NUMS (MDCAT) 2023 Physics Question Paper PDF
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Fazaia Inter College PAF Base Kohat
2023
NUMS
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This is a NUMS (MDCAT) 2023 physics question paper. The paper contains multiple-choice questions and is suitable for undergraduate-level physics students. Exam questions cover fundamental physics topics.
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NUMS (MDCAT) 2023 Question Paper Physics 1. In isochoric process a. Pressure is kept constant This question was tested in b. Exchange of heat is zero LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Volu...
NUMS (MDCAT) 2023 Question Paper Physics 1. In isochoric process a. Pressure is kept constant This question was tested in b. Exchange of heat is zero LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Volume is kept constant of Nearpeer d. Temperature is kept constant 2. If 42 J heat is transferred to the system during expansion, what is the change in internal energy when work done in 32 J? a. 74 J b. 10 J c. 116 J d. 106 J 3. The 1st law of thermodynamic is the generalization of the law of conservation of ______ a. Mass This question was tested in b. Charge Crash Test Session of c. Energy Nearpeer d. Momentum 4. While studying charging and discharging of a capacitor, Rc= Resistance Capacitance is known as? a. Electrostatic constant This question was tested in b. Time constant Crash Test Session of c. Dielectric constant Nearpeer d. Proportionality constant 5. In parallel combination of two capacitors, their equivalent capacitance is equal to: a. C1 +C2 b. 1/C1 +1/C2 c. C₁C₂/C₁ +C2 d. 2 C1C₂/C1+C₂ 6. The S.I unit of capacitance of a capacitor is : a. Coulomb This question was tested in b. Volt LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Farad of Nearpeer d. Ampere 7. 1 kWh = a. 0.36 x 106 J b. 36 x 106 J This question was tested in c. 3.6 × 106 J LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 d. 0.036 x 106 J of Nearpeer 8. Volt x Ampere is the unit of a. Current b. Volt c. Resistance d. Power 9. If length of the wire becomes two times to its original value and area becomes one half to its original value, then resistance of the wire becomes a. Double This question was tested in b. Four times Crash Test Session of c. One half Nearpeer d. One forth 10. When a charged particle enters the magnetic field parallel, it will: a. Deflect toward north b. Deflect toward south c. Move straight d. Move in circular path 11. The dimension of magnetic field strength is same as that of : a. Magnetic flux b. Magnetic induction c. Work done d. Magnetic force 12. The weber is unit of measure of a. Conductance This question was tested in b. Electric current Crash Test Session and c. Magnetic flux practice drill of Nearpeer d. Electric flux 13. The Lenz's law is also statement of law of conservation of a. Charge This question was tested in b. Energy Crash Test Session and c. Mass practice drill of Nearpeer d. Pressure 14. In Fleming's right hand rule, the second finger indicates a. Force b. Magnetic field c. Induced current d. Motion 15. A current generator is a device that converts: a. Mechanical energy into electrical energy b. Chemical energy into mechanical energy This question was tested in c. Sound energy into mechanical energy LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch of d. Electrical energy into mechanical energy Nearpeer 16. A device that converts AC into DC is called: a. Diode b. Transistor This question was tested in c. Capacitor LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch of d. Inductor Nearpeer 17. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called: a. Amplification b. Rectification This question was tested in c. Magnification LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch of d. Resolution Nearpeer 18. In full wave rectification, __________ diodes are used. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 19. The time taken for half the number of atoms of radioactive isotopes to undergo radioactive decay is called: a. Average life This question was tested in b. Mean life LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch of c. Total life Nearpeer d. Half life 20. A 32g radioactive element decays and remains 2g after 60 days. What is half-life of this radioactive element? a. 2 days This question was tested in b. 6 days Crash Test Session and c. 10 days practice drill of Nearpeer d. 15 days 21. If the car is slowing down along negative x axis then acceleration will be along a. Positive x Axis b. Negative x Axis c. Positive y Axis d. Negative y Axis 22. The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is a. Along the tangent b. Perpendicular to the slope c. Parallel to the radius d. Anti-parallel to the radius 23. In perfectly elastic collision This question was tested in a. Only Momentum is conserved Crash Test Session and b. Only total energy is conserved c. Only kinetic energy is conserved practice drill of Nearpeer d. Momentum, kinetic energy and total energy all are conserved 24. The slope of a displacement-time graph is equal to a. Velocity This question was tested in b. Displacement Crash Test Session and c. Acceleration practice drill of Nearpeer d. Distance 25. Range of a projectile on a horizontal plane is same for the following pair of angle: a. 15 & 30 b. 60 & 20 This question was tested in c. 75 & 15 d. 50 & 25 Crash Test Session and practice drill of Nearpeer 26. The product of force and time is equal to a. Angular momentum b. Force c. Change in momentum d. Velocity 27. At what point during the motion of projectile its vertical component of velocity is zero? a. Point of projection This question was tested in b. Landing point Crash Test Session and c. Highest point practice drill of Nearpeer d. Just before landing 28. An object has 1 J of PE. What is the work done in terms of height? a. 1 J b. 10 J c. 0 J d. 0.1 J 29. Power is dot product of: a. Force and displacement This question was tested in b. Force and velocity Crash Test Session and c. Force and time practice drill of Nearpeer d. Work and time 30. The area under force-displacement graph gives: a. Displacement This question was tested in b. Power LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Work of Nearpeer d. Acceleration 31. A body of mass ‘m’ is moving with velocity ‘v’. After a short interval of time its velocity becomes double. How many times its K.E will increase or decrease? a. 2 time increased b. 2 time decreased c. 4 time increased d. 4 time decreased 32. The relation between radian and degree is: a. 1 rad = 57.3o b. 1o = 57.3 rad c. 1o = 1 rad d. 1o = 𝜋 rad 33. In case of centripetal force the value of instantaneous acceleration is given by: a. ac = v/r b. ac = v2/r c. ac = vr d. ac = v2r 34. An electric motor turns at 400 revolutions per minute. Its angular velocity in rad/s will be: a. 20 /3 b. 30 /3 c. 40 /3 d. 30 /4 35. A disc, a hoop and a sphere are rolling down from an inclined plane simultaneously. Which object will reach at the bottom first? a. Hoop b. Disc c. Sphere d. All at the same time 36. The expression for centripetal force is: a. F = mw2 This question was tested in b. F = mrw LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. F = mrw2 of Nearpeer d. mr2w 37. In the following figure the wavelength is: a. 2m b. 1.5m c. 1m d. 0.5m 38. With increase in pressure, the speed of sound will: a. Increase This question was tested in b. Decrease Crash Test Session and c. First increase then decrease practice drill of Nearpeer d. Remain the same 39. In transverse wave, the portion above the mean level is called: a. Wave front b. Wave crest c. Wave trough d. Wave length 40. The maximum displacement of particles of a medium, on either side of the position of a wave, is called: a. Wavelength b. Frequency This question was tested in c. Amplitude Improvers Exclusive Session d. Crest of Nearpeer Biology 41. Na+ (sodium ions) are nearly _______ times greater in fluid outside the cell than inside: a. 10 b. 30 This question was tested in c. 2 Crash Test Session and d. 3 practice drill of Nearpeer 42. Which hormone induce labour pains? a. Estrogen This question was tested in b. Oxytocin the practice drill of c. Progesterone Nearpeer d. LH 43. Hormone secreted in bulk due to decreased water content of blood is: a. Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH) b. Oxytocin This question was tested in c. Glucagon Improver Exclusive Batch d. Thyroxin 2023 of Nearpeer 44. Types of production of neurotransmitters is : a. Postsynaptic neuron b. Presynaptic neuron c. Synaptic cleft d. Dendrite 45. Endorphins are produced in : a. Brain b. Adrenal gland c. Stomach d. Thymus 46. The hormone responsible for production of sperm cells and male secondary sexual characteristics is : This question was tested in a. Estrogen b. Progesterone LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Testosterone of Nearpeer d. Thyroxin 47. Leydig cells are responsible for : a. Testosterone production This question was tested in b. FSH production LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Sperm production of Nearpeer d. Testosterone inhibition 48. The estrogen hormone secretion during the oogenesis is stimulated by : a. Leutinizing Hormone b. Testosterone Hormone c. Inhibin Hormone d. Follicle Stimulating Hormone 49. Which of the following hormones of the pituitary gland regulate the menstrual cycle? a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone and estrogen b. Luteinizing hormone and estrogen c. Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing hormone d. Estrogen and progesterone 50. Which of the following traits is transmitted directly from an affected father to only his son? a. Autosomal This question was tested in b. X-linked the practice drill of c. Y-linked Nearpeer d. X-Y linked 51. When both the alleles of a gene pair are same, the organism is said to be : a. Heterozygous This question was tested in b. Genotype LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Homozygous of Nearpeer d. Phenotype 52. This theory says that "mitochondria and chloroplasts are, In effect, ancient bacteria which now live inside the larger cells"? a. Darwin's theory of evolution b. Lamarckism c. Neo-darwinism d. Endosymbiont theory 53. The organs which are similar in function but differ in structure are called: a. Analogous organs This question was tested in b. Homologous organs LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Convergent organs of Nearpeer d. Divergent organs 54. Which may NOT be a mode of action of an antibody? a. Neutralizing an antigen b. Precipitating an antigen c. Secretion of cytokines d. Enhancing phagocytosis 55. Pepsinogen is converted into its active form pepsin by : a. Proteolytic enzyme action This question was tested in b. Dissolving in mucus Crash Test Session of c. Hormonal action Nearpeer d. Hydrochloric acid 56. Intrinsic factor is secreted by : a. Pancreas This question was tested in b. Liver the practice drill of c. Stomach Nearpeer d. Duodenum 57. The cells which play very important role in developing Immunity are : a. Monocytes b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes 58. Digestion of which food component start from oral cavity? a. Proteins b. Fats c. Carbohydrates d. Vitamins 59. Vaccination is an example of : This question was tested in a. Natural passive immunity b. Natural active immunity Practice Drill 2023 of c. Acquired/Artificial active immunity Nearpeeer d. Acquired/ Artificial passive immunity 60. The heart chamber from where aorta originates : a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium 61. Pubic symphysis and inter vertebral disc are the example of : a. Fibrous joints This question was tested in b. Synovial joints the practice drill of c. Cartilaginous joints Nearpeer d. Gliding joints 62. Cartilage is more difficult to heal than bone because cartilage : a. Lacks vascular supply b. Lacks mineral deposits in matrix c. Has less number of cells deep down d. Lacks protein in matrix 63. Which feature is absent from cardiac muscles? a. Intercalated disc This question was tested in b. Multinucleate cells the practice drill of c. Light and dark bands Nearpeer d. Contractile sarcomeres 64. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibers is mainly responsible for : a. Calcium storage k b. Protein synthesis c. Upid metabolism d. Storing cell wastes 65. The junction between two neurons is : a. Impulse This question was tested in b. Synapse Improver Test Session of c. Axon. Nearpeer d. Cleft 66. Which hormone is chemically a steroid? a. ADH b. Thyroxin This question was tested in c. Cortisone Improver Test Session of d. Insulin Nearpeer 67. Under activity of parathyroid glands causes a drop in blood of : a. Mg++ b. Na+ c. K+ d. Ca++ 68. Which of the following protein establishes the matrix of bone & cartilage? a. Elastin b. Keratin c. Collagen d. Histone 69. Non-competitive inhibitors react with enzymes at : a. Allosteric site This question was tested in b. Active site the practice drill of c. Passive site Nearpeer d. Regulatory site 70. Most enzymes work the best at the following temperature : a 30°C This question was tested in b. 40°C the practice drill of c. 50°C Nearpeer d. 20°C 71. In term of enzyme action, 'maximum temperature' refers to a temperature at which : a. Enzymes start to denature b. Enzymes start to re-nature c. Enzymes work best d. Enzymes are reactivated 72. ________reduce the enzymes productivity by blocking the entering into the active site due to similar shapes a. Competitive inhibitors This question was tested in b. Non competitive inhibitors the practice drill of c. Co-enzymes Nearpeer d. Activators 73. When light falls on P-700, which event is likely to occur? a. It induces photolysis b. Gains Hydrogen c. Accept electrons d. It is oxidised 74. Which of the following molecules are released after completion of light reaction and then utilized in the dark reaction of photosynthesis? a. ATP and NADP + b. ATP and NADPH+ c. ADP and NADP d. ADP and NADPM 75. Which are the end products of light reactions of photosynthesis? a. ATP and NADPH This question was tested in b. ATP and glucose Improver Test Session of c. Glucose and NADP d. ATP and water Nearpeer 76. Synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis takes place at the region : a. Stroma b. Thylakoid This question was tested in c. Matrix Improver Test Session of d. Cisternae Nearpeer 77. The complete, mature and infectious virus particle is known as : a. Venome b. Genome This question was tested in c. Virion Improver Test Session of d. Capsid Nearpeer 78. All viruses are : a. Autotrophs This question was tested in b. Heterotrophs Improver Test Session of c. Parasites Nearpeer d. Predators 79.. _________ increases the pathogenicity of bacteria : a. Capsule This question was tested in b. Cell wall Crash Test Session of c. Slime Nearpeer d. Cell membrane 80. The smallest known bacteria belong to the genus : a. Escherichia b. Streptococcus This question was tested in c. Mycoplasma Improver Test Session of d. Bacillus Nearpeer 81. Mesentric veins drain the blood from : a. Liver b. Large intestine c. Stomach d. Gall bladder 82. Secondary cell wall in plants is present : a. Outer to primary cell wall b. In between two primary cell walls c. Between the primary cell wall and plasma membrane d. Inner to plasma membrane 83. What distinguishes Prokaryotic cell wall from Fungal cell wall? a. Prokaryotic cell wall contains cellulose b. Prokaryotic cell wall contains peptidoglycan This question was tested in c. Prokaryotic cell wall contains cutin Crash Test Session of d. Prokaryotic cell wall contains silica Nearpeer 84. Pollination is facilitated by : a. Chloroplast b. Chromoplast c. Leucoplast d. Amyloplast 85. Tonoplast is the membrane separating : a. Vacuole and Nucleoplasm b. Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm c. Vacuole and Stroma d. Vacuole and Cytoplasm 86. Each centriole is composed of a. Seven Triplets This question was tested in b. Eleven Triplets Crash Test Session of c. Nine Triplets Nearpeer d. Five Triplets 87. The folds of Inner Membrane of mitochondria are called : a. Cisternae This question was tested in b. Cristae Crash Test Session of c. Mesosome Nearpeer d. Infolds 88. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane, which zone is embedded a. Hydrophobic b. Hydrophilic c. Globular d. Filamentous 89. Select the one which is NOT a function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)? a. Metabolism of lipids This question was tested in b. Transmission of impulses Crash Test Session of c. Transport of materials Nearpeer d. Processing of glycoproteins 90. Cell membrane also contains by which exchange of material and active & passive transport takes place : a. Lipids This question was tested in b. Corner Proteins LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Charged Pores of Nearpeer d. Processing of glycoproteins 91. _________ spherical sacs, surrounded by a single membrane and contain hydrolytic enzymes : a. Mitochondria b. Golgi Bodies c. Lysosomes d. Chloroplast 92. Most abundant organic compound in mammalian cells are : a. Water This question was tested in b. Lipids the practice drill of c. Carbohydrates Nearpeer d. Proteins 93. Thermal stability of organisms in the environment is because of which characteristic of water? a. Solvent property b. Heat capacity c. lionization d. Protection 94. C-H bonds in lipids are important : a. As insulating material b. Providing more energy c. As exoskeleton d. As cuticle of leaves 95. These carbohydrates are sweetest among all carbohydrates : a. Monosaccharides b. Disaccharides c. Oligosaccharides This question was tested in d. Polysaccharides LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 of Nearpeer English 96. I__________ English for five years. a. Study This question was tested in b. Am Studying LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Have been studying of Nearpeer d. studies 97. The soup_______ good a. Taste This question was tested in b. Tastes the practice drill of c. Is tasting Nearpeer d. Has taste 98. Unless we ________ now, we cannot be on time a. Start b. Will start c. Do not start d. Are starting 99. Daud is better than------of the college. This question was tested in a. All teachers the practice drill of b. Any teachers Nearpeer c. All other teachers d. Any teacher 100. Abide_____ the traffic laws for smooth and safe flow of traffic a. On b. With c. By d. To 101. He prefers death____ dishonor. a. Over b. On c. Upon d. To 102. What does the word "SURPLUS" mean? a. In excess This question was tested in b. mathematical term the practice drill of c. Within reach Nearpeer d. Salutation 103. What does the word "SPILL" mean? a. Coil b. Deliver c. Spoil d. Spread 104. What does the word "CURIOUS" mean? a. Keen This question was tested in the practice drill of Nearpeer b. Careful c. Quest d. Cruel 105. Pick the sentence with correct punctuation: a. He had one motto "serving humanity." This question was tested in b. He, had one motto, Serving humanity. the practice drill of c. He had one motto; serving humanity. Nearpeer d. He had one motto: serving humanity. 106. Pick the word with correct spelling: a. Collique b. Colleague c. Collegue d. Co-leageu 107. Pick the word with correct spelling: a. Acquaintance b. Equatance c. Equantence d. Equentense 108. Pick the word with correct spelling: a. Prayority b. Priarity c. Prioarily d. Priority 109. Pick the sentence with correct punctuation: a. "He did his best that was all anyone could do in any job". b. He did his best, that was all anyone could do in any job. This question was tested in c. "He did his best: that was all anyone could do in any job" LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 d. "He did his best; that was all anyone could do in any job". of Nearpeer 110. Pick the correct option: a. How has the chair leg broken? b. How has the leg of the chair broken? c. How the leg of the chair has broken? d. How the chair's leg is broken? CHEMISTRY 111. Vapor pressure is independent of which factor? a. Temperature This question was tested in b. Density of liquid LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Intermolecular forces of Nearpeer d. Surface area of liquid 112. The boiling point of ether is less as compared to alcohols and phenols due to: a. Functional group b. Intermolecular forces c. Nature of alkyl groups d. Isomerism 113. When 2 ice cubes are pressed over each other they unite to form one cube due to: a. Dipole Dipole attraction This question was tested in b. Covalent attraction LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Van der Waal's forces of Nearpeer d. H - bonding 114. Which statement correctly describes the structure of sodium chloride crystal? a. Each sodium ion is surrounded by six chloride ions and each chloride ions surrounded by six sodium ions This question b. The crystal is face centered cubic structure was tested in c. Each sodium ion is surrounded by 3 chloride ions and each chloride ion Improver surrounded by 3 sodium ions Test Session d. Inter molecular forces are present between two oppositely charges ions of Nearpeer 115. The greater Lattice energy is shown by: a. NaCl b. NaBr This question was tested in c. Nal LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 d. NaF of Nearpeer 116. Thermal conductivity of metals is due to a. Layered structure of of metals b. Freely moving electrons c. Loosely hold metal atoms d. Vibrational movement of metals 117. The high pressure of 200 atm in Haber's process is used for: a. Better yield This question was tested in b. Lower yield LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Lower rate of Nearpeer d. Cost decrease 118. By which of the following factors equilibrium state is attained earlier? a. Temperature This question was tested in b. Pressure LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Concentration of Nearpeer d. Catalyst 119. When temperature of reacting gases is raised by 10 K, the reaction ratio will increase to: a. Double This question was tested in b. Three times LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Four times of Nearpeer d. Five times 120. The minimum amount of energy required by the colliding particles for effective collisions is called: a. Activation energy This question was tested in b. Lattice energy LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 of Nearpeer c. Bond energy d. Hydration energy 121. Which of the following is not a state function? a. Pressure (P) This question was tested in b. Work (W) LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Volume (V) of Nearpeer d. Temperature (T) 122. Equation represents which energy change? Mg2+ (g) + O2- (g) MgO(s) a. Atomization b. Neutralization sec c. Lattice energy d. Solution 123. When nitric oxide reacts with ozone, the order of reaction will be: a. 2nd This question was tested in b. 3rd LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. 1st of Nearpeer d. Zero 124. During electrolysis, reduction always occurs at the: a. Anode b. Cathode c. SHE d. Salt bridge 125. The reason highest electronegativity value of Fluorine is: a. Complete outermost Shell b. Ability to form negative ion c. Existence as diatomic molecule d. Smaller size and nuclear charge in the respective period 126. Valance shell electron pair repulsion theory explains: a. Bond Energy b. Bond Length c. Shapes and Bond Energy d. Shapes 127. Which of the following has SP3 hybridization? a. BF3 This question was tested in b. C2H4 LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. BeCl2 of Nearpeer d. CH4 128. The factor which is not affecting bond length is: a. Pressure of multiple bonds This question was b. Nature of hybridization present tested in c. Difference in electronegativity between the two bonded atoms LMDCAT Yaqeen d. lonization energies of the two bonded atoms Batch 2023 of 129. Which of the following substance is malleable and ductile? Nearpeer a. Sodium chloride b. Copper sulphate c. Mercury d. Aluminum 130. Co-ordination number of Na is: a. 10 b. 9 c. 8 d. 12 131. The cracking method used to obtain better quality gasoline is: a. Thermal b. Catalytic c. Steam d. Radiations 132. Homocyclic organic compounds are sub divided into two types namely: a. Alicyclic and Aromatic b. Open chain and branched chain c. Aromatic and non-aromatic d. Antiaromatic and antialicyclic 133. Acetophenone can be formed by which of the following reaction of benzene? a. Alkylation This question was tested in b. Acylation Improver Test Session of c. Halogenation Nearpeer d. Nitration 134. Generic formula of cycloalkane is: a. CnH2n+2 b. CnH2n c. CnH2n-1 d. CnCH2n-2 135. Which of the following reactions differentiates alcohol from pheno!? a. Lucas test This question was tested in b. Halogenations LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Ntration of Nearpeer d. Idoform test 136. The order of reactivity of alcohol when C-O bond breaks is: a. Tertiary alcohol > secondary alcohol > Primary alcohol b. Secondary alcohol> primary alcohol>tertiary alcohol c. Primary alcohol> secondary alcohol> tertiary alcohol d. Tertiary alcohol> primary alcohol> secondary alcohol 137. CnH2nO is the general formula of: a. Ether This question was tested in b. Carboxylic acid LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Ketones of Nearpeer d. Carbolic acid 138. Catalytic reduction of aldehyde & Ketone forms: a. Alcohol b. Carboxylic acid This question was tested in c. Alkane LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 d. Aldehyde of Nearpeer 139. Which of the following reacts with Carboxylic Acid to form Ester? a. Aldehyde This question was tested in b. Alkyl Halide Improver Test Session of c. Ketones Nearpeer d. Alcohol 140. Hydrolysis of Nitriles produces: a. Carboxylic acid This question was tested in b. Aldehydes LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Ketones of Nearpeer d. Esters 141. What is the mass of sulphur in 24.5 g of H2SO4 a. 32 g b. 24 g This question was tested in c. 16 g Improver Test Session of d. 8g Nearpeer 142. From the equation (N2+3H2 2NH3), how many moles of NH, are produced from 2.5 moles of N2? a. 2.5 moles This question was tested in b. 2 moles Improver Test Session of c. 5 moles Nearpeer d. 7.5 moles 143. The amount of energy associated with quantum of radiation is directly proportional to: a. Photon This question was tested in b. Wavelength Improver Test Session of c. Frequency Nearpeer d. Velocity 144. If value of azimuthal quantum number is 2 then total values of magnetic quantum number will be: a. 03 b. 05 This question was tested in c. 07 LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 d. 10 of Nearpeer 145. Total number of directions of f-orbitals in space are: a. 05 This question was tested in LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 of Nearpeer b. 03 c. 07 d. 06 146. Which of the following quantum number is not obtained from Schrodinger Wave equation? a. Principal Quantum Number This question was tested in b. Spin Quantum Number Improver Test Session of c. Azimuthal Quantum Number Nearpeer d. Magnetic Quantum Number 147. The electronic configuration for degenerate orbitals is explained by: a. Aufbau Principle This question was tested in b. n +I rule Improver Test Session of c. Hund's rule Nearpeer d. Pauli exclusion principle 148. The idea that molecules in gases are in constant movement is called: a. Kinetic theory of gases b. Crystal field theory c. Molecular orbital theory d. Transition state theory 149. The SI unit for pressure is: a. mm of Hg This question was tested in b. Pascal LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Bar of Nearpeer d. Torr 150. If both Cannot temperature be predicted and volume of gas are doubled, the pressure: a. Cannot be predicted This question was tested in b. Is reduced to 1/2 LMDCAT Yaqeen Batch 2023 c. Remains unchanged of Nearpeer d. Is doubled Answer Key 1 C 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 D 9 B 10 C 11 B 12 C 13 B 14 C 15 A 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 D 20 D 21 A 22 A 23 D 24 A 25 C 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 B 30 C 31 C 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 C 36 C 37 C 38 D 39 B 40 C 41 A 42 B 43 A 44 B 45 A 46 C 47 A 48 A 49 C 50 C 51 C 52 D 53 A 54 C 55 D 56 C 57 C 58 C 59 C 60 A 61 C 62 A 63 B 64 A 65 B 66 C 67 D 68 C 69 A 70 B 71 A 72 A 73 D 74 B 75 A 76 B 77 C 78 C 79 C 80 C 81 B 82 C 83 B 84 B 85 D 86 C 87 B 88 A 89 D 90 C 91 C 92 D 93 B 94 B 95 A 96 C 97 B 98 A 99 C 100 C 101 D 102 A 103 D 104 A 105 D 106 B 107 A 108 D 109 D 110 A 111 D 112 B 113 D 114 B 115 D 116 B 117 A 118 D 119 A 120 A 121 B 122 C 123 A 124 B 125 D 126 D 127 D 128 D 129 D 130 D 131 B 132 A 133 B 134 B 135 B 136 A 137 C 138 A 139 D 140 A 141 D 142 C 143 C 144 B 145 C 146 B 147 C 148 A 149 B 150 C