Test 1 PDF

1) Which of the following is false about the chemical name of a drug?It is also called the scientific name. A) It is used in conventional language. B) The most important naming system is the IUPAC name. C) It is also called the scientific name. D) Drugs are named according t...

1) Which of the following is false about the chemical name of a drug?It is also called the scientific name. A) It is used in conventional language. B) The most important naming system is the IUPAC name. C) It is also called the scientific name. D) Drugs are named according to the structure of the drug molecules. 2) Which of the following is a generic name? A) Penicillin. B) Advil. C) N-acetyl-p-aminophenol. D) Zoloft. 3) Which of the following is another name for the brand name of A) Proprietary name. B) Scientific name. C) Trademark name. D) Copyright name. 4) According to the ATC system, level 1 classifies drugs according to A) Therapeutic action. B) Organ systems. C) Mechanism of action. D) chemical properties 5) Which of the following levels of the ATC system classifies drugs according to chemical components? A) Level 2. B) Level 3- C) Level 4- D) Level 5- 6) Drugs with no risk of teratogenicity are grouped into which of the following categories? A) Category X. B) Category N. C) Category A. D) Category D. 7) Which of the following pregnancy categories describes drugs that have not yet been categorized by the FDA? A) Category X. B) Category N. C) Category A. D) Category D. 8) Which of the following best describes drugs in pregnancy Category X? A) Drugs that have well-controlled human trials and animal trials that have shown fetal risks, adverse reactions and fetal abnormalities. B) Drugs with demonstrated risk to the human fetus but that can be used if the benefits outweigh the risks to the fetus.  C) Drugs with adverse effects demonstrated in animal trials but with insufficient data on well-controlled trials in pregnant women. D) Drugs with no fetal risk demonstrated during animal trials, with insufficient well-controlled human trials. It also includes drugs that have demonstrated adverse fetal risks in animal trials but that have not demonstrated risks to the fetus in well-controlled human trials. 9) Which of the following is false about Schedule I drugs? A) They have a high potential for abuse and addiction. B) They are safe for medical use only under strict medical supervision. C) Heroin is an example. D) Psilocybin is an example. 10) Which of the following is a Schedule II drug? A) Mescaline. B) Cathinone. C) Phencyclidine. D) Ketamine 11) Concerning LASA medications, what is the most appropriate description? A) Medications that have similarities in shape only. B) Medications that have similarities in name only. C) Medications that appear similar in chemical properties. D) Medications that are similar in physical structure, packaging and drug names v similar spellings or pronunciation. 12) Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with LASA medications? A) Illegible writing. B) Incomplete knowledge of drug names. C) Medications with different clinical uses. D) Similar packaging and label. 13) Which of the following is a strategy used to reduce error during procurement of LASA medications? A) Tall man lettering. B) Encouraging the availability of multiple medicine strengths. C) Reducing the availability of multiple medicine strengths. D) Additional warning labels. 14) The act of writing part of the name of a medication in upper case to help differentiate LASA medications is called A) Slow man lettering. B) Upper case lettering. C) Legible writing. D) Tall man lettering. 15) Which of the following is not an example of drug pairs with tall man lettering? A) metFORMIN and metoprolol. B) nitroGLYCERINe and nitroprusside. C) LOsartan and Lovastatin. D) ACETAminophen and ACETALdehyde. 16) Which of the following is false about the metric system of measurement?  A) It is commonly used at home. B) It is the legal system of measurement in the United States. C) It uses the decimal system. D) It includes the gram, meter and liter. 17) Which of the following measurement systems is also known as the Avoirdupois System? A) The metric system. B) The international unit system. C) The household system. D) The apothecary system. 18) Which of the following statements is false concerning triangle checks in LASA medications? A) You should check the actual medicines against the medication label. B) You should check the actual medications against the prescription. C) You should identify medication only by physical appearance. D) It is done during administration and dispensation of drugs. 19) Concerning patient education on medications, which of the following is false? A) The patient should be informed of changes in the appearance of medication. B) Patients and caregivers should inform the health-care provider if the medication appears different from what is usually administered. C) Patients and caregivers should be encouraged to learn the names of their medication. D) Patients should be encouraged to perform a triangle check before taking their medication. 20) Concerning the monitoring of LASA medication, which of the following is incorrect? A) All facilities should identify medications that look or sound alike in their organization. B) Periodic reviews and updates of the LASA list should be performed. C) Feedback mechanisms to provide information on LASA medication should be implemented. D) Staff should be informed of medications listed as LASA only once a year. 21) Which of the following best describes a Class A prescription balance? A) A device used to measure large quantities of material and drugs above 5 kg B) A balance that is usually composed of a single pan. C) A measuring device used to weigh quantities that are not more than 120 g D) A balance used for mixing certain compounds. 22) Concerning conical graduates, which of the following is true? A) They are used in the measurement of liquids that have wide bases and wide tops that taper from the top to bottom. B) They are useful when measuring liquids that have narrow diameters at the top and base. C) They are usually in the form of plates made up of hard, flat and nonabsorbent surfaces. D) They are used in the measurement of solid drugs. 23) Which of the following may be referred to as compounding? 1 - Preparation of radioactive isotopes 2 - Preparation of suppositories, oral liquids and topical medications 3 - Conversion from one dosage form to another A) 2 only. B) 2 and 3. C) 3 only. D) 1, 2 and 3. 24) Which of the following materials is incorrectly paired with its use? A) Heat guns - Used to shrink bands onto vials. B) Decappers - Used to remove seals on containers. C) Beakers - Used to hold liquids. D) Hot plates - Used for drying tablets during compounding. 25) Which of the following is true about formulating suspensions? A) It is easy to maintain the physical stability of suspensions after compounding. B) It does not require the process of trituration. C) Suspensions are difficult to compound. D) A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture. 26) Which of the following is correct about the compounding of suspensions? A) Suspensions are not filtered. B) Suspensions are combined with a low-speed mixer. C) A light-sensitive bottle is used to store suspensions. D) Levigating agents are added quickly. 27) Which of the following is correct regarding solutions? A) They require shaking before use. B) Sterile solutions include oral and otic solutions. C) The solubility characteristic of each active ingredient must be known. D) All active ingredients in a solution must be dissolved in the same solvent. 28) Which of the following is not a property of elixirs? A) They need to be stirred continuously during preparation. B) Alcohol required for an elixir is usually minimal. C) They are compounded by combining different kinds of alcohol with sugar. D) They are compounded by combining alcohol-soluble and water-soluble ingredients. 29) Which of the following statements concerning an emulsion is true? A) An emulsion is a type of solution. B) Oil-in-water emulsions are not greasy. C) Water-in-oil emulsions are not greasy. D) Water-in-oil emulsions are usually for oral use 30) Which of the following statements is false regarding the compounding of emulsions? A) There are four methods for compounding emulsions. B) The dry gum method of compounding is also known as the continental method. C) The continental method is the preferred method of compounding emulsions. D) In the English method, gum acacia is first combined with an oil. 31) Which of the following is true concerning the labeling of controlled substances? A) Drug manufacturers are required by federal law to use a particular symbol to indicate that it is a controlled substance. B) A container of a patient's medication should carry a message prohibiting the transfer of medication. C) A Schedule III controlled substance is denoted as CIII. D) All of the above. 32) Which of the following is correct regarding the FDA drug risk management process? A) The FDA considers a drug to be safe if the benefits of using it outweigh the risk.  B) The FDA considers a drug to be safe if it has no adverse effects. C) The FDA considers a drug to be safe if it is used by a large population. D) The FDA considers a drug to be safe if it is used for terminally ill patients. 33) At what stage of the drug risk management process are determinations made to assess if the benefits of taking a drug outweigh the risk? A) Assessment. B) Making adjustments. C) Evaluating effectiveness. D) Minimizing. 34) Which of the following is not part of the process of drug risk management? A) Assessment. B) Minimizing. C) Optimization. D) Evaluating effectiveness. 35) The risk evaluation and management strategy (REM) is used to achieve all except A) Eliminating the risk associated with taking certain drugs. B) Closely monitoring patients who take REM drugs. C) Educating health-care providers and pharmacists. D) Providing specific requirements on the use of certain drugs. 36) A drug used in the treatment of patients requires risk evaluation and management itoring to monitor its effects on the patient population. Which of the following s requires REM monitoring? A) acetaminophen. B) Lemtrada. C) Vasoprin. D) Vasopressin. 37) Which of the following is not a factor considered by the FDA before it requires REM for a drug? A) How new the drug is. B) How often adverse effects have occurred within a population. C) The size of the population to use the drug. D) The strength of drug dosage. 38) Which of the following ingredients is present in OTC cold medications but is also used in the illegal manufacturing of street drugs? A) Methamphetamine. B) Pseudoephedrine. C) Epinephrine. D) Latruda. 39) Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of type i diabetes mellitus? A) Metformin. B) Glyburide. C) Glipizide. D) Humulin. 40) You are to give an IV drug to a child. If the adult dose is 20 mg/kg and the child weighs 30 kg, what is the dose to be given to this child? A) 150 mg.  B) 600 mg. C) 300 mg. D) 400 mg. 41) You are to give an IM drug to a child. If the adult dose is 15 mg/kg and the child weighs 6o Ibs, what is the dose to be given to this child? A) 365 mg. B) 450 mg. C) 409 mg. D) 200 mg- 42) You are to give a drug to a seven-year-old child who weighs 50 Lbs. If the adult dose of the drug is 200 mg, calculate the dose to be given to the child using Young's Rule. A) 90 mg. B) 120 mg. C) 67 mg. D) 74 mg. 43) What dose will be given to the above-mentioned child using Clark's Rule? A) 90 mg. B) 120 mg. C) 67 mg. D) 74 mg. 44) You are to give a drug at the rate of 40 mg/m2 to a child who weighs 66 pounds and is 42 inches tall. What dose of the drug will be given? A) 38 mg. B) 45 mg. C) 101 mg. D) 201 mg. 45) You are to give a drug at the rate of 60 mg/m2 to a child who weighs 50 kg and is 110 cm tall. What dose of the drug will be given? A) 100 mg. B) 74 mg. C) 200 mg. D) 240 mg. 46) You are to give an IV drug to a child. If the adult dose is 10 mg/kg and the child weighs 15 kg, what is the dose to be given to this child? A) 150 mg. B) 225 mg. C) 15 mg. D) 1.5 mg. 47) You are to give a drug to a 10-year-old child who weighs 100 lbs. If the adult dose of the drug is 500 mg, calculate the dose to be given to the child using Young's Rule. A) 227 mg. B) 500 mg. C) 333 mg. D) 450 mg. 48) You are to give a drug to a 10-year-old child who weighs 100 Lbs. If the adult dose of the drug is 500 mg, calculate the dose to be given to the child using Clark's Rule. A) 227 mg. B) 500 mg. C) 333 mg. D) 450 mg. 49) Which of the following is a Schedule IV drug? A) Tramadol. B) Codeine. C) Hydromorphone. D) Psilocybin. 50) Which of the following is false about therapeutic equivalence between two drugs? A) The two drugs must contain the same active ingredients. B) They must be FDA approved. C) They must have the same packaging. D) They must have the same pharmacokinetics. 51) Which of the following best describes pharmaceutical equivalence? A) Drugs with the same bioavailability. B) Drugs with the same active ingredient but expressed in different esters. C) Drugs with the same pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. D) Drugs with a different mechanism of action but treat the same disease condition. 52) Which of the following describes a drug's ability to act on a receptor site? A) Affinity. B) Selectivity. C) Residence time. D) Intrinsic efficacy. 53) Which of the following describes the likelihood of a drug occupying a receptor! A) Affinity. B) Selectivity. C) Residence time. D) Intrinsic efficacy. 54) Which of the following describes a drug that acts as an antagonist only in the presence of other agonists? A) Reverse agonist. B) Partial agonist. C) Competitive antagonist. D) Noncompetitive antagonist. 5) Which of the following is false about passive diffusion across membranes? A) Substances move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. B) Water-soluble molecules diffuse quickly. C) Small molecules diffuse quickly. D) Un-ionized molecules diffuse quickly. 56) Which of the following statements is false about facilitated diffusion? A) It occurs toward a concentration gradient.  B) Lipids are transported by this means. C) It does not require energy. D) Diffusion is done via carrier molecules. 57) What form of cellular transport requires energy to transport molecules against a concentration gradient? A) Pinocytosis. B) Active transport. C) Facilitated diffusion D) Passive diffusion 58) Concerning the oral administration of drugs, which of the following statements is A) The stomach has a large surface area and a long transit time. B) Drugs are mostly absorbed in the large intestine. C) Food delays gastric emptying. D) The stomach has a thin mucosa. 59) Which of the following options is the most appropriate reason for the classification of a drug as a high-alert medication? A) The drug looks like other drugs. B) It is very expensive. C) It requires high doses to achieve a therapeutic effect. D) It has a narrow therapeutic index. 60) Which of the following classes of drugs is not a high-alert medication? A) Insulin. B) Anticoagulants. C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). D) Narcotics. 61) Concerning high-alert medications, which of the following is not true? A) High-alert medications have a narrow therapeutic margin. B) Little dosage or blood concentration changes can cause serious dose or blood-concentration critical events. C) Adverse effects can be life-threatening and require hospitalization. D) An example is acetaminophen. 62) Which of the following is not useful in preventing errors of insulin administration? A) Separate insulin vials from heparin vials. B) Avoid abbreviations. C) Implement a check-and-balance system. D) Store insulin in the fridge. 63) Hypertonie sodium chloride is a high-alert drug because it increases the risk of A) Cerebral edema B) Pulmonary edema C) Phlebitis D) Liver failure 64) What term is used to describe a patient's ability to be free from injuries caused by medical care? A) Patient safety. B) Patients freedom  C) Medication error D) Prescription error 65) Which of the following strategies is not useful in reducing the risk of errors when administering heparin? A) Use single-dose vials. B) Use commercially available premixes. C) Use standardized concentrations. D) Store heparin vials away from insulin vials. 66) Which of the following is not a withdrawal symptom of benzodiazepine ab A) Hyperpyrexia. B) Tachycardia. C) Seizures. D) Diarrhea 67) Which of the following vaccine reactions is caused by the properties of a vaccine? A) Vaccine quality defect-related reaction. B) Vaccine product-related reaction. C) Coincidental event. D) Immunization error-related reactions. 68) All these increase the risk of human error during prescription except? A) Fatigue. B) Poor lighting. C) Noise. D) Barcode. 69) Concerning the formulation of pastes, which of the following is true? A) All pastes contain medication. B) Pastes contain a higher amount of solids than creams. C) Pastes soften at body temperature. D) Pastes are compounded through a more complex technique than ointments. 70) Which of the following is false about the production of gels? A) They are compounded using inorganic or organic particles. B) Actions result in local effects. C) They are generally applied locally. D) They do not bring about systemic effects. 71) Which of the following statements is false about creams? A) Usually, creams are for topical use. B) They are compounded in the same manner as ointments. C) They do not contain medication. D) They are a combination of water and oil. 72) Concerning the formulation of ointments, which of the following is false? A) Ointments are water-based products. B) Insoluble powders may be used during their compounding. C) The final product should be smooth and free of abrasive particles. D) Drugs in the form of crystals or powders may be compounded into ointments. 73) Which of the following materials is least useful for compounding ointments?  A) A glass slab. B) A spatula. C) A tablet mold. D) A mortar. 74) Suppositories can be produced using all except As bases. A) Cocoa butter. B) Almond butter C) Glycerinated gelatin D) Polyethylene glycol 75) All except which of these factors affect the rate of distribution of a drug? A) Permeability of the membranes. B) Tissue binding. C) Receptor affinity. D) Regional pH. 76) Concerning the volume of distribution of a drug, which of the following is false? A) The apparent volume of distribution is theoretical. B) Acidic drugs have large volumes of distribution. C) Basic drugs have large volumes of distribution. D) Acidic drugs are readily bound to proteins. 79) Which of the following does not affect a drug's rate of metabolism? A) Genetics. B) Liver diseases. C) Drug interactions. D) The drug's pH. 77) Concerning the binding of drugs, which of the following statements is false? A) Acidic drugs readily bind to albumin. B) Basic drugs readily bind to adipose tissue. C) Unbound drugs are transported by passive diffusion. D) The therapeutic effect of a drug is carried out by its unbound molecules. 78) Drugs do not readily enter the brain because of the blood-brain barrier. Which of the following is not a component of the blood-brain barrier? A) Endothelial cells. B) Astrocytic sheath. C) Choroid plexus. D) Basement membrane. 79) Which of the following does not affect a drug's rate of metabolism? A) Genetics. B) Liver diseases. C) Drug interactions. D) The drug's pH. 80) In which order of kinetics is the rate of metabolism proportional to the amount of unmetabolized drugs left? A) First order. B) Second order.  C) Zero order. D) Third order. 81) Which of the following reactions occurs in phase I metabolism? A) Hydrolysis. B) Oxidation. C) Glucuronidation. D) Conjugation. 82) Which of the following reactions occurs in phase II metabolism? A) Hydrolysis. B) Oxidation. C) Glucuronidation. D) Conjugation. 83) Which of the following is the primary route of drug excretion? A) Urine. B) Saliva. C) Feces. D) conjugation 84) Concerning the renal excretion of drugs, which of the following statements is false? A) Metabolites are conjugated into salts to make them water-soluble. B) Acidifying the urine increases the rate of excretion of weak acids. C) Inhibitors can block the excretion of metabolites by acting on the proximal convoluted tubule. D) Renal excretion decreases with age. 85) You are counseling Mrs. Philips, a 65-year-old female on aspirin for myocardial infarction, to avoid taking ibuprofen for her knee pain to prevent the risk of myocardial infarction. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of this drug-drug interaction? A) Aspirin prevents the metabolism of ibuprofen. B) Ibuprofen blocks prostaglandin synthesis. C) Aspirin increases the excretion of ibuprofen. D) Ibuprofen competes with aspirin for the COX-1 receptor. 86) Mr. Phelps, a 56-year-old male on citalopram for a depressive disorder, presents to the pharmacy for ibuprofen, an OTC. You know that a drug-drug interaction between an SSRI and an NSAID increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of citalopram in causing the bleeding? A) It binds to COX-1 and blocks platelet aggregation. B) It competes with ibuprofen for the COX-1 receptor. C) It prevents the reuptake of serotonin in dopaminergic neurons. D) It blocks the transport of serotonin into platelets. 87) All except which of the following drug-drug interactions increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding? A) SSRI and NSAID. B) SSRI and warfarin. C) NSAID and ACEI. D) Warfarin and erythromycin 88) A drug interaction with sertraline and sumatriptan will increase the risk of  A) Coagulopathies. B) Serotonin syndrome. C) Hypertension. D) Hyperkalemia. 89) Which of the following drug-drug interactions will increase the risk of Torsade de Pointes? A) Fluoroquinolone and erythromycin. B) Citalopram and diclofenac. C) Warfarin and Amiodarone. D) Spironolactone and eplerenone. 90) Antacids containing calcium carbonate block the absorption of all except which of the following drugs in the gut? A) Tetracycline. B) Iron. C) Levothyroxine D) Citalopram