Chart Legend] 23. If the DME is tuned to a VOR facility, what indications can you expect from the DME? A VOR that is not a VORTAC or VOR/DME does not send a DME signal. The DME equipment will indicate dashes, which means it is not receiving a DME signal. [AIM] 24. Locate a maximum elevation figure (MEF). Explain its significance. It represents the highest known terrain or obstruction in a quadrangle bounded by ticked lines of latitude and longitude. It is rounded up to the next 100-foot level and adjusted upward 100 to 300 feet. [Chart Legend] 25. Explain proper control wheel positioning for crosswind taxiing. With tricycle-gear airplanes, hold neutral elevator in a headwind, and down elevator in a tailwind. Hold the control wheel to the left in a left quartering headwind (up aileron on the left wing), and to the right in a right quartering headwind. With a left quartering tailwind, use down aileron on the left wing, and with a right quartering tailwind, use down aileron on the right wing. [AFH] In a tailwheel airplane, the controls are held the same, except the elevator is held aft in a headwind. 26. Relative to directional control, what must you be aware of during takeoff in a strong crosswind? The wind tends to push and roll the airplane to the downwind side of the runway. Hold aileron into the wind and apply rudder on the downwind side to counteract weathervaning into the wind. As the airplane accelerates and the controls become more effective, gradually reduce control deflection. [AFH] 27. Describe the symbols on an airport that indicate either left-hand or right-hand traffic patterns. The arms of the landing strip and traffic pattern indicators on a segmented circle are aligned in the direction of the base legs and final approaches for each runway. [AIM] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 25 of 35 28. Discuss the different colors associated with airport lighting and what each represents. Airport beacon: Civilian airports are alternating green and white. Military has a split white beam. A seaplane airport has flashing white and yellow. Heliports alternate between green, yellow, and white lights. Taxiway lights are blue. Taxiway centerline lights are green, as are taxiway turnoff lights from the runway centerline. Runway threshold lights are green on the approach end and red on the departure end. Runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways, where amber lights line the last 2,000 feet. Runway centerline lights are white, except from 1,000 to 3,000 feet remaining, where they alternate red and white, and the last 1,000 feet where they are all red. [AIM] COLLISION AVOIDANCE 1. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft? Aircraft in distress. [91.113] 2. Two aircraft of the same category are converging at the same approximate altitude. Which aircraft has the right-of-way? The aircraft to the other’s right. [91.113] 3. If a glider and an airplane are approaching head-on, or nearly so, who has the right-of- way and what action should be taken? The glider has the right-of-way, and the airplane should give way to the right. [91.113] 4. One aircraft is on final approach and the second is waiting to take off. Which aircraft has the right-of-way? An aircraft on final approach has right-of-way over aircraft on the ground. [91.113] POSTFLIGHT PROCEDURES 1. After landing, what procedures should you follow concerning the shutdown, parking, and securing of your aircraft? Refer to the POH. 2. After shutdown, why is it important to make sure the ignition switch has been placed in the OFF position? If the ignition switch is left on, the engine could fire if the propeller is moved. [PHAK] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 26 of 35 3. When should you refuel the airplane? What are some precautionary steps that you should take during refueling? You should refuel after the last flight of the day. The airplane should be grounded to the fuel truck, which should be grounded to the airport surface. Make sure you are out of the airplane while refueling is in progress. Use the proper grade of fuel. In an emergency, you may use the next higher grade if approved by the manufacturer. After refueling is complete, check security of the fuel caps. [PHAK] NIGHT OPERATIONS 1. What are the differences between scanning for aircraft at night and during the day? At night, use off-center viewing, and move your eyes more slowly. Do not focus on one spot very long. [AIM, AFH] 2. Why is it important to carry a flashlight at night? Besides the importance of a flashlight for preflight, it provides a back-up light source if the interior lights fail. [AFH] 3. Is it easier or more difficult to avoid obstructions at night? Explain. Lighted obstructions are easier to see and avoid at night. However, unlit obstructions are more difficult, if not impossible, to see at night. 4. Is weather easier or more difficult to avoid at night? Explain. With the possible exception of thunderstorms, weather can be more difficult to see at night. [AFH] 5. How is a night takeoff different from one performed during the day? Explain. After liftoff, you will need to transition to the flight instruments more rapidly. Use of both visual and instrument references is recommended. [AFH] 6. Is a night approach flown differently than one flown during the day? Explain any differences. You should fly a standard approach. Use the runway lights for a peripheral cue for landing. When landing lights are used, avoid focusing near the airplane. The main difference is that your ability to judge height, speed, and sink rate is impaired. [AFH] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 27 of 35 EMERGENCY OPERATIONS 1. What is the definition of the best or maximum glide speed? What is the best glide speed for your aircraft? The best glide speed gives you the maximum gliding distance in a no-wind condition. Refer to the POH for your airplane. While wind effect may be minimal, weight and configuration may be significant in choosing the best glide speed. 2. Explain and define the approximate glide ratio for your aircraft. Glide ratio is the distance an airplane will travel forward, without power, in relation to the altitude loss. Refer to your POH. 3. Discuss the procedures to be used in the event of partial or complete engine failure. A partial or complete engine failure can have several causes, such as carburetor ice or fuel starvation. Possible corrective actions may be use of carburetor heat or switching the fuel selector. For a complete engine failure, generally:  Maintain control and establish best glide speed.  Find a suitable field.  Turn to a heading that will take the airplane to the field.  Attempt to restart if possible. Follow the emergency checklist and declare an emergency.  Set up an approach to the field. Refer to the POH for specific instructions. 4. If an engine fire develops during flight, what steps should you follow? Normally, shut down the engine and execute a forced landing. If the fire is not extinguished in flight, increase the airspeed to blow out the flames. Refer to the POH. 5. What procedure should you use in the event of an electrical fire? In general, shut off electrical power (master switch and battery). Open vents and windows to eliminate smoke. Use a fire extinguisher if necessary. Then, if electrical power is needed, turn off all non-essential equipment and turn on power. Attempt to isolate the malfunction and turn the affected equipment off. Refer to the POH. 6. While in flight, you note that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temperature remains normal. Explain what action you would take in this situation. It is possible that the gauge or relief valve is malfunctioning. Continue to monitor oil temperature, since it may take time for the temperature rise indication. Land at the nearest airport and have the problem inspected. Refer to the POH. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 28 of 35 7. During flight, the engine oil pressure suddenly drops to zero and the oil temperature begins to rise. Explain what has happened and what action you would take in this situation. Probable loss of oil pressure, due to oil pump failure or loss of oil is indicated. Engine failure could be imminent. Execute a forced landing using only minimum power required. Refer to the POH for procedures that apply to your airplane. 8. After takeoff, your engine suddenly stops at an altitude of 100 feet AGL. What action should you take? Land straight ahead on remaining runway, if possible. If unable, establish the best glide speed, attempt to land straight ahead, and follow the checklist procedures for your airplane. AERODYNAMICS 1. Discuss the aerodynamic factors associated with stalls and spins. A stall is caused when the critical angle of attack is exceeded, and the airflow separates from the wing’s upper surface. A stalled condition can lead to a spin, especially when the wings are unequally stalled. [AFH] 2. At what indicated airspeed will your aircraft stall at maximum takeoff weight with flaps down and power off? 3. What increase in stall speed can you expect in a 60° bank in the clean configuration? In a level, 60° bank, the load factor is 2 G’s. The trigonometric relationship to determine load factor is the same for all airplanes. It is one over the cosine of the bank angle. The cosine of 60° is.500, and 1 over.500 equals 2. Stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor. The square root of two is 1.414. Therefore, the stall speed is about 140% of the level flight stall speed. Charts or tables are available to show load factor and the percent of increase in stall speed. [AFH] 4. What is an accelerated stall, and when is it most likely to occur? What are the typical causes of a spin, and how do you recover? An accelerated stall is one that occurs with a G-force greater than one, and at a speed higher than the normal stall speed. They are likely to occur during turns, in pull ups, or in turbulence. A spin is normally caused by uncoordinated control inputs while in a stalled condition. The general procedures to recover are: bring throttle to idle, neutralize the ailerons, raise flaps, apply full rudder opposite the spin direction. As rotation slows, briskly apply forward elevator to neutral, and smoothly recover from the dive. Recovery procedures vary for different aircraft, so refer to the POH. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 29 of 35 5. If you are operating the aircraft at a low airspeed with full power during a descent, what action should you take to arrest the descent? Why? Increase airspeed before applying back pressure to avoid stalling the airplane. In most airplanes, you will have to apply forward pressure to lower the nose and increase airspeed. [AFH] 6. Explain ground effect and how you can use it to your advantage during takeoff. In ground effect, the earth or water surface interferes with the airflow, and decreases the upwash and downwash over the wing. This results in a reduction of induced drag. An airplane can become airborne at a lower than normal airspeed, then accelerate while remaining in ground effect. The important thing to remember is that initially the flying speed while in ground effect may not be sufficient for a climb. [AFH] REGULATIONS AND THE AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION MANUAL 1. How many miles wide is a Victor airway? 8 n.m. out to 51 n.m. from the navaid. Beyond that distance, the airway diverges at 4.5° from the centerline extending from the navaid. [71.75] 2. What is the significance of 14,500 feet MSL in the classification of airspace? It is the maximum ceiling of Class G airspace, except for airspace within 1,500 feet AGL. Airspace above 14,500 feet MSL and 1,500 feet AGL is controlled. [AIM] 3. What type of information do you find in the Aeronautical Information Manual? It describes airspace and the procedures for conducting flight operations within the U.S. National Airspace System. 4. At what time of day may you begin logging night flight time? At the end of evening civil twilight, as published in the American Air Almanac. [1.1, 61.51, 61.57] 5. During what time period must you turn on the aircraft position lights? Between sunset and sunrise. [91.209] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 30 of 35 6. What are the recency of experience requirements to carry passengers at night in a particular category and class of aircraft? Do these requirements vary for each aircraft category? Within the preceding 90 days, 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, during the period 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise, in the same category and class of aircraft. Requirements are the same for each category. [61.57] 7. Must an aircraft always be equipped with an emergency locator transmitter? If not, explain the exceptions. No, Part 91.207 allows a newly acquired airplane, or one with an inoperative ELT, to be ferried to a location where an ELT will be installed or repaired. Other exceptions apply to turbojets, scheduled air carriers, training aircraft operating within 50 n.m. of the originating airport, agricultural aircraft, new aircraft during testing and delivery, and aircraft which have the ELT removed for inspection or repair, not to exceed 90 days. 8. Under what conditions must your passengers be supplied with supplemental oxygen? When are you, as pilot in command, required to use oxygen? Passengers: Above 15,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Pilot: Cabin altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL, up to 14,000 feet MSL, for the part of the flight beyond 30 minutes at these altitudes, and the entire time at cabin altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL. [91.211] 9. When are passengers required to wear seatbelts and, if installed, shoulder harnesses? During movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. [91.107] 10. What is the minimum allowable flight altitude over a sparsely populated area? No closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Also, you must operate at an altitude that will not create an undue hazard to persons or property on the surface in the event of an engine failure and emergency landing. [91.119] 11. Under what circumstances is it legal to drop an object from an aircraft while in flight? When reasonable precautions are taken to avoid creating a hazard to persons or property. [91.15] 12. Are flight plans required for VFR cross-country flight? Except for operations in or penetrating an ADIZ, no, but they are recommended. [AIM] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 31 of 35 13. What are the pilot and equipment requirements for operation within Class B airspace? A private pilot certificate, or student pilot with a logbook endorsement within the preceding 90 days for that Class B area. Note that student flights are not prohibited in any Class B area. However, takeoffs and landings by student pilots from some Class B primary airports are prohibited. Refer to Part 91.131 (b). In addition, a two-way communications radio and transponder with Mode C are required, and a clearance must be obtained prior to entering Class B airspace [61.95]. 14. What are the pilot and equipment requirements for operation within a terminal area classified as Class C airspace? There are no pilot restrictions. Required equipment includes a two-way radio and a transponder with Mode C. Although an ATC clearance is not required, you must establish radio contact prior to entering Class C airspace. [91.130] 15. According to 14 CFR Part 61, who may give a flight review? How often must you obtain one? According to Part 61.56, an authorized flight instructor. To act as pilot in command, you must have a flight review every 24 calendar months. Alternate ways of satisfying the recent experience requirements are listed in this regulation. 16. For a private pilot, what are the restrictions to acting as pilot in command of an aircraft with more than 200 horsepower? Part 61.31 requires a private pilot to receive flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor, and have a logbook endorsement indicating competency before acting as pilot in command of an airplane having more than 200 h.p. 17. According to NTSB 830, what is an aircraft accident and when must it be reported? What is the difference between an accident and an incident? An aircraft accident involves death or serious injury to persons, or substantial damage to the aircraft, anytime persons are on board with the intention of flight. As indicated in NTSB Part 830.5, accidents must be reported immediately. Certain incidents, such as a flight control failure, in-flight fire, or aircraft collision also must be reported immediately. An incident is an event other than an accident, associated with aircraft operation, which could affect safety. 18. If an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident, when must the operator notify the NTSB? Immediately. [NTSB 830.5] Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 32 of 35 INTERCEPTION 1. What are the three intercept phases? Phase One—Approach Phase Phase Two—Identification Phase Phase Three—Post Intercept Phase [AIM] 2. What steps must you immediately take if intercepted?  Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and responding to the visual signals.  Notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit.  Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the emergency frequency (121.5 and/or 243.0 MHz), if practicable, giving the identity and position of the aircraft and the nature of the flight.  If equipped with a transponder, squawk 7700, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic services unit. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual or radio signals, request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft. [AIM] 3. If you are intercepted and unable to establish radio communication, how can you advise the intercepting aircraft you are in distress? Irregular flashing of all available lights. [AIM] AEROMEDICAL FACTORS 1. Discuss the similarities and differences between the conditions of hypoxia, hyperventilation, and carbon monoxide poisoning. What are the symptoms and effects for each condition, and what corrective actions should you take in each case? Hypoxia occurs when insufficient oxygen reaches your body’s cells. Symptoms include increased breathing rate, dizziness, sweating, tingling, blue extremities, reduced vision, and slowed decision-making. The best corrective action is to use supplemental oxygen. Hyperventilation is a breathing rate that is too rapid and too deep. Some symptoms are similar to hypoxia, such as dizziness, tingling, drowsiness, and mental confusion, but hyperventilation is more likely to produce muscle spasms and pale skin color, rather than the limp muscles and bluish skin color associated with hypoxia. The corrective action is to breathe normally; talking out loud or breathing into a paper bag may help. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 33 of 35 Carbon monoxide poisoning is a common cause of hypemic hypoxia. CO molecules attach themselves to hemoglobin, and the blood is unable to carry enough oxygen to the cells. Symptoms are typical of hypoxia. In addition, you may experience a headache and loss of muscle power. Corrective actions in flight include turning off the heater, opening vents or windows, and using oxygen. [AFH] 2. If a passenger exhibits symptoms which could be attributed to more than one condition, what should you do? It is best to treat all possible causes. In each case, use of supplemental oxygen should help. [AIM] 3. What are the rules concerning the use of alcohol and the operation of an aircraft? You may not operate an aircraft within 8 hours of consuming alcohol, or while under its influence, or while having.04% by weight, or more, of alcohol in the blood. [91.17] 4. Name several common medications that you should not take before or during a flight. Tranquilizers, most decongestants and antihistamines, amphetamines, many prescription pain killers, cough syrups, and some antibiotics. When in doubt, consult your AME. 5. What is spatial disorientation, when is it most likely to occur, and what corrective action should you take if you become spatially disoriented? It is an incorrect mental image of your position, attitude, or movement in relation to what is actually happening. It is most likely to occur in weather or darkness. Refer to your flight instruments, believe them, and fly the airplane according to the indications. [AFH] 6. What are the effects of fatigue on a pilot? It causes reduced coordination and alertness, as well as impaired judgment, which results in unwarranted risks. [AIM] CONSIDERATIONS FOR THE PRACTICAL TEST Make the appointment for the practical test well in advance. If a scheduling conflict arises, promptly notify the examiner and reschedule the flight test. Make sure you and the student have enough time to complete final preparations. On the day of the flight test, the student should arrive at the airport appropriately dressed. Just as important as the student’s appearance is the appearance of the aircraft. It should be clean and fully serviced. Have the student use the Applicant's Practical Test Checklist near the front of the Practical Test Standards booklet to be sure the student has the necessary materials for the test. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 34 of 35 AIRMAN CERTIFICATE AND/OR RATING APPLICATION An application for a pilot certificate and/or rating should be completed prior to the time that the applicant and examiner meet for the practical test. Detailed instructions for filling out the application are attached to the form. Some of these instructions are covered in the following discussion. 1. Application Information — Check the appropriate boxes. 2. Do you now hold, or have you ever held, an FAA Pilot Certificate? — A student pilot certificate is a pilot certificate, so mark “yes” in this block. 3. Grade — Enter the grade of the pilot certificate currently held by the applicant: student, private, commercial, ATP. 4. Certificate Number — Enter the number of the applicant’s current pilot certificate. 5. Date Issued — Make sure the applicant has a current and appropriate medical certificate and, in the case of a student pilot, that it has been issued within 24 months prior to the flight test. 6. Completion of Required Test — This block should be checked for applicants obtaining their certificates under the requirements of 14 CFR Part 61. In addition, you must enter the make and model of the airplane that will be used for the flight test, as well as the total flight time and total solo or PIC flight time the applicant has logged in that airplane. 7. Graduate of Approved Course — If the applicant is seeking certification through an FAA Part 141 approved flight school, mark block C. Be sure to write down the name and location of the flight school, the curriculum title, agency school number, and the date of graduation. Parts 1 and 2 of Block A also must be completed for graduates of approved schools. 8. Record of Pilot Time — Write down the hours logged in the appropriate blocks. Make sure that the total solo time and total dual given is equal to the applicant’s total flight time. The reverse side of the application form has the “Instructor’s Recommendation” at the top of the page. The instructor must fill in the required information. The second block, “Air Agency’s Recommendation,” is filled in only by those schools that have been granted examining authority. Leave the remainder of the form blank. Copyright © 2010 Jeppesen. All rights reserved Page 35 of 35

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