ORL Past Papers PDF

ORL – NEW QUESTIONS __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 1) The most effective medical treatment of nasal polyps is: antihistaminics topical decongestant nasal drops non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs topical steroids 2) Most common factor linked to etiology of maxillary sinusitis is: Primary immune deficiency Primiliary dyskinesia mucosal swelling in ethmoid infundibulum turbinal hypertrophy 3) Causes palatal palsy: Vincent's angina Keratosis pharyngis Infectious mononucleosis Faucial diphtheria Follicular tonsillitis 4) 6-year -old child presented with history of recurrent upper respiratory tract (infection??)…. nasal obstruction and hearing impairment. Management will be: Tonsillectomy Myringotomy Myringotomy with grommet Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion 5) The features of Meniere's disease is: sense of pressure or fullness in the ear hearing loss that fluctuates Tinnitus vertigo is provoked in certain head position 6) Complications of otitis media with effusion: Ossicular fixation retraction pockets Cholesteatoma Cholesterol granuloma 7) Most common factor linked to etiology of maxillary sinusitis: turbinal hypertrophy mucosal swelling in ethmoid infundibulum Primary immune deficiency Primary ciliary dyskinesia 8)Which conditions are associated with snoring: antrochanal polyp Laryngeal papillomatosis Tonsillar enlagement Adenoids Angiofibroma 9)Dyspnoea is an early symptom in: Supraglottic carcinoma Subglottic carcinoma!!! Glottitis carcinoma Postcricopid carcinoma 10)which of the following is true about nasopharyngeal cancer. EB virus is responsible treatment of choice is radiotherapy causes unilateral serous otitis media most common nerve involved is CN X metastasises to cervical lymph nodes 11) Laryngeal crepitus is seen in: prevertebral abscess Normal persons Fractures of thyroid cartilage post cricoid carcinoma 12) Which of the following is indicative of foreign body in tracheobronchial tree in a child: X-ray of chest with unilateral atelectasis history of coughing, choking and gagging X-ray of chest with hyperinflated lung on one side 13)Weber test is lateralised to the right. It denotes: Normal right ear but sensorineural hearing loss on the left conductive hearing loos on the right normal left ear conductive hearing loss on the left with normal right ear 14)A hearing aid consists of the following components: Amplifier Receiver Microphone Speech processor 15)Decreased bone conduction in an audiogram indicates: Ossicular fixation Tympanic membrane perforation Ossicular dislocation Damage to cochlea 16)Which cold will produce nystagmus to left: ( (BOOK P.277.Caloric test: remember that warm water induces the nystagmus to the same side; warm=same; cold=controlateral) Irrigation of left ear with warm water Irrigation of the right ear with cold water Purulent labyrinthitis on the right side Irrigation of left ear with cold water 17)Which of the following conditions predisposed to otitis media with effusion: Adenoidal hypertrophy (not sure, in book it’s written that it depends on inflammation of adenoids and not on their size ) Carcinomna nasopharynx Down's syndrome Cleft palate 18)Most common cause for bilateral conductive deafness in a child is: Congenital cholesteatoma Otitis media with effusion OME Otosclerosis Acute otitis media 19) Treatment of sudden hearing loss includes: Vasodilators Antihistaminicum Oxygen therapy or hyperbaric therapy Systemic steroids Antibiotics 20) Vestibular function is the following components: cold caloric test acoustic reflex impedance audiometry galvanic stimulation fistula test 21)In episodic positional vertigo which of the following test is used? Caloric test Dix- Hallpikov manoeuvre electronystagmography rotation test 22) Gradenigo's syndrome is characterized by: CN VIl palsy ((clinical triad of otitis media purulent, facial/retroorbital pain and abducens palsy so CN VI) Retro-orbital pain Diplopia Profuse ear discharge 23) Unilateral secretoric otitis media in adults causes suspicion of : Sphenoid Sinusitis Nasopharyngeal cancer(Neoplastic causes for serous otitis media may be in the nasopharynx, infratemporal fossa or the petrous apex.) Adenoid vegetation Nasal polyps 24) True about Carhart's is: Cannot be reversed (wrong, It is well known that in many cases of otosclerosis the bone conduction audiogram shows a shallow notch. This notch is considered a reversible bone) Maximum loss is centred at 2 kHz (Based on the work of Tonndorf, it appears the Carhart notch peaks at 2,000 Hz due to the loss of the middle ear component close to the resonance point of the ossicular chain. Carhart, R. ). It’is sensoneural hearing loss (wrong because it’s conductive hearing loss) Seen only is stapes fixation (wrong, it includes all ossicular chain) 25)The treatment of choice for attico-antral variety of chronic suppurative otitis Medical management Insertion of ventilation tube Mastoidectomy Underlay myringoplasty 26) Which statements is incorrect: One functioning window either oval or round is sufficient for normal hearing Tone decay test is positive in acoustic neuroma (this is correct, In cases of acoustic neuroma there may be severe or total tone decay ). A sound of 20db is 100-fold increased insound energy (this is correct, A 20 dB increase is therefore a 100-fold increase in power,) Recruitment is a feature of cochlear damage (this is correct, Recruitment, in medicine, is a physical condition of the inner ear that leads to reduced tolerance of loudness. It commonly occurs in individuals who suffer hearing loss due to cochlear damage.) 27) Acoustic neuroma can present with: flat hearing loss Low frequency hearing loss Sudden hearing loss(Sudden sensorineural hearing loss may be an initial symptom of a VS) High frequency hearing loss 28) An elderly man long-standing ear discharge with facial palsy, pain at night…. Malignant otitis externa Carcinoma of middle ear Symptoms can include: pain. discharge from the ear. loss of hearing. a lump in the ear canal. weakness in your face.) Chronic otitis media with polyp glomus tumour 29) Manifestations of leukaemia are: petechial haemorrhages of mucous membrane (NOT SURE, it causes petechiae on skin) gingival hypertrophy (actually if formes gingival hyperplasia which is different from hypertrophy. don’t get confused madonna santa) pale mucous membrane of the oral cavity submucous fibrous bands with blanching mucous membrane 30)In paranasal sinuses, osteoma commonly involves: (my notes. It originates from frontal sinus. Symptoms: no symptoms, only with larger one. Only when it obstructs communication btw frontal and maxillary sinus ) maxillary sinus frontal sinus sphenoid sinus ethmoid sinus 31) Bleeding polyp of the nose is another name for: rhinosporidiosis antrochoanal polyp haemangioma of nasal septum 32) Histological diagnosis of angiofibroma of nasopharynx is made by: FNAC excision biopsy exfoliative cytology punch biopsy 33) Surgical procedures used in allergic rhinitis: submucosal placement of silastic in inferior turbinate laser ablation of the inferior turbinate inferior turbinectomy Radiofrequency ablation of the inferior turbinate 34) Туре of voice in nasopharyngeal fibroma is: Rhinolalia clausa Rhinolalia aperta Hot-potato voice(this voice is typical for acute epiglottitis, book p.356) Staccato voice 35) A patient with complete anosmia will still respond to inhalation ammonia coffee Vanilla 36) In Kartagener's syndrome we could see: (+ situs inversus) cleft palate sterility bronchiectasis chronic sinusitis 36) Which of the paranasal sinuses is most commonly involved in malignancy sphenoid maxillary ethmoid frontal 37) The clinical features of chronic Rhinitis are: Swollen turbinates Nasal obstruction Dysphagia Headache Most nasal discharge ?? 38) A 5 year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the d….decision for surgery? Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be on antibiotic should get X-ray chest before proceeding for surgery Surgery should be cancelled can proceed for surgery if chest is clear 39) Atypical lymphocytes seen in peripheral smear: Infectious mononucleosis(Atypical lymphocytes seen in peripheral smear, Lecture) Faucial diphtheria Keratosis pharyngis Follicular tonsillitis(usually atypical lymphocytes are seen in viral and bacterial infection) Vincent's angina 40) Which of the investigations is most valuable in deep neck infection:(answers are in lecture on MS team) СТ CT with contrast enhancement X-ray of soft tissue lateral view neck MRI with contras 41) Generalised lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly: Keratosis pharyngis Infectious mononucleosis Vincent's angina Follicular tonsillitis Faucial diphtheria 42) Complications following septal abscess include:(book pag 40) meningitis cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis severe epistaxis depression of nasal bridge 43)The current treatment of antrochoanal polyp in a 30 year old man is:(book p. 57) endoscopic sinus surgery Caldwell-Luc operation intranasal polypectomy lateral rhinotomy and excision 44)Type of carcinoma of the sinonasal tract in wood workers is: Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma(Since the 1960s, a large excess risk of sinonasal cancer, particularly adenocarcinoma, has been repeatedly documented in wood-working occupations, often with strong evidence of a dose-response relationship.) adenoid cystic carcinoma olfactory neuroblastoma 45) Antibiotics of choice for acute epiglottitis Is: Chloramphenicol Penicillin Cephalosporin Tetracycline 46) Which of the following is incorrect? A bronchial foreign body: If vegetable??, is less dangerous than metallic one Lodges more often in the right bronchus can be expelled spontaneously with cough Causes collapse of lung Causes emphysema lung 47) Reinke's oedema is responsible for: Vocal polyp Laryngeal cyst Vocal nodule 48) Which laryngeal muscles are adductors?: Oblique arytenoid Posterior cricoarytenoid Thyroarytenoid Lateral cricoarytenoid Explanation: the adductor mm group is made up of lateral cricoarytenoid and transverse arytenoid mm. 49)Which of the following is indicative of foreign body in tracheobronchial tree: X-ray of chest with unilateral atelectasis X-ray of chest with hyperinflated lung on one side History of coughing, choking and gagging 50)Type of epithelium lining the vocal cords : Keratining stratified squamous Cuboidal Non-keratining stratified squamous Pseudostratified ciliated columnar true vocal cords are lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium, which helps prevent physical damage to the surface of these folds ,i think that this is the only answer 51) Dyspnoea is an early symptom in Subglottic carcinoma (airway obsruction and hoarseness, main symptoms is dyspnoea) Supraglotic carcinoma (dysphagia, airway obstruction, otalgia) Postcricopid carcinoma (sore throat, dysphagia, difficult swallowing) Glottis carcinoma (hoaseness, aspiration, odinophagia, weight loss) 52) Laryngeal crepitus is seem in: post cricoid carcinoma prevertebral abscess Fractures of thyroid cartilage Normal person 53)True of supraglottic cancer are: High incidence of nodal metastases Most aggressive of laryngeal cancers Commonest site in supraglottic region is epiglottis 53)Which of the following statements is/are false: MRI is superior to CT in diagnosis of acoustic neurinoma To see the extent of growth in base of tongue CT is better then MRI High resolution CT scan is the best to assess temporal bone fractures 54)True about laryngomalacia are: relieved when child is put in prone position( Symptoms may be lessened when the child is in the prone position, as the excess tissue falls away from the airway) Most common cause of congenital laryngeal stridor(Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of congenital stridor and is the most common congenital lesion of the larynx. The epiglottis is small and curled on itself (omega-shaped). 50% of patients require surgery Disappears spontaneously as child grows Epiglottis appears omega shaped 55) Which of the following is usually associated with smoking: Contact ulcer Vocal nodule cyst of vocal cord vocal polyp Reinke's oedema(Reinke's edema almost always occurs due to longstanding smoking) 56) Selective neck dissection pertains to: Radical neck dissection for NO neck Radical neck dissection with preservation of spinal accessory nerve, st Removal of some lymph node groups while sparing the others Radical neck dissection when nodes are palpable 57) Pott’s puffy tumour is related to: Cavernous sinus thrombosis …culous sinusitis(maybe it’s calculus sinusitis) Red cell in middle turbinate Osteomyelitis infection of frontal sinus ( Pott's Puffy Tumor is one of the most dangerous complications of frontal sinusitis, and is characterised by osteomyelitis of the frontal bone with an associated subperiosteal abscess. ) 58)True of Supraepiglottis cancer are: Most aggressive of laryngeal cancers Earlier symptoms is hoarseness High incidence of nodal metastases Commonest site in supraglottic region is epiglottis 59)According to American joint committee on cancer classification … Tumor of vocal cord with fixation (T3) Tumor involving both vocal cords (T1b) Tumor of vocal cord extending to false cord TRUE= VERDE FALSE= NO MARCADAS NOT SURE= ROJO ENT – ALL Questions 1) With regards to Meniere's disease, the following statements are true: a) It typically presents between the ages of 30 to 50 years b) It is characterized by the triad of hyperacusis, vertigo and tinnitus. (hyperacusis can be present but classic triad ishearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo) c) Treatment involves lifestyle changes such as low salt diet and the medical addition of thiazide diuretic d) Audiometry will show a conductive hearing loss e) It can cause drop attacks 2) With regards to labyrinthitis the following statements are true Except: a) it can be a complication of upper respiratory tract infection b) it may cause hearing loss c) vestibula suppressants are used in its treatment d) it may be caused by viruses and bacteria e) it is caused by drugs 3) With regard to acoustic neuroma, the following statements are true: + a) It is a vestibular nerve Schwann cell neoplasm b) It is a fast-growing and deadly cancer if missed. (it is a slow-growing, benig) c) It may present with hearing loss and vertigo. (vertigo is not common) d) It is usually treated by chemotherapy e) It has an incidence of less than 1 in 100 000 4) With regard to acoustic neuroma, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:a). it is a vestibular nerve schwannomas b). it is present with acute vertigo c). it is associated with facial palsy d). can be diagnosed by radiological MRI e). it is a malignant disease 5) The causes of conductive hearing loss include the following: + a) Cholesteatoma b) Acoustic neuroma c) Presbycusis (Natural aging of auditory system, no high decibels) d) Otosclerosis e) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) 6) An HIV positive patient presents with deep boring ear pain and a red inflamed earcanal and pinna. The following statements are true: + a) This is most likely to be a case of necrotising otitis externa b) The most likely cause is the Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) This should be treated conservatively with rest and topical hygiene. d) Mortality of untreated cases may be one in every five patients. e) This condition may cause a facial nerve palsy 7) With regard to autoimmune hearing loss, the following statements are true: + a) It represents as a gradual bilateral hearing loss b) The condition improves with the use of steroids c) It may present with fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus and vertigo d) It is more common in men e) Immunosuppressants may be helpful 8) With regard to mastoiditis, the following statements are true: + a) It can develop as a complication of otitis media b) If left untreated, mastoiditis can result in meningitis and facial nerve palsy c) Antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment d) Myringotomy should be avoided, due to the risk of further infection. e) Mastoiditis is an indication for mastoidectomy. 9) The following are possible complications of a cholesteatoma: + a) Dysphagia b) Deafness c) Epistaxis d) Brain abscess e) Facial nerve palsy 10) Which of the following may result in sensorineural hearing loss? + a) Meningitis b) Chemotherapyc) Cholesteatoma d) Neonatal hypoxia e) Acute otitis media 11) The tympanic membrane is divided into: + a) Two equal parts called pars tensa and pars flaccida b) A major upper part called pars flaccida and a small lower part called pars tensa c) A small upper part called pars flaccida and a major lower part called pars tensa d) None of the above 12) The oval window + a) Lies below and behind the promontory b) Is closed by secondary tympanic membrane c) Leads to the scala tympani of the cochlea d) Is closed by footplate of stapes 13) The sensory end-organ of the cochlea is + a) The organ of corti b) The macula c) The crista d) None of the above 14) The concept that the facial nerve supplies the auricle is related to: + a) Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome b) Jugular foramen syndrome c) Horner’s syndrome d) Bell’s palsy 15) Retracted drum is characterized by all the following except: + a) Disturbed cone of light b) Prominent malleolar folds c) Decreased drum mobility d) Central drum perforation 16) In a normally hearing person + a) Rinne’s test is negative b) Air conduction is better than bone conduction c) Air conduction is equal to bone conduction d) None of the above 17) Rinne's test for the left ear is negative in: + a) Left conductive deafness b) Left severe sensorineural deafness c) Bilateral conductive deafness 18) The objective method for diagnosis of sensorineural hearing loss is: + a) Pure tone audiometry b) Speech audiometry c) Tympanometry d) Auditory brain stem response e) Tunning fork test 19) The objective method for diagnosis of sensorineural hearing loss is: + a) Pure tone audiometry b) Speech audiometry c) Tympanometry d) Auditory brainstem response 20) The expected type of tympanogram in secretory otitis media is: + a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) Type As e) Type Ad 21) In 40 years female patient with left hearing loss, Rinne’s test is negative on the left side andtympanogram is type As, your diagnosis is: + (conductive hearing loss -> rinne test negative(unable to hear tuning fork); no conductive hearing loss -> rinne test positive (still able to hear tuning fork over the outer ear) a) left secretory otitis media b) left otosclerosis c) left tympanosclerosis (because abnormal conductive hearing loss (ostoscopy)= negative rinne test) d) all are true 22) Fever in lateral sinus thrombosis is usually: + a) Intermittent (slight or intermitted fever) b) Remittent c) Low grade d) High grade 23) Which one is true about pure tone audiometry: a) It gives the amount of the hearing loss in dB b) It gives the type of deafness c) It gives the possible cause of deafness d) It helps in hearing aid selection e) It helps in follow up of the case f) It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea 24) Which one is not true about impedance audiometry: + a) It measures the pressure changes in the middle ear b) It measures fixation and dislocation of the ossicular chain c) It measures the patency of the Eustachian tube d) It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea 25) The test of hearing in infants: + a) Rinne’s test b) Weber test c) Pure tone audiometry d) ABR “Auditory Brainstem Response” (otoacoustic emissions) 26) By central drum perforation we mean: + a) Perforation at the central part of the drum b) A perforation in the pars tensa which is surrounded by a rim of tympanic membrane c) A perforation of the pars flaccida d) A perforation in the pars tensa which is not surrounded by a rim of tympanic membrane 25) Throbbing and severe earache is present in the following stage of acute otitis media + a) stage of salpingitis b) stage of catarrhal otitis media c) stage of suppurative otitis media d) stage of tympanic membrane perforation 26) Most cases of extradural abscess of the temporal lobe: a) are asymptomatic and discovered accidentally during mastoidectomy b) present with persistent ipsilateral temporal headache c) present with vertigo d) present with pulsating discharge, hearing loss and tinnitus 27) A 30 year old patient with recurrent attacks of vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitus associated with nausea and vomiting has: + a) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo b) Vestibular neuronitis c) Meniere’s disease d) Acoustic neuroma 28) Which of the following is characterized by vertigo without hearing loss a. Beningn paroxysmal positional vertigo b. Vestibular neuronitis c. Meneire’s disease d. All of the above 29) Cholesteatoma is characterized by: a) Continuous mucopurulent ear discharge b) A foul smelling ear discharge c) A central tympanic membrane perforation d) None of the above 30) A persistent profuse ear discharge after acute otitis media is + a) Cholesteatoma b) Secretory otitis media c) Mastoiditis d) Diffuse otitis externa 31) A child with an attic drum perforation who developed nausea, projectile vomiting and fever of 40 degree vomiting and fever of 40 degree is suspicious to have got: a. Otogenic meningitis b. Otogenic labyrinthitis c. Petrositis d. Mastoiditis 32) A child with retracted drum and conductive deafness after inadequate treatment of acutesuppurative otitis media is suffering from: + a) Chronic tubotympanic otitis media b) Chronic atticoantral otitis media c) Chronic otitis media with effusion d) All of the above e) None of the above 33) A large near total perforation following acute necrotizing otitis media must be followed up to fear of: a. Recurrect middle ear infection b. Secondary acquired cholesteatoma c. Retraction pocket d. Tympanonosclerosis 34) In Gradenigo syndrome diplopia is due to inflammation of the following cranial nerve + a) IV nerve b) V nerve c) III nerve d) VI nerve 35) Cholesteatoma causes fistula commonly in: + a) Promontory b) Lateral semicircular canal c) Posterior semicircular canal d) Stapes footplate 36) Bezold's abscess is a collection of pus + a) above and in front of the auricle b) behind the auricle c) in the upper part of the neck deep to the sternomastoid d) In the peritonsillar space 37) In traumatic rupture of the drum, which of the following is true: + a) The main treatment is conservative b) Local ear drops are highly indicated (only if contaminants ay have entered through the perforation as occursin dirty injuries) c) It usually heals spontaneously within 3 months d) Myringoplasty is the first line of treatment 38) A patient has sustained a fracture of the skull base. Thorough examination concludes thatthe greater superficial petrosal nerve has been injured. The conclusion was based on: + a) Partial dryness of the mouth due to lack of salivary secretion fromthesubmandibular and sublingual gland b) Partial dryness of the mouth due to lack of salivary secretion from thesubmandibular and sublingual glands c) Dryness of the cornea due to lack of lacrimal secretion d) Loss of taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue 39) The most common cause of bell's palsy is: + a) Trauma to the temporal bone b) Cholesteatoma c) Glomus tympanicus d) Idiopathic 40) A patient with facial nerve paralysis suffers intolerance of loud sound due to denervationof which muscle + a) posterior belly of digastric b) tensor tympani c) stapedius muscle d) all of the above 41) the best investigation done for a patient suspected to hace chronic sinusitis is: a. coronal computerized tomography of the nose and sinuses b. occiptometal x ray c. magnetic resonance imaging 42) The best investigation for diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is + a) CT scan b) MRI c) ABR d) Pure tone audiogram 43) In myringotomy operation the posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane mustbe avoided a) To avoid injury of dehiscent jugular bulb b) To avoid injury of the ossicles c) None of the above d) Both 44) Failure to close the eye voluntarily is a symptom of + a) Paralysis of the trigeminal nerve b) Upper motor neuron facial paralysis c) Lower motor neuron facial paralysis d) None of the above 45) Fluctuant SNHL usually occurs in: + a) Presbyacousis b) Meniere's disease c) Otosclerosis d) All of the above 46) In a patient suffering from sudden severe vertigo lasting for 2 days which resolvesspontaneously, but hearing is normal, the diagnosis is likely + a) Meniere’s disease b) Vestibular neuronitis c) Labyrinthitis d) Vestibular schwannoma 47) Mixed hearing loss may be caused by one of the following a) Otosclerosis b) Meniere’s disease c) Ear wax d) Acoustic neuroma 48) All of the following are causes of pulsating otorrhea except: a. Acute suppurative otitis media b. Cholesteatoma c. Acute exacerbation of chronic suppurative otitis media d. Chronic otitis media complicated by extradural abscess 49) The following drugs are known to be ototoxic: a. Gentamicin b. Frusemide c. streptomycin d. amoxicillin e. quinine 50) In a 45 years old female patient presenting with pulsating tinnitus and red mass behind the drum, all of the following are true except + a) Glomus tumour is possible diagnosis b) More assessment is needed by CT scan or MRI c) MRI angiography confirm the diagnosis d) Biopsy is essential to verify the pathological nature 51) The ethmoid sinuses drain into + a) the middle meatus b) the superior meatus c) the spheno-etmoidla recess d) b and c are true e) a and b are true 52) The key area in the middle meatus for drainage of anterior group of paranasalsinusesis a) the ostiomeatal complex b) the osteomeatal complex c) the sphenoethmoidal recess d) the superior meatus 53) The nasolacrimal duct opens into + a) superior meatus b) middle meatus c) inferior meatus d) sphenoethmoidal recess 54) An infant with bilateral choanal atresia presents with + a) secretory otitis media b) respiratory distress c) epistaxis d) stridor 50) A four years old child presented with left offensive nasal discharge you should suspect + a) choanal atresia b) adenoid c) foreign body impaction d) rhinosinusitis 51) for nasopharyngeal examination: a. anterior rhinoscopy is sufficient b. posterior rhinoscopy is an easy and sufficient method c. endoscopic examination is the best method d. radiologic evaluiatoin…. 52) In patient presenting to the emergency room with fracutres nose associated with edema: a. Postpone reduction for one week b. Immediate reduction of the nasal fractures is needed c. Patients should be prepared for immediate septorhinoplasty d. Postpone for one month before reduction 53) Oroantral fistula may follow: a) extraction of 2nd premolar tooth b) radical antrostomy operation c) advanced maxillary carcinoma d) inferior meatal antrostomy 54) Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is characterized by the following except + a) affects teenagers b) causes nasal obstruction c) very vascular tumor d) affects only females 55) The following are causes of unilateral offensive nasal discharge: a) nasal malignancy b) nasal foreign body c) nasal allergy d) allergic fungal sinusitis 56) All of the following are characteristic of rhinolalia clausa except. + a) it is caused by bilateral nasal obstruction b) there is decreased nasal resonance c) it affects the letters m&n d) it is a manifestation of cleft palate 57) Deviated nasal septum can be associated with (in the exam only mark all of the above in the YES, the others in NO) a) unilateral nasal obstructions b) bilateral nasal obstruction c) epistaxis d) all of the above 58) Functional endoscopic sinus surgery is the operation of choice in all of the following except. + a) mucocele of the paranasal sinus b) twisted nose c) chronic sinusitis d) nasal polyposis 59) in a teenager male with recurrent severe left epistaxis, pallor and conductive deafness of the left ear, you should suspect a. antrochoanal polyp b. inverted papilloma c. nasopharyngeal angiofibroma d. septal hemangioma 60) to define the offending allergen in allergic rhinitis the following is done a. microscopic examination of a nasal smear b. skin sensitivity test c. blood examination of IgE level d. all of the above 61) The commonest cause of epistaxis in elderly is + a) inflammation b) trauma c) sinusitis d) hypertension 62) A septal reddish polyp which bleeds easily on touch is most probably + a) Capillary hemangioma b) Inverted papilloma c) Juvenile angiofibroma d) Dermoid 63) A septal abscess must be drained immediately for fear of + a) Frontal lobe abscess b) Cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis c) Nasal deformity d) Orbital cellulitis 64) Adenoids are removed by a) Curettage and temporary packing of the nasopharynx b) Cryosurgery c) Dissection and ligation of bleeders d) Laser 65) In a 3 years old child with having mouth breathing, rhinolalia clausa and snoring of one yearduration, the diagnosis is most likely + a) bilateral choanal atresia b) adenoids c) acute rhinitis d) none of the above 66) A 4 years old child presented by his mother complaining of lack of attention,mouthbreathing and hyponasality + a) secretory otitis media is suspected b) adenoid is suspected c) both a and b d) none of the above 67) All of the following are emergency cases except. + a) bilateral...... b) nasal foreign body c) epistaxis d) antrochoanal polyp 68) A 40 years old female has dysphagia for fluids and can swallow solids relatively well. this suggests a) an obstructing tumor b) a neurogenic impairment c) a zenker diverticulum d) a stenosis of the esophagus 69) The pharyngeal pouch passes through + a) superior constrictor muscle b) killian dehiscence c) middle constrictor muscle d) hyoid bone 70) rapid onset of sore thoat, fever, anorrhexia and malaise suggest: a. allergic rhinitis b. influenza c. vasomotor rhinitis 71) The only abductor muscle in the larynx is + a) sternothyroid muscle b) lateral cricoarytenoid muscle c) cricothyroid muscle d) posterior cricoarytenoid muscle 72) A 3 years old boy complained of sudden acute respiratory distress, with spasmodiccough,cyanosis & acting accessory respiratory muscles is most probably due to + a) acute follicular tonsillitis b) foreign body inhalation c) adenoid hypertrophy d) vocal cord nodule e) laryngeal web 73) Perichondritis of the larynx may be caused by (all of above in YES, others in NO) a) cut throat wound b) high tracheostomyc) radiotherapy d) all of the above 74) Aphonia is a symptom of: a. Unliteral abductor vocal cord paralysis b. Bilateral abductor vocal cord paralysis c. Bilateral adductor paralysis d. All of the above 75) Respiratory distress may follow all of the following except + a) compression trauma of the larynx b) penetration trauma of the larynx c) inhalation of irritant gas d) abuse of voice 76) The aim of Heimlich's Manoeuvre is to + a) move the larynx from side to side to assess for laryngeal click b) apply a sudden subdiaphragmatic upward thrust to produce artificial cough c) forward pull of the mandible to clear the upper airway d) none of the above is true 77) Subglottic stenosis may be caused by all the following except + a) laryngoscleroma b) high tracheostomy c) post traumatic d) unilateral recurrent laryngeal N. paralysis 78) Stridor is characteristic feature of the following diseases except: + a) laryngeal diphtheria b) angioneurotic edema c) adenoid hypertrophy d) bilateral abductor vocal cord paralysis 79) the commonest site of laryngeal carcinoma is: a. supraglottis b. glottis c. subglottis d. laryngeal surface of the epiglottis 80) In a deeply comatose patient, tracheostomy is made to avoid + a) bronchopneumonia b) aspiration pneumonia c) pulmonary edema d) respiratory failure 81) In a patient with progressive dysphagia to solids then also to fluids, you should suspect all of the following except a) postcricoid carcinoma b) carcinoma of the pyriform fossa c) achalasia of the cardia d) esophageal carcinoma 82) a 50 years old female has dysphagia for liquids and can swallow solids relatively well. This suggest: a. hypopharyngeal tumour b. neurologic impairment c. pharyngeal pouch d. stenosis of the esophagus 83) one of the following is an emergency case: a. bilateral choanla atresia b. rhinoscleroma c. plummer vinson syndrome d. unilateral choanal atresia e. deviated nasal septum 84) the fossa of Rosenmullar is the common site for: a. angiofibroma b. lipoma c. adenoid d. nasopharyngeal carcinoma 85) Which of the following tumors has the best prognosis + a) postcricoid carcinoma b) nasopharyngeal carcinoma c) vocal fold carcinoma d) esophageal carcinoma 1) With regard to vestibular neuronitis the following statements are true: a) Follows an upper respiratory tract infection b) It affects women more than men - no gender prevalence, but vertigo in general more in females c) If left untreated can lead to permanent deafness d) On examination of nystagmus may be elicited towards the unaffected ear e) Antiviral drugs are used in the treatment 2) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo BPPV: + a). is rare cause of vertigo b). Episodes of vertigo lasts days c). Is not triggered by the head movements d). d). Is treated by Epley maneuver 17) Weber’s test compares: + a) Air conduction in both ears b) Bone conduction of both ears c) Air conduction and bone conduction in only one ear d) Bone conduction of patient and the examiner 18) Rinne’s test is negative in all of the following except: + a) Stapedial otosclerosis b) Wax impaction c) Ossicular disruption d) Meniere's disease 28) which statement is not correct in tubotympanic chronic otits media: a) it often results in cholesteatoma b) the central perforation of the drum is present c) conductive or combined hearing impairment is present d) occasional discharge from the ear 29) the bulge seen on the medial wall of the middle ear is: a) formed by the bony semicircular canal b) known as the promontory c) is formed by the basal turn of the bony cochlea 39) Before tympanoplasty in a 30 year old patient, the following is required: + a) Audiogram b) Ensure dry perforation c) Treatment of any underlying nasal or paranasal sinus infection 42) The first line of treatment in a child who develops lower motor neuron facial paralysis after acute otitis media is: a) ATB and corticosteroids b) Decompression of facial nn. c) Exploration of facial nerve d) Myringotomy 43) In a patient suffering from purulent otorrhoea and otic perforation: + a) treatment is essentially surgical b) medical treatment and follow up is sufficient c) myringoplasty is the only needed treatment d) none of the above 44) Slowly progressive conductive deafness in a middle aged female with normal drum &Eustachian tube function is most probably: + a) Otitis media with effusion b) Otosclerosis c) Malingering d) Tympanosclerosis 48) Olfactory cells are situated in: a. Middle third of the nasal cavity b. Upper third of the nasal cavity c. Lower third of the nasal cavity d. Anterior cranial fossa 49) Some diseases affect only males + a. Inverted papilloma b. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. c. Plummer Vinson syndrome d. Postcricoid carcinoma. 50) Congenital choanal atresia is + a. Commonly unilateral b. Commonly bony c. A neonatal emergency, if bilateral d. All are true. 51) This bluish pulsatile, compressible mass which increase with straining is most probably + a. Glioma b. Encephalocele c. Dermoid d. Lipoma. 54) Bilateral nasal obstruction in a 40-year-old patient can be caused by: + a) Posterior choanal atresia b) Bilateral nasal polypi c) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma d) Foreign body 55) A 19-year-old female present with anosmia and crusty nose. Her mother described bad odor ofher daughter’s nose. The most diagnose likely: + a) Rhinoscleroma b) Foreign body in nose c) Chronic sinusitis d) Atrophic rhinitis 59) The most common cause for pharyngeal and oral ulceration is: + a) Behcet disease b) Aphthous ulcer c) Tuberculous ulcer d) Syphilitic ulcer 60) Infection of the floor of the mouth which is usually dentogenic in origin: + a) is called trench mouth b) known as ludwig’s angina c) is called Vincent’s angina d) All of the above 62) The following are signs of chronic tonsillitis except: + a) Enlarged cervical lymph nodes b) Inequality of the tonsils size c) Pus in tonsillar crypts d) Edema of the uvula 63) Antrochoanal polyp arises from: + a) Middle meatus b) Ethmoid sinuses c) Maxillary sinuses d) Sphenoid sinus 66) Fracture of the middle third of the face a. Le forte 1 fracture b. Le forte 2 c. Le forte 3 67) The primary treatment of acute maxillary sinusitis a. Puncture and lavage of the sinus b. Inferior meatal antrostomy c. Medical treatment d. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery 68) In atrophic rhinitis the following sings are seen a. Reddish non ulcerating firm nodules at the muco- cutaneous junction b. Roomy nose c. Greenish offensive crusts d. Pale and atrophic mucosa 69) Syphilis of the nose may cause a. Bony septal perforation b. Palatal perforation c. Saddle nose deformity 70) All of the following are tumors of the nose except: a. Inverted papilloma b. Bleeding poly of the septum c. Pott’s puffy tumour d. Osteaoma 71) The most common congenital laryngeal anomaly is: + a) Laryngeal web b) Laryngomalacia c) Subglottic stenosis d) Subglottic hemangioma 69) A foreign body in the bronchus: + a) Is dislodged in the left bronchus more than right bronchus b) Mostly seen in adults c) Chest X-ray is recommended d) None of the above 76. The treatment of acute subglottic laryngitis include: + a) always antibiotics and antipyretics drugs b) urgent tracheostomy and antibiotics very often c) steam inhalation/oxygen therapy/steroids, only if secondary bacterial infection occurs, thenantibiotics d) only ensure a monitoring in hospital 77. Adenoid hyperplasia does NOT cause: + a) epistaxis b) aural diseases c) effect on the intelligence and mental development d) chronic laryngitis, tracheitis, or bronchitis 78. What statement about retropharyngeal abscess is true: + a) abscess arises mostly from retropharyngeal lymph nodes after pharyngeal infection inchildhood b) the treatment is with parenteral antibiotics only c) is much more dangerous than parapharyngeal abscess d) almost 50% patients with retropharyngeal abscess die 79. What is examined by indirect laryngoscopy: + a) Vocal cords b) Inferior part of trachea c) Enlarged adenoids d) Nasal cavity 80. Tonsillectomy is NOT indicated for the following diseases: + a) Recurrent tonsillitis b) Chronic tonsillitis c) Peritonsillar abscess d) Acute tonsillitis 81. Sudden sensorineural hearing loss: + a) Etiology is in 90% known b) Corticosteroids, vasodilators, rheologic agents are used in the treatment c) 85% recovers spontaneously without medical intervention d) Audiometry is not needed in diagnostic 82. Meniere’s disease is characterized by: + a) Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus b) Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus, without vertigo c) Long lasting vertigo for several weeks and earache d) Episodic vertigo lasting several hours or days, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss andtinnitus 83. The following organism are involved in acute otitis media Except: + a. Streptococcus pneumonia b. Haemophilus influenza c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Moraxella catarrhalis 84. Otitis media with effusion - OME (secretory otitis media - SOM): + a) Is infective disease b) Is mainly caused by Eustachian tube dysfunction c) Is typical for adult age d) Means no fluid in the middle ear 96. The most frequent cause of recurrent Laryngeal nerve paralysis is: + a) Neurological disease (e.g. Syringomyelia, Multiple Sclerosis) b) Malignant disorder (e.g. carcinoma of lung, of larynx, of esophagus) c) Thyroidectomy d) Idiopathic 97. What consequence of the chronic intubation injury can be diagnosed by laryngoscopy: + a) Subepithelial hematoma b) Superficial or deep mucosal injury c) Intubation granuloma d) Subglottis hyperemia and oedema 98. What statement is incorrect - Posterior epistaxis is: + a) Bleeding from Kiesselbach's plexus b) Less common than anterior c) More serious than anterior d) Typical for older population 99. What is true about non-surgical treatment of epistaxis: + a) Nasal packing can be used in unconscious person with suspected skull base fractures b) AgNO3 can be used on both sides of the septum at the same time c) Nasal septal surgery is always recommended d) Posterior nasal packing is used very rarely 100. Intracranial complication of otitis media is NOT: + a) Brain abscess b) Orbito cellulitis c) Meningitis d) Sigmoid sinus thrombosis 101. Cholesteatoma is: + a) Not capable of bony erosion b) Often a result of perforation in the pars flaccida or marginal perforation of the pars tensa c) Special malignant tumor of the middle ear d) Not a potentially life-threatening disease 102. Otologic complications of otitis media is NOT: + a) Mastoiditis b) Facial nerve paralysis c) Parapharyngeal abscess d) Labyrinthitis 103. What symptom is NOT typical for acute middle ear inflammation: + a) Fever b) Sensorineural hearing loss c) Earache d) Otorrhea 104. Local complication of acute tonsillitis is: + a) Tonsillogenis sepsis b) Pharyngeal bursitis c) Peritonsillar abscess d) Septal deviation 105. The cause of parapharyngeal abscess is NOT: + a) Dental infection b) Acute tonsillitis c) Nasal polyps d) Acute sinusitis 106. The most common malignant tumor of hypopharynx is: + a) Adenocarcinoma b) Fibrosarcoma c) Squamous cell carcinoma d) Carcinosarcoma 107. The most common parotid tumor is: + a) Warthin's tumor b) Adenocarcinoma c) Pleomorphic adenoma d) Adenoid cystic carcinoma 108. What is the most common cause of acute epiglottis in children: a. Hemophilus influenza type B b. Diphtheria c. Cytomegalovirus d. Hepatitis B e. Non of the above 109. Waldeyer’ s ring that surrounds the opening into respiratory and digestive system is a ring of: a. Blood vessels b. Nerves c. Lymphatic tissue d. Muscle 110. What etiologic microorganisms can be cultured from infected external meatus in otitis externa,that does not respond well to topical antibiotics: + a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Klebsiella pneumoniae c) Proteus species d) Fungi 111. Characteristics of acute subglottic laryngitis are: + a) Slow gradual development of symptoms b) The most common for adults c) Productive cough, dysphagia, no stridor and difficulty breathing d) Treatment with corticosteroids and supportive therapy 112. What findings does NOT belong to the benign tumors of larynx: + a) Vocal cords polyp b) Laryngeal tuberculosis c) Reinke's oedema d) Laryngeal papillomatosis 113. Superior meatus is the area: a. Above the superior turbinate b. Posterior ethmoidal cells open into it c. Drains the sphenoid sinus d. Lies between the middle sand inferionr turbinates 114. Damage to the little’s area or Kiessselback’s plexus results in: a. Nasal bleeding b. Anosmia c. Cacosmia d. Rhinophyma e. Deviated nasal septum 115. Sphenoid sinus drains into the: a. Superior meatus b. Middle meatus c. Inferior meatus d. Between the middle and inferior turbinate’s e. Sphenoethmoidal recess 116. The following structures drains into the middle meatus of nose EXCEPT: + a) Frontal sinus b) Maxillary sinus c) Anterior ethmoid sinus d) Nasolacrimal duct 117. A young lady presented with acute vertigo, associated with nausea and vomiting. There is nohistory of hearing loss and CT scan is normal: + a) Most likely diagnosis is vestibular neuritis b) Patient is suffering from acoustic neuroma c) Patient will be treated surgically d) It is a contagious disease e) None of the above 118. On the tympanic membrane we can see: +cu a) Prominentia mallearis, stria mallearis, light reflex b) Umbo, prominentia mallearis, incus c) Umbo, stria mallearis, round window 119. Cupula is located in: + a) Cochlea b) Utricle c) Saccule d) Endolymphatic duct e) Ampulla of the semicircular canal 120. Crista Ampullaris is located in: + a) Cochlea b) Utricle c) Saccule d) Endolymphatic duct e) Ampulla of the semicircular canal 121. Audiometry: if the Bone Conduction threshold is 40dB and the Air Conduction threshold is 40dB, then we speak about: + a) Conductive hearing loss b) Sensorineural hearing loss c) Normal hearing in ear fullness 122. The following are possible causes of anosmia: + a) Nasal polyps b) Acute otitis media c) Nasal cocaine use d) Parotid gland cancer e) Olfactory bulb tumours 123. The following are possible cuases of anosmia: + a. Deafness b. Nasal polyps c. Acute otits media d. Parotid gland cancer e. Olfactory bulb tumors 124. Which of the following is the indication for the insertion of Grommet: + a) Otitis externa b) Parotitis c) Glue Ears d) Adenoid Hypertrophy e) Retraction pocket of the tympanic membrane 125. Factors which may exacerbate epistaxis include: + a) Warfarin b) Vitamin K Deficiency c) External otitis d) Haemophilia 126. Which of the following is the cause of progressive hearing loss: + a) Parotitis b) Lung cancer c) Sudden head trauma d) Otosclerosis e) Acute otitis media 127. Which of the following is the cause of progressive hearing loss: a. Parotitis b. Long-term use of ototoxic medication c. Genetic causes d. Sudden head trauma 128. Which of the statements about chronic tonsillitis is NOT TRUE: + a) Surgical treatment is adenotomy b) History: frequent tonsillitis c) Can be focal infection d) Physical: redness and exudate of tonsils, fibrotic or cryptic tonsils 129. The following symptoms or signs will raise the suspicion of a cancer of themaxillary antrum: + a) Change in bowel habit b) Palpitations c) Unilateral nasal obstruction d) Back pain e) Bloody nasal discharge 130. Seventeen years old patient, with fever up to 39 C, intense odynophagia, without improvementfollowing full antibiotics treatment, presence of multiple, large adenopathies in several lymph nodes in the neck. Lymphocytosis in the blood count. All in the last two weeks. Thispresentation is suggestive of: + a) Acute pharyngotonsillitis b) Hodgkin's disease c) Infectious mononucleosis d) Ludwig's angina e) Undifferentiated nasopharyngeal carcinoma 131. At the early stage of nasopharyngeal carcinoma the following symptoms listed below maybe presented, EXCEPT ONE: + a) Unilateral conductive hearing loss b) Nasal obstruction c) Lump on the neck (metastatic lymph nodes) d) Bleeding from the nose e) Dyspnoe 132. Furuncle (BOIL) nose: + a) Is acute infection of hair follicle by staphylococcus aureus b) Is caused by trauma c) Is caused by viral infection d) Is tumor of the apex nasi 133. Sneezing is a prominent feauture in: a. Atrophic rhinitis b. Chronic rhinits c. Allergic rhinitis d. Acute rhinitis 134. The following are symptoms of allergic rhinitis: a) Sneezing b) Epistaxis c) cough d) Rhinorrea e) A blocked nose 135. The following are causes of nasal septal deviation: a) Vocal cord polyp b) Congenital c) Chronic cough d) Recurrent sneezing e) Trauma 136. Audiometry: If Bone conduction Threshold is 40dB and the Air condunction Threshold is 55dB, then we speakabout: + a. Conductive hearing loss b. Sensorineural hearing loss c. Normal hearing in ear fullness d. Combined hearing loss 134. In a patient with sinusitis, the following symptoms indicate a potentially serious complication: + a) Periorbital swelling or redness b) Sudden abnormal behaviour or change in personality c) Severe headache d) Epistaxis 135. Voice abuse is a risk to the following conditions: + a) Epiglottitis b) Reinke oedema c) Vocal nodules d) Tonsillitis e) Semicircular canals fistula 136. The following may be complications of septal haematoma: + a) Saddle nose formation b) Septal perforation c) Dysphagia d) Ventricular fibrillation e) Septal abscess formation 137. In unilateral purulent secretion from one nostril it is necessary: + a) To suspect a foreign body in nasal cavity b) To consider adenoid hyperplasia c) to investigate with CT d) To examine Eustachian Tube 55. We think mostly by unilateral purulent secretion from the nose on: + a) Foreign body in nasal cavity b) Adenoid hyperplasia c) CT of nose d) Eustachian tube examination 139. All of the following can cause stridor EXCEPT: + a) Inhaled foreign body in right main bronchus b) Retropharyngeal Abscess c) Bacterial tracheitis d) Bilateral vocal cord paralysis ENT EXAM 2015 1. The Bezold triad consist is: a. Prominenita mallearis, stria mallearis, light reflex b. Umbo, prominentia mallearis, light reflex c. Umbo, stria mallearis, light reflex 2. With regard to cochlea, which of the following statements is false: + a. It is completely embedded in the temporal bone b. It is divided into three canals along its length by membranes c. The scala media is filled by perilymph fluid d. The scala vestibuli and scala tympani meet at the apical end of cochlea, called the helicotrema e. The stapes is set into the oval window, which conducts sound waves along scala vestibule 3. Valsalva maneuver is used to: a. Otosclerosis detection b. Middle-ear pressure normalization c. Detection of latent nystagmus 4. Autophony is caused by: + a. Obstruction of the Eustachian tube b. Patent (open) Eustachian tube c. M.Menieri d. Labyrinthine hydrops 5. The Eustachian tube serves to: + a. Removing the secretion from the middle-ear b. Aeration of the middle ear c. Equalising the pressure in front of and behind the eardrum 6. The Eustachian tube: a. Opens in the lateral wall of the oropharync b. Is opened by the levator palati muscle c. Wider in the adult than in infants d. Non of the above 7. Which of the following strucutres does not pass thourgh the internal auditory meatus a. VII cranial nerve b. VIII cranial nerve c. Chorda tympani nerve d. Internal auditory nerve 8. Mark the functions of the auditory ossicles: + a. Transmission of the vibrations from the eardrum to inner ear b. Sound amplification c. To maintain the position of the eardrum 9. Objective audiometric test includes + a. BERA b. EKG c. EEG d. DPOAE e. Tympanometry 10. Weber test- (right-handed) patient with normal hearing localizes the tone: a. In the right ear b. In the left ear c. Equal in both ears 11.Audiometry: if the Bone Conduction Threshold is 20dB and the Air ConductionThreshold is 40dB, then we speak about a. Conduction hearing loss b. Sensorineural hearing loss c. Normal hearing by ear fullness 12. BAHA a. Works through direct air conduction b. Works through direct bone conduction c. Works through direct stimulation of the eight nerve 13. Cochlear implant is used in: a. Severe conductive hearing loss b. Severe sensorineural hearing loss c. Acquired deafness d. Congenital deafness 14. Mark evoked potentials used in audiometry: a. Visual evoked potentials VEP b. Somatosensoric evoked potentials SEP c. Brainstem auditory evoked potentials BAEP d. Electric activity of brain is constantly e. electrochochleography 15. Damage to the little’s area or Kiesselbach’s plexus results in: a) Nasal bleeding b) Anosmia c) Cacosmia d) Rhinophyma e) Deviated nasal septum 13. The BERA (ABR) is used for: a) Subjective audiometric threshold investigation b) Cochlea electric activity investigation c) Investigation of electric activity of cochlear nerve and Auditory Nerve Pathway d) Investigation of the air and bone conduction 14. OAE examines: (Oto-Acoustic Emission) a) Electric activity of cochlea b) Electric activity of auditory nerve pathway c) Function of outer hair cells d) Function of the auditory ossicles and eustachian tube 15. Tympanometry investigates: a) The reflected Sound from the Eardrumb) Movements of tympanic membrane c) Movement of auditory ossicles d) Function of hair cells e) Function of eustachian tube (if blocked so can lead to negative pressure and changes in tympanogram) 16. Acoustic Reflex Testing (stapedial reflex) investigate: a) Function of sacculus b) Defense mechanism against Noise-Induced hearing loss c) Function of facial nerve d) Function of cochlear nerve 19. Stapedial reflex is absent in: a) Deafness b) Cochlear nerve damage with hearing threshold over 65dB c) Non-cooperative patient 20. Stapedial reflex is absent in a) M. Menieri b) Extratemporal damage of the facial nerve, for ex, Carcinoma parotic gland c) Otosclerosis 21. Regarding antrochoanal polyps the following statements are true: a) They appear similar to nasal polyps b) They arise from laryngeal mucosa c) They usually appear unilaterally in one nostril only d) They require surgical intervention 22. Curve A of Tympanometry is found in: a) Fluid is present in tympanic cavity b) Obturation of external auditory canal with Cerumen c) Tympanic cavity is airy d) Perforated Tympanic Membrane 23. Semicircular canal are stimulated by: a) Linear acceleration b) Vertical acceleration c) Angular velocity d) Angular acceleration 24. Vertical acceleration (lift) stimulates: a. Utricle b. Saccule c. Semicircular canals 25. Nystagmus can be clinically investigated by using: a) Electronystagmography (ENG) b) Electroencephalography (EEG) c) Electrocardiography (EKG) d) Videonystagmography (VNG) 26. Nystagmus can be registered / We know types of nystagmus: a. Spontanious b. After irritation with water 37°C c. During rotation d. After irritation with warm water 44 °C 27. VEMP are produced by stimulation by: a. 220Hz tone b. Rotation c. Click d. Squat 28. Basic activity of Hair cells in semicircular canals are: a) 400 b) 50-70 imp. Per. Sec c) 80-100 29. Head impulse test examines: a) Acceleration of head and eyes b) Stability of head and eyes during head motion c) Nystagmus d) Semicircular canals 30. head impulse test examines: e. sacculus and utriculus f. semicircualr canals g. nystagmus h. stability of eyes during head motion 31. Air conduction is: a) Conduction of the sound via TM and ossicles b) Conduction of the sound via the bones of the skull c) Conduction of the sound via Eustachian tube 32. The sensitivity of the air conduction is better than bone conduction by: a) 20dB b) 30dB c) 40dB 33. Rinne test, with fluid in the middle ear space, is: a) Positive b) Negative 34. Weber test, with fluid in the left middle ear space: a) Is lateralized to the right b) Is lateralized to the left 34. BERA is: a) Used to determine conductive hearing loss b) Used to distinguish cochlear from retrocochlear hearing loss c) Used to determine hearing threshold 35. Indication of Electrocochleography is: a) Verification of hearing loss b) Verification of M. Meniere c) Verification of acoustic neuroma 37. Transient-Evoked OAEs are: a) Used to determine hearing threshold b) Used for hearing screening in children c) Used to distinguish cochlear and retrocochlear hearingloss 38. OAE, in secretory otitis media, will be: a) Present b) Absent 39. Stapedial reflex will be in otosclerosis: a) Present in lower level b) Present c) Absent 40. Which of these diseases is life-threatening form of inflammation: a) Malignant otitis externa b) Furuncle of external auditory canal c) Herpes zoster oticus d) Bullous myringitis 41. Which of these diseases are not congenital anomalies: a) Othematoma b) Aural fistula c) Appendices preauriculares d) Anotia 43. Erysipelas of the face is usually caused by: a) E.coli b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Staphylococcus 44. Malignant otitis externa is usually caused by: a) E coli b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 45. Contraindications to syringing are: a) Acute otitis media with perforation b) Acute otitis media with a dry permanent defect in the tympanic membrane c) External otitis 46. Treatment of acute purulent otitis media is: a) Antibiotics b) Mastoidectomy c) Myringoplasty d) Ear drops - Burrows solution, Ototbacid 48. Symptoms of acute otitis media are: a) Ear pain b) Hearing loss c) Fever d) Nystagmus 49. Otoscopic signs in acute otitis media are: a) Hyperemic, bulging tympanic membrane b) Hyperemic, retracted tympanic membrane c) Grey tympanic membrane with perforation 50. Which of the tonsils are located between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches: a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Lingual tonsils c. Tubal tonsils d. Palatine tonsils 52. Myringotomy in AOM is performed: a) Always b) During the treatment of antibiotics and persistence oftemperature c) Mastoiditis d) If spontaneous perforation is present 53. Which of the following symptoms are not typical for AOM in young children: a) Fever b) Vomiting c) Papillary oedema 56. Mastoidectomy is not indicated in: a) Secondary meningitis to acute otitis media b) Viral otitis media c) Acute otitis media with facial nerve palsy 57. Symptoms and signs of chronic epitympanic otitismedia are: a) Perforation in anterior quadrant of pars tensa b) Perforation in pars flaccida c) Bone erosion d) Hearing loss and smelling discharge from the ear 58. Chronic mesotympanic otitis media is characterised by: a) Central perforation of the tympanic membrane b) Infection can take several years or also whole life c) Cochlear hearing loss d) Mastoidectomy is needed 59. Otoscopic finding in secretory otitis media is: a) Redness and bulging of the tympanic membrane b) Honey-colored TM c) Bubbles in the middle ear d) Perforation in anterior superior quadrant 60. Unilateral secretory otitis media in adults causes suspicion of: a) Adenoid vegetation b) Nasopharyngeal cancer c) Nasal polyps d) Sphenoid Sinusitis 61. Chronic otitis media is characterised by: a) Sensorineural hearing loss b) Eardrum perforation c) Opacity of the cell system d) The presence of fluid behind the intact eardrum 62. Positivie fistula test is diagnostic of: a. Serous labyrinthitis b. Circumscribed peri-labyrinthitis c. Suppurative labyrinthitis d. Oro-antral fistula 63. Positive fistula sign is presence in: a) Otosclerosis b) Commotio labyrinthi c) Cholesteatoma with lateral semicircular canal erosion 64. The discharge in case of cholesteatoma is: a. Copipus pururelnt b. Copious offensive c. Scanty offensive d. Thick scanty creamy 65. Which is true about CSF examination in case of meningitis: a. Protein diminished b. Sugar diminished c. Cell count increased d. Pressure increased 66. Which of the following complications are not otogenic intracranial complications: a) Mastoiditis b) Brain abscess c) Sigmoid Sinus thrombosis d) Extradural abscess 67. Tracheostomy is performed in following condiotns: a. Relief of upper airway obstruction b. Bronchial toilet c. The reduce the dead space d. To improve nasal brething e. Assisted ventilated 68. Corynebacterium diphtherias is sensitive to following antibodies: a. Penicillin and erythromycin b. Sulfanomides c. Tetracyclines d. Non of the above e. Gentamycin 69. Rhinitis medicamentosa is caused by: a. Viral infection b. Bacterial infection c. Traum d. Cold water e. Over medication with local nasal decongestants 70. Characterize hearing in chronic otitis media: a) Normal hearing b) Conductive hearing loss c) Sensorineural hearing loss 71. The main goal of surgical treatment in chronic otitis media is to improve hearing a) Correct b) False 65. Vestibular neuronitis is most common in: a) Adult b) Children c) The same in any age 66. Sudden hearing loss (SHL) is defined as: a) Hearing reduction greater than 30 dB at least on 1 frequency b) Hearing reduction occurring over a period of last 3 days c) Hearing reduction greater than 30 dB, over at least threecontinuous frequencies 67. Treatment of sudden hearing loss includes: a) Systemic steroids b) Antihistaminicum c) Vasodilators d) Oxygen therapy or hyperbaric therapy e) Antibiotics 68. Which of the following statements about Profound hearing loss are correct: / Criteria for deafness: a) Hearing threshold is 70dB b) Hearing threshold with hearing aid is 10dB (65dB) c) Hearing threshold is 90dB and more d) Speech discrimination with hearing aid is more than 70% (less than 40%) 69. Hearing loss in otosclerosis is: a) Sensorineural b) Combined c) Conductive 70. In surgical therapy of otosclerosis: / In otosclerosis surgery there’s replacement of: a) Hammer is replaced b) Incus is replaced c) stapes is replaced d) Superstructures of the stapes are replaced 71. What is used for correction of severe conductive hearing loss: a) Strong hearing air b) cochlear implant c) BAHA 72. Carhart notch is a sign which can be seen in the: a) Pure tone audiometry b) Objective audiometry c) Otoscopy d) Otomicroscopy 73. In children cochlear implant is suitable: / Cochlear implantation is suitable for deaf children: a) In congenitally deaf children at a younger age than 6 years b) For congenitally deaf in adult age c) For children with retrocochlear hearing loss d) For those using gesture language 74. The treatment of choice of Peritonsillar abscess is: a) Quinsy tonsillectomy c) Interval tonsillectomy d) Puncture e) Tonsillotomy 75. The epithelial lining of the Oral cavity consists of: a) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium b) Cuboidal epithelium c) Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium d) Epitelom Nonkeratinized stratified squamous carcinoma 76. Between separate angina (tonsillitis) does not belong: a) Herpetic tonsillitis b) Catarrhal tonsillitis c) Lacunar tonsillitis d) lingual tonsillitis 86) Absolute Indications of tonsillectomy is: a) Suspected malignancy b) Post-tonsillitis sepsis c) Tonsillar hyperplasia resulting in sleep disturbances or sleep apnea 87) Which of the statements about chronic tonsillitis is NOT true: a. Surgical treatment is adenotomy b. History: frequent tonsillitis c. Can be focal infection d. Physical: redness and exudate of tonsills, fobrotic or cryptic tonsils 88) The most common local complication of tonsillitis is: a. Peritonsillar abscess b. Tonsillar abscess c. Parapharyngeal abscess d. Post-tonsillitis sepsis 78. Diagnosis of peritonsillar abscess is made: a. Puncture b. Direct laryngoscopy c. Panendoscopy d. X-Ray 79) For investigation of adenoid hyperplasia we don't use: a) Indirect laryngoscopy b) Rhinoendoscope c) Posterior rhinoscopy d) Palpation with finger 80) The definitive diagnosis of the oropharyngeal cancer is determined by: a) Biopsy b) CT c) X-ray d) Palpation 81) Most common place of oropharyngeal cancer is: a) Nasopharynx b) Tonsils c) Tongue d) Palate 82) Treatment of oropharyngeal cancer is: a) Radiotherapy with chemotherapy b) Only radiotherapy c) Combination of radiotherapy, chemotherapy and surgery d) Only surgery 83) Larynx is divided in: a) Supraglottis, glottis, subglottis b) Epiglottis, glottis, subglottis c) Supraglottis, transglottis, subglottis d) Aditus laryngis, glottis, subglottis 84) Pathogen of subglottic laryngitis is: a) Viruses b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Staphylococcus aureus d) E coli 85) Symptoms of acute subglottic laryngitis are: a) cough, expiratory stridor b) cough, painful swallowing c) inspiratory stridor, dyspnoe d) inspiratory stridor, stifle, typical Croupy cough 86) Which of the statement about epiglottitis is true: a) Is viral infection b) Symptoms are high fever, dysphagia, drooling c) Typical sign is dysphonia d) Therapy is only symptomatic 87) The main symptom of glottic cancer (carcinoma of glottis) is: a) Dysphonia b) Dysphagia c) Dyspnoe d) Dysarthia 88) Which of the following is not a features of otosclerosis: e. Tinnitus f. Usually bilateral involvement g. Positive rinne’s test h. As type of curve on tympanometry 89) Patient after stapedectomy develops tinnitus, ear fullness, disequilibrium and fluctuanthearing loss. Which is possible cause: a. patient has developed Meneire’s disease b. perilymph fistula due to slippage of prothesis c. post op psycho somatic symptoms d. cochlear otosclerosis component 90) what is not true of subglottic laryngitis: a) the symptoms are more pronounced during the day b) it most often occurs at the age of 1-5 years of age c) the symptoms is a barking cough, shortness of breath, inspirational striot d) corticosterpids are used in treatment 91) which of these diseases of the larynx can be considered precancerous: a) papillomas of the larynx b) polyps of vocal cords c) hemangiomas d) chronic hypertrophic laryngitis 92) Mostly is the Precancerous lesions of the larynx located on: a) vocal fold b) epiglottis c) vestibular fold d) aryepiglottic fold 93) Second most common cause of peripheral paralysis of larynx after lung cancer is: a) lung tuberculosis b) iatrogenic injury of larynx c) non surgical injury of larynx d) pharynx cancer 90) If larynx cancer grows without any signs for a long time, than the first clinical symptom can be a) metastasis to lung b) metastasis to surroundings tissue c) distance metastasis d) metastasis to regional cervical lymphatic nodes 91) If patient can only whisper but the laugh is normal than it is: / If patient can only communicate by whisper but the laugh isnormal than it is: a) hyperkinetic dysphonia b) spasmodic dysphonia c) psychogenic dysphonia 92) Treatment of acute sphenoidal sinusitis is: a) only by decongestants b) only by mucolytic drugs and Nasal irrigation c) By antibiotics, decongestants and mucolytic drugs d) By antibiotics, nasal irrigation, decongestants and mucolytic drugs e) By antibiotics, sinus irrigation according Caldwell-Luc, decongestion and mucolytic drugs 93) Signs of acute sphenoid sinusitis is a) Pain and pressure in upper teeth b) Changing headache, in depth of the head, pain may radiate to the header c) Pressure and knocked pain in forehead d) Pain, pressure and fullness in the cheeks 94) Which of the statements in the treatment of nasal polyps is true: a) method of choice endonasal surgery FEES b) There is no change after using systemic corticosteroids c) Topical Nasal corticosteroids are not used d) Surgery is not used 95) Ostiomeatal complex consist of: a) Hiatus semilunaris, processus uncinatus, sinus maxillaris b) Hiatus semilunaris, processus uncinatus, bulla ethmoidalis c) Hiatus semilunaris, processus uncinatus, limen naší d) Hiatus semilunaris, sinus maxillaris, bulla ethmoidalis 96) Treatment of glottis cancer T1 is a) Radiotherapy b) Surgery- chordectomy c) Surgery – laryngectomy d) Chemradiotherapy 97) Sensitive innervation of nose is supply by a) Maxillary and mandibular nerve b) II and III branch of trigeminal nerve c) I and II branch of trigeminal nerve d) Facial nerve 98) Which of the following sinuses are drained to the middle meatus: a) Sphenoidal sinus, maxillary sinus,anterior ethmoid cells b) Frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, anterior ethmoidal cells c) Frontal sinus, maxillary sinusm anterior ethmoidal cells d) Frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, posterior ethmoid cells 101. A 13 years male with left sided nose bleeding on examination soft palate on left sided is pushed down and there is lobular mass in nasopharynx: a) Most likely diagnosis is nasopharyngeal angiofibroma b) It is caused by viral infection c) Cannot be treated surgically d) Commonly occurs in female e) Occurrence mostly in old age 102. What is the most common site of Epistaxis in nose: a. Floor of nose b. Lateral wall of nose c. Inferior turbinate d. Superior part of septum e. Little’s area 103. Weber test- patient with otosclerosis right ear localizes the tone: a) In the right ear b) In the left ear c) Equal in both ears 104. Gelle test is pathologic by: a) otosclerosis b) labyrinthine fistula c) sudden deafness 105. Stapes Movements through oval window in peri- and endolymphatic space cause: a) standing wave b) traveling wave c) hair cells compression 106. Which of these statements is not correct a. Bezold triad consist of stria mallearis, prominentia mallearis and umbo b. external ear consist of the external auditory canal and the auricle c. The tympanic cavity is divided into the epitympanic, mesotympanic, and hypotympanicregions d. in tympanic cavity are these 3 auditory ossicles: malleus, incus, and stapes 107. Mastoiditis is: a) infection of the mastoid b) complication of acute otitis media c) Tenderness to pressure over the mastoid in middle ear tumors d) Tenderness to pressure over the mastoid in inflammation of external auditory canal 108. Vesicles and hemorrhagic blisters on the tympanic membrane are typical for a) hemotympanum b) acute otitis media c) bullous myringitis d) Acute tubotympanic catarrh 109. most common origin of dissemination in acute otitis media is a) hematogenous b) lymphatic c) tubal 110. Mastoidectomy is not indicate in a. Secondary meningitis to acute otitis media b. Viral otitis media c. Acute otitis media with facial nerve palsy 111. In a modified radical operation is connected a) antrum and aditus ad antrum b) pneumatic system of temporal bone, external auditory canal and tympanic cavity c) mesotypmpanum with epitympanum d) tympanic cavity with external auditory canal 112. Risk factors of mastoiditis is a) system immunodeficiency b) resistant bacteria c) insufficient drainage d) large mastoid pneumatisation 113. Secretory otitis media is characterised by a) Ear fullness b) Hear loss c) Common acute infection d) Effusion from the ear 114. Secretory otitis media is characterised by: a) Ear fullness b) Hearing loss c) Frequent acute infection d) Otorrhea 115. Secretory otitis media: a) Has no medical treatment b) Treated surgically by myringotomy and Grommet insertion c) Is treated by antiviral drug d) Is not diagnosed by Audiological tests e) None of the above 116. We think in one side secretory otitis media In adult on a) Adenoid vegetation b) Nasopharynx cancer c) Nasal polyps d) Sphenoid Sinusitis 117. Chronical otitis media is characterised by a) sensorineural hearing loss b) eardrum perforation c) opacity of the cell system d) exudate in the middle ear 118. congenital cholesteatoma symptoms is a) conductive hearing loss b) perforation in posterosuperior quadrant c) cholesteatoma behind an intact TM d) odour effusion from the ear 119. What types of treatments are used in chronic otitis media a) Myringotomy b) Ossiculoplasty c) Myringoplasty d) Mastoidectomy 120. CT before surgery of chronic epitympanic otitis media is a) It is not always necessary b) necessary in revision surgery c) is necessary when sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo is present 121. Complication of surgical treatment of chronic otitis media a) effusion from the ear b) facial nerve palsy c) vertigo d) deafness e) epidural abscess 123. cause of sudden hearing loss is a) idiopathic b) vestibular schwannoma c) temporal bone fracture 124. Hearing loss in otosclerosis is caused by dense sclerotic bone in a) basal turn of cochlea b) oval window c) mucosa of atic d) head of the hammer (foot) 125. Schwartze’s sign is a) redness behind the tympanic membrane of the promontory b) sign of otosclerosis c) sign of fistula of semicircular canal 126. Carhart notch is a sign which can be seen in the a) Pure tone audiometry b) objective audiometry c) otoscopy d) otomicroscopy 127. in children is cochlear implant suitable a) in congenitally deaf children at younger age than 6 years b) in congenitally deaf at ani age to adult c) in children with retrocochlear hearing loss d) Communicative ability to gestures 128. Pharynx is divided in a) Epipharynx, mesopharynx, hypopharynx b) Nasopharynx, larynx, hypopharynx c) Nasopharynx , mesopharynx, larynx d) Epipharynx, oropharynx, glottis 129. Absolute Indications of tonsillectomy is a. malignancy b. post-tonsillitis sepsis c. tonsillar hyperplasia resulting in sleep disturbances or sleep apnea d. all answers are correct 130. Which of the statement post-tonsillitis sepsis is not true a) is not a serious complication b) thank to Antibiotics it is not common c) symptoms are: pain in the throat, septic fever, malaise d) it is a general complication of tonsillitis 131. Second most common cause of peripheral paralysis of larynx after lung cancer is a) lung tuberculosis b) iatrogenic injury of larynx c) non surgical injury of larynx d) pharynx cancer 132. Autophony is caused by: a) obstruction of the Eustachian tube b) patent (open) Eustachian tube c) M. Meniere d) labyrinthine hydrops 133. BERA Usage (ABR) 1. subjective audiometric threshold investigation 2. cochlea electric activity investigation 3. investigation of electric activity of cochlear nerve and Auditory Nerve Pathway 4. Investigation of the air and bone conduction 134. Semicircular canals are stimulated a) Linear acceleration b) The vertical acceleration c) The rotational speed d) Acceleration in rotation 135. in lift is stimulated a) utricle b) saccule c) semicircular canals 136. The difference between air and bone conduction is: a. 20dB b. 30dB c. 40dB 137. With fluid in the middle ear space Rinne’s test is a) positive b) negative 138. Weber test, with fluid in the left middle ear space a) lateralize to the right b) lateralize to the left 139. BERA is a) used to determine conductive hearing loss b) used to distinguish cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss c) used to determine hearing threshold 140. Transient-evoked OAEs are A) indicated for hearing screening in children B) used to distinguish cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss C) used to determinate hearing threshold 141. mastoiditis is: a) infection of the mastoid b) complication of acute otitis media c) Tenderness to pressure over the mastoid in middle ear tumors d) Tenderness to pressure over the mastoid in inflammation of external auditory canal 142. Vesicles and haemorrhagic blisters on the tympanic membrane are typical for a) hemotympanum b) acute otitis media c) bullous myringitis d) Acute tubotympanic catarrh new: 68. With regard to Ramsay Hunt syndrome, the following statements are true: a. It may be present with facial palsy, hearing loss and vertigo b. It can be differentiated from Bell’s palsy by the presence of cutenous vesicles in the ear canal c. It is caused by adenovirus d. It may be treated with acyclovir and prednisolone e. It has an excellent prognosis, and 99% of patients regain premorbid facial nerve function 69. About angina septica (tonsillitis) not applicable: a. It is not serious complication b. With antibiotics occurs rarely c. Is general complication of tonsillitis d. Symptoms are severe pain in the throat, septic fever, chills 70. Mark evoked potentials according to the type of stimulation a. VEP visual evoked potential VEP b. SEP somatosensory potentials SEP c. BAEP brainstem auditory evoked potentials BAEP d. Electrical brain activity occurs continuously 71. Treatment of acute suppurative otitis media comprises: a. Antibiotics b. Mastoidectomy c. Myringoplasty d. Burrows solution, Ototbacid, eardrops 72. We can observe the incidence of cholesteatoma: a) Inly in external auditory canal b) In tympanic cavity c) The mastoid d) PC angle 73. Weber test, with fluid in the right middle ear space: ???? a) Is lateralized to the right b) Is lateralized to the left 74. Weber test- a patients with normal hearing localizes the tone: a. In both ears equal b. In the right ear c. In the left ear 75. 30 years old male presents with 5cm neck swelling anterior to the sterno-mastoid muscle on the left in its upper third. He states the swelling has been treated with antiobiotics for infections in the past: a. Ludwigs angina b. Branchial cyst c. Laryngocele d. Reactive lymphadenitis e. Dermoid cyst f. Thyroglossal cyst 76. A 4 years old boy presents with small midline swelling that moves on swallowing. It is painless, mobile, transilluminates and fluctuates a. Ludwigs angina b. Branchial cyst g. Laryngocele h. Reactive lymphadenitis i. Dermoid cyst j. Thyroglossal cyst 77. 45 years old clarinet player presents with neck swelling that expands with forced expiration: a. Ludwigs angina b. Branchial cyst k. Laryngocele l. Reactive lymphadenitis m. Dermoid cyst n. Thyroglossal cyst 78. A 25 yr. old man presents with worsening sore throat. On examination he has trismusand unilateral enlargement of his right tonsil. a. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis b. Malignant Otitis Externa c. Quinsy d. Glandular Fever e. Lymphoma 79. A 60 yr old diabetic woman complains of severe otalgia. On examination, she has granulation tissue in ear i. Nasal Polyposis j. Otitis media with glue ear k. Lymphoma l. Malignant Otitis Externa m. Otitis Externa 80. A 60 yr old woman noted to have unilateral tonsillar enlargement. She denies having sore throat e. Glandular Fever f. Quinsy g. Otitis media with glue ear h. Lymphoma 81. A woman presents with deafness and corneal numbness. MRI showed widened internalauditory meatus a. Herpes Zoster b. Fracture base of skull c. Ototoxicity d. Glue ear e. Acoustic neuroma 82. At early stage of nasopharyngeal carcinoma the following symptoms, listed below, may be present, Except one: f. Dyspnea g. unilateral conductive hearing loss h. lump on the neck (metastatic lymph nodes) i. bleeding from the nose j. nasal obstruction 83. At early stage of nasopharyngeal carcinoma the following symptoms, listed below, may be present: k. Dyspnea l. Unilateral conductive hearing loss m. Lump on the neck (metastatic lymph nodes)n. Bleeding from the nose o. Nasal obstruction 1. The movements of stapes, through oval window, cause in peri- and endolymphatic space: a) Standing wave b) Traveling Wave c) Hair cells compression 2. The Bezold triad consist of : a) Prominentia mallearis, stria mallearis, light reflex b) Umbo, prominentia mallearis, light reflex c) Umbo, stria mallearis, light reflex 3. Crista ampullaris is located in: a) Cochlea b) Utricle c) Saccule d) Endolymphatic duct e) Ampulla of the semicircular canal 4. Valsalva maneuver is used to: a) Otosclerosis detection b) Middle-ear pressure normalization c) Detection of latent nystagmus 5. Autophony is caused by: a) Obstruction of the Eustachian tube b) Patent (open) Eustachian tube c) M.Menieri d) Labyrinthine hydrops. 6. The Eustachian tube serves to: a) Removing the secretion from the middle-ear b) Aeration of the middle ear c) Equalising the pressure in front of and behind the eardrum 7. Mark the functions of the auditory ossicles: a) Transmission of the vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear b) Sound amplification c) To maintain the position of the eardrum 8. Objective audiometric test includes: a) BERA b) EKG c) EEG d) DPOAE e) Tympanometry 9. Weber test- right-handed patient localizes the tone: a) In the right ear b) In the left ear c) Equal in both ears 10. Audiometry: if the Bone Conduction Threshold is 20dB and the Air Conduction Threshold is 40dB, then we speak about: a) Sensorineural hearing loss b) Normal hearing in ear fullness c) Conductive hearing loss 11. BAHA: a) Works through direct air conduction b) Works through direct bone conduction c) Works through direct stimulation of the eight nerve 12. Cochlear implant is used in: a) Severe conductive hearing loss b) Severe sensorineural hearing loss c) Acquired deafness d) Congenital deafness 13. Mark evoked potentials used in audiometry: a) Visual evoked potentials VEP b) Somatosensoric evoked potentials SEP c) Brainstem auditory evoked potentials BAEP d) Electric activity of brain is constant e) Electrocochleography 14. The BERA (ABR) is used for : a) Subjective audiometric threshold investigation b) Cochlea electric activity investigation c) Investigation of electric activity of cochlear nerve and Auditory Nerve Pathway d) Investigation of the air and bone conduction 15. OAE examines : a) Electric activity of cochlea b) Electric activity of auditory nerve pathway c) Function of outer hair cells d) Function of the auditory ossicles and eustachian tube 16. Tympanometry investigates: a) The reflected Sound from the Eardrum b) Movements of tympanic membrane c) Movement of auditory ossicles d) Function of hair cells e) Function of eustachian tube 17. Acoustic Reflex Testing (stapedial reflex) investigate: a) Function of sacculus b) Defense Mechanism against Noise-Induced Hearing Loss c) Function of facial nerve d) Function of cochlear nerve 19. Stapedial reflex is absent in: a) Deafness b) Cochlear nerve damage with hearing threshold over 65dB c) Non-cooperative pacient 20. Stapedial reflex is absent in: a) M. Menieri b) Otosclerosis c) Extratemporal damage of the facial nerve, for ex. Carcinoma parotic gland 21. Curve A of Tympanometry is found in: a) Fluid is present in tympanic cavity b) Obturation of external auditor canal with Cerumen c) Tympanic cavity is airy d) Perforated Tympanic Membrane 22. Semicircular canals are stimulated by: a) Linear acceleration b) Vertical acceleration c) Angular velocity d) Angular acceleration 23. Vertical acceleration (lift) stimulates: a) Utricle b) Saccule c) Semicircular canals 24. Nystagmus can be clinically investigated by using: a) Electronystagmography (ENG) b) Electroencephalography (EEG) c) Electrocardiography (EKG) d) Videonystagmography (VNG) 25. Nystagmus can be registered : a) Spontaniously b) After irritation with water 37°C c) During rotation d) After irritation with warm water 44 °C 26. VEMP are produced by stimulation by: a) 220Hz tone b) Rotation c) Click d) Squat 27. Basic activity of Hair cells in semicircular canals are: a) 50-70 imp. per sec. b) 80-100 c) 400 28. Head impulse test examines: a) Acceleration of head and eyes b) Stability of eyes during head motion c) Nystagmus 29. Air conduction is: a) Conduction of the sound via TM and ossicles b) Conduction of the sound via skull bones c) Conduction of the sound via Eustachian tube 30. The sensitivity of the air conduction is better than bone conduction by: a) 20dB b) 30dB c) 40dB 31. Rinne test, with fluid in the middle ear space, is: a) Positive b) Negative 32. Weber test, with fluid in the left middle ear space : a) Is lateralized to the right b) Is lateralized to the left 34. BERA is: a) Used to determine conductive hearing loss b) Used to distinguish cochlear from retrocochlear hearing loss c) Used to determine hearing threshold 35. Indication of Electrocochleography is: a) Verification of hearing loss b) Verification of M. Menieri c) Verification of acoustic neurinoma 37. Transient-evoked OAEs are: a) Used for hearing screening in children b) Used to distinguish cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss c) Used to determine hearing threshold 38. OAE, in secretory otitis media, will be: a) Present b) Absent 40. Which of these diseases is life-threatening form of inflammation: a) Malignant otitis externa b) Furuncle of external auditory canal c) Herpes zoster oticus d) Bullous myringitis 41. Which of these diseases are not congenital anomalies: a) Othematoma b) Aural fistula c) Appendices praeauricularis d) Anotia 43. Erysipelas of the face is caused by: a) E.coli b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Staphylococcus 44. Malignant otitis externa is caused by: a) E-coli b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 45. Contraindications to syringing are: a) Acute otitis media with perforation b) otitis media with a dry permanent defect in the tympanic membrane c) External otitis 46. Treatment of acute purulent otitis media is: a) Antibiotics b) Mastoidectomy c) Myringoplasty d) Ear drops - Burrows solution, Otobacid 48. Symptoms of acute otitis media are: a) Ear pain b) Hearing loss c) Fever d) Nystagmus 49. Otoscopic signs in acute otitis media are: a) Hyperemic, bulging tympanic membrane b) Hyperemic, retracted tympanic membrane c) Grey tympanic membrane with perforation 50. Vesicles and haemorhagic blisters on the tympanic membrane are typical for: a) Hemotympanum b) Acute otitis media c) Bullous myringitis d) Acute tubotympanic catarrh 52. Myringotomy in AOM is performed: a) Always b) During the treatment of antibiotics and persistence of temperature c) Mastoiditis d) If spontanious perforation is present 53. Which of the following symptoms are not typical for AOM in young children: a) Fever b) Vomiting c) Papillary oedema 54. Mastoidectomy is not indicated in: a) Secondary meningitis to acute otitis media b) Viral otitis media c) Acute otitis media with facial nerve palsy 55. Symptoms and signs of chronic epitympanic otitis media are: a) Perforation in anterior quadrant of pars tensa b) Perforation in pars flaccida c) Bone erosion d) Hearing loss and smelling discharge from the ear 56. Chronic mesotympanic otitis media is charaterised by: a) Central perforation of the tympanic membrane b) Infection can take several years or also the whole life c) Cochlear hearing loss d) Mastoidectomy is needed 58. Modified radical surgery connects: a) Antrum and aditus ad antrum b) Pneumatic system of temporal bone, external auditory canal and tympanic cavity c) Mesotypmpanum with epitympanum d) Tympanic cavity with external auditory canal 60. Secretory otitis media is characterised by: a) Ear fullness b) Hearing loss c) Frequent acute infection d) Otorrhea 61. Otoscopic finding in secretory otitis media is: a) Redness and bulging of the tympanic membrane b) Honey- colored TM c) bubbles in the middle ear d) Perforation in anterosuperior quadrant 62. Unilateral secretoric otitis media in adults causes suspicion of : a) Adenoid vegetation b) Nasopharyngeal cancer c) Nasal polyps d) Sphenoid Sinusitis 63. Chronic otitis is characterized by: a) Sensorineural hearing loss b) Ear drumm perforation c) Opacity of the cell system d) The presence of fluid behind the intact eardrum 64. Positive fistula sign is present in: a) Otosclerosis b) Commotio labyrinthi c) Cholesteatoma with lateral semicircular canal erosion 65. Which of the following complications are not otogenic intracranial complications: a) Mastoiditis b) Brain abscess c) Sigmoid sinus thrombosis d) Extradural abscess 66. Congenital cholesteatoma symptom is: a) Conductive hearing loss b) Perforation in posterosuperior quadrant c) Cholesteatoma behind intact TM d) Malodorous otorrhea 67. Which type of treatment is use in chronical otitis media: a) Myringotomy b) Ossiculoplasty c) Myringoplasty d) Mastoidectomy 68. Characterize hearing in chronic otitis media: a) Normal hearing b) Conductive hearing loss c) Sensorineural hearing loss 69. CT before surgery of chronic epitympanic otitis media is: a) It is not always necessary b) Is necessary in revision surgery c) Is necessary when sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo is present 71. The main goal of surgical treatment in chronic otitis media is to improve hearing a) Correct b) False 72. Sudden hearing loss (SHL) is defined as: a) Hearing reduction greater than 30 dB at least on 1 frequency b) Hearing reduction occurring over a period of last 3 days c) Hearing reduction greater than 30 dB, over at least three continuous frequencies 74. Treatment of sudden hearing loss includes: a) Systemic steroids b) Antihistaminicum c) Vasodilators d) Oxygen therapy or hyperbaric therapy e) Antibiotics 75. Which of the following statement about Profound hearing loss are correct: a) Hearing threshold is 70dB b) Hearing threshold with hearing aid is 10dB c) Hearing threshold is 90dB and more d) Speech discrimination with hearing aid is more than 70% 76. Hearing loss in otosclerosis is caused by dense sclerotic bone in: a) Basal turn of cochea b) Oval window c) Mucosa of atic d) Head of the hammer 78. Hearing loss in otosclerosis is: a) Conductive b) Sensorineural 79. In surgical therapy of otosclerosis: a) Hammer is replaced b) Incus is replaced c) Stapes is replaced d) Superstructures of the stapes are replaced 80. What is used for correction of severe conductive hearing loss: a) Strong hearing aid b) Cochlear implant c) BAHA 81. Carhart notch is a sign which can be seen in the: a) Pure tone audiometry b) Objective audiometry c) Otoscopy d) Otomicroscopy 82. In children cochlear implant is suitable : a) In congenitally deaf children at younger age than 6 years b) For congenitally deaf in adult age c) For children with retrocochlear hearing loss d) For those using gesture language 83. Vestibular neuronitis is most common in: a) Adult b) Children c) The same in any age 121. A woman presents with deafness and corneal numbness. MRI showed widened internal auditory meatus a) Ototoxicity b) Fracture base of skull c) Acoustic neuroma d) Herpes Zoster e) Glue ear 122. Which of th

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