Anatomy Past Paper PDF

Anatomy: 1. 70yr old man is admitted to the hospital with a deficiency of understanding of written and spoken language. Which of the following would be most likely neurologic deficit? A. Insular cortex B. visual cortex C. sensory speech area D. auditory cortex E. motor sensory ar...

Anatomy: 1. 70yr old man is admitted to the hospital with a deficiency of understanding of written and spoken language. Which of the following would be most likely neurologic deficit? A. Insular cortex B. visual cortex C. sensory speech area D. auditory cortex E. motor sensory area 2. the damage at which cortical area causes astereognosis? A. Primary motor cortex B. Somesthetic association cortex C. Primary sensory cortex D. Visual cortex E. Secondary visual cortex 3. The thalamic nucleus that is related with the emotional aspect of pe\_ sensation carried from face is: A. Ventromedial B. Medial C. Mediodorsal D. Ventromedial posterior E. Ventroposterior 4. Cortical connections between Wernicke's and Broca language areas on one side of the cortex would involve which of the following pathway? A. Anterior commissure B. Internal capsule C. Corpus callosum D. Superior longitudinal fasciculus E. Projection fibers 5. Which of the following structure does not take part in accommodation reflex? A. Sphincter papilla muscle B. Oculomotor nerves C. Long ciliary nerve D. Medial rectus muscle E. optic nerve 6. The majority of the hypertensive hemorrhages occur in the basal ganglia. The rupture of branches of which artery is most common? A. Middle cerebral artery B. Lenticulostriate artery C. Anterior cerebral artery D. Anterior communicating artery E. Posterior communicating artery 7. A patient with vertigo and hearing loss admitted to the outpatient clinics. At the physical examination no additional finding was seen. After MRI investigation it was diagnosed that there is an infraction is which of the following arteries? A. Pontine arteries B. Middle cerebral artery C. Posterior cerebral artery D. Superior cerebral artery E. Labyrinthine artery 8. Subthalamic nucleus contains which kind of neurotransmitter? A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Glutamate D. GABA E. Acetylcholine 9. Which of the following is NOT the function of basal ganglia? A. The decision to move B. Direction to move C. To provide balance of the body D. The amplitude of movement E. The motor expression of emotions 10. Where are the hair cells of the vestibular system embedded? A. Kinocilium B. Vestibular ganglion C. Vestibular nuclei D. Cupulae of cortex ampullaries E. Microvilli 11. Which of the following structures constitutes the cochlear nerve? A. Central projections of the bipolar neurons in the spiral ganglion B. Projections of the cochlear nuclei C. Trapezoid body D. Projections of the inferior colliculus E. Auditory radiation 12. Which of the following statements regarding the papez circuit is correct? A. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus receives the mammillothalamic tract B. Mamillary bodies project via the mammillothalamic tract to the hippocampus C. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus projects to the mamillary bodies D. Hippocampal formation, projects via the fornix to thalamus E. Cingulate gyrus, projects via the 13. Which of the following structures limits the hypothalamus superiorly? A. Optic chiasm B. Linea terminalis C. Hypothalamic sulcus D. Mamillary bodies E. Preoptic area 14. Which of the following subarachnoid cisterna contains the circle of Willis? A. Cisterna magna B. Quadrigeminal cistern C. Pontine cistern D. Interpeduncular cistern E. Suprasellar cistern 15. Which of the following ganglia influences the lacrimal gland to produce and secrete tears? A. Superior cervical ganglion B. Optic ganglion C. Submandibular ganglion D. Pterygopalatine ganglion E. Ciliary ganglion 16. Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous system is correct? A. Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic system are shorter than the sympathetic preganglionic fibers B. Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic system enter the sympathetic trunk via ramus communicans albus C. Cervical ganglia of the sympathetic system receive their preganglionic fibers from cervical spinal nerve D. Postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic system enter the spinal nerve via splanchnic nerves E. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate from the thoracolumbar levels of the spinal chord 17. The spinal cord ends at an average level between which vertebrae in an adult? A. Lower border of second thoracal vertebrae B. Between first and second lumbar vertebrae C. Lower border of the first cervical vertebrae D. Between eighth and ninth thoracic vertebrae E. Between first and second sacral vertebrae 18. Lower motor neuron nuclei of cranial nerves are located in which part of the central nervous system? A. Cerebellum B. Sacral region of spinal cord C. Brainstem D. Lumbar region of spinal cord E. Thalamus 19. Which of the following tract facilitates the activity of the extensor muscles, inhibits the activity of the flexor muscles and is connected with the postural activity associated with balance? A. Reticulospinal tract B. Vestibulospinal tract C. Rubrospinal tract D. Tectospinal tract E. None of the above 20. An elderly man was diagnoses with an acoustic neuroma vestibulocochlear nerve tumor where it entered the temporal bone. Which nerve that passes through the same foramen is affected? A. Abducens B. Facial C. glossopharyngeal D. Trigeminal E. Vagus 21. Olfactory nerves fibers passes from the mucus of the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulb via which structure? A. Foramen caecum B. Crista galli C. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid D. Superior orbital fissure E. Inferior orbital fissure 22. At which level of the brain stem, lateral corticospinal pyramidal, tract neurons de\_\_ the midline? A. Decussation of the medial lemnisci B. Middle of the olviary nuclei C. Decussation of the lateral lemnisci D. Decussation of the pyramids E. Facial colliculus 23. Which part of the brainstem (mesencephalon) is associated with hearing? A. Superior colliculus B. substantia Nigra C. inferior colliculus D. Crus cerebri E. Nucleus ambigus 24. Degeneration of which structures in the mesencephalon causes parkinsons disease? A. Substantia nigra B. Vestibular nucleus C. Ventral part of pons D. Ambiguous nucleus E. Middle cerebella 25. A larger pathological means on the anterior aspect of the medulla oblongata comprises the all of the following structures which one is exception? A. olive B. Pyramid C. Decussation of pyramid D. Hypoglossal nerve E. Motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve 26. All of the following structures are passing through the cavernous sinus. Which one is an EXCEPTION? A. Occulomotor B. trochlear C. Opthalamus D. Maxillary E. Hypoglossal 27. Which of the following cranial nerve is EXCEPTION? A. Trigeminal n B. Facial n C. Hypoglossal n D. Glossopharyngeal n E. Olfactory n 28. The middle cerebellar peduncle which connects the cerebellum in the \_\_ contains which afferent fibers? A. Cortico pontocerebellar pathway B. Globus embolism rubral pathway C. Dentothalamic pathway D. Fastigial vestibular pathway E. Fastigial reticular pathway 29. All of the following cranial nerves have anterior function EXCEPT: A. Facial nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve E. Olfactory 30. Which dural sinus is indicated by the arrow? A. Transverse B. Superior sagittal C. Cavernous D. Sigmoid E. Inferior sagittal ANESTHESIOLOGY: 31. Which drug would you prefer for first line treatment is mild pain? A. Parasetamol B. Paremtamol plus codene C. Tramadol D. Morphine E. Gabapentine BIOPHYSICS : 32. Which one of the following about CT or MRI is NOT matched correctly? A. X ray attenuation- ct number B. The spin of protons-mri C. Radiofrequency energy- exotation of spin state of protons D. Increase in pixel size- increase in resolution E. High different in CT number -- high resolution CHILD HEALTH AND DISEASES: 33. Which of the following is/are risk factors for acute bacterial meningitis? I. Young age II. Incomplete immunization status III. Basal skull fractures IV. Overcrowding A. I B. II C. IV D. II and III E. I, II, III,IV 34. Which of the following statements concerning headache is NOT TRUE? A. Headache is common in children and occurs at least annually 40% of children by 7yrs of age and 75% of children by 15yrs B. Most parents who C. If the differential diagnosis includes D. Migraine and E. Cranial imaging should be obtained in every child presenting with headache FAMILY MED: 35. The following definition, frequent or continuous mild, bilateral; and vis A. Migraine B. Sinus C. Tension type of headache D. Cluster type of headache E. Migraine with aura 36. 32 yr old woman presented to the family physicians office with the complaint of a severe headache that reoccurs periodically in the last three years that occur more and more commonly. Her headache is a recurrent unilateral, pulsating and stabbing pain with a changing duration 4 to 72hrs. she describes her pre-headache period accompanied by scotomas in her eyes visual held. She describes phophobia and wants to rest be in a silent and dark room. The doctor revealed no neurologic deficit and could not explain these symptoms with another disease. Which of the following is the most probably diagnosis? A. Cluster type headache B. Migraine with aura C. Tension type headache D. Secondary type headache E. Ocular headache HISTOLOGY: 37. The pineal gland body develops as a diverticulum of the caudal part of the roof of the A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Forebrain D. Mesencephalon E. Midbrain 38. Which structure contains trabeculae around which cerebrospinal fluid CSF flows? A. Arachnoid mater B. Ependyma C. Dura mater D. Pia mater E. Gray matter Infectious disease: 39. 65 yr old woman presents to the emergency dept with recent onset confusion and photophobia. Upon questioning her husband, u discover the patient has been sick over the past week with fevers and headache. Her vital sign are temp 39.2 C. pulse 80 per min....... the physical examination is significant for lethargy and nuchal rigidity. A lumbar puncture is performed and demonstrates cloudy fluid with an opening pressure of 35cm H2O, cell count of 1500....... In addition to dexamethasone what is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? A. Acyclovir only B. Oral amoxicillin and clavulanic acid C. Ceftriaxone D. Vancomycin, ceftriaxone ampicillin E. Vancomycin and ceftriaxone MEDICAL GENETICS: 40. Which of following is NOT true? A. Ion channel mutations can cause focal and generalized seizure disorders B. Ion channel mutation related seizures range in severity from benign neonatal convulsion to epileptic encephalopathies that lead to developmental regression and premature death C. Autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance occurs in some families in which multiple individuals have febrile and other types of seizures D. Febrile seizures are generally considered as fatal condition that affects approximately 5% of young children E. In families with generalized epilepsy with febrile seizure plus GEFS+, such seizure may fail to resolve by the age of six years or individuals may experience generalized seizure without a febrile illness MICROBIOLOGY: 41. Poliomyelitis..... A. Is caused by poliovirus which ahs more than 100 serotypes B. Is a zoonotic? Disease that is seen mainly in wild birds C. Has a tropism for striated muscle cells D. Is mainly asymptomatic or is a mild febrile undifferentiated illness E. Is prevented by a yearly administered vaccine 42. Which of the following statement is accurate for the workup of tetanus? A. Blood count and biochemical investigations are the primary laboratory tests in the diagnosis of tetanus B. A lumber puncture is requires for the diagnosis of tetanus C. Imaging studies( CT scan, MRI) of the head and spine indicate in all patients with suspected tetanus D. Serological tests are gold and standard for microbiological diagnosis E. There isn't any specific laboratory test for the diagnosis of tetanus 43. Which of the following is NOT true regarding human prion diseases? A. Presence of flood plaques on neuropathology B. The therapeutic use of cadaveric human growth hormone was discontinued after it was determined C. PrPSC os resistant to standard sterilization D. Most of the vCID causes seen in Europe between 1996 and 2013 were reported from France E. Myoclonus is a delayed manifestation NEUROLOGY: 44. Which one of the following is the most common aetiology for peripheral neuropathies? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Porphyria C. Vasculitis D. Gullen berne syndrome E. Lead toxicity 45. A patient with demyelinating neuropathy and the pattern of involvement in the figure below most likely refer to A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Chronic immune demyelinating polyneuropathy C. Multifocal acquired demyelinating motor and sensory polyneuropathy D. Multifocal motor neuropathy E. Mononeuritis multiplex due to vasculitis 46. Amaurosis fugax is the name given to transient ischemic attach of which artery? A. Posterior cerebral artery B. Anterior cerebral artery C. Internal carotid artery D. Middle cerebral artery E. Thalamic artery 47. 65 yrd old patient admitted the emergency room with right sided hemiparesis, aphasia and decrease in consciousness level. Which artery is affected? A. Posterior cerebral artery B. Anterior cerebral artery C. Internal carotid artery D. Middle cerebral artery E. Thalamic artery 48. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus be detected by A. Visual evoked potentials B. EMG C. EEG D. Lumbar puncture E. Somatosensory evoked potentials 49. Which drug can be used both in focal onset and generalized onset seizures? A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Pregabalin D. oxcarbazepine E. levetiracetam 50. Which of the following is NOT cause a metabolic dementia? A. B12 deficiency B. Thyroid disease C. uremia D. Prion disease E. Hepatic dysfunction 51. Cluster headache: A. May last week to months B. Cluster period often separated by C. Attacks lasts 15-180min D. All is true E. None is true 52. Investigation of a myopathic process includes A. Serum creatinkinase B. Electromyography C. Muscle biopsy D. Genetic test E. All above is true 53. 33 yr old male patient is admitted to the emergency room with sudden onset severe headache and agitation. Neurological examination reveals no lateralized finding except slight neck stiffness Which of the following is a first step investigation? A. Cranial MR B. Cranial MR angiography C. Cranial CT D. Lumbar punction E. None of the above is true 54. 25 yrd old COVID-19 positive patient reported taste loss during her illness. Which of the following terms defined her taste loss? A. Anosmia B. Anisocoria C. ageusia D. aphasia E. dysarthria 55. which type of vision filed defect is caused by a growing pituitary tumor which compress optic chiasm centrally? A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopia C. binasal heteronymous hemianopia D. Monocellular anopia E. Quadrantanopia 56. Which one of the followings can be seen in the premotor period of the Parkinson's disease? A. REM sleep behavior disorder B. Rigidity C. Bradykinesia D. Tre? E. Postural instability 57. Which of the following is FALSE for sleep and sleep disorder? A. Muscle activity is observed in REM sleep period electromyography B. Rapid eye movement are observed REM sleep period electrooculography C. NON REM sleep period is under the control of parasympathetic system and brain activity is low especially in stage 3-4 D. Homeostatic control and circadian control arrange the sleep need E. Suprachiasmatic nucleus is accepted as the body clock 58. Which one of the following does NOT cause demyelination in central nervous system? A. Multiple sclerosis MS B. Acute disseminating encephalomyelitis ADEM C. COVID 19 encephalitis D. Vitamin B12 deficiency E. Diabetic polyneuropathy 59. Which one of the followings is NOT typical symptoms for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ALS which involves both upper and lower motor neurons? A. Paresis B. Babinski sign C. Hyperactive deep tendon reflex D. Hypoesthesia E. Fasoculation NEUROSURGERY: 60. What is the American spinal cord injury association ASIA impairment grade. If ther is a sensory but no motor function includes sacral segments preserved below the neurological level of spinal cord injury? A. Asia A B. Asia B C. Asia C D. Asia D E. Asia E 61. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about cerebral edema? A. Extracellular fluid get higher in all subtypes except cytotoxic subtype B. Steroid treatment is effective for vasogenic edema C. Blood brain barrier is disturbed in all subtypes of cerebral edema D. Interstitial Edema content is cerebrospinal fluid with low protein E. Hypertension is the major cause of hydrostatic cerebral edema PATHOLOGY: 62. Which of the followings are seen in the Huntington disease? i. Protein accumulation in the neurons ii. Pallor in substantia nigra iii. Atrophy of the caudate nuclei iv. Ventricular enlargement v. Loss of dopaminergic neurons A. I, II and IV B. I, III, IV C. I, III V D. II, III, IV 63. Which of the following is NOT correct for multiple sclerosis? A. Sharply circumscribed plaques are seen B. Frequently involves periventricular white matter C. Axonal loss seen in early period of disease D. Lipid containing macrophages seen in active plaque E. Inactive plaque are characterized by astrocytic gliosis 64. Central chromatolysis is a reaction of neuron to \_\_\_\_? A. Ischemic injury B. Degenerative disease C. axonal injury D. Metabolic disease E. Viral infection 65. 75 yrd old man was submitted to the intensive care unit with paralysis on his left side of the body and loss of consciousness. MRI imaging of the brain showed that discrete pale infarcted area in the right hemisphere of the brain. After 10 days which of the followings are seen microscopically in this infected area of the brain? I. Macrophage infiltration II. Extensive hemorrhage III. Newly formed blood vessels IV. Astrocytic proliferation V. Glial scar formation A. I, II, IV B. I, III,IV C. I, III, V D. II, III, IV E. II, III, V 66. 69 yr old woman was admitted to the hospital with stroke. patient died 4 days later in the intensive care unit. In postmortem examination discret small, pale infarcted areas were seen in the basal ganglia. (marked area in figure) Which one of the followings is the most likely explanation for the pathology and underlying etiology. A. Lacunar infarct due to the severe hypotension B. global infarct due to the embolic occlusion C. Border zone infarct due to the severe hypotension D. Lacunar infarct due to the severe hypertension E. Global infarct due to the severe hypotension 67. Which of the following are correct for adult type diffuse astrocytic? tumors according to WHO 2021 CNS tumor classification I. IDH mutation seen II. They can progress to higher grade astrocytoma in time III. Grade 2 astrocytoma's show necrosis or vascular proliferation IV. They have poorly defined tumor margin V. 1p19q co-deletion is the characteristic finding A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, II, V D. II, III,V E. II, IV, V 68. Which one of the followings is NOT correct for medulloblastomas? A. Located mostly in the posterior fossa B. Commonly disseminated through CSF C. They have small round cell morphology D. WNT Activated genetic subtype has good prognosis E. Classified as a "glilal" brain tumor 69. You examine the brain at the autopsy of a 2 yr old male. You were fiber like exudate and fibrous at the base of the brain and white granules scattered over the leptomeninges. Later, u learn that the microscopic sections from this area revealed multiple caseating granulomas and fibrous exudate withing in the subarachnoid space and leptomeningeal fibrosis. To confirm ur diagnosis u would want to learn the results of: A. Gram stain for cocci B. Acid fast status for mycobacteria C. Immunochistochemistry for toxoplasma D. Mucicarmine or silver stains for fungus E. In-situ hybridization for intracellular viral particles 70. Which of the following is a component of Arnold-Chian malformation? A. Pachygyria B. Microcephaly C. Diastematomyelia D. Holoprosencephaly E. Lumber myelomeningocele 71. Young male patient was admitted to the emergency service with seizure, confusion, reflex asymmetry and vascular pulses, rapidly progressed to come and died. The pathologic A. Toxoplasma gondii B. treponema pallidum C. Herpes simplex virus D. Streptococcus pneumonia E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 72. Following transection of a nerve, morphologic changes seen in the distal portion is named \_\_\_ and the secondary pathologic changes are seen in the muscle is innervated by that nerve is named \_\_\_ which of the following pairs are the correct terms to fill in blanks? A. Wallerian degeneration- denervation atrophy B. Polyradiculoneuropathy - pseudohypertrophy C. Onion bulbi formation= type specific atrophy D. Segmental demyelination- type grouping E. Distal axonopathy- perifasocular atrophy 73. In which section are antiepileptic drug mechanisms given together? I. Inhibition of voltage gated Na+ channels to slow neuron fining II. Enhancement of the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA III. Inhibition of calcium channels A. I, B. I, II C. I, II, III D. II E. III 74. Which of the following drugs used in cognitive disorder does not produce in interaction with microsomal cytochromal enzyme? A. Rivastrigmine B. Donepezil C. Galantamine D. Tacrine E. Haloperidol 75. 34 yr old male patient has broncho-irritating and laryngospasm adverse affects during the general anesthesia. Which of following anesthetic agent would be likely to exacerbate his condition? A. Isoflurane B. Nitrous oxide C. Lorazepam D. Sevoflurane E. Halothane 76. 20 yr old male requires suturing for a deep laceration on his leg. He is allergic to procaine. Which of the following local anesthetic could safely be used in his local surgical operation? A. Lidocaine B. Chloroprocaine C. Tetracaine D. Proparacaine E. Cocaine 77. Which of the following medication is used to reduce salivary gland secretion preoperatively? A. Opioids B. Proton pump inhibitors C. Anti-cholinergic drugs D. Antibiotics E. H2 receptor antagonistic 78. Which type of drugs are used to maintain skeletal muscle relaxations? A. Neuromuscular blocking agent B. Antibiotic C. Antiacids D. Opioids E. Antiemetics 79. Dopamine metabolism is associated with oxidative stress due to reactive oxygen species that are produced during degradation of produced dopamine. Oxidative stress is one of the mechanism of neurodegenerative damage of dopaminergic neurons in Parkinsons disease. Which of the following couple is least likely to cause oxidative stress associated damage in dopaminergic neurons? I. Entacapone peripheral COMT inhibitor II. Ropinirole dopamine D2 agonist III. Levodopa dopamine precursor IV. Selegiline MAO inhibitor A. I II B. I III C. II III D. II IV E. III IV 80. Which of the following is NOT provided by opioid agents? A. Antitussive action B. Antidiarrheic action C. Sedative action D. Antiemetic actions E. Analgesic action 81. Which of the following is NOT an example of Gprotein coupled receptors? A. GABA, receptors B. Alta adrenergic receptor C. M type multi, acetylcholine receptors D. D2 type dopaminergic receptors E. NmDA receptors of glutamate 82. Indirect pathway of basal ganglia can be described as a communication network between cortical centers and striatum about planning of motor actions. Below, the symptoms that forms this pathway are listed sequentially in 4 steps. i. Glutamatergic cortical neurons GABAergic neurons in striatum ii. GABAergic striatal neurons GABAergic neurons in Globus pallidus externa iii. Glutamatergic neurons in subthalamic nucleus GABAergic neurons in globus pallidus interna substantia nigra pairs reticulata iv. GABAergic neurons in globus pallidus internal/Substantia nigra pair reticular thalamic and cortical neurons Which of the following modulation of given synapses result increased excitation in thalamic/ cortical neurons? A. Increased glutamatergic transmission in striatum B. Increased GABAergic activity in globus pallidus externa C. Blockade of GABAergic transmission in striatum D. Increased GABAergic activity in subthalamic nucleus E. Increased glutamatergic activity in globus pallidus interna/substantia nigra pars reticulata PHYSICAL MED& Rehab 83. Which condition would qualify as an impairment according to the International classification of Function ICF? A. Short stature B. Loss of hearing due to occupational exposure C. Inability to work due to chronic illness D. Inability to walk one block E. Stroke 84. Which one of the below is NOT related to habituation? A. Cerebral palsy B. Radial agenesis C. Traumatic brain injury D. Spina bifida E. Spinal muscular atrophy PHYSIOLOGY: 85. What does primary motor cortex do? A. Spatial guidance of reaching? B. Planning of sequences of movements C. To generating neural impulses that pass down to the spinal cord and control the execution of movement D. Initial movement of trunk muscle in the body E. Make sense of information gather from 5 senses 86. An abnormal Babinski reflex indicates damage to the \_\_ A. Paraventricular nucleus B. Ventromedial nucleus C. Brainstem D. Basal ganglia E. pyramids 87. a transection made through the pons would cut off the influence of the \_\_\_ thereby causing a lack of sleep state A. ascending reticular activating system ARAS B. ventrolateral preoptic area VLPO C. basal forebrain area D. raphe nuclei E. auditory cortex 88. suppose that you call the information operator to find a friends phone number. When you dial your friend number you get busy signal. Later, when u start to dial the number again, u realize u have forgotten it. This experience probably occurred because the phone number was only temporarily stored in your \_\_\_ A. working memory B. explicit memory C. sensory register D. implant memory E. short term memory 89. all of the following spinal reflexes EXCEPT: A. withdrawal reflex B. conditional reflex C. knee jerk reflex D. Flexor reflex E. peritoneointestinal reflex 90. Which one of the following reflexes have inhibitory synapse during organization in spinal cord? I. Monosynaptic muscle stretch reflex II. Knee jerk reflex III. Golgi tendon reflex IV. Pain reflex A. III B. I III C. III , IV D. II, III, IV E. I, II,III,IV 91. which of the following is WRONG regarding to basal nuclei? A. The putamen and the caudate nuclei are the input of nuclei to the basal ganglia B. The basal nuclei receive information from extensive cortical vein C. The globus pallidus output nucleus of the basal ganglia pending excitation projection to the thalamus D. Lesions of the substantia nigra may lead to Parkinson's disease E. The basal ganglia receive most of their input signals from the cerebral cortex itself and also return almost all their output signals back to cortex 92. Which of the following sign is NOT seen in cerebellar damage? A. decomposition of movement B. Dysdiadochokinesia C. Deficits in motor learning D. Intention tremor E. Resting tumor 93. Which of the following is WRONG regarding to cerebellum? A. Motor commands are initiated in the cerebellum B. The cerebellum contains over 50% of the total number of neurons in the brain C. The cerebellum accounts for approximately 10% of the brains volume D. The cerebellum modifies the motor commands of the descending pathways to make movement more adaptive and accurate E. The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movement 94. Which of the following is the first level of the motor hierarchy in control of movement? A. Primary motor cortex B. Premotor cortex C. Supplementary motor area D. Brainstem E. Spinal cord 95. Which of the following is WRONG regarding motor cortex? A. The spinal cord contains complex circulatory for such rhythmic behaviors as walking B. The so called "mirror" neurons are in the primary motor cortex C. All movements ultimately depend on the activity of lower motor neurons D. The primary motor cortex is also known as Brodmann's area 4 E. Electrical stimulation of the premotor cortex elicits movements of particular body parts PUBLIC HEALTH: 96. 21 yr old shoemaker man after 2 years of working history in the shoe production sector has had lower extremity parathesis, numbness and weakness. Which of the following is the most appropriate preliminary diagnosis for this case? A. Somatization disorder B. Panic attack C. Central nervous system degeneration D. Peripheral neuropathy E. Cerebella ataxia 97. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for dementia prevention strategies? A. Scrutinize the risks for hearing loss throughout the life course B. Scanning the population from time to time using computed tomography for the early detection of dementia C. Priorities childhood education for all worldwide D. Reduce the risk of risk brain trauma in relevant setting E. Reduce obesity and the linked condition of diabetes by healthy food availabity and an environment to increase movement RADIOLOGY: 98. Patient with lung cancer presents to u with newly onset progressive headaches. Which of the following imaging modalities is the first choice for imaging this patient? A. Noncontrast CT B. Contrast enhanced CT C. Noncontrast MRI D. Contrast enhanced MRI E. This patient does not need imaging 99. Which of the following is NOT indication for imaging a patient with acute lower back pain? A. History of cancer B. Suspicion of spondylosis C. First episode of lower back pain D. Suspected vertebra fracture E. Symptoms of nerve BIOPHSYICS LAB: 100. Typical frequencies of delta and theta brain waves in EEG are \_\_\_\_\_Hz, respecitively A. (1-5) and 4-8 B. 1-5 and 13-39 C. 8-13 and 13-30 D. 13-30 and 1-5 E. 4-8 and 8-13 PATHLOGY LAB: 101. Please choose correct statement for origin and pathological lesion show by arrow in the macroscopy specimen. A. Cerebellum well defined tumor B. Cerebellum-poorly defined tumor C. Cerebellum- hemorrhage D. Cerebrum-well defined tumor E. Cerebrum poorly defined tumor 102. A 5-yr old girl has 4cm dimension mass in cerebellum. This is the mild section of the tumor. Please choose correct statement for this microscopical appearance shown and diagnosis A. Whorl formation B. Rosettes globlastoma C. Pseudorosettes medullo D. Rosettes-medulloblastroma E. Pseudorosettes-