Neurology 1-100 PDF

Neurology 1. The most important clinical feature of fisher syndrome is a. Flaccid paralysis of limbs with paralysis of extraocular muscles b. Symmetric flaccid paralysis of limbs with bilateral facial paralysis c. Bilateral symmetrical paralysis of extraocular and facial muscles d. Paralys...

Neurology 1. The most important clinical feature of fisher syndrome is a. Flaccid paralysis of limbs with paralysis of extraocular muscles b. Symmetric flaccid paralysis of limbs with bilateral facial paralysis c. Bilateral symmetrical paralysis of extraocular and facial muscles d. Paralysis, ataxia and disappearance of tendon reflex of extraocular muscles e. Symmetric flaccid paralysis from lower limb to upper limb 2. Which of the following is not characteristic of lower motor neuron injury? a. Increased muscle tone b. Decreased tendon reflexes c. Flaccid paralysis d. Muscle atrophy 3. A 34-year-old man presents to his internist for evaluation of severe pain above and behind the eye. The pain began a few days ago and is intermittent. It occurs several times a day, usually lasting in minutes, and often awakens him at night. The pain is associated with ipsilateral tearing conjunctival in...and nasal congestion. Alcohol triggers or exacerbates the pain. His wife reports that he has been irritability and agitated. On exam, he has right-sided periorbital edema and mild ptosis. He reports having similar symptoms years ago and I concerned because that episode lasted for several weeks. a. Migraine b. Tension type headache c. Cluster headache d. Medication overuse headache 4. Extrapyramidal system include several complex neural circuits composed of several nucleus. Which one is not included? a. Basal ganglia b. Oculomotor nucleus c. Red nucleus d. Substantia nigra 5. If you were to burn your epidermis, what receptor type would you most likely burn? a. Free nerve endings b. Ruffini endings c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Hair receptors 6. Subacute combined degeneration is caused by the deficiency of a. Folic acid b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin B12 7. Which one is not the motor features of Parkinson's disease a. Static tremor b. Rigidity c. Gait stiffness d. Paresthesia and pain 8. 1 seizure is a clinical symptom it does not have the feature a. Treatment b. An epileptic seizure c. One form of onset of epilepsy d. The patient must be epilepsy 9....of the following diseases belongs to X-linked recessive inheritance a. Pseudohypertrophy muscular dystrophy (DMD/BMB) b. Andersen syndrome c. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis d. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis 10. 2 epilepsy is a clinical syndrome it has the features: a. Transient and paroxysmal b. repetitive c. stereotyped d. all of the above 11. the most common pathological mechanism of intracerebral hemorrhage is a. aneurysm b. Tumor c. Anterior venous malformation d. Hypertension with anterior sclerosis 12. ( ) characterized by recurrent episodes of sudden skeletal muscle paralysis a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Pseudohypertrophy muscular dystrophy (DMD/BMB) c. Polymyositis d. Myotonia congenita 13. Which of the following options is not cerebraliated syncope? a. Severe cerebral arterial occlusion b. Aortic arch syndrome c. Hypertension encephalopathy d. Vascular vagilical syncope 14. Which is the most common form of MNDs? a. ALS b. PBP c. PMA d. PLS 15. ( ) is the first choice a the initial treatment for children with absence seizures a. CBZ b. VPA c. OXC d. LTC 16. Which one is not the other neurodegenerative cause of parkinsons? a. Dementia with levy bodies b. Multiple system atrophy c. Vascular parkinsonism d. Progressive supranuclear palsy 17. Patients male, 25 years old paroxysmal headache, visual aura, nausea and vomiting, taking effective ergotamine, physical examinations has no positive signs. The most likely diagnosis is a. Neurons b. Typical migraine c. Glaucoma d. Meningitis e. tension headaches 18. Which artery was the cause of Broca's aphasia? a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Middle cerebral artery c. Posterior cerebral artery d. Vertebral basilar artery 19. Which of the followings is not the main functions of frontal lobe? a. Spirit b. Language c. Voluntary movement d. Sensitive 20. The most common site of intracranial hemorrhage is a. Basal ganglia b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. Lobe 21. The following treatment measures for facial neuritis are in effective a. Vitamin B complex b. Glucocorticoid c. Antiviral drugs d. Pleural therapy e. NSAIDs 22. A 50 year old woman is referred to a neurologist because of severe headaches. She first developed headaches during adolescence, and they worsened in the setting of menopause. A typical headache is unilateral and localized to the right frontotemporal and periorbital regions. The pain is described as throbbing and pulsating. When severe, her headaches are associated with nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia , and visual symptoms. Her headaches had increased in frequency and were occurring a few times a month, lasting for at least 12 hours, and causing her to miss work. Her examination was normal. Blood work and a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain were normal. So what disease does she has? a. Migraine b. Tension type headache c. Cluster headache d. Secondary headache 23. Acute exacerbations or exacerbations of multiple sclerosis should be preferred a. Antibiotics b. Vitamin c. Neurotrophic drugs d. Adrenocorticosteroids e. Painkillers 24. ( ) is the most effective and initial medical treatment for parkinson's disease a. Dopamine agonist b. Levodopa c. MAO-B inhibitor d. The Catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitors 25. In cases where there is difficulty in distinguishing ET from PD, particularly in tremor-dominant, slowly progressive forms, which examination can be useful? a. DaTSCAN b. MRI c. CT d. Genetic testing 26. 3 medical history of an epilepsy patient should include a. The age of onset and the etiology of the seizure b. The presence of an aura c. The detailed process of epileptic seizures d. All of the above 27. The most common type of migraine a. Migraine with aura b. Migraine without aura c. Basal type of migraine d. Chronic migraine 28. Who is affected more in ALS a. Men b. Women c. Equally d. Child 29. Which of the following option is not the treatment of BPPV a. Canalith repositioning procedure (CRP) b. Increase sleep c. Habituating exercises d. Medications 30. Which of the following is not the pure motor cranial nerve a. Oculomotor nerve b. Trochlear neve c. Abducens nerve d. Trigeminal nerve 31. The clinical manifestations of spinal cord compression do not include a. Back pain b. Paralysis of limbs c. decreased sensation d. sphincter disturbances e. loss of vision 32. The left eye blepharoptosis, the left pupil is dilated and the light reflection disappears. The eye can\'t move inward and upward, the downward movement is limited, and the lesion is located in a. left oculomotor nerve b. left trochlear nerve c. left trigeminal nerve eye branch d. left abduncent nerve 33. which is the great risk factor for Alzheimer\'s disease ? a. age b. genetic inheritance c. environmental factors d. other factors 34. which of the following is not a treatment of acute myelitis should choose ? a. hormone b. immune globulin c. B vitamins d. antibiotics 35. The optic nerve myelitis NMO a relatively specific immune markers a. NMO - serum IgG antibody b. Ganghoside antibodies c. the SSA antibody d. anti dsDNA 36. when seizures have been controlled for 12-24 hours. the drug dosage should be slowly reduce over another ( ) hours a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 24 37. when of the following is a common symptom of an anterior cerebral artery infarction a. contralateral foot and lower limb motor impairment b. contralateral hemiplegia c. contralateral hemianopsia d. cross collapsed 38. the most ideal drug for the treatment of herpes simple virus encephalitis a. acyclovir b. cytarabine c. ribavirin d. vidarabine e. virion 39. the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is a. arteriovenous malformation b. aneurysm c. tumor d. venous thrombosis 40. ( ) is the first line AED for adults with partial-onset seizures ( ) a. CBZ b. VPA c. OXC d. LTG 41. case analysis A 58 year-old male patient was admitted to our hospital, 2 hours before admission, he felt left limb weakness, accompanied by slurred Past history. The patient had a history of hypertension for more than 10 years. Physical Examination: BP 150/90 mmHg, clear consciousness, poor speech, relevant answer nystagmus (-) slightly swallow left nasolabial fold, left upper limb muscle strength level III, left lower limb muscle strength level III, right limb muscle strength level V, left babinski sign (+) Auxiliary examination. Head CT showed no obvious abnormal high or low density shadow in the skull. At this point, the most effective treatment is a. Antihypertensive treatment b. Ecg monitoring c. Oxygen d. Thrombolysis 42. after somatosensory transduction, the sensory signal travels throttle brain as a ( ) a. electrical b. pressure c. optical d. thermal 43. the selection of AED must be based on a. age b. sex c. the type of seizures of epilepsy syndrome d. economic levels 44. which of the following cerebrospinal fluid changes is most helpful in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis a. protein quantification increased b. protein electrophoresis oligoclonal IgG band (+) c. sugar quantification decreased d. protein-cell separation e. cell number increased 45. which of the following is tension-type headache pain features a. severe throbbing pain or a pulsing sensation b. orbital pain c. surrounded by a band or clamped in a vase d. severe strictly unilateral pain 46. typical Guillain Barre syndrome (acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuritis) is characterized by a. proximal dominated sensory disturbances b. asymmetric paralysis c. prominent dysuria d. crossed paralysis e. symmetrical flaccid paralysis 47. which of the following option is not systemic diseases of seizures a. hypoglycemia b. hyponatremia c. idiopathic epilepsy d. hypocalcemia 48. what symptom is the first sign of AD a. confusion b. memory loss c. poor judgement d. increased anxiety 49. the lesion of myasthenia gravies is a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. neuromuscular junction d. skeletal muscle cell 50. the clinical manifestations of syringomyelia do not include a. dissociated sensory loss at the level of the lesion b. weakness of muscles at the level of the lesion c. hemiplegia and hemianesthesia d. painless ulcers of the hands e. neurogenic arthropathies 51. when the injury occurs in patient will have contralateral hemiplegia , hemianesthesia, hemianopia a. midbrain b. medulla oblongata c. internal capsule d. thoracic cord 52. which segment of the spinal cord is most commonly involved in anterior spinal artery infarction ? a. cervical cord b. upper thoracic cord c. middle and lower thoracic acid d. lumbar cord e. sacral cord 53. ( ) is the preferred methods of surgical treatments for parkinson\'s disease? a. neuronuclear lesion b. frontal lobotomy c. deep brain electrical stimulation (DBS) d. DSA 54. the most common source of emboli in cerebral embolism is a. anterior cerebral artery b. Aorta c. Cariogenic embolism d. middle cerebral artery 55. patients, male, 46 years old 2 months left cheek paroxysmal pain, every time hair as suddenly appeared, pain is to get an electric shock samples, for several seconds, eating may induce, the disease is the most likely diagnosis a. the atypical face pain b. sinusitis c. butterfly palatal neuralgia d. trigeminal neuralgia e. glossopharyngeal nerve pain 56. which of the following options is not disturbance of consciousness dominated by altered arousal ? a. somnolence b. sopor c. coma d. confusion 57. vagus nerve exists the skull through a. jugalar foramen b. internal acousti meatus c. foramen magnum d. hypoglossal cananl 58. on side of the pupil is dilated, the direct and indirect light reflection disappears, and the direct and indirect light reflection of the opposite side is normal, the lesion is a. contralateral optic nerve b. ipsilateral optic nerve c. contralateral oculomotor nerve d. ipsilateral oculomotor nerve 59. the first muscle to be affected of myasthenia gravis is a. extrinsic ocular muscle b. respiratory muscle c. bulbar muscle d. proximal limb muscles 60. for patients with severe headache, the first choice examination is a. DSA b. **CT** c. MRI d. TCD 61. The clinical manifestation of acute facial neuritis is( ) a. Lateral facial pain b. Paralysis of all facial expression muscles c. Lateral upper facial muscle paralysis d. Hemifacial lower facial muscle paralysis e. **All facial expression muscles twitch on one side** 62. A 28-year-old woman with a history of tension headaches presents to her physician with change in quality of her headaches. Unlike her prior headaches, these do not occur upon awakening but after arising and when straing. They are aggravated by routine physical activity, such as bending over and during light exercise, and would abate completely when lying down These headaches are associated with nausea and vomiting, are more severe, and have lasted for 2 weeks, much longer than her usual headaches. She injured her neck in a car accident 3 weeks prior but has otherwise been feeling well An MRI of her brain and spine with contrast reveals marked leptomeningeal enhancement A subsequent myelogram reveals a dural tear at the cervicothoracic junction CSF analysis demonstrates slightly elevated protein and a low opening pressure. a. Migraine b. Cluster headache c. **headache attributed to low cerebrospinal flund pressure** d. Tension-type headache 63. Polymyositis is generally not involved( ) a. Proximal limb muscles b. Extrinsic ocular muscles c. **Respiratory muscle** d. Throat muscle 64. Which of the following is not characteristic of Wallanberg syndrome:() a. Vertigo b. Cerebellar ataxia c. Horner sign d. Aphasia 65. The most common pathogenesis of cerebral thrombosis is:() a. Artentis b. Atherosclerosis c. Hypercoagulability d. Congental vascular malformation 66. In the definition of Status epilepsy(SE), Time point T1 is at ()min after seizure onset.( ) a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30 67. If a person\'s cold receptors no longer convert cold stimuli into sensory signals, that person has a problem with the process of a. reception b. transmission c. perception d. transduction 68. Which of the following is not innervated by the oculo motor nerve ( ) a. Superior rectus b. **Lateral rectus** c. Inferior rectus d. Levator palpebrae 69. Headache attributed to low cerebrospinal fluid pressure is a headache caused by reduction of cerebrospinal fluid pressure. The low CSF pressure is often ( ) a. \ 70. Where does perception occur ( ) a. Spinal cord b. **Cerebral cortex** c. Receptors d. Thalamus 71. When the spinal transection lesion at............ level, patients will have upper motor paralysis of both lower extremities. a. C1-4 b. **C5-T2** c. T3-T12 d. L1-S2 72. Which of the following disturbances of consciousness is the most severe on the GCS scale ( ) a. **3-8 points** b. 9-12 points c. 13-15 points d. 16-20 points 73. At what age does the highest incidence occur in ALS ( ) a. 30-4- b. 40-5- c. **50-70** d. 70-80 74. Putamen hemorrhage larger than ( ) milimeters requires surgery a. 10 b. 20 c. **30** d. 40 75. Which clinica; sign is highly suggestive of multiple sclerosis ( ) a. Dysarthria b. Internuclearophtalmoplegia c. **Ataxia** d. Pataplegia e. Painful ankylosis 76. The clinical manifestation of subacute combined degeneration do not include ( ) a. Distal paresthesia on the extremities b. Distal weakness in the extremities c. **Dissociated sensory loss** d. Bilateral spastic paraparesis e. Impairment ofpostural sensations in the sign 77. The most common encephalitis in clinical practice is ( ) a. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis b. Enterovirus encephalitis c. **Herpes zoster virus encephalitis** d. Adenovirus encephalitis 78. Which nerve innervative the superficial sensation of the face ( ) a. **Trigeminal nerve** b. Optic nerve c. Olfactory nerve d. Oculomotor nerve 79. Drugs the control the SE should be given in travenously or intramuscular ( ) is the best choice A. **Midazolam** B. Paraldehyde C. Valproate D. Diazepam 80. Salty food activate the taste cells by ( ) a. Exciting the taste cell directly b. Causing hydrogen ions to enter the cell c. Causing sodium channels to close d. **Binding directly to the receptors** 81. Ehich of the following options is not the clinical manifestations of syncope ( ) a. Presyncope b. **Reflex syncope** c. Syncope stage d. Recovery stage 82. When the injury occurs in patients will have cross -- paralysis ( ) a. Frontal lobe b. **Brain stem** c. Parietal lobe d. Spinal cord 83. The direct light reflection of one pupil disappears, and the indirect light of the opposite side disappears. The lesion is located in ( ) a. Ipsilateral optic nerve b. **Contralateral optic nerve** c. Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve d. Contralateral oculomotor nerve 84. ( ) is also called bleeding artery a. Basilar artery b. **Middle cerebral artery** c. Stria bean artery d. Arteria cerebri anterior 85. The typical clinical features of acute myelitis is ( ) a. Cross sectional anesthesia b. Paraplegia c. Sphinoter disturbances d. **Above all** 86. Characteristics of the common sense of acute myelitis damage ( ) a. **Peripheral sensory disorder** b. Across the deeling obstacle c. Partial body feels obstacle 87. All sensory signals except........ travel to the.......... in the brain before the cerebral cortex a. Vision, thalamus b. Olfaction, thalamus c. **Vision, cranial nerves** d. Olfaction, cranial nerves 88. Male, 50 years old. When I brush my teeth in the morning, there is running wter in the left corner of my mouth, accompanied by pain in the back of my left ear. Physical examination, the left forehead wrinkles disappeared, the left eye was weakly closed, the lfet nasolabial groove was shallow, and the cortex of the mouth were crooked to the right. The most likely diagnosis is ( ) A. **Left facial neuritis** B. Guillain barre syndrome C. The first branch of left trigeminal nerve is damaged D. Central facial paralysis E. The third branch of left trigeminal nerve is damaged 89. Cerebrospinal fluid protein isolation of Guillain barre syndrome refers to ( ) a. Increased protein and normal cell count b. Normal protein, normal cell count c. Increased protein and decreased cell number d. Decrease of protein and increase of cell number e. **Normal protein, increased cell count** 90. ( ) should be used by myasthenia gravis patients a. Atropine atropine b. **Adrenalin** c. Neostigmine d. Gentamicin 91. Which segment of the spinal cord is associated with Hormer's syndrome ( ) a. **C5-C8** b. C5-T1 c. C8-T12 d. T9-L2 e. T2-L3 92. 5 ILAE, the neuroimaging committee proposed imaging examination in the following cases ( ) a. Any age history, and EEG suggest partial seizures b. Seizures or generalized seizures in infants one year or adults c. The nervous system proved to have localized damage. Antipileptic drugs (AEDs) cannot control seizures. Seizures type changes d. **All of the above** 93. Which of the following diseses is not only terminal diseases but also neurodegenerative diseases ( ) a. Cancer b. Motor neuron disease c. **Parkinson's disease** d. Alzheimer;s disease 94. CNS infections are classified according to their onset and course ( ) a. Meningitis, meningoencephalitis b. Bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis c. Meningitis, myelitis d. **Acute, subacute, chronic infection** e. Meningoencephalitis, cerebral parastosis 95. 4 2014 ILAE diagnosis conditions of epilepsy ( ) a. At least improvoked (or reflex) seizures occurring 24h apart b. One improvooekd (or reflex) seizure and a probability of future seizures similar to the general reccurence risk (at least 60%) after two improvoked (or reflex) seizures occurring over the next 10 10 years c. Diagnosis of the epilepsy syndrome d. **All of the above** 96. Which of the following symptoms does not belong to cerebellar ataxia ( ) a. Dysmetria b. Intention tremor c. Chorea d. **Nystagmus** 97. The clinical syndrome of a glossopharyngeal nerve lesions is characterized by ( ) a. **Less of taste (ageusia) on the posterior, one third of the tongue** b. **Absence of the gag and palatal reflexes** c. **Anesthesia and analgesia in the upper portion of the pharynx and in the area of the tonsils and the base of the tongue** d. **A mild disturbance of swallowing** 98. Hearing disorder includes ( ) a. **Deafness** b. **Tinnitus** c. **Hyperacusis** d. Vertigo e. Nystagmus 99. Lessions of facial nerve nucleus and peripheral nerve include a. Cannot frown b. Unable to close the eye c. Shallow nasolabial groove d. Dropping of the angle of the mouth 100. Bulbar paralysis includes a. **Dysphagia** b. **Bucking** c. **Hoarsement** d. **Dysathria**