Pharmacology & Toxicology Answer Key-RED PACOP PDF

Pharmacology & Toxicology RED PACOP B. Both the agonist and antagonist have 1. Pharmacodynamics is similar chemical structure A. The science that examines the C. It is reversible interrelationship of the D....

Pharmacology & Toxicology RED PACOP B. Both the agonist and antagonist have 1. Pharmacodynamics is similar chemical structure A. The science that examines the C. It is reversible interrelationship of the D. The antagonist does not have the physicochemical properties of the drug ability to activate the receptor and the route of administration on the E. None of the above rate and extent of systemic circulation B. The science of the kinetics of drug 6. The relative measure f the safety and absorption, distribution and elimination effectiveness of a drug is the ratio of TD50 to C. The part of pharmacology, which ED50. The pharmacological term used to deals with what a drug does to the indicate this ratio is known as body A. Pharmacological efficacy D. The science, which deals with the B. Pharmacological toxicity ratio physicochemical properties of the drug C. Therapeutic index that allow it to be designed into D. Median effective ratio dosage forms E. Competitive antagonism E. A and B 7. A physician may prescribed carbidopa 2. Which of the following types of drugs binds along with levodopa to increase the halflife to a receptor and produce an effect similar to levodopa and the duration of its anti- that of endogenous ligands? parkinsonian effect. This way of enhancing of A. Inverse agonist drug effect is known as B. Agonist A. Potentiation C. Partial agonist B. Synergism D. Competitive antagonist C. Addition E. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial antagonism E. Competitive antagonism 3. Drugs ‘x’ binds to drug ‘y’ as a result of which an inactive complex is formed. This 8. Which of the following is the main organ of type of antagonism is called metabolism? A. Competitive antagonism A. Kidney B. Non-competitive antagonism B. Liver C. Physiologic antagonism C. Intestines D. Neutralizing antagonism D. Pancreas E. Partial antagonism E. Heart 4. Epinephrine and acetylcholine act on the 9. Chloramphenicol is known for which of the sympathatetic and parasympathetic following adverse side-effects? autonomic nervous system, respsectively, and A. Blue baby syndrome their effects are opposite to each other. This B. Gray baby syndrome type of antagonism is called C. Red man syndrome A. competitive antagonism D. A and B B. non competitive antagonism E. B and C C. physiologic antagonism D. neutralizing antagonism 10. Co-amoxiclav: amoxicillin/clavulanic acid : co-trimoxazole _____ 5. Which of the following is not true about A. Trimethoprim/mebendazole competitive antagonism? B. Triamterene/mebendazole A. It involves selective binding of the C. Triamterene/sulfamethoxazole antagonist to a particular type of D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole receptor in such a way as to prevent E. None of the above the binding of the antagonist 11. Which of the following drugs does not C. Hydrolysis belong to the group? D. Sulfonation A. Omeprazole E. None of the above B. Lansoprazole C. Aripiprazole 18. Monoamine oxidase is an D. Ranitidine A. Enzyme E. All of the above B. Hormone C. Inhibitor 12. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can D. Drug cause red-green color blindness E. Cosmetic A. Rifamcin B. Isoniazid 19. Gon went to his farm to spray pesticide on C. Pyrazinamide his crops. Hour later he started to experience D. Ethambutol diarrhea, vomiting, bronchoconstriction and E. Streptomycin tachycardia. He was immediately sent to the hospital for treatment. Which of drugs should 13. Which of the following drugs is the least be given to Gon? considered as prodrug? A. Serine A. Captopril B. Edrophonium B. Enalapril C. Atropine C. Ramipril D. Prazosin D. Accupril E. Methycephaline E. None of the above 20. Aside from the answer in #19, what other 14. (Enervon®) tablet contains the following drug can be given to Gon? EXCEPT: A. DOM A. Nicotinamide B. DAM B. Calcium C. DEM C. Ascorbic acid D. DIM D. Magnesium E. DUM E. None of the above 21. Cookie was diagnosed to have HPN and 15. The sympathetic division of the ANS was prescribed beta-blockers for her stems from_____ treatment. She has a history of asthma. Which A. Craniosacral of the ff. beta-blockers should be given to B. Thoracolumbar cookie? C. Craniolumbar A. Propanolol D. Thoracosacral B. Timolol E. None of the above C. Levobunolol D. Metoprolol 16. Which of the following prevents the E. None of the above storage of the acetylcholine to terminal vesicles? 22. Andrea is going perform in the 2011 spring A. Vesamicol music festival. Hours before her performance B. Reserpine she started to experience “stage fright”. Which C. Botulinun toxin of the ff. drugs can be given to manage her D. Hemicholinuim condition? E. None of the above A. Lasartan B. Enalapril 17. The following are phase II reactions C. Propanolol EXCEPT: D. Prazosin A. Acetylation E. Paracetamol B. Methylation 23. The hydraulic equation is C. Headache A. CO=PVR x BP D. All of the above B. PVR=CO x CO E. None of the above C. BP=CO x PVR D. All of the above 30. Montelukast is a/an E. None of the above A. Leukotriene pathway inhibitor B. Mast cell stabilizer 24. Which of the ff. are substrates of kininase C. Anti – IgE monoclonal antibodies II/peptidyl dipeptidase? D. All of the above A. Angiotensin I E. None of the above B. Bradikinin C. Angiotensin II 31. DOC for typical absence seizure D. A and B A. Lamotrigin E. A and C B. Phenytoin C. Ethosuximide 25. Lanoxin acts on which of the following. D. Carbamazepine A. Na/K ATPase pump E. All of the above B. Na/H ATPase pump C. H/K ATPase pump 32. Flumazenil is D. Na/Ca ATPase pump A. Barbiturate antagonist E. None of the above B. Benzodiazepine antagonist C. Barbiturates antagonist 26. Anti-arrhythmic drugs under class 4 acts D. Benzodiazepine agonist on E. None of the above A. Na channels B. Ca channels 33. Arrange the correct order of the stages of C. K channels anesthesia D. B blockers I. Stage of excitement E. None of the above II. Stage of medullary depression III. Stage of surgical anesthesia 27. Which of the following are loop diuretics? IV. Stage of analgesia I. Ethacrynic acid A. I,IV,II,III II. Furosemide B. IV,I,II,III III. Bumetimide C. IV,I,III,II IV. Indapamide D. I,IV,III,II A. I and II E. None of the above B. II and III C. I and IV 34. Dissociative anesthetic state characterized D. I, II and III by catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia can be E. II, III and IV produced by which drug? A. Etomidate 28. Andrei works as a pilot in an airline B. Ketamine company. Which of the following C. Propofol antihistamines can he take? D. Thiopental A. Fexofenadine E. Seconal B. Bromoheniramine C. Promethazine 35. Neuroleptanesthesia is produce by which D. Chlorpheniramine drug combination? E. All of the above A. Fentanyl, droperidol and NO B. Propofol, fentanyl and halothane 29. 5HT3 antgonist are used for: C. Fentanyl, etomidate and halothane A. Nausea and vomiting D. All of the above B. Diarrhea E. None of the above  42. Which of the ff. vitamin can be used to 36. Which of the following does not belong to lower cholesterol levels? the group? A. Retinol A. Lidocaine B. Thiamine B. Mepivacaine C. Riboflavin C. Prilocaine D. Niacin D. Benzocaine E. Panthothenic acid E. Arecholine 43. Which of the given is considered the 37. What is the treatment for malignant DMAD”s of 1st choice to treat rheumatoid hyperthermia? arthritis? A. Succinylcholine A. Cyclophosphamide B. Gabapentin B. Methotrexate C. Rocuronium C. Azathioprine D. Dantrolene D. Mycophenolate mofetil E. Arecholine E. Cyclodextrins 38. Which of the following antiviral drug can 44. Isoniazid can cause the following be used for Parkinsonism? laboratory data except? A. Abacavir A. Lactic acidosis B. Dinanosine B. Anemia C. Efavirenz C. Hypoglycaemia D. Amantadine D. Leukocytes E. NOTA E. NOTA 39. Jet a five year old boy is having a problem 45. DOC for chronic gout with bed wetting. What drug can be prescribed A. Colchicines for his condition? B. Probenecid A. Citalopram C. Febuxostat B. Furosemine D. Serine C. Sertraline E. Allopurinol D. Amitriptyline E. Amilorine 46. A peptide hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that participates in labor and 40. It is the dextrorotatory stereoisomer of delivery and elicits milk injection in lactating methylated derivative of levorphanol which is women. used as antitussive? A. Prolactin A. Codeine B. Oxcytocin B. Dextromethorphan C. Insulin C. Dolophine D. Somatostatin D. Revex E. Simvastatin E. Morphine 47. Which of the following betablockers is 41. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are most widely used in the therapy of advised to be given during night time with the thyrotoxicosis? EXEPTION of _______ which can be given A. Betaxolol anytime of the day. B. Bisoprolol A. Simvastatin C. Metoprolol B. Lovastatin D. Propranolol C. Atorvastatin E. Linalool D. Flivastatin E. NOTA 48. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with E. I and III only thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following thionamodes shoul be given to her? 54. Calcitonon A. PTU A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate B. Methimazole B. Increase serum calcium and C. Carbimazide phosphate D. Mebendazole C. Increase serum phosphate only E. All of the above D. Both A and B E. Neither A nor B 49. Soluble “peakles”, ultra long acting analog A. Glargine 55. What is the oral form of penicillin? B. NPH A. Pen G C. Insulin lispro B. Pen V D. All of the above C. Pen C D. None of the above 50. Safest sulfonylurea for the elderly E. All of the above diabetics A. Tolbutamide 56. What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL B. Chlorpropamide cephalosporin still in general use? C. Tolazamide A. Cefalexin D. Nateglinide B. Cephadrine E. None of the above C. Cefadoxole D. Cefazolin 51. Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate E. All of the above postprandial glucose levels and is approved for preprandial use in individuals with type I 57. Vancomycin is from and type II DM A. Streptococcus orientalis A. Sitagliptin B. Streptomyces orientalis B. Pramlintide C. Streptococcus orchidaceus C. Exenatide D. Streptomyces orchidaceus D. All of the above E. None of the above E. None of the above 58. Which of the following is derived from 52. Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of erythromycin by addition of methyl group and an overdose of B-blocking agents because has an improved acid stability and oral ability to increase cAMP production in the absorption heart A. Azithromycin A. Amylin B. Clarithromycin B. Exenatide C. Clindamycin C. Sitagliptin D. Streptomycin D. Glucagon E. None of the above E. All of the above 59. Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with 53. Vitamin D is loop diuretics may result to: I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural A. Ototoxicity form B. Neprhrotoxicity II. A secosteroid C. Hypertension III. Produced in the skin from 7- D. Both A and B dehydrocholoesterol E. None of the above A. I only B. III only 60. The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are: C. II and III only A. Neomycin and kanamycin D. A and II only B. Streptomycin and gentamicin  C. Neomycin and gentamicin D. All of the above 68. Methylated morphine E. None of the above A. Codeine B. Heroin 61. Trimethoprim acts on C. Methadone A. Dihydropteroate synthase D. Naloxone B. Dihydrofolate reductase E. all of the above C. DNA gyrase D. A and B 69. Which of the following H2- antagonist has E. A and C the highest bioavailability? A. Cimetidine 62. This anti-fungal drugs absorption is B. Ranitidine improved when taken with fatty foods: C. Famotidine A. Ketoconazole D. Nizatidine B. 5-flucytosine E. None of the above C. Nystatin D. Griseofulvin 70. Which is the most potent H2- antagonist? E. All of the above A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine 63. This drug is the treatment of choice for C. Famotidine giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis. D. Nizatidine A. Iodoquinol E. All of the above B. Diloxanide furoate C. Metronidazole 71. Plasil® is D. paramomycin A. Metoclopramide E. none of the above B. Chlopropamide C. Enalapril 64. Prussian blue is used to chelate D. Furosemide A. Thallium E. All of the above B. Cesium C. Cyanide 72. Silymarin is for the D. A and B A. Liver E. B and C B. Kidney C. Brain 65. Treatment for iron poisoning D. All of the above A. Deferoxamine E. None of the above B. Methylene blue C. Ferroin 73. Ginkgo should not be given with D. Penicillamine A. Aspirin E. None of the above B. Vancomycin C. Caffeine 66. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose D. Juice A. NAC E. All of the above B. Atropine C. Bicarbonate 74. Royal jelly is used as D. Fomepizole A. Diet aid E. All of the above B. Analgesic C. Tonic 67. Acetylated morphine D. Digestive aid A. Codeine E. All of the above B. Heroin C. Methadone 75. What is the mechanism of action of a D. Naloxone chloramphenicol?  A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor A. Reversible inhibition of B. Protein synthesis inhibitor acetylcholinesterase C. DNA gyrase inhibitor B. Spasm of accomodation D. Antimetabolite C. Constipation E. None of the above D. Bronchoconstriction 76. Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital E. Weakness of skeletal muscle with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria. The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. 81. Typical symptoms of cholinesterase The CL and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are inhibitor toxicity include all of the following 80 ml/min and 40 L. respectively. What EXCEPT maintenance dosage must be administered A. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea intravenously every 6 hours to eventually B. Salivation obtain average steady-state plasma C. Miosis concentrations of 4 mg/L? D. Paralysis of skeletal muscle A. 0.32 mg E. Paralysis of accommodation B. 115 mg C. 160 mg 82. Atropine overdosage may cause all of the D. 230 mg following EXCEPT E. None of the above A. Mental aberrations B. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth 77. If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question muscle 101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic C. Decrease in gastric secretion plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately, D. Papillary constriction how much should you give? E. Increase in cardiac rate A. 0.1 mg B. 10 mg 83. A college friend consults you regarding the C. 115.2 mg suitability of the theraphy his doctor has D. 160 mg prescribed for hypertension. He complains of E. None of the above postural and exercise hypotension (“dizziness”), some diarrhea, and problems 78. Biotransformation (metabolism) usually with ejaculation during sex. Which of the results in a product that is following is most likely to produce these A. More likely to distribute intracellularly effects? B. Less lipid-soluble than the the original A. Propranol drug B. Guanethedine C. More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney C. Prazosin tubules D. Hydralizine D. More lipid-soluble than the original E. Captopril drug E. All of the above 84. Captopril and Enalapril do all of the following EXCEPT 79. Physostigimine and bethanechol in small A. Increase renin concentration in the doses have similar effects on all of the blood following EXCEPT B. Inhibit an enzyme A. Neuromuscular junction (skeletal C. Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its muscle) receptor B. Salivary glands D. Decrease the angiotensin II C. Ureteral tone concentration in the blood D. Sweat glands E. Increase sodium and decrease E. Gastric secretion potassium levels in the urine 80. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may 85. The primary mechanism of action of cause all of the following EXCEPT digitalis involves  A. An increase of the action potential D. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid amplitude decarboxylase B. An increase in ATP synthesis E. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type B C. A modification of the actin molecule 91. This drug is a hydrazide derivative that D. An increase in systolic intracellular binds irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types calcium levels A and B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of E. A block of sodium-calcium exchange amine metabolism. A. Amoxapine 86. Which of the following is (are) frequently B. Amitriptyline associated with increased gastrointestinal C. Isocarboxazid motility and diarrhea D. Maprotiline A. Timolol E. Fluoxetine B. Prostaglandins E1 and E2 C. Corticosteroids 92. This drug has analgesic efficacy D. Leukotriene B4 equivalent to morphine. It is an antagonist at E. None of the above mu receptors. A. Dextromethorphan 87. The major action of cromolyn B. Nalbuphine A. Smooth muscle relaxation release in C. Methadone the bronchi D. Codeine B. Stimulation of cortisol release by the E. Naltrexone adrenals C. Block of calcium channels in 93. This antagonist drug has been proposed lymphocytes as a maintenance drug for addicts in D. Block of mediator release from mast treatment programs. A single oral dose will cells block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 E. Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils hours. A. Dextromethorphan 88. Each of the following is recognized as a B. Nalbuphine central neurotransmitter EXCEPT C. Methadone A. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) D. Codeine B. Norepinephrine E. Naltrexone C. Dopamine D. cAMP 94. This drug is free of analgesic and E. Acetylcholine addictive properties and only rarely causes constipation. It is an effective antitussive. 89. Which ONE of the following best describes A. Dextromethorphan the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? B. Nalbuphine A. Blockade of the excitatory actions of C. Methadone glutamic acid D. Codeine B. inhibition of GABA transaminase E. Naltrexone leading to increased levels of GABA C. Activation of glycine receptors in the 95. This drug is a full antagonist at opioid spinal cord receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated to that of morphine, but its actions are more increases in chloride conductance prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt discontinuance are milder than those with 90. Which of the following statements about morphine. carbidopa is accurate? A. Dextromethorphan A. It crosses the blood brain barrier B. Nalbuphine B. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A C. Methadone C. It is converted to the false transmitter, D. Codeine carbidopamine E. Naltrexone  102. Important drugs used in the treatment of 96. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin thyrotoxicosis include all of the following A. Is brought about by heparin EXCEPT B. Is brought about by warfarin A. PTU C. Is brought about by anistreplase B. KI D. Is used preoperatively and during C. Thyroglobulin surgery in patients at risk of deep vein D. Radioactive iodine thromboses E. Methimazole E. Can be reversed by administration of Vitamin K1 oxide 103. All of the following act by a similar mechanism EXCEPT 97. Aspirin should be used cautiously in a A. Tolbutamide patient receiving heparin because aspirin B. Tolazamide A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption C. Chlorpropamide B. Has antithrombin activity D. Glipizide C. Inhibits heparin metabolism E. Metformin D. Inhibits platelet aggregation E. All of the above 104. All of the following antimicrobial agents are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT 98. Increased levels of which of the following A. Clindamycin may be associated with a decreased risk of B. Tetracycline atherosclerosis? C. Vancomycin A. VLDL D. Stretomycin B. LDL E. Chloramphenicol C. IDL D. HDL 105. The mechanism of antibacterial action of E. Cholesterol cephalosporins involves A. Inhibition of peptide synthesis 99. Which of the following causes a reduction B. Interference with the synthesis of in absorption of bile acids from the GIT ergosterol A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes B. Colestipol D. Inhibition of beta-lactamases C. Niacin E. Inhibiton of DNA gyrase D. Probucol E. All of the above 106. The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves 100. Drugs used in the treatment of gout A. Inhibition of the conversion of include the following EXCEPT lanosterol to ergosterol A. Indomethacin B. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA B. Allopurinol polymerase C. Colchicines C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl- D. Probenecid tRNA to bacterial ribosomes E. Aspirin D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyltransferases 101. All of the following are hormones E. None of the above EXCEPT A. Bromocriptine 107. All of the following statements about B. Somatotropin aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT C. Thyrotropin A. They exert synergistic effects with D. Vasopressin beta-lactam antibiotics against E. Somatomedin selected organisms B. They are bactericidal  C. Their antibacterial action involves A. Dactinomycin binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit B. Daunorubucin and subsequent inhibition of C. Vincristine peptidyltransferase D. Cisplastin D. Clinical resistance occurs through E. Mechlorethamine plasmid-mediated formation of group transferase-inactivating enzymes 113. Which of the following is (are) important E. Staphylococci resistant to methicillin adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving are usually resistant to cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent aminoglycosides urotoxicity? A. MESNA 108. The primary reason for the use of drug B. Acrolein combinations in the treatment of TB is to C. Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate A. Prolong the plasma half-life of each D. A and B drug E. A and C B. Lower the incidence of adverse effects C. Enhance the activity against 114. Which of the following is true about the metabolically inactive mycobacteria drug Pritor®? D. Delay the emergence of resistance A. It is of the same therapeutic class and E. All of the above indication as Hypace® and Diovan ® B. It is used to treat essential 109. Which ONE of the following anticancer hypertension drugs is cell cycle nonspecific? C. It is associated with tachycardia, A. Vinblastine bradycardia, hypotension, and edema B. Etoposide D. A and B C. Cytarabine E. B and C D. Daunorubucin E. All of the above 115. Which of the following is not present in Cluviscol® tablets? 110. Which of the following is not a proton- A. Vitamin D2 400 IU pump inhibitor? B. Calcium 120mg A. Omeprazole C. Ferrous fumarate 15mg B. Metronidazole D. Vitamin C 150mg C. Pantoprazole E. Cobalt 3mg D. Lansoprazole E. None of the above 116. Which of the following is true regarding N-acetylcysteine? 111. Filariasis, an infection which can lead to A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by treatment of paracetamol poisoning Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. B. It is used as a mucolytic agent Eradication of the microfilaria can be C. It is marketed as Acetadote®, accomplished by the use of which of the Fluimucil® and Hidonac® following agents? D. A and B only A. Praziquantel E. A, B and C B. Diethylcarbamazine C. Niclosamide 117. Which of the following is true regarding D. Albendazole Cellcept®? E. Metronidazole A. It contains a prodrug that is converted to the active drug in the liver. 112. Which of the following antineosplastic B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate agents is considered as cell cycle phase- dehydrogenase specific agent in terms of its action on cancer C. It decreases B cell proliferation cells? D. A and B only  E. A, B and C B. Danazol C. Omeprazole 118. Xalatan® can best be described as a(n) D. Pramipexole A. Cholinesterase inhibitor E. Methimazole B. Osmotic diuretic 125. Which of the following is an indication of C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent Ergotamine? D. Prodrug A. Partial seizures E. Prostaglandin agonist B. Arthritic pain C. Tachycardia 119. As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is D. Psoriasis most similar in mechanism of action to which E. Migraine headaches one of the following agents? A. Amiodarone 126. At clinical doses, anti-Parkinson’s B. Propranolol Disease Eldepryl® is a (n): C. Flecainide A. MAO-A inhibitor D. Verapamil B. MAO-B inhibitor E. Mexiletine C. COMT D. Anticholinergic 120. Which of the following antiarrythmic E. All of the above drugs is (are) associated with an adverse effect of cinchonism? 127. Which hypoglycemic agent is most A. Acebutolol similar in pharmacological action in miglitol? B. Moricizine A. Glipizide C. Quinidine B. Lispro insulin D. Lidocaine C. Proglitazone E. Disopyramide D. Replaganide E. Acarbose 121. Colestipol can be classified as a(n) A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor 128. Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of B. Vasopressor simethicone. Statement 2: It is used for the C. Potassium-sparing diuretic sympotomatic relief of hyperacidity and D. ACE inhibitor flatulence. E. Bile acid sequestrant A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect 122. Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 A. Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS is incorrect B. Potentiating the effects of GABA C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are D. Interfering with amine pump incorrect E. Inhibiting the action of MAO E. All of the above 123. Clavunalic acid in Timentin® 129. Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name A. Inhibits beta-lactamases for cefalexin. Statement 2: cefaclor belong to B. Prevents the urinary excretion of the same generation of cephalosporins as ticarcillin cephalexin. C. Prevents first pass metabolism of A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 ticarcillin is incorrect D. Is a buffer B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 E. Is an antiprotozoal agent is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct 124. Propylthiouracil is used for the same D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are indication as incorrect A. Fluororacil E. None of the above  134. Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit 130. Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA the posterior pituitary. Statement 2: Alpha- reductase. Statement 2: Lescol® is hypophamine is secreted by the posterior contraindicated for use in patients who are pituitary. pregnant A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect incorrect E. None of the above E. None of the above 131. Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may 135. Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual a transdermal form for the prevention of changes and vascular congestion of the eye. motion sickness. Statement 2: It acts by Statement 2: The active component in blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. cannabis is 9-tetrahydocannabinol. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect incorrect E. None of the above E. None of the above 136. Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an 132. Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an monitored by INR. Statement 2: It is important antipsychotic used clinically. Statement 2: to maintain the INR between 2 to 3. Haloperidol does not produced extrapyramidal A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 effects in contrast to chlorpromazine. is incorrect A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct is incorrect D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct incorrect D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are E. None of the above incorrect E. None of the above 133. Statement 1: Ridaura® is a gold- cointaining DMARD. Statement 2: It is 137. Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid characterized by marked hypotension on arthritis and multiple sclerosis. taking the first few doses of medication. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use is incorrect of doxazosin. B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are is incorrect incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct E. None of the above D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect  E. None of the above I. Bacampicillin II. Amoxicillin 138. Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltage- III. Ampicillin gated Ca ion channel in the neuron. A. I only Statement 2: Its use is associated with B. III only adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, C. I and II only hirsutism and ataxia. D. II and III only A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 E. I, II and III only is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 143. Which of the following is (are) used as an is incorrect anti-fungal agent? C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct I. Cycloserine D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are II. Mafenide incorrect III. Terbinafine E. None of the above A. I only B. III only 139. Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A C. I and II only derivative that is under pregnancy category X. D. II and III only Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of E. I, II and III only patients Psoriasis and alopecia. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 144. Which of the following is (are) blockers of is incorrect H1 receptors? B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 I. Diphenhydramine is incorrect II. Hydroxyzine C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct III. Ranitidine D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are A. I only incorrect B. III only E. None of the above C. I and II only D. II and III only 140. Which of the following is(are) E. I, II and III only dopaminergic anti-parkinson’s agents I. Ropinerole 145. Which of the following is (are) false about II. Pergolide milrinone lactate? III. Procyclidine A. It may be administered Orally or A. I only parenterally B. III only B. It produces positive inotropic action C. I and II only C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS D. I,II and III D. It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, E. NOTA thereby increasing cAMP levels E. Both A and D 141. Which of the following is protease inhibitors 146. The following statements about alteplase I. Cidofovir are true except: II. Acyclovir A. It is produce by recombinant DNA III. Nelfinavir technology A. I only B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator B. III only C. It is administered parenterally C. I and II only D. It stimulate RBC production D. II and III only E. NOTA E. I, II and III only 147. The following statements about Zocor® 142. Which of the following are are true except: aminopenicillins A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase.  B. It is an antiviral drug D. dispositional antagonism C. It is contraindicated to pregnant E. none of the above patient D. It requires to be taken at right 153. When a chemical A and B administered E. NOTA simultaneously, their combine effects are far greater than the sum of their effects when 148. Which of the following is (are) true about given alone. The chemical interaction between dobutamine? chemicals A and B can be described as which A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant of the following? and antihypertensive agent. A. Potentiative B. It is only given parentally B. Additive C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor C. Antagonistic D. A and B D. functionally antagonistic E. B and C E. synergistic 149. Which of the following is true about 154. A type of antagonism that occurs when fentanyl? the absorption, biotransformation, distribution, A. It is available as a transdermal system or excretion of chemical is altered so that the B. It may be use as a cough suppressant concentration and duration at the target of C. It is use as local anesthetic diminished. D. Both A and C A. receptor antagonism E. Both A and B B. functional antagonism C. chemical antagonism 150. reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can D. dispositional antagonism lower the blood pressure and depress the E. none of the above CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring 155. A type of dose response relationship about these effect? which describe the response of an individual A. DOPA decarboxylase or organism to varying doses of chemical. B. Storage of catecholamines in the A. individual dose-response relationship presynaptic vesicle B. quantal dose-response relationship C. Release of norepinephrine from C. graded dose-response relationship presynaptic terminals D. both A and B D. MAO enzyme E. both A and C E. Uptake- 1 mechanism 156. A type of dose response relationship 151. Which of the following areas of which characterized the distribution of toxicology focuses on the primarily on the response to different doses in a population of medico legal aspects of the harmful effects of individual organism. chemical in the human and animals A. individual dose-response relationship A. Environmental toxicology B. quantal dose-response relationship B. Clinical toxicology C. graded dose-response relationship C. Forensic toxicology D. both A and B D. Developmental toxicology E. both A and C E. Reproductive toxicology 157. A dose U- shaped dose response 152. A type of antagonism that occurs when curved which result with some xenobiotics that two chemicals counterbalance each other by imparts beneficial or stimulatory effects at low producing opposite effect on the same doses but adverse effects at higher doses. physiological function. A. hormesis A. receptor antagonism B. threshold B. functional antagonism C. individual dose response curve C. chemical antagonism D. graded response curve  E. none of the above D. chloroform 158. It is defined as the ratio of the dose E. carbon tetrachloride required to produce a toxic effect and the dose need to illicit desire therapeutic 164. It is use primarily in the production of the response. refrigerant chlorodifluoromethane. A. ED50 A. toluene B. threshold B. carbon tetrachloride C. therapeutic index C. ethanol D. LD50 D. benzene E. none of the above E. chloroform 159. Areas of toxicology that focuses on the 165. Metabolite of phosgene which damage impact of chemical pollutants in the membranes and other intracellular structures environment on biological organism, specilly leading to necrosis and tumor formation. studying the impacts of chemicals on A. tetrachloroethylene nonhuman organism B. phosgene A. forensic toxicology C. methylene chloride B. clinical toxicology D. ethylbenzene C. developmental toxicology E. none of the above D. reproductive toxicology E. environmental toxicology 166. Enzyme catalyses oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde 160. The dose required to result in a response A. aldehyde dehydrogenase in 50 percent of population. B. catalase A. median dose C. alcohol dehydrogenase B. ceiling dose D. both A and C C. potency E. none of the above D. LD50 E. ED50 167. Ingestion of these substance may cause visual disturbance ranging from mild 161. Place the following mechanism of toxin photophobia and blurred vision to markedly delivery in order from most effective to least reduced acuity and complete blindness effective. 1: intravenous 2:subcutaneous 3: A. Ethanol oral 4: inhalation 5: dermal B. Chloroform A. 1,5,2,4,3 C. Ethylene glycol B. 4,1,2,3,5 D. Methanol C. 1,4,2,3,5 E. Carbon tetrachloride D. 4,2,1,5,3 E. 1,4,3,2,5 168. Which of the following is NOT an important enzyme in ethanol metabolism? 162. It is the primary rout of exposure of A. Alcohol dehydrogenase benzene in industrial setting. B. Formaldehyde decarboxylase A. inhalation C. CYP2E1 B. subcutaneous D. Catalase C. oral E. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase D. dermal E. intravenous 169. Which of the following statements regarding benzene is false? 163. Toxic substance present in paints, A. High level exposure to benzene could lacquer, thinners, cleaning agent and glues. result in acute myelogenous leukemia A. benzene (AML) B. ethanol C. toluene  B. Gasoline vapour emissions and auto- A. Iron exhauted are the two main B. Copper contributors to benzene inhalation. C. Zinc C. Benzene is used as an ingredient in D. Both A & B only unleaded poisoning. E. All of the above D. Benzene metabolites covalently bind DNA, RNA and protein and interfere 176. Metals related to medicinal therapy with their normal functioning A. Aluminium E. Reactive oxygen species can be B. Lithium delivered from benzene C. Platinum D. Both A & B only 170. Which of the following is NOT associated E. All of the above with glycol ether toxicity? A. Hematotoxicity 177. The following pesticides are correctly B. Craniofacial malformation matched EXCEPT: C. Seminiferous tubule atrophy A. Rodenticides –rats D. Irreversible spermatotoxicity B. Molluscides –snails E. Cleft lip C. Pediculocides – lice D. Fungicides –molds 171. A major constituent of antifreeze, E. Ascaricies –insects hydraulic fluids and drying agents. A. Methanol 178. Insecticidesm first developed from the B. Glycol ethers extracts from the flower heads of C. Propylene glycol chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium D. Ethylene glycol A. DDT E. Ethanol B. Rotenoids C. Pyrethrins 172. It is also known as quick silver. D. Aldrin A. Ag E. Endrin B. Hg C. Mg 179. Which of the following drugs may induce D. Sb visual system abnormalities such as E. As decreased vision, flickering scotomas and altered color vision. 173. Contact dermatitis is the most common A. Digoxin adverse effect of which of the following B. Metoprolol metals? C. Colchicine A. Nickel D. Rifampicin B. Copper E. Lidocaine C. Arsenic D. Lead 180. A drug that is used to ameliorate nausea E. Cadmium and vomiting in pregnancy but results to malformations of Amelia and various degree 174. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal genetic of phocomelia. disorder caused by which of the following A. Diethylstilbestrol metals? B. Thalidomine A. Aluminium C. Ethanol B. Copper D. Nicotine C. Arsenic E. Retinoids D. Cadmium E. Lead 181. The main target for lead toxicity especially in developing fetus and young 175. Essential chemicals EXCEPT? children.  A. Bone marrow B. Kidneys 188. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity. C. Gastrointestinal tract A. Vitamin K D. Reproductive organs B. Vitamin C E. Central nervous system C. Vitamin E D. Pyridoxime 182. Minamata Disease is caused by E. Thiamine A. Lead B. Cadmium 189. Toxins found in peanuts C. Mercury A. Saxitoxin D. Silver B. Cigutoxin E. arsenic C. Scrombroid D. Aflatoxin 183. In japan, Itai-itai disease is caused by E. Tetrodotoxin consumption of rice contaminated by A. Lead 190. Toxins found in several species of B. Cadmium Alexandrium dinoflagellates C. Mercury A. Saxitoxin D. Silver B. Cigutoxin E. Arsenic C. Scrombroid D. Aflatoxin 184. Chronic exposure to this metal result to E. Tetrodotoxin hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of the palm and soles. 191. Toxin produced by puffer fish. A. Lead A. Saxitoxin B. Cadmium B. Tetrodotoxin C. Mercury C. Scromboid D. Silver D. Aflatoxin E. Arsenic E. ciguatoxin 185. It is also known as dimercaprol 192. The most prevalent polycyclic aromatic A. Succimer hydrocarbon found in cigarette smoke. B. Unithol A. scromboid C. Deferoxamine B. Benzopyrene D. BAL C. Ciguatoxin E. Penicillamine D. Anthracene E. Nicotine 186. It is mixture of copper and arsenic salt that is used to control insects in 1800’s 193. This naturally occurring furan is produced A. Bordeaux by the mold Fusarium solani that infects sweet B. Rotenone potatoes. C. DDT A. Ciguatoxin D. Paris green B. Monocratolin E. Pyrethrin C. Ipomeanol D. Anthracene 187. A natural compound derived from E. Benzopyrene Urginea maritime and is effective in controlling rodents. 194. Exposure to this vitamin can cause A. Pyretrin malformation of the face, limbs, heart, CNS B. Red squill and skeleton of the developing fetus. C. Paris Green A. Vitamin A D. Bordeaux mixture B. Vitamin D E. Rotenone C. Vitamin C  D. Vitamin K E. Accumulation of iron within E. Vitamin B complex erythroblast 195. The following drugs and chemicals are 201. the normal erythrocyte has metabolic associated with the development of aplastic mechanism for reducing heme iron to ferrous anemia EXCEPT state. Failure of these control mechanism may A. Tetracycline lead to which of the following? B. Chloramphenicol A. Aplastic anemia C. Carbamazepine B. Megaloblastic anemia D. Indomethacin C. Methemoglobinemia E. Nitric oxide D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Sideroblastic anemia 196. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy with unfractionated heparin. 202. This type of anemia is characterized by A. aPTT peripheral blood pancytopenia, B. Creatine kinase reticulocytopenia, and bone marrow C. AST hypoplasia. D. PT A. Aplastic anemia E. ALT B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia 197. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy D. Sideroblastic anemia with warfarin. E. Methemoglobinemia A. Aptt B. Creatine kinase 203. It is used to treat APAP toxicity; its C. AST primary action is to enhance hepatocyte D. PT synthesis of glutathione. E. ALT A. Vitamin K B. Fomepizole 198. The following are clotting factors inhibited C. Disulfiram by warfarin and its analogs EXCEPT D. N-acetylcysteine A. III E. None of the above B. X C. IX 204. Which of the following metals is NOT D. VII nephrotoxic? E. II A. Cadmium B. Lead 199. Which of the following type of anemia is C. Mercury properly paired with its cause? D. Platinum A. Megaloblastic anemia- lead poisoning E. None of the above B. Aplastic anemia-ethanol C. Sideroblastic anemia-vitamin B12 205. Shaver’s disease is caused by deficiency A. Ammonia D. Megaloblastic anemia-folate B. Cadmium oxide supplementation C. Hydrogen fluoride E. Iron deficiency anemia-blood loss D. Bauxite fumes E. Kaolin 200. The inability to synthesize the porphyrin ring of haemoglobin will most likely to result in 206. Chemotherapeutic agent that causes which of the following? pulmonary fibrosis. A. Iron deficiency anemia A. Vincristine B. Inability to synthesize thymidine, B. Doxorubicin C. Improper RBC mitosis C. Bleomycin D. Bone marroe hyperplasia D. Vinblastine E. Azathioprine  213. Metabolite of bromobenzene that is 207. Mycotoxin found in claviceps purpurea. approximately thousand fold more potent than A. Aflatoxin bromobenzene in producing nephrotoxicity. B. Saxitoxin A. Cystein C. Ciquatoxin B. Phosgene D. Ergot C. Cysteine-S-conjufate E. Tetrodotoxin D. Glutathione E. Diglutathione conjugate of 208. The most toxic type of aflatoxin. hydroquinone A. B1 B. B2 214. It is the toxic metabolite of methanol that C. G1 mediates the metabolic acidosis as well as D. G2 retinal toxicity. E. None of the above A. Formic acid B. Acetaldehyde 209. Neurotoxin found in improperly canned C. Acetic acid foods. D. Phosgene A. Aflatoxin E. Chloroquine B. Ciguatoxin C. Saxitoxin 215. Anti-tubercular agent that may cause D. Tetrodotoxin optic neuropathy E. Botulinum toxin A. Rifampicin B. Isoniazid 210. A growth promoter in animals that is no C. Pyrazinamide longer use because of the discovery that D. Ethambutol tumor of genital organ have developed in the E. Streptomycin offspring of mothers who had taken this during pregnancy in large dose for medical purposes. 216. A deficiency of which of the following A. Diethylstilbestrol vitamins can result in degeneration of optic B. Testosterone nerve fibers? C. Progesterone A. Vitamin A D. Estradiol. B. Vitamin B3 E. Somatotropin C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B 12 211. The following side effects may be E. Vitamin E experience upon exposure to an organophosphate and carbamate insecticides 217. High exposure to this metal cause “black EXCEPT foot disease” which is circulatory disorder A. Diarrhea reflecting endothelial cell damage. B. Bronchoconstriction A. Lead C. Involuntary urination B. Cadmium D. Mydriasis C. Arsenic E. Salivation D. Mercury E. Silver 212. Metabolite of tetrafluoroethylene that is the penultimate nephrotoxicant. 218. Which of the following drugs/chemical A. Cysteine may cause hyperpigmentation of the skin? B. Phosgene A. Phenolic germicides C. Cysteine-S-conjugate B. BHT D. Glutathione C. Hydroquinone E. Diglutathione conjugate of D. Mercaptoamines hydroquinone E. Amiodarone 219. Which of the following drugs/chemical B. Ehrlichiosis may cause hypopigmentation of the skin? C. Lyme disease A. Chloroquine D. Rocky mountain spotted fever B. Amiodarone E. Q-fever C. Bleomycin D. Hydroquinone 226. Neurotoxin found in black widow spiders. E. Minocycline A. Serotoxin B. Loxosceles 220. An organic compounds that is C. Latrotoxin approximately 49% elemental mercury by D. Rotenone weight and has been widely used as E. Saxitoxine preservative since 1930’s in contact lens solution, biologics, and vaccine particularly 227. A species of which of the following those in multi-dose container. animals produces a venom that contains 60% A. Thimerosal formic acid? B. Merthiolate A. Snakes C. Mercurothiolate B. Lizards D. Sodium ethylmercuriethiosalisylate C. Ants E. all of the above D. Scorpions E. spiders 221. Which of the following drugs is/are often associated with phototoxic reaction? 228. Which of the following is NOT A. Tetracycline characteristic of Lepidoptera envenomation? B. Sulphonamides A. Decreased plasminogen levels C. Sulfonylureas B. Increased risk of haemorrhaging D. Phenothiazine C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time E. All of the above D. Increased in prothrombin time E. Decreased fibrinogen levels 222. Dicumarol is fungal metabolite that causes which of the following? 229. Food Poisoning with which of the A. Prothrombin deficiency following bacteria occurs when meat has been B. Epileptiform seizure contaminated with intestinal contents of C. Acute renal failure slaughters and then roasted and inadequately D. Photosensitivity stored. E. Parasympathetic overactivation A. C. perfringerns B. R. Ricketsii 223. The compound found in red pepper is C. S. Aureus A. Anthracenones D. C. botulinum B. Capsaicin E. E. coli C. Hyoscyamine D. Atropine 230. This includes the chemical, biochemical, E. Scopolamine and molecular events that lead to deleterious effects on development. 224. Alkaloid found in Datura stramonium A. Mutagenesis A. Capsaisin B. Teratogenesis B. Antracenones C. Carcinogenesis C. Red squill D. Behavioral toxicology D. Scopolamine E. None of the above E. All of the above 231. it is highly irritating and oxidizing gas that 225. Which of the following is NOT commonly is formed by photochemical action of UV light caused by tick envenomation? on nitrogen dioxide smog. A. Cat scratch disease A. Nitrogen oxide  B. Carbon monoxide C. Aconite C. Ozone D. A and B D. Volatile organic compounds E. B and C only E. None of the above 238. Notorious plant that can be found 232. It is known as the “bad ozone” that Conium maculatum occurs from 0 to 10 miles above the earth’s A. Poison hemlock surface. B. Henbane A. Tropospheric ozone C. mandrake B. stratospheric ozone D. Aconite C. Volatile organic hydrocarbons E. opium D. Either A and B E. None of the above 239.Notorious plant poison that can be found in Veratrum Album 233. Follic acid supplementation should be A. Poison hemlock provided to patient chronically using B. Henbane A. Phenytoin C. mandrake B. Propranolol D. Aconite C. Levodopa + carbidopa E. Hellebore D. Sulindac E. Tetracycline 240. Commercial preparations of universal antidote is composed of 234. Dermopathy, an erythematous A. 1 part tannic acid, 2 parts magnesium desquamation of the palms and soles also oxide. 1 part activated charcoal called as hand-foot syndrome is seen after B. 2 parts tannic acid, 1 part magnesium extended infusion of which of the oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal chemotherapeutic agents? C. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium A. Doxorubicin oxide, 1 part activated charcoal B. Cytarabin D. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium C. 5-FU oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal D. Methotrexate E. None of the above E. None of the above 241. Tartar emetic had a long history of use of 235. The drug used to antagonize the effects an emetic, as well as sedative, expectorant, of opioid toxicity. cathartic and diaphoretic. The chemical name A. Nubain for tartar emetic is B. Narcan A. Potassium bipthalate C. Revex B. Potassium antimony tartrate D. Depade C. Potassium antimony bitartrate E. Either A and B D. Potassium antimony bipthalate E. None of the above 236. which of the following is the effects of digoxin to atrial muscles at toxic dose? 242. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a A. Extrasystoles hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of B. Fibrillation the following is the primary cause of metabolic C. Arrhythmia acidosis in ethylene glycol poisoning? D. Tachycardia A. Formic acid E. All of the above B. Glycolic acid C. Acetone 237. Notorious plant poison found in Aconitum D. Acetic acid species E. all of the above A. Mandrake B. Monkshood 243. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a 249.This drug is used together with atropine in hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the management of patient poisoned by the following is the primary cause of metabolic organic phosphorous and carbamate acidosis in methanol poisoning? pesticides. Its primary mechanism is to A. Formic acid reactivate the enzyme cholinesterase B. Glycolic acid A. 2-PAM C. Acetone B. Disulfiram D. Acetic acid C. Pralidoxime E. all of the above D. Both A and B E. Both A and C 244. The most prominent end organ effect of ethylene glycol is 250.Glycine acts as a post synaptic inhibitory A. Nephrotoxicity neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and lower B. Hepatotoxicity brainstem. Which of the following substance is C. Hemorrhagic gastritis classified as glycine antagonist? D. Visual impairment to total blindness A. Ethanol E. None of the above B. Picrotoxin C. Clozapine 245. In the pathway of ethylene glycol D. Propofol metabolism which of the following substance/s E. D-serine enhances the formation non-toxic metabolites. A. Fomepizole 251. Which of the following is classified as B. Thiamine glycine re-uptake inhibitor? C. Pyridoxine A. Ethanol D. A and B B. Picrotoxin E. B and C only C. Clozapine D. Propofol 246. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in the E. D-serine following alcohol toxicity EXCEPT A. Methanol 252. Which of the following causes metabolic B. Ethylalcohol alkalosis? C. Isopropanol A. Administration of diuretics D. Both A and B B. Administration of sodium bicarbonate E. Both B and C C. Vomiting D. Magnesium deficiency 247. The following are advantages of using E. All of the above fomepizole over ethanol in the treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity EXCEPT 253. Which of the following substance causes A. Fomepizole does not cause CNS hypercalcemia? depression A. Aminoglycosides B. Fomepizole does not require serum B. Furosemide concentration monitoring C. Ethanol C. Fomepizole is readily available D. Bisphosphonates D. Fomepizole is low-cost E. Lithuim E. Both C and D 254. Which of the following substance causes 248. An alkaloid found in Strychnos nux hypocalcemia? vomica A. Vitamin A A. Strychnine B. Tamoxifen B. Aconite C. Androgens C. Nicotine D. Calcitonin D. Muscarine E. Glucocorticoids E. Carnitine 255. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a rare life- 261. The following management/s is done to threatening dermatologic emergency and patient suspected of overdose of proguanil or medications are causally implicated in 80%- pyrimethamine EXCEPT: 90% of cases. Which of the following drugs A. Folate supplementation causes toxic epidermal necrolysis? B. administration of methylene blue for A. Allopurinol methemoglobinemia B. Acetaminophen C. administration of cimetidine to prevent C. Picrotoxin the conversion to a toxic metabolite D. Nickel D. administration of multiple dose of E. None of the above charcoal to enhance it elimination E. All of the above 256. CNS toxin found in Artemisia absinthuim A. Ephedra 262. Whole bowel irrigation is the most B. Nicotine effective process for evacuating the intestinal C. atropine tract in poisoned patients. Which of the D. absinthe following conditions wherein whole bowel E. Scopolamine irrigation is contraindicated? A. GI perforation 257. CNS toxin found in Areca catechu B. Volume depletion A. Ephedra C. GI haemorrhage B. atropine D. Compromised airway C. absinthe E. All of the above D. Scopolamine E. Arecholine 263. Which of the following is true with dosage of syrup of ipecac? 258. It is extracted from the fruit of the A. For children 1-12 years old the dose is evergreen Myristica fragrans and it is the main 15ml active ingredient in myristicin. B. For older children and adult the dose A. Nutmeg is 30ml B. Pine oil C. For children 6-12 mos of age dose C. Wintergreen should be limited to a maximum single D. Clove dose of 10ml E. Camphor D. If vomiting does not ensure after the first dose, the same dose may be 259. Toxic ingredient found in Bufo repeated once in 20-30min. gangarizan E. All of the above A. Anthraquinones B. Coumarin 264. Antibotic that causes aplastic anemia C. Bufadienolides A. Tetracycline D. Arecholine B. Erythromycin E. Amygdalin C. Vancomycin D. Chloramphenicol 260. Classic description of chronic intake of E. Amikacin this antibiotic is the “gray baby syndrome” which is characterized by vomiting, anorexia, 265. It is hygroscopic polysaccharide derived respiratory distress, abdominal distention, from the bean of the cyamopsis psorabides. It green stools and cyanosis. This is syndrome expands 10-20 fold in the stomach, forming a is caused by gelatinous mass that produces the senasation A. Tetracycline of satiety. B. Chloramphenicol A. Guar gum C. Erythromycin B. Chitosan D. Sulfonamides C. Dinitrophenol E. Vancomycin D. Xenical  E. none of the above unfractionated heparin and for some of the effects of LMWH. 266. Antidote for APAP toxicity A. Vitamin K A. Activated charcoal B. Protamine B. NAC C. Hirudin C. PAM D. Tissue plasminogen activator D. Oxime E. None of the above E. Ipecac 273. It is polypeptide produced by the salivary 267.Which of the following causes a brown- glands of the medicinal leech, hirudo black urine? medicinalis that reversibly blocks thrombin A. Cascara without the need for antithrombin III. B. Iron A. Hirudin C. Metyldopa B. Heparin D. Senna C. Protamine E. All of the above D. Warfarin E. None of the above 268. Which of the following drugs causes cataracts? 274. Thimerosal is an organic compound that A. Acetazolamide approximately contains 49% by weight of: B. Amiodarone A. Hg C. Chlorpromazine B. Ag D. Corticosteroids C. S E. Cisplatin D. Al E. None of the above 269. Which of the following antibiotics causes disulfiram like effects? 275. This drug is known as “soda loading”. It A. Cefotetan buffers the lactic acidosis caused by exercise, B. Metronidazole thereby delaying fatigue and enhancing C. Co-trimoxazole performance. D. Moxalactam A. Caffeine E. all of the above B. Calcuim hydroxide C. Diuretics 270. Methamphetamine is also known as D. Amphetamines A. Crack E. Sodium bicarbonate B. Speed C. Yaba 276. This is used in sports in which the athlete D. Go must achieve a certain weight to complete in E. All of the above discrete weight classes. It is used by body builders to give their skin a greater definition 271. Food interaction occur when as this causes the skin to draw tightly around pharmacologically active dietary monoamines the muscles. such as tyramine is ingested by patients A. Amphetamine taking MAOIs. Which of the following foods B. Sodium carbonate has the highest tyramine effect? C. Diuretics A. Yogurt D. Caffeine B. Avocados E. None of the above C. Redwines D. Aged, mature cheese 277. This vitamin reduces iron from ferric to E. Smoked meats or fish the ferrous state, thereby increasing intestinal absorption of iron. 272. It is rapidly acting antidote used for A. Vitamin A reversing the anticoagulant effects of B. Vitamin B  C. Vitamin C A. Methemoglobinemia occurs when the D. Vitamin D iron atom in haemomoglobin loses 2 E. Vitamin E electron to an oxidant B. Methemoglobinemia when ferrous 278. it is cololess, oily liquid with a faint state of iron is transformed into the aromatic odor that Is commonly added to ferric state. pharmaceutical products as a bacteriostatic C. Methemoglobinemia is normally agent. It causes “gasping syndrome” in infants present in the body at high which is the characteristized by hypotension concentration bradycardia, gasping respiration seizures, D. Both A and B cardiovascular collapsed and death. E. Both B and C A. Chlorobutanol B. PEG 284. It is used in the treatment of aniline C. Propylene glycol induced Methemoglobinemia D. Ethylene glycol A. Methylene blue E. Benzyl alcohol B. Glucagon C. Oximes 279. Patient taking rifampicin in combination D. PAM with isoniazid develops what type of toxicity? E. EDTA A. Nephrotoxicity B. Ototoxicity 285. The following are example of chemical C. Neurotoxicity asphyxiants EXCEPT D. Hepatotoxicity A. Carbon monoxide E. None of the above B. Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulphide 280. Which of the following drugs causes “red D. Oxides of nitrogen man red neck syndrome”? E. Hydrogen cyanide A. Sulfonamides B. amphotericin B 286. Toxic combustion product that exert a C. Vancomycin space-occupying effect simply displacing D. Erythromycin oxygen. E. None of the above A. Chemical asphyxiants B. Simple asphyxiants 281. An antimycobacterial agent that is C. irritant classified as congener of INH and have the D. A and B same mechanism of action with INH. E. All of the above A. Capreomycin B. Ethionamide 287. Q fever occurs naturally as a self limited C. Para-aminosalicylic acid febrile, zoonotic disease contracted from D. Isoniazid domestic livestock. Q fever I classified as E. Pyrazinamide biological warfare agent and is now known to caused by 282. Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin that A. Coxiella burnetti is used as antidote for which of the following B. Brucalla melitensis poisoning? C. Baciilus anthracis A. INH D. Yersinia pestis B. Ethylene glycol E. None of the above C. PZA D. A and B 288. It is anti-muscarinic compound that was E. A and C developed as an incapacitating chemical warfare agent. It is 25-fold more potent 283. Which of the following statements is centrally than atropine. CORRECT about methemoglobinemia? A. BZ  B. QNB 294. It is one of the extrapyrimadal syndromes C. 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate characterized by restlessness and inability to D. A and B only sit still E. All of the above A. Acute dystonia B. Akathisia 289. Vesicants are agents that cause C. Parkinsonism blistering of skin and mucous membrane. D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Which of the following is classified as E. Tardive dyskinesia vesicants but does not cause vesiculation of the skin? 295. It is one of the extrapyramidal syndromes A. Sulphur mustard characterized by sustained, involuntary B. Lewisite muscle contraction, torticollis, including C. Phosgene oxime blephaospasm and oculogyric crisis. D. Cyanide A. Acute dystonia E. None of the above B. Akathisia C. Parkinsonism 290. BAL should be administered through D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome A. IV E. Tardive dyskinesia B. IM C. SQ 296. It is hydantoin derivative and structurally D. Oral similar to local anesthetics that is used for the E. A and B only treatment of malignant hyperthermia. A. Phenytoin 291. What specific element is present in B. Diazepam dimercaprol? C. Dantrolene A. Magnesium D. Phenobarbital B. Sulfur E. Tensilon C. Iron D. manganese 297. It is the drug of choice for beta E. None of the above adrenergic antagonist poisoning A. Propranolol 292. It is active substance in the Chinese B. Atropine plant Ma-huang has been used for the C. Glucagon treatment of asthma. D. Ethanol A. Khat E. Valium B. Cathionone C. Methcathinone 298. Ipecac is derived from rhizome and roots D. Ephedrine of plants found in Brazil belonging to the E. None of the above family Rubiaceae. Which of the following substance is/are responsible for the 293. An extrapyrimidal syndrome that occurs production of nausea and vomiting of ipecac 3 months to years after taking an anti- syrup? psychotic drug it is characterized by A. Cephaelin involuntary choreiform movements like B. Emetine buccolinguomasticatory movements C. Scopolamine A. Acute dystonia D. A and B only B. Akathisia E. B and C only C. Parkinsonism D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 299. Contraindicated of syrup of ipecac E. Tardive dyskinesia A. The patient is younger than 6 month of age B. Ingestion of caustic poison  C. Ingestion of a foreign body such as a drug packet or sharp item D. The patient does not meet the criteria for gastric emptying E. All of the above 300. Gastric emptying may be indicated if A. Significant spontaneous emesis has occured B. The ingested poison has a high efficient antidote C. the patient presents many hours post ingestion D. The ingested poison is well adsorbed activated charcoal E. None of the above