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ExceptionalNavy5487

Uploaded by ExceptionalNavy5487

Haramaya University

2009

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multiple choice questions statistics health social science

Summary

This is a collection of multiple-choice questions, likely from a past undergraduate Public Health exam. The questions cover various aspects of population health research and methods. The questions delve into rates, factors influencing data reliability, different methods of evaluation.

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----- Forwarded Message ---- From: Desalegn Tessema To: [email protected] Sent: Friday, August 28, 2009 2:31:52 AM Subject: exam Multiple choice questions choose the best answer and put the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided to you (please use capital letters!!) 1. Which on...

----- Forwarded Message ---- From: Desalegn Tessema To: [email protected] Sent: Friday, August 28, 2009 2:31:52 AM Subject: exam Multiple choice questions choose the best answer and put the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided to you (please use capital letters!!) 1. Which one of the following is wrong? A. The mode of a distribution is always unique if it exists. B. Range depends on only the two extreme values of a distribution. C. The mean of a distribution is expressed in the same unit as the original data D. Median divides a distribution into two equal parts. E. None of the above 2. One of the following is not a factor, which affects data collected by interviewing technique. A. Forgetfulness B. Misunderstanding the question C. Deliberate intent to mislead D. All E. None 3. Which one of the following rates measures the average number of children that a cohort of women will have at the end of their reproductive life? A. Crude birth rate B. Age specific birth rate C. Total fertility rate D. General fertility rate E. Gross reproduction rate 4. The shape of population pyramid indicates A. Effect of births B. Effect of deaths C. Socioeconomic status of the population D. Effect of migration E. All of the above 5. One of the following data collection methods is dependent on the educational level of the respondent. A. Self administered questionnaire B. Highly structured interview C. Direct personal observation D. Abstracting from already existing doesment E. None 6. Which one of the following is NOT true about population pyramids? A. Is shows age and sex structure of the population B. Males should be on the left side of the pyramid C. Younger population should be at the bottom D. Percentage should be calculated from group total E. None of the above 7. Which of the following is Not true about the meaning of statistically A. Reject null hypothesis B. Sample value is not compatible with the null hypothesis value C. Do not reject the alternative hypothesis (H) D. Sampling variation is an unlikely explanation of the discrepancy between null hypothesis and sample value E. None of the above 8. Concerning confidence intervals for the population mean, if all else are held constant which of the following will result in an interval of less width? A. A large standard deviation (3) B. Increasing the magnitude of confidences from 90% to 95% C. A smaller value for the sample mean D. A large sample size E. None of the above 9. Self administered questionnaires which are to be returned by mail are best recommended if the only if A. The survey is done in urban areas B. The population to be covered is literate C. The survey is on health and health related problems D. High response rate is needed E. Interviewers are not trained properly 10. Which one of the following rates measure fertility level of women by age? A. Crude birth rate B. Gross reproduction rate C. General fertility rate D. Total fertility rate E. Age specific fertility rate 11. The type of test statistic used in testing a hypothesis depends on A. The type of the variable B. The sample size C. Distribution of the population D. Knowledge on population parameter E. All of the above 12. a researcher was interested to test a certain hypothesis at 95% confidence interval. After performing all the required steps he found a P-value of 0.05. What should be his conclusion based on this information? A. Reject the null hypothesis B. Accept the alternative hypothesis C. The difference between the sample value and the population is merely by chance D. B and c E. None of the above 13. Which of the following is not a sufficient estimator? A. Sample mean B. Sample variance C. Sample mode D. Sample standard deviation E. None of the above 14. Which of the following does need consideration in A. Objective of the study B. Wording of the questions C. Sequence of the questions D. List of variables E. All of the above 15. One of the following is a direct reflection of the socio- economic status of a country. A. Infant mortality rate B. Maternal mortality rate C. Child mortality rate D. Shape of population pyramid E. All of the above 16. One of the following is considered as essentially equivalent to the simple random sampling technique provided that there is no hidden cyclic pattern. A. Systematic sampling B. Cluster sampling C. Stratified random sampling D. Non-probabilistic sampling E. None of the above 17. Which one of the following statements is true about risk factors? A. Risk factors are those factors whose presence is associated with an increased probability of disease development in the future B. All forms of risk factors are modifiable C. Only certain fonns of risk factors can be modified D. A and B E. A and C 18. What are the two basic measures of morbidity? A. Rates and ratio B. Rates and proportion C. Prevalence and incidence rates D. All of the above E. None of the above 19. Low prevalence may reflect A. Low incidence B. Rapid core (short duration of illness) C. High case fatality rate D. All of the above E. None of the above 20. Which one of the following measures of morbidity is preferable to be A. Point prevalence rate B. Period prevalence rate C. Secondary attack rate D. Incidence rate E. All of the above 21. Which measures of morbidity indicates the spread of infection within contacts from primary case A. Point prevalence rate B. Period prevalence rate C. Secondary attack rate D. Incidence rate E. None of the above 22. Which of the following can account as possible reason for changes in the trend of rate of disease occurrence? A. Changes in the recognition of disease B. Changes in the rules and procedures for disease classification C. Errors in enumeration of the population D. Changes in incidence of disease E. All of the above 23. Which of the following is true about causal association of a factor to a disease? A. The greater the odds ratio, the lesser is the strength of association B. The greater the relative risk (RR) the stronger the association C. The cause should precede the effect with respect to temporal relation D. A and C E. B and C 24. Data on frequency and distribution of disease are used to: A. Determine priority health problems B. Determine community’s need of service 25. Epidemiologically speaking one of the following BEST describes the current pattern of occurrence of HIV infection. A. It is occurring as endemic disease prevailing only in some countries B. It is pandemic C. It assumes seasonal outbreaks only in some areas D. All of the above E. None of the above For many years Drug A has been used to treat Disease C. A new drug X is now thought to be effective in treating Disease C. Using random numbers table 3000 parants with disease C are given drug X interavenously. Both drugs (A and X) have the same dosage schedule and have the same color. The drugs have similar ride effects. Only identification number identifies the medications for each patient.. Neither patient nor physician is told which drug is being given. 26. From the above information we can determine that the study is a: A. Case control study B. Cross sectional study C. Cohort study D. Clinical trial E. None of the above 27. Assignment of the study groups was: A. Randomized B. Non-randomized C. Achieved by matching D. Systematic E. None of the above 28. The control group received: A. Placebo B. The standard treatment C. No intervention D. Drug X E. None of the above 29. The experimental group received: A. Placebo B. The standard treatment C. No intervention D. Drug X E. None of the above 30. The study is: A. Partly blind B. Single blind C. Double blind D. Not blind E. None of the above A certain international hotel in Addis ababa recently had out break of 60 cases of food poisoning among the 100 staff and visitors eating in the hotel cafeteria. Due to the mature of the illness only three foods were considered in the analysis. The data are is follows. Number of Persons Eat did not Eat Food item Ill Not ILL ILL Not ILL Egg Salad 58 25 2 15 Cottage cheese 40 10 20 30 Ice Cream 59 35 1 5 Rr= Answer of the following based on the above data 31. What was the attack rate among those who are the following foods? Attack Rate A. Egg salad ________69.8_________ % B. Cottage Cheese _______80_______ % C. Ice Cream ______62.4_ ____ % What is the relative risk of sickness associated with eating that various foods? Relative risk D. Egg salad __________________________ % E. Cottage Cheese _____________________ % F. Ice Cream _________________________ % 32. Which of the following is characteristic of mechanical vectors? D. Infectious agent multiples in the vector E. An extrinsic period of incubation is required F. A mechanical vector transmits disease by serving as a means of transportation of the agent to the host G. All of the above H. None of the above 32. One of the following is not true about prevalence rates: D. Prevalence is affected by duration of illness E. A disease with high case fatality rate is expected to have a higher prevalence then a disease with low ease fatality rate. F. Improvement in cure rate of a disease decreases the prevalence rate of the disease. G. The higher the incidence of a disease the higher would be its prevalence H. Chronic diseases can have a relatively higher prevalence rate as compared to acute conditions with similar incidence rate. 32. Which of the following parameters can preferably be used to assess endemicity of malaria in a given community? D. Splenomegaly rate in the general population E. Rate of clinically suspected cases among health service attendants. F. Splenomegaly rate among children < 10 years of age G. All of the above H. None of the above 32. Which one of the following is true about meningococcal meningitis with regard to countries of the “meningitis belt” of Africa ? D. Epidemics usually result from scrotype A E. Epidemics usually result from scrotype B F. Epidemics occur often predictably G. ‘A’ and ‘B’ H. ‘A’ and ‘C’ 32. Managerial role of Health Officers in community medicine in developing countries include D. Teaching E. Community mobilization F. Diagnosis and treatment of individuals and communities G. All of the above H. A and B of the above 32. Primary Health care D. Is provided in Ethiopia by general practitioners of all categories. E. Is more adequately provided in most developing countries than hospital services F. Can only be provided by adequately trained Health Officers and doctors G. Is more expensive than hospital health care H. Is founded by local governmental in Ethiopia 32. Which of the following approaches to health care is being widely D. Vertical approach E. Basic Health service approach F. Hospital based approach G. Primary health care approach H. All of the above 32. Which of the following planning concepts are applied in measuring the impact or outcome of services D. Efficiency E. Effectiveness F. Adequacy G. A and B H. B and C 32. Which of the following statements is the best example of a clear complete and well defined objective? D. By the end of 1998, 80% of children under 1 year of age will be vaccinated against target disease E. By the end of 1998 all pregnant women in OmoNada Wereda will attend prenatal clinics F. To decrease prevalence of tuberculosis in OmoNada Wereda by 59% G. Increase health service distribution by the year 2000. H. All of the above 32. The enforcement of Public Health legislation requires proper judgment on the part of D. The judge E. The attomey F. The medical officer G. A and B H. None of the above 32. In the health care system communities should be involved in: D. Problem identification E. Resource identification F. Priority setting and planning G. All of the above H. None of the above 32. Which of the following is the function of management in evaluation? D. Select indicators of effectiveness E. Economic use of resources F. Assessment G. A and C H. B and C 32. The existing National Health polity states: D. Emphasis on disease prevention and control E. Priority to urban areas and expansion of hospital F. Development of a lobar-tier health care delivery system G. Total government responsibility for health of the people H. None of the above 32. A vaccination seam arranged to hold a vaccination session each month as certain outreach village. When the dry arrived, the Health Officer in change of the health center insisted on taking the land rover to the zonal capital to obtain supplier. Without the transport the vaccination team could not keep the appointment. The patients waited in vain all day and then went home. This statement indicates. D. Lack of information E. Lack of organization F. Lack of coordination G. All of the above H. None of the above 32. Today in health institutions long queues have become common phenomena. The possible explanation for these are:- D. Shortage of human resources to handle the patients E. Long queues are unavoidable scenery of all health institutions F. Poor design of work flow and an owl ward space arrangement G. The other institutions in the area might not be functioning properly and the referral system has failed for number of reasons H. All of the above 32. Health Planning D. A process of defining community health problems E. A process of establishing priority goals F. A process of determining precise objective G. Requires use of epidemiological methods H. All of the above 32. Suppose you are Head of Omonada Wereda Health office and you have received a budget breakdown from Zonal Health Department. The amount of recurrent budget for the wereda for 1990 E.C fiscal year are 75% for salaries, 13% for drugs and 12% for operational costs. If you want to evaluate the cost effectiveness of the health programmes in the wereda which of the ratios do you recommend for measurement? D. The ratio of the total health service cost of the wereda to the population of the wereda E. The ratio of the total number of health workers in the wereda to the population of the wereda F. The ratio of the total health service costs of each health programme to the number of people who were provided service by the respective programme 32. All of the following statements are true about management of time except D. Time is a non-renewable resource that requires wise utilization E. Doing faster and longer is the best strategy to save time F. Time can not be stored borrowed rented or adopted to our individual needs G. Yearly calendar schedule time tables programmes and duty H. None of the above 32. Ceichment area as used in the health sector means: D. The area from where health workers come E. The area from where people come for services F. The area where a community health post is located G. The training area for medical and paramedical students H. All of the above 32. Strategies for changing health behavior include D. Assessment of knowledge attitude and practice E. Instilling external focus of control F. Maintaining health behavior through social pressure G. A and B are correct H. A and C are correct 32. Which one of the following is an important component in health education? D. The information conveyed E. The health consumer F. The social influence on behavior G. All of the above H. None of the above 32. Which one of the following describes the concept of health more appropriately? D. The absence of disease or infirmity E. The presence of complete physical health F. Both A and B G. All of the above H. None of the above 32. Innovations are most likely adopted: D. When people are convinced that complex acts can be tackled at once E. When an element of risk can be viewed lightly F. When they are as good as existing practices G. When they are compatible with existing social values H. All to the above 32. one of the following is not about the new approaches to health education in primary health care D. Use of people oriented health technology is stressed E. Use of lay resources may have negative consequences F. Understanding human ecology and life styles is important G. The traditional role of health care providers must be changed H. None of the above 56. In organizing a health campaign in a community D. The campaign may have more than one theme E. The need for the campaign can be discussed after completion of the campaign F. The community members can identify a problem for the campaign G. All of the above H. None of the above Health care workers are often involved in health communication. They are usually respected as good sources of information, and they are in regular contact with many parents through their day-to-day work. Assuming you are a professional health worker engaged in health education activity in outpatients setting with a mother whose child has diarrhea; your role as an educator is to teach, to share knowledge, experience, skills and ideas. The outcome of the treatment depends often on how well you communicate with the mother and how well she carries out your instructions about home care. Instruction: Answer questions 57-59 based on the illustration given above 57. The communication situation in the information given is? A. One-to-one B. Face-to-face C. Individual health education D. All of the above E. None of the above 58. One of the following is a barrier for effective health communication in health facilities, except A. Crowded out patient areas B. Lack of supplies (posters flip cliarts etc) C. Lack of communication skills by health staff D. Lack of time to find out mother’s views E. None of the above 59. Which of the following is/are a disadvantage of using closed questions in health communication with mothers? A. Can lead a mother to answer what she thinks the health worker wants to bear B. A mother will have little opportunity to say anything apart from yes or no C. The chance to find out other important information will have been missed D. All of the above E. None of the above 60. the communication process always involves A. a sender B. a receiver C. a feedback D. a message E. All except C 61. Translating the idea to be communicated into a message is. A. Decoding B. Encoding C. Channeling D. Receiving E. None of the above 62. Which of the following is incorrect about ONE-WAY communication? A. It clears up misunderstanding B. It is a linear type of communication C. The meaning is controlled by sender D. All except B E. None of the above 63. Which of the following is incorrect about TWO-WAY communication A. The sender can affect the quality of the feedback B. It is good for transmitting complex messages C. The process of receiving message can be monitored by the sender D. The meaning is controlled by the receiver E. None of the above 64. One of the following is correct about feedback. A. It is important for effective communication B. It helps to correct the subsequent messages C. It helps to find out the effect of the communication on the receiver D. All of the above E. All except A 65. When there is barrier to effective communication, the following will occur Except A. Misunderstanding B. Lack of motivation C. Distortion of message D. Effective decision E. None of the above 66. Group communication A. Transmit messages to a large and distant audience B. Involves face-to-face communication C. Takes place inside the person D. All of the above E. None of the above 67. Strategies to decrease maternal mortality rate include. A. Family planning service B. Provision of antenatal care C. Improving emergency obstetric care D. A, B and C E. B and C only 68. Which one of the following is not true about he strategies adopted for eradication of polio? A. Who recommends that all children less than 5 yr of age receive 2 doses of OPV during National immunization days regardless of their immunization status? B. House-to-House immunization is necessary in High-risk area C. Polio has been eradicated from North and South America D. Routine immunization programs in developing countries may not be enough in eradicating polio E. none 69. Services offered in Reproductive health care service do NOT include. A. Screening and Treatment of STD B. Screening for gynecological malignancies C. Prevention of Infertility D. Counseling E. None 70. Which of the following is not true concerning Maternal Mortality? A. Educational status of women can indirectly affect the maternal mortality rate B. Mortality rates are lower at both ends of fertile age C. Women having their first pregnancy are at a higher risk of death than women having their 2nd and 3rd D. A and B E. A and C 71. Which of the following is NOT true about diarrheal disease in children? A. Malnutrition increases the duration and severity of diarrheal diseases B. Case fatality rate of acute watery diarrhea is greater than case fatality of persistent diarrhea C. Diarrhea is worse in patients with Malnutrition D. Low birth weight infants are at increased risk of diarrhea morbidity and mortality E. None 72. Trained Traditional Birth attendant are supposed to do all of the following except A. Conduct clean and safe delivery B. Identify danger signs and refer to higher center C. Give immunization for the Newborn D. Advice the community against Harmful Traditional Practices related to pregnancy and child birth E. None 73. Which of the following is true A. Management of obstetric complication has a strong and more immediate impact B. Maternity waiting rooms are meant for all pregnant mothers to gather close to a hospital during the last few weeks of pregnancy C. Components of MCH services are only promotive and preventive service, curative services are not included D. A and B only E. A, B and C 74. Which of the following is NOT true about female genital mutilation (FGM)? A. It has traditionally been called (female circumcision) B. It is often performed during infancy, childhood or adolescence C. Infibulation is one type of FGM where the Clitoris is removed, some or part of the Labia minora amputated and incisions are made on the Libia Majora D. None 75. Maternal and child health as a concept us taken as essential health care among other disciplines because of the following except: A. The target group constitutes the majority of the population in developing countries B. They account for more than their fair and hare of the burden of disease C. The rampant-ness of the violation of the right of women all over the world D. It allows resources to be targeted towards the most vulnerable group of the population E. None of the above 76. Infant mortality rate of a given country can be taken as an indicator of one of the following features of that country. A. Nutritional situation B. Educational status C. Sanitary condition D. Medical care E. Can indicate all conditions mentioned above 77. Which one of the following statements holds true pertaining to child death? A. The commonest cause of infant death during the post neonatal period is conditions related to congenital defects B. The neonatal morality rate constitutes the bulk of infant mortality rate in developing countries, while the post neonatal mortality is more important component in developed nations C. Perinatal mortality rate could be taken as the best indicator of status of nutrition and infectious diseases of a given country D. The still birth and the prenatal death rates are commonly used rates in developing countries as they are reliable indicators of the socio-economic status of a country E. None of the above 78. Which one of the statements is/are correct? A. Given the vitamin A deficiency rate in Ethiopia is 1% using Biot’s spot as an indicator, we can conclude that is a public Health problem B. Immunization of all children under the age of live and good management of diarrheal diseases buid area child hood death by 75% C. Breast feeding rate is much more higher in urban communities than rural once D. Malnutrition in Ethiopia children reaches to the peak at around the age of six months E. All the correct 79. Which of the following is a WRONG statement? A. 50-100gm of glucose in a daily diet prevents ketosis, protein break down and involuntary dehydration B. Energy value of protein fat and carbohydrate is 4,4,9 keal/100 gram respectively C. Energy intake should be balanced with energy expenditure in order to prevent milizilica of essus protein D. None of the above 80. One of the following is not the way in which infection could adversely affect the nutritional status of sick person. A. Increasing requirement of nutrients due to a decrease in metabolic rate as a result of alternation of body temperature B. Making the patient anorexic C. Decreasing absorption of nutrients from the GIT D. Interference of drugs used for treatment with the nutrients, which increase the requirement of that nutrient E. All are correct In the under 5 clinic of health center “x” where Mister John is in charge, a single dose of vitamin A is given every 3-6 month all the year round. The strength of the capsule available in his health center is 200,000 IU. Currently Mr. John is thinking of giving a single capsule of the same strength for all children including infants 81. What do you advise him? A. 200,000IU of vitamin A is high dose for children 1 year D. A and B are correct E. None of the above 82. Which of the following is not true about methods of assessing nutritional status A. Anthropometric methods are reputed for their relatively lower cost and objectiveness B. Laboratory methods are good for assessing sub clinical malnutrition early C. Clinical method is relatively cheap and fast but involve D. A and B E. None of the above A survey was conducted to assess to nutritional status of under five children in manna and karsa districts. Based on water low classification the result showed that: In korce district > 8.0% of children have Height – for – age < 85% Weight - for – height >95% In mas district > 8.0% of children have Height – for – age > 95% Weight – for – height < 70% of the NCHS (National center for health statistics of USA ) refere The questions 83-85 based on this information. 83. What is your interpretation of the finding in the children of Kersa district? A. Stunted B. Underweight C. Wasted D. Stunted and wasted 84. What sort of nutritional intervention do you think should be planned to abate this problem at the grass root level? A. Nutritional supplementation B. Nutritional reliabilitation in NRC (Nutrition reliabilitation center) of those children with the problem C. Thorough nutrition education, which is supported by demonstration of home gardening and horticultural actives D. Food for work 85. In those children in manna district what does the finding reflect? A. Acute nutritional problem B. Wasting of children C. A and B D. None 86. one cause of iodine deficiency disorder could be: A. decreased intake of seafood like fish B. soil and water devoid of iodine resulting in poor iodine content of growing on it C. frequent conception of goiterogens like cassava which inhibits oiling utilization D. A and B E. All are correct 87. Information for nutritional surveillance could be obtained from: A. Meteorology department B. Agricultural sector C. Market studies D. National food balance sheets E. All are correct 88. One of the functions of ascorbic acid is A. Maintenance of vascular integrity (collagen synthesis) B. Scavenging free radical species and protecting cells from death due to oxidation stress C. Enhancing absorption of non-hem iron from food D. All are correct 89. In achlorhydric person (person with no hydrochloric acid secretion) which of the following deficiency state is likely to occur A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Xcrophthaimia D. A and B 90. All are functions of Vitamin D of except: A. Decreasing reabsorption if phosphate in the kidney B. Increasing absorption of Ca and P in the GIT C. Maintenance of normal serum level of Ca D. B and C 91. A code that is concerned primarily with and contains minimum standards for the provision of safe sanitary decent dwellings for human habitation would be called a _______code A. Building B. Sanitary C. Housing D. None of the above 92. Which of the following could be classified as a public nuisance: A. Privies that have become objectionable B. Uncontrolled artesian wells C. Mosquito breeding grounds D. All of the above 93. The terra “residential environment” contains all the following items except: A. The living unit for B. The immediate surroundings C. The related coramuncy services D. The crime rate for the area 94. An effective method for the permanent disposal of refuse A. Sanitary bad fill B. Incineration C. Composting D. Oxidation pond E. iteeyeling 95. Which of the following conditions usually indicates organic stream pollution: A. Water has a foul odors and urbid B. Fish counts decrease or disappear C. Increase number of worms and snails D. All of the above 96. Which factor below contributes to noise problems in schools? A. Selection of location of a school B. Distance from roads or expressways C. Activities vathin the school D. All of the above 97. Which of the following is not a requirement for a public water supply: A. It must be reasonably soft B. It must be sparkling clear and colorless C. It must not contain organisms that cause disease D. All of the above are requirements for a public water supply 98. Which of the following is a factor affecting the bacterial flora of finished powdered milk: A. Plant sanitation B. Pre-heating temperatures C. Number of bacteria in the raw milk D. All of the above 99. Which selection below is room a method in which food could be contaminated? A. Hand contact from workers B. Cross contamination of cooled and uncooked food C. Bacterial spread grough the air from one food to another D. All of the above can contaminated food 100. Which of the following would be considered domestic sewage A. Toilet wasters B. Kitchen sink wastes C. Dairy cattle wastes D. Laundry start: 0000-00-00 end: 0000-00-00

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