Dental Assistant Pack 2 Assignment Pack PDF
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Dental assistant training material for quizzes. This document provides an assignment pack with dental assistant quizzes and instructions. The quizzes cover a variety of topics related to the dental assistant profession for training purposes.
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Assignment Pack Dental Assistant Pack 2 This Assignment Pack contains the Quizzes you will need to complete your course. The Lessons will tell you when to complete each Quiz. If you have not yet accessed your Lessons, you c...
Assignment Pack Dental Assistant Pack 2 This Assignment Pack contains the Quizzes you will need to complete your course. The Lessons will tell you when to complete each Quiz. If you have not yet accessed your Lessons, you can download your Electronic Lesson Book or order a printed copy from the Student Site, www.uscareerinstitute.edu. If you have questions, please contact Student Services at 1-800-347-7899. 0204551AS02A-14 No part of this document may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, for any purpose, without the express written permission of U.S. Career Institute. Copyright © 2009-2024, U.S. Career Institute. All Rights Reserved. 0204551AS02A-14 For more information contact: U.S. Career Institute Fort Collins, CO 80525 www.uscareerinstitute.edu Assignment Pack 2 Instructions for Quizzes 1. Be sure you’ve mastered the Lessons and Practice Exercises that the Quiz covers. 2. Write down your answers for each Quiz question, and make sure to check your answers by reviewing the Lessons. 3. When you’re finished, decide how you will submit your answers and then follow the correct instructions below. You may only submit your answers for a Quiz once. Important: When submitting a Quiz, be sure to include your name, address, student ID number and course code. Incomplete information may result in your Quiz not being processed. Scanner Quiz Instructions For a Quiz that contains only multiple-choice questions, please select one of the following methods of submission: Online: Submit your answers online and receive your grade immediately by submitting them to your Online Course on the student site, www.uscareerinstitute.edu. Mail: Scanner Answer Sheets are included with each purchased book pack. Transfer your Quiz answers to a Scanner Answer Sheet, using only blue or black ink. Mail your Scanner Answer Sheet to U.S. Career Institute, 2001 Lowe Street, Fort Collins, CO 80525-3474. Dental Assistant 4 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 Quiz 9 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 1. An administrative dental assistant who maintains the website for the office might also be called the _____. a. appointment clerk b. records manager c. marketing coordinator d. database processor 2. A records manager for a dental office would probably handle all of these duties EXCEPT _____. a. file patient test results b. pull files for each patient on the day’s schedule c. schedule patient’s routine appointments d. classify, store, retrieve and update information 3. Administrative dental assistants are valuable to small dental clinics because they _____. a. can easily split their time between the front office and chairside duties b. are friendly to patients c. know how to fix office equipment d. can handle the duties of a dental lab tech 4. An important characteristic for an administrative dental assistant to have to keep the office running smoothly is the ability to _____. a. smile, even when she’s upset b. talk to patients about being on time c. multitask d. focus on one issue at a time 5. Dentists often use _____ to stay in touch in case of after-hour patient emergencies. a. cellphones or an answering service b. cellphones, fax machines and copiers c. pagers, cordless phones and multi-line phone systems d. pagers, electronic scheduling software and an answering service 0204551AS02A-14 5 Dental Assistant 6. You arrived at Dr. Bailey’s office 15 minutes early for your 10:00 appointment. The waiting room is busy, but you notice that patients are called soon after they arrive. The administrative DA is busy entering patient information on the computer, but she smiled as you signed in and told you the dentist would be with you soon. A new patient is filling out forms, while another asks the DA a question about her insurance coverage. An emergency patient rushes in and is immediately escorted to the treatment area. At exactly 10:00 a.m., you are called back to begin your exam. These are all signs _____. a. of an office that is overbooked b. that the appointment scheduler is doing a great job c. that the administrative DA needs an assistant d. of an office using the appointment book matrix system 7. You are the appointment scheduler for Dr. Brandon’s office. Normally, a new patient visit is given three units of time, or 45 minutes. A new patient calls, and in halting English, requests an appointment. You can barely understand her, so you’re not sure what she needs the appointment for. However, you can communicate well enough to set the appointment and get her name and mailing address. How much time do you think you should block out for this patient? a. 55 minutes—she’ll need an extra ten minutes to explain what she needs. b. An hour—she may not need that much time, but it will be nice for everyone to have a break. c. An hour—since your units are 15 minutes, you will schedule one extra unit to give the staff time to become familiar with the new patient. d. 45 minutes—even though the patient can’t be understood, the dentist can simply look in her mouth and diagnose any problems. 8. Why do you think the appointment book matrix system is becoming less common? a. As older staff members retire, they take their knowledge of manual appointment systems with them, so new DAs don’t know how to use them. b. HIPAA requires new dental practices to use only electronic systems due to patient privacy concerns. c. It is not becoming less common—why change the system when it has worked well for years? d. As older dentists retire and younger dentists who are more familiar with computers take over, they see the benefits of an electronic scheduling system. 6 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 9. You called Mr. Birney to let him know his lab work is back and to set his third appointment in a series of six treatments. You enter his name, phone numbers, a code signifying the reason for the visit, a note that the lab work is in and a note that you reminded him to take two ibuprofen before coming in. You say good-bye and answer the next call. Oops! What did you forget? a. His payment method b. His insurance information c. The brand of ibuprofen you recommended d. How much time to block out 10. If one unit of time equals 30 minutes, then how much time should you block out if the dentist requests five units? a. 50 minutes b. An hour and 30 minutes c. Two and a half hours d. 180 minutes 11. Meghan likes to give each patient two and a half units of time for each appointment. Even though it takes three units for a regular exam, she figures if she can shave half a unit from each appointment, she’ll keep the staff busy and the office will make more money. She also likes the fact that she gets paid overtime when the office is open late to finish up with the day’s appointments. She just can’t figure out why her team members and the patients always seem so grumpy. Can you help Meghan? a. Meghan needs to ask her team members to work faster. She should also remind them that they’re getting paid overtime, too. b. Meghan is forgetting that quality of care is just as important as speed. She needs to give each patient the time they deserve and give her team members a break. c. Meghan is maximizing the office’s potential, but at the cost of her friendships. She should ask her coworkers out to lunch to explain her scheduling system. d. The dentist understands that Meghan is helping him make more money. He should talk to the staff to explain how Meghan’s scheduling system works. Meghan should also tell patients to arrive ten minutes late for their appointments. 12. When a patient calls with an emergency _____. a. you must schedule him in the next available slot, within three days of his call b. put him at the top of your call list, so he can be seen if someone else cancels c. many offices try to accommodate them with buffer slots d. you need to get the dentist’s approval before you give him an appointment 0204551AS02A-14 7 Dental Assistant 13. Mrs. Powers calls in with an emergency—her son lost a primary tooth in a football game last night and the gingiva is swollen. You suggest 10:00, the first buffer time you have available, which you were saving for a new patient who called earlier. She asks if you have another time available because she has a lunch scheduled at 11:30. What should you do? a. The problem doesn’t sound like an emergency if it can wait until after her luncheon. Schedule the new patient at 10:00 a.m. and Mrs. Powers’ son in the next available buffer time that day. b. Convince Mrs. Powers that the problem is serious and encourage her to take the 10:00 a.m. appointment. c. Give the new patient the 10:00 a.m. appointment and tell Mrs. Powers she’ll need to wait until the next available appointment, which is next week. d. Tell the new patient you can’t get him in until next week, and hope that Mrs. Powers brings her son in at 10:00 a.m. 14. Patients who are new to a dental practice should be _____. a. scheduled only after you’ve received their completed forms b. advised that when they arrive at their scheduled time, they’ll need to fill out some paperwork c. advised to arrive about 15 minutes early to complete paperwork or receive paperwork in the mail prior to the appointment d. interviewed in a private room so you can fill out their forms 15. Patients who are late, but not chronically late _____. a. need to be treated with diplomacy b. should be dropped as patients c. should call to confirm their appointments d. should be charged an extra fee for the dentist’s time 16. Other than saving time, why do you think it’s a good idea to mail a welcome packet, including forms, to new patients before their appointment? a. Because it outlines your strict payment policy, so they can cancel the appointment if they can’t pay immediately. b. So patients can look up social security numbers, insurance policy numbers and other information that they may not have with them at your office. c. So they’ll have advance warning of the amount of paperwork, even if they don’t fill them out at home. d. There is no other benefit. In fact, one drawback to mailing forms is that patients often lose them. 8 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 17. Little Ashley is crying in the background as her mother calls you at 11:00 a.m. to make an appointment. Ashley’s mother apologizes for the noise, explaining that Ashley is ready for her nap. She wants to schedule Ashley’s appointment in the morning, around 10 to 11 a.m. Is this a good idea? a. Yes. You can get her in and out in 45 minutes, so Ashley can sleep on the way home. b. No. If Ashley is brought in later, at 11:30, then she can sleep during the exam. c. Yes. You should always follow the patient’s wishes. d. No. If Ashley is tired during her exam, it will make the dental experience unpleasant for her. 18. When at all possible, schedule a series of appointments _____. a. within one week’s time b. over a period of six months, so the patient can spread out his payments c. at the same time and on the same day of the week d. back to back, so the patient only has to make one trip 19. What methods can you use to remind patients of an appointment the following day? a. Postcard, email or text message b. Email, text message or phone c. Telephone only. You need to speak directly to the patient. d. Telephone, cellphone or text message 20. The purpose of reminder calls is to _____. a. fill up your buffer time blocks b. remind patients that you bill for last minute cancellations c. prevent missed appointments, late arrivals and last minute cancellations d. find out if a patient needs to cancel so you can open the time up to new patients and emergencies 0204551AS02A-14 9 Dental Assistant 21. Suzie Sandborn is so much fun. She makes everyone in the office laugh with her wild stories of high school life. However, she’s 10 minutes late for every appointment. After her last visit caused several of your team members to work late, you decided to make her appointment 15 minutes after the time you told her it was scheduled. It worked like a charm—here’s Suzie walking in the door. The dental hygienist walks up front and congratulates Suzie for being five minutes early! Suzie glares at you and asks the RDH what time her appointment was REALLY for. Oops! What should you do? a. Apologize to Suzie for giving her the wrong time, and next time inform the staff of what you’re doing. b. Tell Suzie it was just a joke, but explain to her that her lateness causes a problem for the office so she’ll have to find a new dentist if she can’t be on time. c. Tell Suzie that the RDH’s daily schedule sheet is wrong. d. Tell the dental hygienist to lie to Susie about the appointment time. 22. What is one benefit to the patient of the written recall system over the advance recall system? The patient _____. a. doesn’t need to set his next appointment six months in advance b. knows when his next appointment will be when he leaves the office c. doesn’t have to fill out a postcard d. knows you’ll call him to set the next appointment 23. What is one drawback of the written recall system? a. Patients must remember to call you when they receive their reminder postcards. b. Patients have to set their appointments six months in advance. c. It costs more to use because of the postage and supplies involved. d. Sometimes mail gets lost and patients never receive their reminders. 24. The recall system that requires the least amount of work for an administrative DA is the _____ recall system. a. combination b. computer generated c. telephone d. continuing appointment 25. Alphabetical filing rules state that _____. a. nothing comes before something b. something comes before nothing c. names with a prefix such as Mc and Mac come before any other names beginning with “M” d. you should view hyphenated names as separate entities 10 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 26. A chronological file is often used for _____. a. ticklers and recall systems b. marketing systems c. business records d. clinical records 27. According to HIPAA’s privacy regulations, you should _____. a. keep all patient information, including flags about urgent medical conditions such as allergies, inside patient files b. keep most patient information inside the file except urgent medical information such as flags alerting staff to allergies (flags and stickers may go on the outside of files) c. lock filing cabinets and storage areas at all times d. not discuss patient information with anyone, including other team members 28. Your office uses the numeric filing system for clinical records. If A corresponds with 0 through 9 and B corresponds with 10 through 19, what numbers does Z correspond with? a. 30 through 39 b. 36 through 46 c. 250 through 259 d. 360 through 369 29. Probably the most important thing you can do to protect patient files is to _____. a. keep them organized and up to date b. position computer screens so patients can’t see them c. back up the files every day d. keep files in the front office 30. An inventory management system can help you track _____. a. a reorder point for every product b. product colors c. trends d. feedback scores 0204551AS02A-14 11 Dental Assistant Quiz 10 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 4 points. 1. Bacteria, fungi and viruses are examples of _____. a. diseases b. viruses c. pathogens d. injections 2. When microorganisms do NOT cause harm to the body, they are called _____. a. nonpathogenic b. pathogens c. agents d. benign 3. Bacterial endospores are difficult to get rid of because they can survive _____. a. fever, headache, nausea and vomiting b. heat, dryness and cosmetics c. malaria, dryness, pneumonia and heat d. disinfectants, dehydration, extreme heat and radiation 4. Hepatitis A is spread through _____. a. the blood b. fecal-to-oral contact c. a break in the skin d. a needle prick 5. Tetanus, a disease causing tremendous muscle spasms is caused by _____. a. fungi b. bacteria c. a virus d. rust 12 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 6. A host cell _____. a. feeds on pathogens b. is immune to pathogens c. stops the spread of pathogens d. is where a virus lives and replicates 7. The strength of a pathogen is called its _____. a. potency b. virulence c. vigor d. vigilance 8. The _____ of disease transmission refers to the chain of infection, or how the disease is spread once it enters the body. a. mode or pathway b. route c. cycle d. method 9. Inhalation, ingestion, parenteral and mucous membranes are all _____. a. ports of entry b. dentistry procedures c. forms of breathing nitrous oxide d. methods of transition 10. Indirect, splash and spatter and airborne are examples of _____. a. intubation b. disease transmission modes c. allergen transport d. pathogen communication 11. Parenteral transmission means the bacteria can spread through the _____. a. mouth b. stomach c. intestines d. skin 0204551AS02A-14 13 Dental Assistant 12. As a dental assistant, you do not have to worry about _____. a. fecal-oral transmission b. Staphylococcal infection c. bloodborne pathogens d. shared needles 13. Which disease is NOT one of concern to DHCP and does not require immunization? a. Mumps b. Measles c. Common cold d. Chickenpox 14. Immunity from a vaccine is considered _____ immunity. a. inherited b. natural c. passive d. artificially acquired 15. The _____ system protects the body from disease. a. immune b. gastrointestinal c. airborne d. pathogenic 16. Inherited, acquired, passive and naturally acquired are examples of _____. a. HIV b. immunization standards c. types of immunity d. disease transmission modes 17. Prevention of chronic disease is a concern of _____. a. BBP b. OSA c. CDC d. OHSA 14 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 18. Protecting employee health is an area of concern for _____. a. EPA b. BBP c. Joint Commission d. OSHA 19. The two most important OSHA standards are the _____. a. BBP and Hazard Communication Standard b. OSHA and Joint Commission Health Standard c. CDC and BBP Pathogen Standard d. BBP and Joint Commission Pathogen Standard 20. BBP stands for _____ pathogen. a. bacillus blood b. bacterial bloodborne c. bacillus bore d. bloodborne 21. The BBP Standard covers percutaneous and _____ contact. a. infectious disease b. permucosal c. spatial d. pathogenic 22. A common virus that leaves a sore mouth or swollen gums is _____. a. oral herpes simplex b. viral hepatitis c. a common cold d. thrush 23. Viral hepatitis requires several vaccinations and causes _____. a. red sores on the skin b. inflammation of the liver c. severe muscle spasms d. reduction of T cells 0204551AS02A-14 15 Dental Assistant 24. If a patient is HIV positive, it’s possible to spread HIV to other patients or staff through _____. a. an accidental needle prick b. exposure to contaminated saliva or blood c. touching the patient’s skin d. a and b 25. Tuberculosis, Legionnaires’ Disease and tetanus are examples of _____. a. bacterial diseases b. pathogens c. opportunistic infections d. modes of disease transmission 16 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 Quiz 11 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 4 points. 1. Which two government agencies regulate infection control for dental offices? a. CDC and NIH b. NIH and OSHA c. CDC and OSHA d. HHS and NIH 2. The regulations regarding BBPs, _____, have been called the most important regulations in dental care. a. bloodborne pathogens b. blood bonded pathogerms c. bonded blood pathogerms d. blood baked p-germs 3. Employees may decide not to get recommended vaccinations, and in this case, the infection control agent must _____. a. warn patients in writing b. document the employee’s decision in writing c. report the employee to the CDC d. prohibit the employee from working where she might be exposed to BBPs 4. BBP trainings must be held at least every _____. a. week b. month c. bimester d. year 5. Within 10 days after an employee is assigned duties that may bring her in contact with BBPs, she must be offered a(n) _____ vaccine. a. varicella b. mumps, measles and rubella c. influenza d. hepatitis B 0204551AS02A-14 17 Dental Assistant 6. Which vaccination is NOT recommended by the CDC for DHCPs? a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitis C c. Varicella-zoster d. Mumps 7. After you wash your hands with soap and water, you should _____. a. dry your hands with a cloth towel b. dry your hands with a paper towel c. use an alcohol-based hand rub d. never put on gloves 8. All recommendations apply to hand washing for DHCPs EXCEPT _____. a. remove all jewelry b. use a nailstick to clean under your nails c. use artificial fingernails d. wash hands before and after wearing gloves 9. Alcohol-based handrubs are most effective at a concentration of _____ percent. a. 6 to 9 b. 16 to 19 c. 65 to 90 d. 60 to 90 10. Which type of sink is best for infection control in dental clinics? a. Hands-free b. Single control c. Dual control d. One temperature 11. PPE stands for _____. a. protection for personnel and employees b. primary protection for employees c. personal primary education d. personal protective equipment 18 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 12. It’s important to change your protective clothing at least every _____. a. day b. week c. month d. year 13. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection for DHCPs because they do not provide _____. a. a strong enough barrier b. front, top, bottom and side protection c. glare support d. enough opportunities for cleaning 14. Protective masks need to provide at least _____ percent efficiency for particles _____ micrometers in diameter. a. 5; 3 to 5 b. 35; 3 to 9 c. 55; 5 to 9 d. 95; 3 to 5 15. Which gloves can be reused if they are cleaned and disinfected? a. Procedure gloves b. Surgical gloves c. Over gloves d. Utility gloves 16. All of the following are symptoms of a latex allergy EXCEPT _____. a. a red rash b. coughing c. wheezing d. scales on the skin 17. Environmental surface disinfectants are regulated by _____. a. the CDC b. OSHA c. the EPA d. the FDA 0204551AS02A-14 19 Dental Assistant 18. Manufacturer recommendations for disinfectant use must be followed very closely in all areas EXCEPT _____. a. cautions and safety warnings b. promotional and experimental products c. mixing and diluting instructions d. required temperature and contact time 19. Surface barriers must be changed at least _____. a. daily b. hourly c. between every patient d. when they become visibly soiled 20. Biohazardous waste is also called _____ waste. a. infectious or regulated b. contaminated c. bio-infected d. red 21. Examples of noncritical items include all of the following EXCEPT _____. a. position indicator device b. head apron c. forceps d. curing light 22. The purpose of a holding solution is to _____. a. prevent dried blood or other debris from adhering to the instruments while they sit waiting to be cleaned b. keep instruments lubricated following the sterilization process c. prepare instruments for storage d. assess the effectiveness of the sterilization process 23. DHCPs use an ultrasonic cleaner to _____. a. loosen and remove debris from the instruments b. process holding solutions c. sterilize instruments d. finalize the sterilization process 20 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 24. In order to be effective, autoclaves must reach temperatures of _____ degrees Fahrenheit. a. 95 to 105 b. 121 to 173 c. 250 to 273 d. 320 to 375 25. The only sterilization process that doesn’t use a machine is _____. a. steam heat b. liquid chemical c. dry heat d. ultrasonic 0204551AS02A-14 21 Dental Assistant Quiz 12 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 1. “The patient’s vermilion zone is peeling and it is spreading to the vermilion border.” This means the _____. a. patient’s tooth has fallen out b. patient has a cold c. patient has a cold sore d. patient’s gums are raw and bleeding 2. “There is a high quantity of mucous in the philtrum.” This means _____. a. the patient is producing too much saliva b. tooth pain is causing the patient to drool c. the patient’s eyes are teary d. the patient has a runny nose 3. “Gingival blood loss occurs when the patient flosses.” This means _____. a. the patient’s gums bleed when she flosses b. the patient is experiencing heavy blood loss from a tooth c. when the patient flosses, her tongue bleeds d. when the DA performs a rubber cup prophylaxis, the child’s gums bleed 4. “The fauces is red and inflamed.” This means the _____. a. patient’s tongue is swollen b. patient must have her tonsils removed c. upper palate is infected d. patient has a sore throat 5. “The clinical examination indicates the presence of a torus mandibularis.” This means _____. a. the patient has a serious lymph condition called lymphadenopathy b. the Wharton’s ducts are inflamed and must be removed c. the patient has bony protuberances on the floor of his mouth d. calculus has built up on the mandibular molars 22 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 6. Two types of saliva are _____. a. serous and mucous b. mucous and gingival c. serous and calculus d. mucous and sialolith 7. When saliva is blocked, your dentist will remove a _____. a. sublingual duct b. sialolith c. carotid artery d. minor salivary gland 8. Your dentist has just diagnosed Mrs. Bradford with xerostomia. What may be the cause of this? a. Her saliva is supplying moisture to the gingival tissues instead of the teeth. b. Mrs. Bradford may have a serious lymph condition called lymphadenopathy. c. She may have diabetes or cancer, which is preventing her body from producing enough saliva. d. Mrs. Bradford is producing too much of one type of saliva, causing tooth decay. 9. The foramen and meatus can be thought of as tunnels because _____. a. they both allow sound to travel through the body b. blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass through them c. saliva drains through them to the sinuses d. they are both openings for something to pass through 10. The foramen and meatus differ because _____. a. only the foramen is a depressed groove b. only the meatus is an opening in the bone c. one is a muscle, the other is a bone d. only the meatus can form a canal 11. When you put your fingers in the corners of your eyes, you are touching the _____ region. a. mandibular b. cranial c. orbital d. maxillary 0204551AS02A-14 23 Dental Assistant 12. When your patient says that her spinous process is painful, you know that _____. a. her tooth hurts b. her neck hurts c. she has back cramps d. she has a sore throat 13. An elderly patient, Mr. Martin, has come in for his six month checkup. You notice that his arthritis has gotten much worse since the last time you saw him. He has also lost a lot of weight and seems to have difficulty speaking. What might be the cause of these changes? a. His nursing home is neglecting to feed him properly. b. He is having TMJ problems due to his arthritis. c. Mr. Martin may need braces. d. He is in a great deal of pain due to the arthritis. 14. Little Tommy tells you he knows that some bones can be soft and hard. To prove it, he bangs on the top of his nose, and it’s hard. He then pushes his nose from side to side. “See, I can bend my nose bone.” What’s wrong with this theory? a. There is no bone in the nose. The bridge of the nose is septal cartilage, which is very hard, but bendable. b. The top of his nose is the vomer—a bone, but the end of his nose is cartilage. He can only bend the septal cartilage, not the vomer. c. Tommy’s nose is made up of bone—the inferior nasal conchae. These are curved bones, or turbinates, so they can bend, but they aren’t soft. d. Tommy broke his nose recently, so that’s why he can move it. 15. As a dental assistant, you will see the maxillary tuberosity bone when _____. a. the dentist removes plaque b. the patient has a cuspid tooth removed c. you look at x-rays d. you check the patient’s medical records 16. Pockets or cavities in a bone that make the bone lighter. a. Sinuses b. Ethmoid bone c. Styloid process d. Orbit 24 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 17. Smile. You just raised the corners of your mouth, otherwise known as the _____. a. labial commissure b. nasal phrenum c. sphenoid d. zygomatic 18. Because you know that a foramen is a(n) _____, you can guess that the foramen magnum is a _____. a. hole; hole in the zygomatic process where the eyeball sits b. tubercle; tuberosity caused by magnesium poisoning c. opening; large opening where the spinal cord passes from the cranium to the spine d. bulge; round bulge in the bone that provides movement between the skull and the first spinal vertebra in the neck 19. Why are the occipital condyles like the Greek mythical hero Atlas? a. Because, like Atlas, who tried to fly to the sun, the condyles reside close to the brain, so they are often hot to the touch. b. Because the condyles are round bulges in the bone, much like Atlas emerged from a round mountain in the earth. c. The occipital condyles can move rapidly, so they are compared to Atlas, who was fleet of foot. d. The occipital condyles are round bulges in the bone that hold the skull on the neck, just like Atlas held the earth. 20. Muscles are able to cause movement because they _____. a. warm and cool b. expand and contract c. push and pull bones d. create energy from carbohydrates 21. If you experience pain when you chew, you may have injured your _____ muscle. a. hyoid b. occipital condyle c. zygomatic major d. orbicularis oris 0204551AS02A-14 25 Dental Assistant 22. These tongue muscles help you speak, chew and swallow. a. Extrinsic b. Genioglossus c. Styloglossus d. Intrinsic 23. Consider the term nasopharynx. You know that “naso” indicates the nose. The pharynx is the part of the throat where food passes to the stomach. Why do you think it’s important for the palatopharyngeus muscle of the soft palate to close off your nasopharynx? a. So that air can’t travel from the mouth to the lungs when you have your mouth open. b. When the nasopharynx is closed, the mouth can produce saliva to help with digestion. c. So that food doesn’t go down the nasopharynx and choke you when you’re eating. d. When the nasopharynx is open, air can pass from the nose to the lungs. The palatopharyngial muscle should only close the nasopharynx when you’re holding your breath. 24. You asked little Sarah to put her chin down so you can see the inside of her bottom teeth. To do this, she used her _____ muscles. a. flexor b. scalene c. septoid d. semispinalis capitis 25. If you told Sarah to turn her head to the opposite side of the chair, you’d be asking her to use her _____ muscle. a. trapezius b. levator scapula c. sternocleidomastoid d. reciprocal 26. A primary purpose of the arterial supply to the head and neck is to _____. a. transport anesthesia to nerves b. support pathogens c. supply oxygen and nutrients d. carry infections 27. A key purpose of the venous supply to the head and neck is to _____. a. transport anesthesia to nerves b. carry away pathogens c. supply oxygen and nutrients d. carry away waste, carbon dioxide and intraoral infections 26 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 28. Which reflect a part of the lymphatic system in the head and neck area? a. Axillary lymph nodes b. Inguinal lymph nodes c. Adenoids d. Pancreas 29. As a dental assistant, which is a key reason you understand the nerves of the head and neck? a. So that when you’re administering an anesthetic, you understand what portion of the mouth you’re numbing b. Because they often affect the amount of bleeding during a procedure c. Because you could accidently hit a nerve while working in the mouth d. So that you can explain them to your patient 30. A procedure calls for anesthetizing the greater palatine nerve. This will numb the _____. a. posterior superior alveolar nerve b. gums and hard palate c. MSA nerve d. laterals and cuspid teeth 0204551AS02A-14 27 Dental Assistant Quiz 13 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Use the diagram to select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 1. Letter c reflects the _____ quadrant. a. maxillary right b. maxillary left c. mandibular right 2. Letter b reflects the _____ quadrant. a. maxillary right b. maxillary left c. mandibular right 3. Letter e reflects the _____ quadrant. a. mandibular right b. mandibular left c. maxillary left 4. Letter d reflects the _____ quadrant. a. mandibular right b. mandibular left c. maxillary left 28 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 5. The _____ arch is the stationary jaw. a. upper b. lower c. lateral 6. This is a deep area that results when two developmental grooves cross each other. a. Fissure b. Developmental groove c. Pit d. Sulcus 7. A _____ is an elongated depression between two ridges. a. fissure b. sulcus c. fossa d. pit 8. The _____ is the place where two adjacent teeth touch. a. proximal surface b. embrasure space c. contact point d. antagonist 9. This occurs when the teeth of the upper arch come in contact with the teeth of the lower arch when the mouth is in a closed position. a. Alveolar eminence b. Furcation c. Occlusion d. Mastication 10. Which molar is the antagonist of the left mandibular second molar? a. Right mandibular second b. Left mandibular first c. Left maxillary second d. Left maxillary first 0204551AS02A-14 29 Dental Assistant 11. The _____ is the triangular space near the gingiva between the proximal surfaces of two adjoining teeth. a. contact area b. embrasure c. occlusal surface d. height of contour 12. Which teeth exfoliate? a. Wisdom b. Seconary c. Deciduous 13. Which deciduous tooth erupts at approximately 24 months? a. Maxillary third molar b. Maxillary second molar c. Maxillary first molar 14. Which deciduous tooth erupts at approximately 14 months? a. Maxillary third molar b. Maxillary second molar c. Maxillary first molar 15. Which deciduous tooth erupts at approximately 19 months? a. Maxillary cuspid b. Maxillary wisdom c. Maxillary incisor 16. Which deciduous tooth erupts at approximately 16 months? a. Maxillary cuspid b. Mandibular molar c. Mandibular cuspid 17. Which deciduous tooth erupts at approximately six months? a. Mandibular central incisor b. Maxillary central incisor c. Mandibular cuspid 30 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 18. This deciduous tooth erupts at approximately seven months. a. Maxillary central incisor b. Mandibular central incisor c. Mandibular lateral incisor 19. This deciduous tooth erupts at approximately seven and a half months. a. Maxillary central incisor b. Mandibular central incisor c. Mandibular lateral incisor 20. Which permanent tooth erupts at approximately six to seven years? a. Maxillary first molar b. Maxillary lateral incisor c. Mandibular central incisor 21. This permanent tooth erupts at approximately seven to eight years. a. Maxillary lateral incisor b. Mandibular lateral incisor c. Mandibular first molar 22. This permanent tooth erupts at approximately 10 to 12 years. a. Maxillary second premolar b. Maxillary first molar c. Mandibular first molar 23. Which permanent tooth erupts at approximately 12 to 13 years? a. Maxillary premolar b. Maxillary first molar c. Maxillary second molar 24. Name a permanent tooth that erupts at approximately 17 to 21 years. a. Mandibular third molar b. Maxillary third molar c. Both a and b 25. What deciduous tooth is NOT on the maxillary arch? a. Lateral incisor b. Cuspid c. Third molar 0204551AS02A-14 31 Dental Assistant 26. What deciduous tooth is NOT on the mandibular arch? a. Second molar b. Lateral incisor c. Third molar 27. How many permanent teeth are on the mandibular arch? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 28. How many permanent teeth are on the maxillary arch? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 29. What’s a different name for third molars? a. Wisdom teeth b. Permanent molars c. Extractable teeth 30. This is the abbreviation for disto-occlusal. a. DTO b. DO c. DSO 32 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 Quiz 14 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 1. G.V. Black’s classification system of caries is important to learn because of all except _____. a. it’s used universally to chart types of restorations b. with this standardized system, dentists can accurately communicate oral health information c. you’ll use it to figure treatment costs d. by knowing the class number, you can determine the location of the decay 2. Class III decay indicates that the tooth involved is _____. a. a cuspid b. extensively damaged c. an anterior tooth d. either a canine or a premolar 3. In Black’s classification system, decay located in the pits and fissures of the occlusal surfaces of the molars and premolars, buccal or lingual pits of maxillary incisors is an example of Class _____ decay. a. I b. II c. III d. VI 4. A radiograph may be necessary to identify decay in Class _____ dental caries. a. I b. II c. IV d. V 5. Decay caused by abrasion wearing away the surface of the tooth is a Class _____ dental caries. a. I b. II c. III d. VI 0204551AS02A-14 33 Dental Assistant 6. Class V decay, located in the gingival third of the facial or lingual surfaces of the tooth, is also called _____ decay. a. teeth grinding b. distolingual c. gingival d. smooth surface 7. Class I decay affects _____ and premolars. a. canines b. molars and incisors c. molars and bicuspids 8. Class II decay affects _____. a. molars and premolars b. molars and bicuspids c. molars and incisors 9. Class III decay affects _____. a. incisors and molars b. incisors and premolars c. incisors and canines 10. Class IV decay affects _____. a. incisors and molars b. incisors and premolars c. incisors and canines 11. Class V decay best reflects _____. a. smooth surface of incisors b. smooth surface of any tooth c. smooth surface of molars 12. When charting, the color red represents dental treatment _____. a. that is needed b. that has already occurred c. performed by another dentist d. that was done incorrectly 34 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 13. When charting, the color black or blue represents dental treatment _____. a. that is needed b. that has already occurred c. that was done incorrectly 14. It’s easiest to use a(n) _____ when charting a patient’s teeth. a. computer b. erasable marker c. patient exam form d. anatomical diagram 15. The charting symbol, “S,” on the occlusal surface of a tooth indicates you’re charting _____ on a tooth. a. a stainless steel crown b. sealant c. a silver amalgam restoration d. stains 16. The best way to chart recurrent decay is to _____. a. write RD in red on the affected tooth b. color over the previous restoration in red c. outline the existing decay in red d. draw a red triangle over the existing decay in red 17. When charting, a red zigzag line represents a(n) _____. a. fractured tooth or root b. impacted tooth c. rotated tooth d. bonded veneer 0204551AS02A-14 35 Dental Assistant Refer to the chart and select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 18. How do you chart a composite restoration on tooth 31? a. Underline tooth 31 b. Diagonally mark tooth 31 c. Outline tooth 31 19. How do you chart a gold crown on tooth 3? a. Diagonally mark tooth 3 b. Outline the crown on 3 c. Outline the crown and draw diagonal lines on 3 20. How do you chart a stainless-steel crown on tooth 5? a. Use black ink to outline the crown and write SS on the occlusal surface b. Use blue ink to outline the crown and write SS on the occlusal surface c. Use red ink to outline the crown and write SS on the occlusal surface 21. How do you chart a fractured root on tooth 18? a. Draw a red zig-zag line on its root b. Draw a blue zig-zag line on its root c. Draw a black zig-zag line on its root 22. The maxillary canines must be extracted due to overcrowding. How do you chart this? a. Black diagonal line through 6 and 11 b. Red diagonal line through 5 and 10 c. Red diagonal line through 6 and 11 36 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 23. The mandibular canines must be extracted due to overcrowding. How do you chart this? a. Red diagonal line through 6 and 11 b. Red diagonal line through 22 and 27 c. Red outline around 6 and 11 24. The maxillary and mandibular third molars have been extracted. How would you chart this? a. Red X over 1, 16, 17 and 32 b. Blue X over 1, 16, 17 and 32 c. Black X over 1, 16, 17 and 32 25. After which exam will you chart any findings regarding oral habits, extraoral exam, interior of lips and more? a. Initial b. Soft tissue c. Post-probe 26. Which is the correct restoration abbreviation for distobucco-occusal? a. DBO b. DBC c. DDO 27. Which is the correct restoration abbreviation for occlusolingual? a. LO b. OCL c. OL 28. Which is the correct restoration abbreviation for mesioincisal? a. MEI b. MIE c. MI 29. Which is the correct restoration abbreviation for disto-occlusal? a. DO b. DOC c. DSO 30. Which is the correct restoration abbreviation for mesio-occlusobuccal? a. MEO b. MEOB c. MOB 0204551AS02A-14 37 Dental Assistant Quiz 15 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 3.33 points. 1. A disposable _____ protects against air-borne bacteria. a. treatment glove b. tray cover c. mask d. napkin 2. Barriers protect _____ areas and components in an operatory. a. critical and semi-critical b. sterilized c. disinfected d. sanitized 3. Cotton rolls, gauze and plastic covers are examples of _____. a. disposables b. sanitation shields c. disinfectant products d. suction techniques 4. Handle barriers should be placed on _____. a. seat cushions b. lamp handles c. light switches d. cotton holders 5. Needle _____ prevent the risk of infection by accidental needle sticks. a. shields b. tips c. covers d. napkins 38 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 6. The four objectives of seating a patient are _____. a. access, safety, comfort and reliability b. safety, visibility, relaxation and comfort c. comfort, safety, visibility and access d. reliability, safety, comfort and access 7. Topical anesthetic numbs the surface of the patient’s _____. a. mucosa b. tongue c. gums d. jaw 8. Local anesthesia is administered by the _____. a. dental assistant b. dentist or registered dental hygienist c. dental assistant or dental hygienist d. depends on state regulated permissions 9. Controlling the operating field means keeping it clean, visible and _____. a. dry b. moist c. accessible d. uncluttered 10. Excess _____ decreases adhesive bond strength. a. heat b. movement c. dryness d. saliva 11. What should you do before the dentist positions the mouth mirror and handpiece? a. Increase water pressure b. Sterilize wipe the next tool c. Insert the HVE 12. What does the HVE reduce from the handpiece? a. Bacterial aerosol b. Friction c. Viscosity 0204551AS02A-14 39 Dental Assistant 13. These tips are best for removing tissue, blood and debris but not large amounts of water. a. Surgical pressure b. Surgical suction c. Surgical stent 14. What type of rinse should you perform after a dental prophylaxis? a. Saline b. Full mouth c. Amalgam 15. The three types of dental dam clamps include anterior, posterior and _____. a. geriatric b. pediatric c. mandibular 16. What lets you mark the dam so you can later punch holes in it, in the right locations? a. Template b. Map c. Collator 17. Use a stylus and a _____ plate to punch a hole in a dam. a. pen b. tarp c. punch 18. What size hole is appropriate for a premolar? a. #3 b. #2 c. #1 19. What is a thick absorbent triangular pad that restricts the flow of saliva called? a. Bi-Angle b. Tri-Angle c. Dri-Angle 20. What could you use to hold back the cheek during a procedure? a. Base end of probe b. Tongue retractor c. Gum retractor 40 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 21. A dentist and chairside assistant working together as a team is what type of dentistry? a. Four-handed b. Clock-face c. Coordinated 22. Which grasp will you use to transfer a bulky item? a. Reverse b. Simple c. Two-handed 23. You can secure a dental dam with another clamp, dental floss or a stabilizing _____. a. wax b. cord c. screw 24. What must you do to a clinical surface before you disinfect it? a. Alcohol bath b. Preclean c. UV light scan 25. What must you do to a handpiece before you sterilize it? a. UV scan b. Achol dip c. Flush 26. What must you do at the end of each day to the dental lines? a. Purge and air dry b. Air dry c. Purge 27. You are about to place a dental dam. You notice that the patient has plaque and debris in the area where the dam will be placed. What should you do? a. Ask the patient to brush and rinse b. Reschedule the procedure c. Ensure coronal polishing 0204551AS02A-14 41 Dental Assistant 28. When you give the dentist an instrument and receive one after with the same hand, this refers to _____ transfer. a. dual-step b. single-handed c. timely 29. You have just completed a surgical procedure. You are preparing to break down the operatory. You will use the spray-wipe-spray technique. What is the first step? a. EPA approved alcohol spray b. EPA approved anti-bacterial spray c. EPA approved hospital surface disinfectant spray 30. How long should you flush waterlines between patients? a. 10 – 15 seconds b. 10 – 20 seconds c. 20 – 30 seconds 42 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 Quiz 16 This is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack. Select the best answer from the choices provided. Each item is worth 4 points. 1. _____ causes a temporary loss of sensation and feeling. a. Induction b. Analgesia c. Anesthesia d. Duration 2. _____ anesthetic numbs the surface of the mucosa. a. Local b. Topical c. Oral d. General 3. Anesthetics manage anxiety and _____. a. pain b. psychological distress c. stress d. patients 4. Anesthetic gel should remain on a site for at least _____ minutes before an injection to provide maximum numbing. a. one to two b. three to five c. four to six d. six to eight 5. _____ are commonly used delivery methods to numb a large tissue area or subdue the patient’s gag reflex. a. Gels or ointments b. Gas or oral sedatives c. Liquids or sprays d. Nitrous oxide or injection 0204551AS02A-14 43 Dental Assistant 6. _____ refers to the length of time between the anesthesia going into effect and the anesthesia ceasing effect. a. Induction b. Analgesia c. Conclusion d. Duration 7. _____ anesthetic depresses the patient’s level of consciousness. a. Topical b. General c. Oral d. Local 8. _____ is added to the anesthetic solution to constrict blood vessels and increase the duration of anesthetic. a. A vasoconstrictor b. An ester c. Sodium chloride d. Distilled water 9. The spreading of anesthesia into the nerve to block pain impulses is called _____. a. duration b. induction c. nerve block d. diffusion 10. The _____ contains the anesthetic solution that is placed into the syringe before the needle. a. needle hub b. anesthetic cartridge c. syringe d. scavenger system 11. _____ is a temporary or permanent numbness that occurs when local anesthetic effects do not wear off. a. Heart attack b. Nerve block c. Paresthesia d. Injection 44 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 12. Which is NOT a factor that influences a patient’s reaction to anesthetic? a. Individual patient physiology b. Local anesthetic solution c. Fatigue d. Rate of injection 13. Always loosen the _____ on the local anesthetic syringe when transferring the syringe to the dentist. a. needle hub b. anesthetic cartridge c. thumb ring d. needle guard 14. The _____ pushes the rubber stopper of the anesthetic cartridge and pushes the solution out through the needle. a. harpoon b. piston rod c. thumb ring d. needle hub 15. _____ is the most commonly used sedative in dentistry today. a. Oral sedation b. Local anesthetic c. Nitrous oxide d. General anesthetic 16. The patient receives 100 percent _____ at the beginning and end of nitrous oxide administration. a. oxygen b. sodium chloride c. nitrous oxide d. distilled water 17. The dental assistant must check the patient’s _____ before administering nitrous oxide and after the patient returns to a normal state of consciousness. a. medical records b. vital signs c. temperature d. tongue 0204551AS02A-14 45 Dental Assistant 18. A(n) _____ is essential to protect the dental team from occupational risks associated with nitrous oxide. a. oxygen mask b. heart monitor c. injection d. scavenger system 19. Nitrous oxide causes a _____ sensation in patients. a. cold and tense b. warm and easy c. cold and relaxed d. warm and tingly 20. If a patient experiences dizziness coming off of nitrous oxide, the dentist should continue to deliver _____ through the mask. a. nitrous oxide b. oxygen and nitrous oxide c. oxygen d. carbon monoxide 21. _____ anesthesia requires a patient to take a pill 30 to 60 minutes before treatment. a. Local b. General c. Topical d. Oral 22. Always apply a gel or liquid topical anesthetic with a(n) _____. a. finger b. syringe c. applicator d. sponge 23. The _____ is the part of the local anesthetic syringe with a sharp hook that locks into the rubber stopper of the anesthetic cartridge so the rubber stopper can be retracted when the operator pulls back on the rod. a. needle rod b. harpoon c. thumb ring d. anesthetic cartridge 46 0204551AS02A-14 Assignment Pack 2 24. The numbing effects of topical anesthetic typically last between 15 and _____ minutes. a. 20 b. 30 c. 45 d. 50 25. Insert the _____ first when you assemble a local anesthetic syringe. a. needle b. anesthetic cartridge c. protective cap d. harpoon 0204551AS02A-14 47 Dental Assistant 48 0204551AS02A-14