PHARMA Utest PDF

PHARMA 1. The treatment of Anemia secondary to renal failure is? – epoietin alfa (procrit, epogen) 2. The treatment for patient with hypervolemia secondary to renal failure is? – loop diuretics 3. Diuretics are drugs that alter the volume and composition of body fluids, indicated for treatment...

PHARMA 1. The treatment of Anemia secondary to renal failure is? – epoietin alfa (procrit, epogen) 2. The treatment for patient with hypervolemia secondary to renal failure is? – loop diuretics 3. Diuretics are drugs that alter the volume and composition of body fluids, indicated for treatment of the following condition. EXCEPT – dehydration 4. The nurse is monitoring a patient with Thiazide treatment, she will watch out for the following signs of? – hyperuricemia – hyperglycemia – hyperlipidemia – hypokalemia 5. All of which of are example of Loop diuretics?EXCEPT. – mannitol 6. Which of the following is an example of Osmotic diuretics? – mannitol 7. Which of the following is NOT The action of Osmotic diuretics? – potent potassium-sparring 8. A Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used primarily to decrease IOP in open-angle glaucoma. – acetazolamide 1. Potassium sparing diuretics (Spirinolactone)(Aldactone) is given to a patient with edema. The nursing management would be? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor for Hyperkalemia may occur if potassium supplement is given simultaneously. 2. Avoid K-rich food 3. Monitor K-level (3.5-5.5 meg) 4. Eat food like avocado, spinach, potato – 1,2,3 10. All are drugs for prostate, except? – amiloride 11. Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis? – costovertebral angle tenderness and chills 12. Which instructions do you include in the teaching care plan for a patient with cystitis receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? – after painful urination is relieved, stop taking phenazopyridine 13. The nurse would first take this situation about the pain felt by the patient as? – pain is a subjective response of patient and true that one has to believe 14. Gate Control Theory of Pain describes that pain is/are: Select all that applies 1. is not a direct result of activation of pain receptor neurons 2. its perception is modulated by interaction between different neurons 3. Pain is transmitted to spinal cord by A-delta fibers and C fibers 4. Pain signal is transmitted to the spinal cord, hypothalamus, and cerebral cortex – 1,2,3,4 15. A nerve fiver also called FAST channels that transmit pain impulses from the periphery to spinal cord and brain. – delta fibers 16. A nerve fiver also called SLOW channels that transmit pain impulses from the periphery to spinal cord and brain. – c fibers 17. Pain Impulses are intercepted in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord, it is called? – substantia gelatinosa 18. The relay station for incoming stimuli, including pain. – thalamus 19. Narcotics or Opioids are strong drugs that are sometimes used to treat pain. What health education should the nurse provide to the client? Narcotics or opiods causes: – respiratory depression 20. Nurse Amy is reviewing the additional effects of narcotics with a patient. Besides pain relief, which of the following effects do narcotics include? – euphoria, miosis, and nausea with vomiting 21. A patient with severe post operative pain is prescribed hydromorphone 2mg IV every 4 hours PRN. What should the nurse do? – administer meds as ordered – check allergy history – monitor for respiratory depression 22. A patient rates their pain as 8/10 on the Pain Numeric Rating Scale (PNRS). What should the nurse do next? – evaluate the patient’s pain characteristics 23. A patient with chronic back pain asks about alternative therapies. Which intervention should the nurse suggest? – meditation 24. A 4-year-old patient with a fractured arm rates their pain as 6/10 on the Faces Pain Scale (FPS). What should the nurse do? – administer acetominophen – use distraction techniques – provide emotional support 25. What is the most accurate description of fentanyl? – it is about 80x more potent than morphine 26. What is more likely the side effect of meperidine than other opiates? – convulsive seizures 27. What occurs during the vascular phase of inflammation? – vasodilation with increased capillary permeability 28. Which of the following statements about intravenous administration of steroids is true? – steroids administered IV can be either in diluted or undiluted form 29. A patient has been prescribed salicylates as an analgesic agent. Which of the following adverse reactions caused by salicylates should the nurse monitor for? – GI bleeding 30. For which of the following patients are salicylates is NOT contraindicated: – patient with influenza or viral illness 31. Which of the following are said to be as the Cyclooxygenase inhibitor? – NSAIDs 32. Which of the following analgesics is available in "lollipop" form? – fentanyl 33. Mr. Glen, 36 years old male, visited by his doctor and was prescribed a Misoprostol to be taken in conjunction with the NSAID. The purpose of misoprostol in a client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is: – relief of epigastric pain 34. All of the following drugs are disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), except; – 35. All of the following are considered as the key therapeutic effects of NSAIDs (Non Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs) – relieve pain – suppress inflammation – reduce fever 36. An arachidonic acid has been converted by cyclooxygenase enzyme into which mediator? – peptides 37. The nurse is checking Ms. Almira's medical record as she is about to give her Celecoxib (Celebrex) as ordered. Before administering this drug, she check if this patient is taking which of the following medications that would increase the risk of adverse effects? – acetominophen 38. Prostaglandin are found in most tissues and organs and was produced by the Arachidonic acid, these are the functions of prostaglandin, except? – relieves pain and fever 39. Your patient is post-op from surgery and is receiving Morphine, suddenly after taking the medicine she experienced severe respiratory depression. What medication below do you anticipate the physician to order for this patient? – naloxone 40. Mr. Jerry is taking Ibuprofen for his Arthritis. The nurse understand that COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitors are different in that Ibuprofen is more likely than Celecoxib to cause which adverse effect? – peptic ulcer disease 41. A patient refuses pain medication due to concerns about addiction. What ethical principle should guide the nurse's response? – autonomy 42. The nurse confirmed on the patient's chart that Mr. Julian, with Meperidine is not taking a MAO Inhibitor. A combination of these drugs may lead to which of the following? – hyperpyrexia syndrome 43. Which age group is particularly susceptible to side effects from NSAIDs? – 44. One of the first NSAIDs introduced which is very irritating to the stomach and should be taken with food – 45. An antimicrobial medication that has selective toxicity has which characteristic? – ability to avoid injuring host cells 46. The development of a new infection as a result of the elimination of normal flora by an antibiotic is referred to as what? – superinfection 47. A microbe acquires antibiotic resistance by which means? – transfer of DNA coding to other bacteria 48. What is the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)? – the lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to reduce the number of bacterial colonies by 99.9% 49. A patient has acquired an infection while in the hospital. The nurse identifies this type of infection as what? – nosocomial infection 50. To what foreign country did we acquire the "BAHALA NA" syndrome? – spain