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Chap 05 3e Which of the following word roots refers to muscle? Myo/o Myco/o C) Sacr/o D) Sthen/o Which of the following word roots refers to strength? Myo/o Muscul/o Sacr/o Sthen/o Which of the following word roots refers to the flesh? Myo/o Muscul/o Sarc/o Sthen/o Which of the following terms refers to the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts? Insertion Origin Belly Tendon Which of the following terms refers to the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure thatdoes move when the muscle contracts? Insertion Origin Belly Tendon Which of the following terms refers to a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in the same body region? Bipennate Concentric Intrinsic Extrinsic Which of the following terms refers to a muscle that has an origin located in a different body region than its insertion? Concentric Unipennate Intrinsic Extrinsic What does the term intrinsic refer to in regard to muscle? Intrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in the same body region. Intrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in different body regions. Intrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts. Intrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does move when the muscle contracts. What does the term extrinsic refer to in regard to muscle? Extrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in the same body region. Extrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in different body regions. Extrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts. Extrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does move when the muscle contracts. What is a fixator? A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle A muscle that has the same action The main muscle of the synergist to perform the action D) A muscle that has the opposite action What is a prime mover? A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle A muscle that has the same action as the antagonist The main muscle that performs an action A muscle that has the opposite action of the synergist What is a synergist? A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle A muscle that has the same action as the prime mover A muscle that opposes the agonist A muscle that has the opposite action of the primer mover What is an antagonist? A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle A muscle that has the same action as the agonist A muscle that aids the prime mover A muscle that has the opposite action of the prime mover What is the term for a muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle? Fixator Synergist Prime mover Antagonist What is the term for muscles that have the same action? Fixators Synergists Prime movers Antagonists What is the term for muscles that have opposite actions? Fixators Synergists Prime movers Antagonists What is the term for the main muscle that performs an action? Fixator Synergist Prime mover Antagonist Which term describes bending a body part anteriorly (except in regard to the knee)? Flexion Extension Abduction Adduction Which term describes bending a body part posteriorly (except in regard to the knee)? Flexion Extension Abduction Adduction Which term describes moving a body part away from the midline? Flexion Extension Abduction Adduction Which term describes moving a body part toward the midline? Flexion Extension Abduction Adduction A person doing jumping jacks is performing which muscle actions? Extension and flexion Abduction and adduction Protraction and retraction Inversion and eversion A person moving their jaw to the side is performing what muscle action? Protraction Retraction Lateral excursion Medial excursion A person bringing part of the body backward is performing which muscle action? Protraction Retraction Lateral excursion Medial excursion A person bringing part of the body forward is performing which muscle action? Protraction Retraction Lateral excursion Medial excursion If a person rotates the soles of their feet together so they are facing each other, what muscle action is he or she performing? Dorsiflexion Plantar flexion Inversion Eversion If a person stands on their heels with their toes pointing up, what action are they performing? Dorsiflexion Plantar flexion Inversion Eversion If a person stands on their tiptoes with their heels off the floor, what action are they performing? Dorsiflexion Plantar flexion Inversion Eversion If a person rotates the soles of their feet away from one another, what action are they performing? Dorsiflexion Plantar flexion Inversion Eversion If you can hold soup in the palm of your hand without spilling it, what muscle action are you performing? Rotation Circumduction Supination Pronation If you pour soup from your hand by holding the bowl in your palm and turning it upside down, what muscle action are you performing? Rotation Circumduction Supination Pronation What muscle action means to spin on an axis? Rotation Circumduction Supination Pronation What muscle action means to make a circle with part of the body? Rotation Circumduction Supination Pronation A hitchhiker is performing what muscle action with their thumb when trying to "thumb" a ride? Opposition Reposition Elevation Depression What muscle action describes bringing the thumb into the palm? Opposition Reposition Elevation Depression What muscle action describes raising the shoulders or closing the jaw? Opposition Reposition Elevation Depression What muscle action describes lowering the shoulders or opening the jaw? Opposition Reposition Elevation Depression Which of the following is not a muscle of the head or neck? Orbicularis Oris B) Occipitalis Pectoralis major Buccinator Which of the following is not found in the thorax or abdomen? Orbicularis Oris B) Diaphragm Pectoralis major Rectus abdominus Which of the following is not found on the back or buttocks? Deltoid Trapezius Erector spinae Gluteus medius Which of the following is not found on the arm or forearm? Deltoid Brachialis Erector spinae Extensor carpi ulnaris Which of the following is not found on the thigh or leg? Gracilis Brachialis Sartorius Soleus Which of the following muscles close the eye? Gracilis Brachialis Orbicularis oculi Soleus Which of the following muscles has an insertion on the mandible? Temporalis Masseter Platysma All of these muscles insert on the mandible. What is the origin of the frontalis muscle? Skin of the forehead Epicranial aponeurosis Temporal bone Medial eye orbit Which group of muscles below are synergists? Frontalis and occipitalis Buccinator and sternocleidomastoid Temporalis and masseter Masseter and platysma Which group of muscles below are antagonists? Frontalis and occipitalis Buccinator and sternocleidomastoid Temporalis and masseter Masseter and platysma Which answer choice lists the layers of the abdominal wall from most superficial to deepest? Transverse abdominal, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique Internal abdominal oblique, external abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal Internal abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal, external abdominal oblique D) External abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal Which of the following muscles does not originate on the ribs? Pectoralis major Serratus anterior Diaphragm External abdominal oblique What is the function of the rectus abdominus? To compress the thoracic cavity To compress the abdomen To flex the spine To rotate the waist What is the insertion of the pectoralis major? Scapula Humerus Ribs Pubis Which of the following extends and laterally rotates the hip? Trapezius Latissimus dorsi Gluteus maximus D) Gluteus medius Which of the following does not flex the arm at the elbow? Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachialis Brachioradialis Which of the following does not originate on the humerus? Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachialis Brachioradialis Which of the following muscles inserts on the metacarpals and the carpals? Extensor carpi radialis Extensor carpi ulnaris Flexor carpi radialis Flexor carpi ulnaris In the forearm, where do all the flexors originate? At the lateral epicondyle of the humerus At the medial epicondyle of the femur At the medial epicondyle of the humerus D) At the lateral epicondyle of the femur What is the function of the sartorius? To flex the knee and flex the hip To flex the knee and adduct the hip To extend the knee and flex the hip To extend the knee Which of the following is not part of the hamstring group? Biceps femoris Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Gracilis Which of the following do not originate on the femur? Rectus femoris Vastus lateralis Vastus medialis Vastus intermedius The gracilis, adductor longus, and pectineus are synergists that perform what function? Hip extension Hip flexion Hip adduction D) Hip abduction Which of the following accurately describes the gastrocnemius and soleus? They are synergists for doriflexion. They are synergists for plantar flexion. They are ntagonists for plantar flexion. D) They evert the foot. Which muscle dorsiflexes and inverts the foot? Gastrocnemius Soleus Peroneus Tibialis anterior In a skeletal muscle, what is the connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle? Fascia Epimysium Endomysium Perimysium What is the layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle? Fascia Epimysium Endomysium D) Perimysium What is the connective tissue that surrounds several muscles of an area forming muscle compartments? Fascia Epimysium Endomysium Perimysium What is the cell membrane of muscle fiber called? Sarcolemma Sarcoplasmic reticulum Sarcomere Myofibril What are the functional units of a skeletal muscle fiber? Sarcolemma Sarcoplasmic reticulum Sarcomere Myofibril Z-lines form the ends of what structure? Sarcolemma Sarcoplasmic reticulum Sarcomere D) Myofibril Which of the following statements about sarcomeres is false? Sarcomeres are made of thick and thin myofilaments. Only thick myofilaments attach to Z-lines. Thin myofilaments are composed of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin. D) Thick myofilaments are composed of myosin. Which term describes the ability of a muscle cell to be stretched and return to its original shape? Excitability Extensibility Contractility Elasticity Which term describes the ability of a muscle cell to shorten with force? Excitability Extensibility Contractility Elasticity A stimulated muscle cell signals the release of what chemical from the synaptic knob? Acetylcholine Actin Myosin Tropomyosin Which statement about a muscle's response to nerve stimulation is true? A muscle's response to nerve stimulation is all or nothing. A muscle's response to nerve stimulation is based on the threshold amount of acetylcholine fitting into receptors. A muscle's response to nerve stimulation is ultimately responsible for conductivity and contractility. All of these answers are correct. What theory of muscle contraction involves thick myofilaments grabbing thin myofilaments and pulling them toward the center of the sarcomere? Cross-bridge theory Power stroke theory Sliding filament theory All or nothing theory What is a power stroke? The electrical impulse that travels down the nerve cell to stimulate the muscle cell The grabbing hold of the actin active sites by myosin Myosin pulling on actin to draw Z-lines toward the center, shortening the sarcomere D) The binding of ATP to myosin In which phase of a contraction is calcium actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum? Latent phase Contraction phase Relaxation phase Refractory phase Which of the following describes an event that occurs in the latent phase of a muscle contraction? Acetylcholine is released and fits into the receptors on the muscle cell. The muscle goes back to shape because it is elastic. Calcium is actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the muscle produces acetylcholinesterase to remove the acetylcholine from the receptors. D) The muscle cell shortens. What term describes a sustained muscle contraction? Tetany Tetanus Twitch Tetani What is a motor unit? The use of multiple muscles for one movement A single nerve cell and all the muscle cells it stimulates A single nerve cell Hundreds of nerve endings stimulating a group of muscles Which statement correctly compares isotonic and isometric contractions? Isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in no movement, while isometric contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement. Isometric contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement, while isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle resulting in no movement. Isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement, while isometric contractions involve increased tension in the muscle resulting in no movement. Isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement while isometric contractions involve decreased tension in the muscle resulting in no movement. What is a lever? Weight to be lifted A force applied to lift a weight A pivot point that does not move A rigid object used to lift something Which of the following is at the insertion of the muscle? Lever Fulcrum Resistance D) Effort What is the most common lever system in the human body? First class Second class Third class Fourth class In the lever where the biceps brachii flexes the elbow, what is the effort? The hand The insertion of the muscle on the radius The radius The elbow joint What type of cellular respiration do muscle cells perform when they do not have oxygen? Glycolysis Aerobic Anaerobic Either aerobic or anaerobic Which statement comparing aerobic and anaerobic respiration is false? Aerobic respiration takes longer than anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration requires oxygen while anaerobic respiration does not. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration. Anaerobic respiration produces lactic acid while aerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide. Which statement about muscle fatigue is false? The levels of lactic acid in the muscle build up during muscle fatigue. Muscle cells become less able to respond to nerve stimuli. The muscle may weaken to the point of being unable to respond. Lactic acid build up is a slow process so activity fueled by anaerobic respiration can be extended. Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary and under conscious control? Skeletal Cardiac Smooth All of the answers are correct Which type of muscle tissue has the ability to self-stimulate, meaning it requires no nerve stimulus for contraction? Skeletal Cardiac Smooth None of the answers are correct Which type(s) of muscle tissue perform(s) aerobic respiration? Skeletal Cardiac and skeletal Smooth and cardiac Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth Which type(s) of muscle tissues perform(s) anaerobic respiration? Skeletal Cardiac and smooth Smooth All three types of muscle tissue perform anaerobic respiration. In addition to the essential and non-essential amino acids required for muscle cell function, what minerals are required? Iron and calcium Magnesium and potassium Calcium and potassium Zinc and iron What is the dietary recommended daily allowance of protein for a person of average weight? 4,700 mg 1,200 mg 46–56 g 44–60 mg What is not a function of the muscular system? Communication B) Movement Heat production Electrolyte balance What function of the muscular system is performed when a person's facial expression can tell you how they feel? Communication B) Movement Heat production Stability Which of the following statements about the aging of the muscular system is not true? Muscle mass decreases with age. Fat is deposited in muscle tissue and muscle fibers shrink. Some muscle is replaced by fibrous tissue. Our diet and lifestyle solely determine the rate and extent of muscle loss. Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess how the muscle responds to what? Heat Electric stimuli Pressure Cold What muscular disorder is characterized by a part of the viscera protruding through the abdominal wall? Hernia Cramp Muscular dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Which disorder describes a group of genetic disorders that result in progressive weakening, degeneration, and replacement of muscle tissue with fibrous scar tissue? Hernia Cramp Muscular dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Which muscular disorder is characterized by painful muscle spasms? Hernia Cramp Muscular dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Which muscular disorder is characterized as an autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack the acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction? Hernia Cramp Muscular dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Which statement accurately compares sprains and strains? A sprain is a tear in the muscle or tendon while a strain is a tear in the ligament. A sprain is a tear in the ligament while a strain is a tear in muscle tissue or tendons. A sprain is a major strain and both are tears in the ligament. A strain is a minor sprain and both are tears in the tendon or muscle tissue. Which muscular disorder does not result from an injury or trauma? Compartment syndrome Sprain Myasthenia gravis Strain Which statement describes muscle atrophy? Painful muscle spasms A tear in the muscle tissue Inflammation of the muscle tissue Wasting away of muscle tissue Which condition is characterized by pain in the lower front leg along the tibia that commonly occurs after the level of physical activity changes? Sprain Myalgia Strain Shin splints What is the effect of motor unit recruitment? Involvement of multiple muscles for one movement Cramps Wave summation Hundreds of nerve endings stimulating a group of muscles Which type of contraction is used when pushing against a door that will not open? Isotonic contraction Isometric contraction Hypertonic contraction Hypotonic contraction What is atrophy? A decrease in muscle mass Fat is deposition in muscle The replacement of muscle tissue with fibrous tissue An increase in the number of myofibrils within a muscle fiber What is a diagnostic test used to assess how the muscle responds to stimuli? EKG EMG ECG EEG Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) D 83) C 84) B 85) C 86) C 87) D 88) A 89) B 90) D 91) A 92) C 93) C 94) D 95) A 96) D 97) B 98) A 99) C 100) B 101) D 102) B 103) C 104) D 105) D 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) B Chap 06 3e Which word root refers to the head? Cephal/o Cerebell/o Cerebr/o Dur/o Which word root refers to toughness? Cephal/o Cerebell/o Cerebr/o Dur/o Which word root refers to the spinal cord? Mening/o Medull/o Myel/o Neur/o Which word root refers to the medulla? Mening/o Medull/o Myel/o Neur/o Which word root refers to a ganglion? Mening/o Gangli/o Gli/o Neur/o Which word root does not refer to apart of the brain? Medull/o Cerebell/o Cerebr/o Encephal/o Which of the following word roots refers to the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord? Mening/o Gangli/o Gli/o Neur/o What are the two major divisions of the nervous system? Sensory and motor Afferent and efferent Central and peripheral Parasympathetic and sympathetic Which of the following is not found in the central nervous system? Sensory neurons Medulla oblongata Cerebrum Thalamus Which of the following is not a part of the PNS? Sensory neurons Motor neurons Interneurons Sympathetic nerves Which statement accurately describes sensory and motor neurons? Sensory neurons carry afferent or incoming messages to the brain, while motor neurons carry efferent or outgoing messages away from the brain. Sensory neurons carry afferent or outgoing messages to the brain, while motor neurons carry efferent or incoming messages away from the brain. Sensory neurons carry efferent or incoming messages to the brain, while motor neurons carry afferent or outgoing messages away from the brain. Motor neurons carry afferent or incoming messages to the brain, while sensory neurons carry efferent or outgoing messages away from the brain. Which division of the PNS prepares the body for physical activity or fight or flight? Parasympathetic Central Somatomotor Sympathetic Which part of a neuron carries the nerve impulse? Dendrites Body Axon Nissl substance Which part of a neuron usually receives the information? Dendrite Body Axon Synaptic knob What part of the axon is called the trigger zone? Terminal arborization Myelin sheath Axon hillock Synaptic knob What is found at the end of each axon? Terminal arborization Myelin sheath Axon hillock Motor end plate What insulates the axon? Terminal arborization Myelin sheath Node of Ranvier Synaptic knob Which of the following statements correctly describes white matter and gray matter? Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated axons, and white matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of dendrites. White matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of unmyelinated axons, and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of dendrites. White matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated axons, and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated dendrites. White matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated axons, and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of dendrites. Which type of neuron has one process that serves as the dendrite and axon? Multipolar Unipolar Bipolar Tripolar Which type of neuron groups together to form ganglia? Multipolar Unipolar Bipolar Tripolar Which type of neuron is found in the nasal cavity, retina, and inner ear? Multipolar Unipolar Bipolar Tripolar Which of the following is not a type of neuron? Multipolar Unipolar Bipolar Tripolar Which of the following types of neurons have sensory functions? Multipolar Unipolar and multipolar Bipolar and multipolar Unipolar and bipolar Which neuroglial cell is found in the PNS? Oligodendrocyte Astrocyte Schwann cell Microglial cell Which two types of neuroglial cells produce myelin? Oligodendrocytes and astrocytes Ependymal cells and Schwann cells Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells Microglia and satellite cells Which type of neuroglial cell functions to form the blood-brain barrier? Oligodendrocyte Astrocyte Satellite cells Microglia Which of the following lists the three meninges in the correct order from superficial to deep? Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater *Which of the following meninges are the deepest, closest to the brain and spinal cord? Dura mater Pia mater Arachnoid mater Epidural mater The epidural space is found between a vertebra and which meningeal layer? Dura mater Pia mater Arachnoid mater Subarachnoid mater The subarachnoid space is between what two meninges? Dura mater and arachnoid mater Pia mater and dura mater Dura mater and pia mater Arachnoid mater and pia mater In which space does CSF circulate? Subarachnoid space Epidural space Choroid plexus Dural sinus What is the function of CSF? To cushion the brain from impact To provide buoyancy so the brain is not damaged by the bony floor of the skull C) To rid the brain and spinal cord of metabolic waste D) All of these are functions of the CSF. The brain can be divided into four subdivisions? Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum The Frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, reticular formation D) Brainstem, cerebrum, pons, cerebellum The cerebrum is divided into four major lobes? Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, reticular formation Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater, epidural mater What are the folds on the cerebrum that allow for the extra surface area? Sulci Gyri Folia Fissures Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for general senses like touch? Frontal Temporal Occipital Parietal Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for hearing? Frontal Temporal Occipital Parietal What is the function of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum? Sense of smell Motivation Aggression All of these are correct. What is the function of the occipital lobe of the cerebrum? Hearing Smell Vision Touch What are the two major components of the diencephalon? Cerebrum and brainstem Frontal lobe and parietal lobe Medulla oblongata and pons Thalamus and hypothalamus Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? Temperature regulation Sexual development Autonomic functions All of these are functions of the hypothalamus. The brainstem is composed of what four parts? Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, reticular formation Neither of these answers is correct Which part of the brainstem serves as a bridge for motor tracts to the cerebellum? Pons Midbrain Reticular formation Medulla oblongata Which part of the brainstem is important for arousal as it determines whether sensory messages will be consciously noticed? Pons Midbrain Reticular formation Medulla oblongata What is the function of the midbrain of the brainstem? To direct sensory messages to the thalamus Visual attentiveness Auditory attentiveness All of these are functions of the midbrain. Which of the following is not a function of the cerebellum? To maintain coordination To fine-tune efferent skeletal muscle messages to coordinate position, balance, and movement To receive sensory messages concerning the position of limbs, muscles, and joints D) All of these are functions of the cerebellum. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? 12 30 31 14 The cauda equina extends from which vertebrae? L-1 to S-5 L-1 to S-1 L-5 to S-5 L-5 to S-1 What is gray matter of the spinal cord composed of? Dendrites Cell bodies Short unmyelinated neurons All of these make up the gray matter of the spinal cord. White matter of the spinal cord is composed of what? Unmyelinated neurons Myelinated neurons arranged in columns Dendrites Cell bodies Which connective tissue layer surrounds a bundle of axons? Endoneurium Perineurium Epineurium Perimysium What is the function of the endoneurium? To surround a bundle of axons To surround the axon of an individual neuron To surround a nerve To surround a component of the CNS What is the function of cranial nerve V? Sensory for smell Sensory for pain Sensory for vision Sensory for taste What is a function of the abducens nerve? Motor for eye movement Sensory for pain Motor for trapezius Motor for tongue Which of the following cranial nerves does not carry both sensory and motor information? Trigeminal Abducens Facial Glossopharyngeal Which of the following cranial nerves functions as a sensory nerve for taste? Trigeminal Abducens Facial Hypoglossal Which of the following does not represent the correct number of spinal nerves in each region? C1-8 T1-12 L1-6 S1-5 Which statement about spinal nerves is incorrect? Each spinal nerve splits into two roots as it approaches the spinal cord. The ventral roots contain ganglion and the dorsal roots do not. The dorsal root carries sensory messages. The ventral root carries efferent messages. Which statement about a ganglion is true? A ganglion is a group of cell bodies in the bipolar neurons. A ganglion is found in the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves. A ganglion is a group of dendrites that create a bulge in the spinal nerve. D) A ganglion is associated with spinal nerves that carry efferent messages. Which statement regarding dorsal and ventral roots is correct? Dorsal roots carry afferent messages, while ventral roots carry efferent messages. Dorsal roots carry efferent messages, while ventral roots carry afferent messages. Dorsal roots carry motor messages, while ventral roots carry sensory messages. Dorsal roots carry sensory messages, while ventral roots carry afferent messages. What kind of information is carried by the autonomic nervous system? Efferent Afferent Sensory Voluntary Which of the following is false regarding the function of the sympathetic nervous system? It prepares the body for fight or flight. It dilates blood vessels. It signals the heart to beat slower. It decreases blood flow to the digestive organs. Which statement is true regarding the anatomy of the nerves in the sympathetic nervous system? A short preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the thoracic and lumbar regions and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just outside the vertebral column. A short preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the cervical region and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just outside the vertebral column. A short preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the thoracic and lumbar regions and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just inside the vertebral column. A long preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the lumbar and sacral regions and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just inside the vertebral column. Which of the following is true regarding the function of the parasympathetic nervous system? It prepares the body for fight or flight. It dilates blood vessels. It carries messages for everyday body maintenance. D) It decreases blood flow to the digestive organs. Which statement is true regarding the anatomy of the nerves in the parasympathetic nervous system? Post ganglionic neurons come off the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with preganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the structure they stimulate. Preganglionic neurons come off the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with post ganglionic neurons in ganglia far from to the structure they stimulate. Preganglionic neurons come off the lumbar and sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with post ganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the structure they stimulate. Preganglionic neurons come off the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with post ganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the structure they stimulate. During a resting membrane potential, what is true about the neuron membrane? The membrane is polarized. The outside of the membrane is positive. The inside of the membrane is negative. D) All of the answer choices are true. Which statement about sodium ions during a resting membrane potential is true? More sodium ions are located on the outside of the neuron membrane. More sodium ions are located on the inside of the neuron membrane. Sodium ions can move freely across the neuron cell membrane. D) Sodium ions cannot cross the membrane at all. Which statement is true about potassium ions during a resting membrane potential? More potassium ions are found on the outside of the neuron cell membrane. Potassium ions can freely cross the neuron cell membrane. Potassium ions are attracted to positive ions on the inside of the cell. Potassium ions must have an open channel to cross the neuron membrane using active transport. What is the function of the sodium/potassium exchange pump? To re-establish and maintain the resting membrane potential To pump sodium ions out of the cell using active transport C) To prepare the neuron for another nerve impulse D) All of these statements are correct. What is a local potential? The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the axon of a neuron The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the dendrite of a neuron C) The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the cell body of a neuron D) None of these answers are correct. Which term describes a response in which the amount of stimulation determines how many sodium ions enter the neuron? Graded Decrimental Excitatory Inhibitory Which term refers to the ability of a local potential to cause a neuron to send a signal? Graded Decrimental Excitatory Inhibitory Which term refers to the ability of a local potential to prevent a neuron from sending a signal? Graded Decrimental Excitatory Inhibitory What is an action potential? The flow of electricity along an axon of a neuron in one direction The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the axon of a neuron The flow of electricity along an axon of a neuron in multiple directions D) The flow of electricity along a dendrite of a neuron in one direction Which statement comparing an action potential and local potential is false? Action potentials are graded and local potentials are not. B) Action potentials are not graded and local potentials are. C) Action potentials are not decrimental and local potentials are. D) Action potentials are not reversible and local potentials are. What allows an action potential to travel more quickly? Polarization of a neuron Myelination of an axon Wider nodes of Ranvier A larger trigger zone Which statement about reflexes is true? A reflex is involuntary. A reflex is a motor response. A reflex has a fast response. All of these statements are true. What is the correct order of a reflex arc? Receptor, efferent neuron, integrating center, afferent neuron, effector Receptor, afferent neuron, integrating center, efferent neuron, effector Effector, afferent neuron, integrating center, efferent neuron, receptor Receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, effector, integrating center In a reflex arc, what is the receptor? Either the brain or spinal cord where the signal is received from the afferent neuron and conducted to a motor neuron The structure causing the effect The dendrite of a neuron receiving the stimulus The generation of a graded potential at an axon hillock In a reflex arc, what carries the signal to the CNS? Receptor Effector Afferent neuron Efferent neuron Which type of memory lasts for a few seconds to a few hours? Immediate Short term Long term Sensory Brain damage to the Wernicke's area will result in what? An inability to speak An inability to understand spoken language An inability to respond to language spoken to them An inability to process sensory information from the left side of the brain Where is the Broca's area? Frontal lobe Temporal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Where is the Wernicke's area? Frontal lobe Temporal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe What is the correct order of neurons in the pathway when one touches the ice and then says it is cold? Unipolar neuron, spinal cord, medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, thalamus, parietal lobe, frontal lobe Unipolar neuron, spinal cord, medulla oblongata, pons, thalamus, midbrain, parietal lobe, frontal lobe The spinal cord, unipolar neuron, medulla oblongata, pons, thalamus, midbrain, frontal lobe, parietal lobe Unipolar neuron, spinal cord, pons, midbrain, medulla oblongata, thalamus, parietal lobe, frontal lobe Which ions are required for the nervous system to function? Iron and calcium Magnesium and potassium Calcium and potassium Sodium and potassium Which statement about the effects of aging on the nervous system is false? Verbal skills decline around age 70. Intellectual performance remains high until around age 80. Aging slows reaction time. Short-term memory is not affected by aging. How is cognitive function affected by aging? The cognitive function increases rapidly. The cognitive function remains stable. Cognitive function declines. Cognitive function declines but motor skills improve. A nerve conduction study assesses the conduction of nervous impulses along peripheral nerves by using what? Heat Electric stimuli Pressure Cold Which condition might warrant a lumbar puncture for diagnosis? Concussion Meningitis Cerebral palsy Parkinson's disease What is Alzheimer's disease? A progressive brain disease characterized by dementia A disorder characterized by death to part of the brain caused by a lack of blood supply Inflammation of the brain Inflammation of the meninges that cover the brain and spinal cord Which disorder is characterized by death to part of the brain caused by a lack of blood supply? CVA Alzheimer's disease Meningitis Huntington's disease Which type of paralysis affects only one side of the body? Hemiplegia Quadriplegia Paraplegia Biplegia Which condition is a degenerative disorder of the brain characterized by tremors and slow, uncoordinated movements? Alzheimer's disease Cerebrovascular accident Parkinson's disease Huntington's disease Which condition is a disorder of the brain characterized by destruction of brain cells caused by a defective gene? Alzheimer's disease Cerebrovascular accident Parkinson's disease Huntington's disease Which statement is false regarding cerebral palsy? Cerebral palsy can result following an injury to the brain in children younger than 5 years old. Cerebral palsy is a progressive disorder that will get worse with age. Cerebral palsy can occur during the birth process. D) The symptoms of cerebral palsy vary greatly. Where is CSF produced? Arachnoid villus Third ventricle Dural sinuses Choroid plexus Which type of memory has the potential to last a lifetime? Immediate Short term Long term Working Where does almost all sensory information go after passing through the midbrain? Thalamus Pons Frontal lobe Parietal lobe What is necessary for the diet for proper myelination? Iron and calcium Magnesium and potassium Calcium and potassium Lipids What does a lumbar puncture analyze? Heat Electric stimuli CSF EEG Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) C 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) C 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) A 86) D 87) D 88) C 89) B 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) B 97) D 98) C 99) A 100) D 101) C Chap 07 3e Which word root refers to hearing? Audi/o Aur/o Tympan/o Ot/o Which word root does not refer to the ear or a part of the ear? Aur/o Tympan/o Ot/o Opt/o Which word root does not refer to the eye? Ocul/o Opt/o Ophthalm/o Scler/o Which word root refers to stone? Lacrim/o Lith/o Propri/o Aur/o Which word root means own? Presby/o Retin/o Corne/o Propri/o Which word root refers to a part of the ear? Corne/o Cochle/o Scler/o Retin/o Which statement about the special senses is false? Special senses are simple receptors in the skin, muscles, joints, tendons, and organs. Special senses involve organs located only in the head. Special sense organs are used for taste, smell, hearing, equilibrium, and vision. Special sense organs are not located all over the body and are not used for touch, stretch, heat, cold, and pain. What type of receptor detects tissue injury? 2 Thermoreceptor Nociceptor Mechanoreceptor Photoreceptor What type of receptor detects pressure? Thermoreceptors Nociceptors Mechanoreceptors Photoreceptors Which of the following is not a mechanoreceptor? Free nerve ending Tactile corpuscle Hair receptor Lamellar corpuscle What is the function of tactile disks? To detect light touch To detect heavy touch To detect deep pressure To detect light touch that bends a hair Which statement best describes the receptive field? The brain's ability to distinguish between different types of sensations The ability of each neuron in the skin to detect a stimulus in a given area The ability of the brain to detect different levels of intense sensation The ability of the receptor to have various durations of the sensation Which of the following pathways for pain is shown in the correct order? Unipolar neuron — spinal cord — medulla oblongata — pons — midbrain — thalamus — parietal lobe Unipolar neuron — spinal cord — reticular formation — hypothalamus and limbic system Unipolar neuron — spinal cord — medulla oblongata — pons — midbrain — parietal lobe All of these answers are correct. Which cell in a taste bud is responsible for replacing taste cells as they die? Mitral cell Basal cell Support cell Germinator cell Which cell type in the taste bud is the chemoreceptor for taste? Taste cells Basal cells Support cells Mitral cell Version 1 4 What are the bumps on the surface of the tongue called? Taste cells Lingual nodules Lingual papillae Taste buds Which statement about taste cells is false? They are the bumps that cover the surface of the tongue. They are epithelial cells with sensory neurons at their base. They secrete a neurotransmitter to stimulate the sensory neuron at their base. D) They have taste hairs on their surface. Which taste is described as meaty? Salty Umami Bitter Sweet Which cranial nerve does not carry the sense of taste? CN VII CN IX CN X CN VI Olfaction is the sense of . taste hearing smell touch What type of neuron is an olfactory cell? Multipolar Unipolar Bipolar Tripolar What kind of receptors are found on olfactory hairs? Mechanoreceptors Chemoreceptors Nociceptors Photoreceptors Which cranial nerve is the olfactory nerve? CN I CN IX CN VII CN X Which of the following statements about how we perceive odor is false? Each olfactory cell has one type of receptor to detect one particular odor. The binding of an odor molecule initiates a local potential. If there is a threshold stimulus at the trigger zone of the olfactory cell, an action potential is generated and passed to a synapse within the olfactory bulb of CN II. D) All of these statements are true. Which of the following represents the pathway for smell? Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – hypothalamus and amygdala B) Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – frontal lobe Both answers are correct. Neither answer is correct. The pinna and auditory canal are part of what section of the ear? Outer ear Middle ear Inner ear Cochlea Vestibule Which statement is false regarding cerumen? It is produced by ceruminous glands. It coats the auditory canal. It contains lysozymes and a high pH to deter bacteria. D) It serves to protect the ear. What are swimmer's ear? An infection of the outer ear An infection of the middle ear An infection of the inner ear An infection of the mastoid process Which of the following is not an auditory ossicle? Malleus Incus Tympanum Stapes The auditory ossicles are found in which section of the ear? Outer ear Middle ear Inner ear Cochlea Vestibule What structure leads from the middle ear to the nasopharynx? Auditory tube External auditory canal Semicircular duct Round window What is otitis media? An infection of the outer ear An infection of the middle ear An infection of the inner ear An infection of the mastoid process The bony labyrinth is in what section of the ear? Outer ear Middle ear Inner ear Organ of Corti Tympanic membrane What is the oval window? The membrane at which the stapes contacts the vestibule The fluid-filled tube that coils to form a snail-like structure The end of the cochlea The fluid within the cochlea The endolymph fills what structure in the inner ear? Round window Cochlear duct Bony labyrinth Vestibule What type of neurons are found at the base of the hair cells in the cochlear duct? Multipolar Unipolar Bipolar Tripolar Sound waves hit what structure causing vibrations? Pinna Auditory canal Tympanic membrane Oval window What is the function of the middle ear? To transfer sound waves to the tympanic membrane B) To amplify the vibration of the tympanic membrane To guide sound waves into the auditory canal To separate the outer ear and inner ear Vibrations of which structure create waves within the perilymph of the cochlear tube? Tympanic membrane Pinna Auditory canal Oval window What kind of receptor are the hair cells on the basilar membrane? Mechanoreceptor Chemoreceptor Nociceptor Photoreceptor Which cranial nerve is the auditory nerve? CN I CN IX CN VIII CN X Which of the following represents the pathway for hearing in the correct order? Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – pons – midbrain – temporal lobe Bipolar neurons of CN VII – pons – midbrain – temporal lobe Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – midbrain – pons – temporal lobe Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – pons – midbrain – frontal lobe What is the function of the vestibular apparatus? To perceive taste To perceive touch To perceive equilibrium To perceive sound What type of equilibrium is perceived when the head is stationary or moving straight? Static equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium Rotational Linear What type of equilibrium is perceived when the head is rotating? Static equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium Rotational Linear What type of equilibrium is active when a gymnast does somersaults? Static equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium Rotational equilibrium Linear equilibrium The saccule and utricle are used to perceive what kind of equilibrium? Static equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium Rotational equilibrium Linear equilibrium What kind of receptors are used in vision? Mechanoreceptors Chemoreceptors Nociceptors Photoreceptors Which of the following structures protect the eye? Eyelids Eyelashes C) Eyebrows D) All of these structures protect the eye. What structure produces an oil to help lubricate the eye? Lacrimal gland Tarsal gland Conjuctiva Puncta What statement about conjunctivitis is false? It is also called pink eye. It is not contagious. It is usually caused by a bacterium. It is characterized by redness and pain. What part of the eye consists of three regions: choroid layer, ciliary body, and the iris? Sclera Uvea Pupil Retina What part of the eye produces aqueous humor? Sclera Ciliary body Pupil Retina What ocular disorder results in an increase in intraocular pressure? Conjunctivitis Myopia Glaucoma Astigmatism What of the following describes the rods in the retina? They are photoreceptors for color vision. They are photoreceptors for non-color vision. They are responsible for the best visual acuity. D) They work best in bright light. What is not true of the cones in the retina? They are the photoreceptors for color vision. They are the photoreceptors for non-color vision. They are responsible for the best visual acuity. D) They work best in bright light. Which part of the retina has a higher concentration of cones than rods? Optic disc Macula lutea Uvea Ciliary body What part of the retina contains only cones and is the area of sharpest vision? Optic disc Uvea Fovea centralis Ciliary body Which part of the retina has no photoreceptors and is therefore considered the blind spot? Optic disc Macula lutea Fovea centralis Cornea What condition results if the cornea and lens focus the image ahead of the retina? Myopia Hyperopia Deuteranopia Presbyopia What condition results if the cornea and lens focus the image behind the retina? Myopia Hyperopia Deuteranopia Presbyopia Which cranial nerve is the optic nerve? CN I CN IX CN II CN X Which answer lists the pathway for vision in the correct order? Both answers are correct. Optic nerve – optic chiasm – optic tracts – thalamus – superior colliculi of the midbrain Optic nerve – optic chiasm – optic tracts – thalamus – occipital lobe D) Neither of these answers is correct. Which term describes a persistent abnormal ear noise, commonly experienced in the elderly due to mild hearing loss? Tinnitus Otoliths Presbyopia Sensorineural hearing loss Which term describes a decreased ability to accommodate between near and far vision with aging, resulting in difficulty seeing objects up close? Myopia Deuteranopia Presbyopia Hyperopia Which test is used to diagnose color blindness? Ishihara test Rinne test Weber test D) Snellen test Which test is used to diagnose glaucoma? Ishihara test Snellen test Weber test Tonometry Which test is used to diagnose hearing loss? Ishihara test Rinne test Snellen test Tonometry What type of hearing loss is characterized by a lesion in the outer or middle ear, preventing the proper conduction of vibrations to the inner ear? Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural hearing loss Tinnitus Meniere's disease What type of hearing loss is characterized by a problem with the organ of Corti or the auditory nerve? Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural hearing loss Tinnitus Meniere's disease What type of hearing loss can be tested using a tuning fork? Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural hearing loss Both of these answers are correct. Neither of these answers is correct. If a person cannot hear the sound produced by the tuning fork through the air but can hear the sound when the tuning fork is placed on the bone of the skull behind the ear, what type of hearing loss do they most likely have? Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural hearing loss Both of these answers are correct. Neither of these answers is correct. If a person cannot hear the sound produced by the tuning fork through the air or when the tuning fork is placed on the bone of the skull behind the ear, what type of hearing loss do they most likely have? Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural hearing loss Both of these answers are correct. D) Neither of these answers is correct. What disorder is characterized by a progressive, painless, loss of vision due to the clouding of the lens of the eye? Glaucoma Cataract Presbyopia Astigmatism Which statement about the general senses is true? The general senses use simple receptors in the skin, muscles, joints, tendons, and organs. The general senses use organs located only in the head. The general sense organs detect taste, smell, hearing, equilibrium, and vision. The general sense organs are complex and multicellular. Which of the following statements about how we perceive odor is true? Each olfactory cell has one type of receptor to detect multiple odors. The binding of an odor molecule initiates an action potential. If there is a threshold stimulus at the trigger zone of the olfactory cell, an action potential is generated and passed to a synapse within the olfactory bulb of CN II. D) Olfaction is coupled with gustation (taste). Which of the following represents the pathway for smell that will trigger an emotional reaction? Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – hypothalamus and amygdala B) Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – frontal lobe Both answers are correct. Neither answer is correct. Which cranial nerve is involved in the pathway for hearing? CN VIII CN VII CN VI CN V Which of the following is involved in static equilibrium? Semicircular canals Cochlea Utricle and saccule Crista ampullaris Which of the following represents the pathway for equilibrium in the correct order? Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – medulla oblongata – pons – cerebellum Bipolar neurons of CN VII – pons – midbrain – temporal lobe Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – midbrain – pons – temporal lobe D) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – pons – midbrain – frontal lobe What cranial nerve is involved in equilibrium? CN I CN IX CN VIII CN X Tunica albuginea B) Follicle Ovarian ligament Suspensory ligament Which of the following is not an internal secondary reproductive structure in the female? Uterine tubes Uterus Vulva Vagina Which layer of the uterus is composed of smooth muscle that contracts to expel uterine contents? Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium Exometrium Which layer of the uterus is the outermost layer of the uterine wall? Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium Exometrium Which layer of the uterus has two sublayers, the stratum basalis and the stratum functionalis? Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium D) Exometrium Which female reproductive organ has the ability to expand with pregnancy? Oviduct Uterus Vulva Vagina Which structures coax an egg that is released from the ovary into the uterine tube? Ampullae Vulvae Fimbriae Oviducts Which of the following is not a function of the vagina? The vagina allows for the flow of the menses during menstruation. The vagina is a receptacle for semen. The vagina delivers the egg to the uterus. D) The vagina serves as the birth canal. of the following is a fragile membrane that covers the external vaginal opening? Infundibulum Hymen Cervix D) Fundus Which of the following is not a part of the vulva? Mons pubis Labia majora Prepuce Bulbourethral glands Which structures drain the milk produced by the secretory cells in the breast? Lactiferous ducts Lactiferous sinuses Myoepithelial cells Lobules At what age does puberty begin for most girls? Between 7 and 9 years of age Between 8 and 10 years of age Between 10 and 12 years of age Between 6 and 18 years of age hormone targets the follicle within the ovary causing it to produce estrogen? GnRH FSH LH D) Progesterone Which of the following is not a secondary female sex characteristic? Breast development Development of axillary and pubic hair Menstruation Slimmer pelvis How is oogenesis similar to spermatogenesis? Oogenesis forms gametes that have a haploid number of chromosomes. Oogenesis forms gametes that have a diploid number of chromosomes. Oogenesis forms four viable gametes. These are all ways that oogenesis is similar to spermatogenesis. Which of the following describes a function of the follicle? The follicle provides nutrients for the oocyte. The follicle removes wastes from the oocyte. The follicle protects the oocyte from the female's immune system. D) All of these are functions of a follicle. of the following remains dormant in mid-meiosis I until adolescence? Oogonium Primary oocyte Secondary oocyte D) Polar body How many chromosomes are present in a primary oocyte? 23 46 92 12 Which of the following statements about oogenesis is false? Primary oocyte produces two daughter cells, a secondary oocyte, and a first polar body. The first polar body has 23 chromosomes. The first polar body is likely to die before going through mitosis. All of the cytoplasm and organelles go to the secondary oocyte. Which type of follicle will rupture to release the egg during ovulation? Primordial Mature Primary Gravid Which structure will secrete hormones to support pregnancy if an egg is fertilized? Primary follicle Graafian follicle Corpus luteum Corpus albicans Which structure will stop secreting hormones after two weeks if an egg is not fertilized? Primordial follicle Mature follicle Corpus luteum Corpus rubrum Which part of the female reproductive cycle affects the endometrial lining of the uterus? Ovarian Menstrual Follicular Luteal When is the menstrual phase of a woman's period? Day 1–14 Day 1–5 Day 5–14 Day 22–28 Which statement about the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle is false? The anterior pituitary secretes FSH, which targets the primordial follicle. The primordial follicle secretes estrogen. Estrogen levels reach a peak just before day 5. All of these about the follicular phase are true. Which statement is true regarding the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle? The proliferative phase is day 5–14 of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen is secreted by the follicle. Estrogen targets the uterine lining, causing it to thicken. All of these statements about the proliferative phase are true. What happens on day 14 of a woman's reproductive cycle? A woman starts her period. A mature follicle ruptures and releases an egg. The primordial follicle develops. D) FSH levels begin to decrease. Which of the following does not happen during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle? The ruptured follicle remains in the ovary and changes to become a corpus luteum. The corpus luteum releases estrogen and progesterone. FSH and LH production is inhibited. New follicles begin to develop. In which phase of the uterine cycle do high levels of estrogen and progesterone cause the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen? Follicular phase Luteal phase Secretory phase Proliferative phase If an egg is not fertilized, what happens to the corpus luteum? It goes through involution, shrinking until it disappears. It becomes a Graafian follicle. It becomes a corpus albicans. It becomes a primordial follicle. A home pregnancy test detects the presence of which hormone in the urine? FSH LH hCG Progesterone Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the stages of the female sexual response? Arousal – plateau – orgasm – resolution Plateau – arousal – orgasm – resolution Arousal – orgasm – plateau – resolution D) Plateau - arousal - resolution - orgasm During which stage of the sexual response does the innermost part of the vagina dilate and the vaginal lining and vestibular glands secrete lubrication? Arousal Plateau Orgasm Resolution During which stage of the sexual response does the lower one-third of the vagina constrict around the penis due to the engorgement of the vestibular bulbs? Arousal Plateau Orgasm Resolution During which stage of the sexual response does the erectile tissue of the clitoris become engorged with blood? Arousal Plateau Orgasm Resolution During which stage of the sexual response does the uterus undergo peristaltic contractions that cause the cervix to dip down? Arousal Plateau Orgasm Resolution During which stage of the sexual response does the reproductive anatomy return to a pre- arousal state? Arousal Plateau Orgasm Resolution Diminished levels of estrogen and progesterone during menopause can cause blank. heavier menstrual periods hot flashes thicker vaginal secretions increased bone mass Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the female reproductive system? Decreasing bone mass Thinning vaginal secretions Increased muscle and connective tissue D) Menopause As a result of decreased muscle and connective tissue that accompanies aging in woman, what can happen? Incontinence Difficult bowel movements Bladder, uterine, and rectal prolapse All of these can happen due to decreased muscle and connective tissue. Which diagnostic test allows internal visualization of a developing fetus during gestation? Ultrasound Mammogram Pap smear Colposcopy Which diagnostic test allows visualization of the vagina and cervix? Hysteroscopy Mammogram Pap smear Colposcopy Which diagnostic test detects abnormal cells on the cervix? Hysteroscopy Mammogram Pap smear Colposcopy Which

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