Module Snap Quizzes.docx

QUIZ DOCS: make 10 sample multiple choice test questions with a,b,c,d and answers for: 1. What is the brand name of Bisoprolol? a) Zebeta b) Cardizem c) Lipitor d) Prozac 2. Bisoprolol belongs to which drug class? a) Cardioselective β-Adrenergic Blocker b) ACE inhibitor c) Calcium channel blocker d) Diuretic 3. In what form is Bisoprolol available? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Transdermal patch d) Nasal spray 4. Which of the following is a contraindication for using Bisoprolol? a) Hypersensitivity to bisoprolol b) Severe sinus bradycardia c) 2nd- or 3rd-degree AV block d) Overt heart failure e) All of the above 5. What condition does Bisoprolol treat? a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Asthma d) Depression 6. How does Bisoprolol work? a) It decreases AV nodal conduction in supraventricular tachycardia b) It blocks catecholamine-induced dysrhythmias c) It decreases blood pressure d) All of the above 7. Are there any box warnings or safety issues associated with Bisoprolol? a) Yes b) No 8. What are the possible adverse reactions of Bisoprolol? a) Bradyarrhythmias b) Cold extremities c) Dizziness d) Fatigue e) Hypotension f) All of the above 9. Does Bisoprolol have any controlled substance schedules? a) Yes b) No 10. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking Bisoprolol? a) Decreased blood pressure b) Signs/symptoms of heart failure c) Decreased heart rate d) ECG e) All of the above 1. What is the brand name of Brimonidine? a) Zebeta b) Cardizem c) Alphagan P d) Prozac 2. Brimonidine belongs to which drug class? a) Cardioselective β-Adrenergic Blocker b) ACE inhibitor c) Adrenergic Agonist d) Diuretic 3. In what form is Brimonidine available? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Transdermal patch d) Ophthalmic Solution 4. Which of the following is a contraindication for using Brimonidine? a) Hypersensitivity to brimonidine b) Severe sinus bradycardia c) Concurrent MAOIs d) All of the above 5. What condition does Brimonidine treat? a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Ocular hypertension d) Depression 6. How does Brimonidine work? a) It decreases AV nodal conduction in supraventricular tachycardia b) It blocks catecholamine-induced dysrhythmias c) It reduces aqueous humor production and increases uveoscleral outflow d) All of the above 7. Are there any box warnings or safety issues associated with Brimonidine? a) Yes b) No 8. What are the possible adverse reactions of Brimonidine? a) Allergic conjunctivitis b) Conjunctival discoloration c) Drowsiness d) All of the above 9. Does Brimonidine have any controlled substance schedules? a) Yes b) No 10. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking Brimonidine? a) Reduction in IOP b) Seek medical attention if syncope occurs or if symptoms of ocular irritation are severe c) Decreased blood pressure d) ECG 1. What is the brand name of Budesonide? a) Zyrtec b) Singulair c) Pulmicort Respules d) Advair 2. Budesonide belongs to which drug class? a) Antihistamine b) Beta-agonist c) Inhaled Corticosteroid d) Leukotriene receptor antagonist 3. In what form is Budesonide available? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Inhalation Suspension d) Nasal spray 4. Which of the following is a contraindication for using Budesonide? a) Hypersensitivity to budesonide b) Hypersensitivity to milk proteins c) Primary treatment of status asthmaticus d) All of the above 5. What condition does Budesonide treat? a) Allergic rhinitis b) Asthma c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d) Crohn's disease 6. How does Budesonide work? a) It blocks the action of leukotrienes in the lungs b) It reduces inflammation in the airways c) It relaxes the muscles in the airways d) All of the above 7. Are there any box warnings or safety issues associated with Budesonide? a) Yes b) No 8. What are the possible adverse reactions of Budesonide? a) Upper respiratory tract infections b) Otitis media c) Headache d) All of the above 9. Does Budesonide have any controlled substance schedules? a) Yes b) No 10. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking Budesonide? a) Monitor pulmonary function tests (PFTs) b) Monitor resolution of asthma symptoms c) Monitor growth velocity in pediatric patients d) All of the above 1. What is the brand name of BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL? a) Advair b) Singulair c) Symbicort d) Pulmicort Respules 2. BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL belongs to which drug class? a) Antihistamine b) Beta-agonist c) Inhaled Corticosteroid d) Leukotriene receptor antagonist 3. In what form is BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL available? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Inhalation Suspension d) Metered-dose inhaler (MDI) 4. Which of the following is a contraindication for using BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL? a) Hypersensitivity to budesonide b) Hypersensitivity to formoterol c) Primary treatment of status asthmaticus d) All of the above 5. What condition does BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL treat? a) Allergic rhinitis b) Asthma c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d) Migraine 6. How does BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL work? a) It blocks the action of leukotrienes in the lungs b) It reduces inflammation in the airways c) It relaxes the muscles in the airways d) All of the above 7. Are there any box warnings or safety issues associated with BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL? a) Yes b) No 8. What are the possible adverse reactions of BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL? a) Upper respiratory tract infections b) Headache c) Nausea d) All of the above 9. Does BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL have any controlled substance schedules? a) Yes b) No 10. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking BUDESONIDE/FORMOTEROL? a) Monitor pulmonary function tests (PFTs) b) Monitor resolution of asthma symptoms c) Monitor growth 1. Bupropion belongs to which drug class? a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor b) Monoamine oxidase inhibitor c) Monocyclic antidepressant d) Benzodiazepine 2. Which of the following is a brand name for Bupropion? a) Prozac b) Zoloft c) Wellbutrin SR d) Lexapro 3. Bupropion is commonly used to treat which condition? a) Anxiety disorder b) Bipolar disorder c) Depression d) Schizophrenia 4. What is the mechanism of action of Bupropion? a) Inhibits serotonin reuptake b) Inhibits dopamine reuptake c) Inhibits norepinephrine reuptake d) All of the above 5. Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of: a) Seizure disorder b) Anorexia c) Bulimia d) All of the above 6. Which of the following is a common dose for Bupropion extended-release 24 h? a) 100 mg once daily b) 150 mg once daily c) 300 mg once daily d) 450 mg once daily 7. Bupropion is used for smoking cessation assistance. True or False? a) True b) False 8. What are some common adverse reactions of Bupropion? a) Insomnia b) Nausea c) Headache d) All of the above 9. Bupropion is classified as a controlled substance. True or False? a) True b) False 10. How long may it take to see improvement in depressive symptoms with Bupropion? a) 1-2 weeks b) 2-4 weeks c) 4-6 weeks d) 6-8 weeks 1. Buspirone belongs to which drug class? a) Antidepressant b) Antipsychotic c) Antianxiety d) Antihistamine 2. What is the brand name for Buspirone? a) Xanax b) Ativan c) BuSpar d) Valium 3. Buspirone is commonly used to treat which condition? a) Depression b) Bipolar disorder c) Schizophrenia d) Anxiety 4. What is the common dose range for Buspirone? a) 2-5 mg per day b) 10-20 mg per day c) 30-40 mg per day d) 50-60 mg per day 5. Buspirone is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypertension b) Hypersensitivity c) Diabetes d) Asthma 6. What is the mechanism of action of Buspirone? a) Inhibits serotonin reuptake b) Activates serotonin-5-HT1A receptors c) Blocks dopamine receptors d) Increases GABA activity 7. Does Buspirone have any box warnings or safety issues? a) Yes b) No 8. What is a common adverse reaction of Buspirone? a) Dizziness b) Insomnia c) Nausea d) Headache 9. Is Buspirone classified as a controlled substance? a) Yes b) Noz 10. What should be monitored while taking Buspirone? a) Blood pressure b) Heart rate c) Reduction in anxiety symptoms d) All of the above MODULE 20 1. Canagliflozin is commonly used to treat which type of diabetes? a) Type 1 diabetes b) Type 2 diabetes c) Gestational diabetes d) Prediabetes 2. What is the drug class of Canagliflozin? a) Insulin b) Antidiabetic Agent c) Beta-blocker d) Antibiotic 3. Canagliflozin works by inhibiting which process in the kidneys? a) Glucose production b) Insulin release c) Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 d) Lipid metabolism 4. Which adverse reaction is associated with Canagliflozin? a) Hypoglycemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Weight gain d) Hypertension 5. How often should HbA1c levels be monitored in patients taking Canagliflozin? a) Every day b) Every week c) Every 3-6 months d) Once a year 6. Canagliflozin is contraindicated in patients with severe impairment of which organ? a) Liver b) Lungs c) Kidneys d) Heart 7. Which of the following is NOT a form of Canagliflozin? a) Oral Tablet b) Injection c) Topical cream d) Liquid solution 8. Canagliflozin is often used in combination with which medication for type 2 diabetes? a) Insulin b) Metformin c) Glipizide d) Lisinopril 9. Which SGLT2 inhibitor has been associated with an increased risk of lower limb amputation? a) Canagliflozin b) Dapagliflozin c) Empagliflozin d) Ertugliflozin 10. Canagliflozin should be avoided in patients with a serious hypersensitivity to the drug. What is an example of a serious hypersensitivity reaction? a) Rash b) Itching c) Anaphylaxis d) Headache 1. What is the brand name of Candesartan? a) Atacand b) Losartan c) Lisinopril d) Amlodipine 2. Which drug class does Candesartan belong to? a) Beta-blocker b) Calcium channel blocker c) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor d) Angiotensin II receptor antagonist 3. In what form is Candesartan available? a) Injectable solution b) Transdermal patch c) Nasal spray d) Oral tablet 4. What are the common doses of Candesartan? a) 2 mg po daily b) 4 mg po daily c) 16 mg po daily d) 40 mg po daily 5. What are the contraindications for Candesartan? a) Hypersensitivity to candesartan or other ARB b) Kidney disease c) Diabetes d) Asthma 6. What conditions does Candesartan treat? a) Diabetes b) High cholesterol c) Heart failure d) Migraine 7. How does Candesartan work in the body? a) By blocking calcium channels b) By inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) c) By blocking the angiotensin II receptor d) By increasing nitric oxide production 8. What are the possible adverse reactions of Candesartan? a) Hypertension b) Hypotension c) Hyperglycemia d) Hyperkalemia 9. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking Candesartan? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Liver function tests c) Blood glucose levels d) Kidney function and electrolytes 10. Are there any important clinical pearls or things to keep in mind about Candesartan? a) It is safe for use in children under 1 year of age b) It should be taken on an empty stomach c) It can cause weight gain d) It is available in combination with hydrochlorothiazide (HCT) 1. What is the brand name of Carbamazepine? a) Tegretol b) Lamictal c) Keppra d) Dilantin 2. Which drug class does Carbamazepine belong to? a) Antidepressant b) Antipsychotic c) Anticonvulsant d) Analgesic 3. In what forms is Carbamazepine available? a) Oral tablet only b) Oral tablet and oral suspension c) Oral tablet, oral suspension, and oral capsule d) Oral tablet, oral suspension, and injectable formulation 4. What are the common doses of Carbamazepine? a) 100 mg po daily b) 200 mg po bid daily c) 800 mg po daily d) 1200 mg po daily 5. What are the contraindications for Carbamazepine? a) Hypersensitivity to Carbamazepine b) History of bone marrow depression c) Use of MAOIs or nefazodone d) All of the above 6. What conditions does Carbamazepine treat? a) Focal onset seizures only b) Generalized onset seizures only c) Neuropathic pain only d) Both focal onset and generalized onset seizures, and neuropathic pain 7. How does Carbamazepine work in the body? a) By increasing the release of excitatory neurotransmitters b) By blocking the firing of action potentials c) By inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin d) By enhancing GABAergic neurotransmission 8. What are the possible adverse reactions of Carbamazepine? a) Hyponatremia b) Dizziness c) Nausea d) All of the above 9. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking Carbamazepine? a) Reduction in number of seizures b) Decreased pain c) Therapeutic concentrations for epilepsy d) All of the above 10. Are there any important clinical pearls or things to keep in mind about Carbamazepine? a) It may cause drowsiness, so avoid activities requiring alertness. b) Regular blood tests may be needed to monitor liver function. c) It can interact with other medications, so inform your doctor about all the medications you are taking. d) All of the above. 1. What is the brand name of Carbidopa/Levodopa? a) Rytary b) Duopa c) Sinemet d) All of the above 2. Which drug class does Carbidopa/Levodopa belong to? a) Antidepressant b) Antipsychotic c) Antiparkinsonian d) Analgesic 3. In what forms is Carbidopa/Levodopa available? a) Oral tablet, immediate release only b) Oral tablet, extended release only c) Oral capsule, extended release only d) All of the above 4. What are the common doses of Carbidopa/Levodopa for immediate release? a) 25 mg carbidopa/100 mg levodopa po tid b) 50 mg carbidopa/200 mg levodopa po bid c) 23.75 mg carbidopa/95 mg levodopa po tid d) 36.25 mg carbidopa/145 mg levodopa po tid 5. What are the contraindications for Carbidopa/Levodopa? a) Hypersensitivity to carbidopa or levodopa b) Narrow-angle glaucoma c) Concurrent use of MAOI or linezolid d) All of the above 6. What condition does Carbidopa/Levodopa treat? a) Parkinson's disease b) Alzheimer's disease c) Multiple sclerosis d) Epilepsy 7. How does Carbidopa/Levodopa work in the body? a) It inhibits dopamine receptors in the brain b) It increases the production of dopamine in the brain c) It inhibits the decarboxylation of levodopa, allowing more levodopa to reach the CNS d) It blocks the reuptake of dopamine in the brain 8. What is a common adverse reaction of Carbidopa/Levodopa? a) Dyskinesia b) Nausea c) Headache d) Fatigue 9. What should be monitored when taking Carbidopa/Levodopa? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Liver function tests c) Blood glucose levels d) All of the above 10. What are the potential drug interactions with Carbidopa/Levodopa? a) MAOIs and linezolid b) Antidepressants and antipsychotics c) Antacids and proton pump inhibitors d) All of the above 1. What is the drug class of Carisoprodol? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) b) Antihypertensive c) Centrally Acting Skeletal Muscle Relaxant d) Antidepressant 2. Which brand names are associated with Carisoprodol? a) Soma b) Vanadom c) Flexeril d) Percocet 3. What is the common dose of Carisoprodol? a) 100-200 mg po tid and HS b) 250-350 mg po tid and HS c) 500-750 mg po tid and HS d) 1000-1500 mg po tid and HS 4. What are the contraindications of Carisoprodol? a) Hypersensitivity to carisoprodol or meprobamate b) Hypertension c) Diabetes d) Asthma 5. What does Carisoprodol treat? a) High blood pressure b) Disorder of musculoskeletal system c) Depression d) Allergies 6. What is the mechanism of action of Carisoprodol? a) Blocks interneuronal activity in descending reticular formation and spinal cord b) Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis c) Stimulates dopamine receptors d) Increases serotonin levels 7. What are the common adverse reactions of Carisoprodol? a) Nausea and vomiting b) Drowsiness and dizziness c) Diarrhea and abdominal pain d) Headache and blurred vision 8. What should be monitored when taking Carisoprodol? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Liver function tests c) Blood glucose levels d) Reduction in pain and muscle spasms 9. How long should Carisoprodol be used for? a) Up to 1 week b) Up to 2 or 3 weeks c) Up to 1 month d) Indefinitely 10. What should be avoided when taking Carisoprodol? a) Alcohol b) Caffeine c) Dairy products d) High-fat foods 1. What is the drug class of Carvedilol? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) b) Antihypertensive c) Antidepressant d) Beta blocker 2. Which brand names are associated with Carvedilol? a) Coreg b) Coreg CR c) Crestor d) Cozaar 3. What are the common doses of Carvedilol? a) 1 mg po bid b) 10 mg po bid c) 50 mg po bid d) 100 mg po bid 4. What are the contraindications of Carvedilol? a) Hypersensitivity, bronchial asthma, and severe sinus bradycardia b) Hypertension and diabetes c) Liver disease and heart failure d) Allergies and migraines 5. What does Carvedilol treat? a) High cholesterol b) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction c) Anxiety disorder d) Allergies 6. What is the mechanism of action of Carvedilol? a) Blocks interneuronal activity in descending reticular formation and spinal cord b) Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis c) Stimulates dopamine receptors d) Selective α1- and nonselective β-adrenergic blockade 7. What are the common adverse reactions of Carvedilol? a) Cold extremities and dizziness b) Nausea and vomiting c) Headache and blurred vision d) Insomnia and anxiety 8. What should be monitored when taking Carvedilol? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Liver function tests c) Blood glucose levels d) Reduction in chest pain and angina attacks 9. What is a clinical pearl about Carvedilol? a) Safety and efficacy not established in pediatric patients b) Should be taken with food c) Can be used as a pain reliever d) Increases the risk of heart attacks 10. How should the immediate-release form of Carvedilol be converted to the extended-release form? a) Crush the immediate-release tablets and mix with water b) Take the immediate-release tablets with food c) There is no direct conversion between the two forms d) Ta 1. What is the drug class of Celecoxib? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) b) Antihypertensive c) Antidepressant d) Beta blocker 2. Which brand name is associated with Celecoxib? a) Celebrex b) Crestor c) Cozaar d) Coreg 3. What are the common forms of Celecoxib? a) Oral Capsule and Injectable Solution b) Oral Capsule and Topical Cream c) Oral Tablet and Injectable Solution d) Oral Capsule and Oral Solution 4. What are the common doses of Celecoxib? a) 50 mg po bid b) 100 mg po bid c) 200 mg po daily d) 500 mg po daily 5. What are the contraindications of Celecoxib? a) Hypertension and diabetes b) Asthma, urticaria, or allergic-type reaction following aspirin or other NSAID administration c) Liver disease and heart failure d) Allergies and migraines 6. What does Celecoxib treat? a) High cholesterol b) Osteoarthritis, Rheumatoid arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Acute pain, primary dysmenorrhea c) Anxiety disorder d) Allergies 7. What is the mechanism of action of Celecoxib? a) Blocks interneuronal activity in descending reticular formation and spinal cord b) Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis c) Stimulates dopamine receptors d) Inhibition of the COX-2 enzyme isoform 8. What are the common adverse reactions of Celecoxib? a) High blood pressure, headaches, and gastrointestinal distress b) Nausea and vomiting c) Headache and blurred vision d) Insomnia and anxiety 9. What should be monitored when taking Celecoxib? a) Blood pressure, liver function tests, and kidney function tests b) Complete blood count (CBC), liver function tests (LFTs), serum creatinine (SCr), and fecal occult blood tests c) Blood glucose levelske double the dose of the immediate-release tablets to match the extended-release dose 10. What should be monitored when taking Celecoxib? a) Blood pressure b) Liver function tests c) Kidney function tests d) All of the above MODULE 21------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 1. What is the brand name of the drug cetirizine? a) Zyrtec b) Claritin c) Allegra d) Benadryl 2. Which drug class does cetirizine belong to? a) Antihypertensive b) Antidepressant c) Antihistamine d) Antibiotic 3. Which of the following is NOT a form of cetirizine? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Solution c) Nasal Spray d) Oral Capsule 4. What is the common daily dose of cetirizine? a) 2.5 mg b) 10 mg c) 25 mg d) 50 mg 5. What is a contraindication for cetirizine? a) Hypersensitivity to cetirizine b) Hypersensitivity to loratadine c) Hypersensitivity to fexofenadine d) Hypersensitivity to diphenhydramine 6. What condition does cetirizine treat? a) High blood pressure b) Diabetes c) Allergic rhinitis d) Asthma 7. What is the mechanism of action of cetirizine? a) It blocks the release of histamine b) It stimulates the production of histamine c) It inhibits the breakdown of histamine d) It competes with histamine for receptor binding 8. What is the most common adverse reaction of cetirizine? a) Drowsiness b) Nausea c) Headache d) Dry mouth 9. What should be monitored when taking cetirizine? a) Blood pressure b) Blood glucose levels c) Improvement in rhinitis or urticaria symptoms d) Liver function 10. What is a clinical pearl about cetirizine? a) It is only available by prescription b) It can be used as an ophthalmic formulation c) It can cause an allergic response d) It is not effective for seasonal allergies 1. What is the brand name of the drug chlorhexidine? a) Peridex b) Paroex c) Hibiclens d) Periogard 2. Which drug class does chlorhexidine belong to? a) Antibacterial Cleansing Agent b) Antihistamine c) Antifungal d) Anticoagulant 3. Which of the following is NOT a form of chlorhexidine? a) Liquid Oral Rinse b) Topical Solution c) Patch External d) Injectable Solution 4. What is the common daily dose of chlorhexidine oral rinse? a) 5 mL b) 10 mL c) 15 mL d) 20 mL 5. What is a contraindication for chlorhexidine? a) Hypersensitivity to chlorhexidine b) Hypersensitivity to penicillin c) Hypersensitivity to aspirin d) Hypersensitivity to ibuprofen 6. What condition does chlorhexidine commonly treat? a) Diabetes b) Gingivitis c) Asthma d) Hypertension 7. What is the mechanism of action of chlorhexidine? a) It binds to bacterial cell walls and extramicrobial complexes b) It inhibits the production of histamine c) It stimulates the immune system d) It blocks certain enzymes in the bacterial cell 8. What is the most common adverse reaction of chlorhexidine oral rinse? a) Mouth irritation b) Headache c) Nausea d) Dizziness 9. What should be monitored when using chlorhexidine? a) Resolution of gingivitis b) Blood pressure c) Blood glucose levels d) Liver function 10. What is a clinical pearl about chlorhexidine? a) It cannot be used in children b) It is only available by prescription c) It is not effective against gram-negative organisms d) It is available in nonprescription products 1. What is the brand name of the drug Chlorthalidone? a) Hygroton b) Thalitone c) Chlorothiazide d) Lasix 2. Which drug class does Chlorthalidone belong to? a) Thiazide Diuretic b) Beta Blocker c) ACE Inhibitor d) Calcium Channel Blocker 3. What is the common daily dose of Chlorthalidone? a) 10 mg b) 25 mg c) 50 mg d) 100 mg 4. What condition does Chlorthalidone commonly treat? a) Diabetes b) Hypothyroidism c) Hypertension d) Asthma 5. What is the mechanism of action of Chlorthalidone? a) Increases sodium and chloride excretion in the kidneys b) Blocks calcium channels in the heart c) Inhibits the production of angiotensin II d) Decreases heart rate and blood pressure 6. What is a contraindication for Chlorthalidone? a) Hypersensitivity to chlorthalidone or sulfonamides b) Hypersensitivity to penicillin c) Hypersensitivity to aspirin d) Hypersensitivity to ibuprofen 7. What is a common adverse reaction of Chlorthalidone? a) Dizziness b) Headache c) Nausea d) Muscle pain 8. What should be monitored when using Chlorthalidone? a) Blood pressure b) Blood glucose levels c) Liver function d) Lung function 9. Is Chlorthalidone FDA approved for use in children? a) Yes b) No 10. When is Chlorthalidone typically used for hypertension? a) As a first-line treatment b) Only in combination with other agents c) In patients with mild hypertension d) In patients with resistant hypertension 1. What is the brand name of the drug Citalopram? a) Zoloft b) Lexapro c) Prozac d) Celexa 2. Which drug class does Citalopram belong to? a) Beta Blocker b) ACE Inhibitor c) SSRI Antidepressant d) Calcium Channel Blocker 3. What are the common forms of Citalopram? a) Injectable solution, transdermal patch, nasal spray b) Oral tablet, oral solution, oral capsule c) Inhaler, eye drops, suppository d) Sublingual tablet, subcutaneous injection, rectal cream 4. What is the common daily dose of Citalopram? a) 10 mg b) 20 mg c) 30 mg d) 40 mg 5. What is a contraindication for Citalopram? a) Hypersensitivity to citalopram or SSRIs b) Hypersensitivity to penicillin c) Hypersensitivity to aspirin d) Hypersensitivity to ibuprofen 6. What condition does Citalopram commonly treat? a) Diabetes b) Hypothyroidism c) Hypertension d) Depression 7. What is the mechanism of action of Citalopram? a) Blocks calcium channels in the heart b) Inhibits the production of angiotensin II c) Increases serotonin levels in the brain d) Decreases heart rate and blood pressure 8. What is a common adverse reaction of Citalopram? a) Constipation b) Headache c) Nausea d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored when using Citalopram? a) Blood pressure b) Blood glucose levels c) Liver function d) Improvement in symptoms of depression 10. Is Citalopram FDA approved for use in children? a) Yes b) No 1. What is the brand name of the drug Clobazam? a) Zoloft b) Lexapro c) Onfi d) Celexa 2. Which drug class does Clobazam belong to? a) Beta Blocker b) ACE Inhibitor c) Anticonvulsant d) Calcium Channel Blocker 3. What are the common forms of Clobazam? a) Injectable solution, transdermal patch, nasal spray b) Oral tablet, oral suspension, oral film c) Inhaler, eye drops, suppository d) Sublingual tablet, subcutaneous injection, rectal cream 4. What is the common daily dose of Clobazam? a) 5 mg b) 10 mg c) 20 mg d) 40 mg 5. What is a contraindication for Clobazam? a) Hypersensitivity to clobazam b) Hypersensitivity to penicillin c) Hypersensitivity to aspirin d) Hypersensitivity to ibuprofen 6. What condition does Clobazam commonly treat? a) Diabetes b) Hypothyroidism c) Hypertension d) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome 7. What is the mechanism of action of Clobazam? a) Blocks calcium channels in the heart b) Inhibits the production of angiotensin II c) Increases GABA neurotransmission in the brain d) Decreases heart rate and blood pressure 8. What is a common adverse reaction of Clobazam? a) Constipation b) Headache c) Nausea d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored when using Clobazam? a) Blood pressure b) Blood glucose levels c) Seizure frequency d) Improvement in symptoms of anxiety 10. Is Clobazam indicated for children under 2 years of age? a) Yes b) No 1. What is the brand name of the drug Clobetasol? a) Zoloft b) Lexapro c) Impoyz d) Celexa 2. Which drug class does Clobetasol belong to? a) Beta Blocker b) ACE Inhibitor c) Topical Corticosteroid d) Calcium Channel Blocker 3. What are the common forms of Clobetasol? a) Injectable solution, transdermal patch, nasal spray b) Oral tablet, oral suspension, oral film c) Cream, ointment, topical solution, aerosol foam, gel, shampoo, topical liquid, lotion d) Sublingual tablet, subcutaneous injection, rectal cream 4. What is the common dosing regimen for Clobetasol? a) Apply once daily to the affected area b) Apply twice daily to the affected area c) Apply three times daily to the affected area d) Apply four times daily to the affected area 5. What is a contraindication for Clobetasol? a) Hypersensitivity to clobetasol b) Hypersensitivity to penicillin c) Hypersensitivity to aspirin d) Hypersensitivity to ibuprofen 6. What condition does Clobetasol commonly treat? a) Diabetes b) Hypothyroidism c) Hypertension d) Skin disorders, corticosteroid responsive, Plaque psoriasis 7. What is the mechanism of action of Clobetasol? a) Blocks calcium channels in the heart b) Inhibits the production of angiotensin II c) Increases GABA neurotransmission in the brain d) Has anti-inflammatory, antipruritic, and vasoconstrictive properties 8. What is a common adverse reaction of Clobetasol? a) Constipation b) Headache c) Nausea d) Pruritis at the site of administration 9. What should be monitored when using Clobetasol? a) Blood pressure b) Blood glucose levels c) Seizure frequency d) Improvement in clinical signs of skin disorder 10. What is a clinical pearl about Clobetasol? a) It is a high -potency corticosteroid b) Pediatric patients are more susceptible to it. 1. What is the brand name of Clonazepam? a) Klonopin b) Zoloft c) Lexapro d) Xanax 2. Which drug class does Clonazepam belong to? a) Beta Blocker b) ACE Inhibitor c) Benzodiazepine d) Calcium Channel Blocker 3. What are the common forms of Clonazepam? a) Injectable solution, transdermal patch, nasal spray b) Oral tablet, oral suspension, oral film c) Cream, ointment, topical solution, aerosol foam, gel, shampoo, topical liquid, lotion d) Oral tablet, oral tablet disintegrating 4. What is the common dosing regimen for Clonazepam? a) Take once daily in the morning b) Take once daily at bedtime c) Take twice daily in the morning and evening d) Take three times daily with meals 5. What is a contraindication for Clonazepam? a) Hypersensitivity to benzodiazepines b) Hypersensitivity to penicillin c) Hypersensitivity to aspirin d) Hypersensitivity to ibuprofen 6. What condition does Clonazepam commonly treat? a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Seizures d) Depression 7. What is the mechanism of action of Clonazepam? a) Blocks calcium channels in the heart b) Inhibits the production of angiotensin II c) Increases GABA neurotransmission in the brain d) Enhances the effect of serotonin in the brain 8. What is a common adverse reaction of Clonazepam? a) Constipation b) Headache c) Nausea d) Ataxia 9. What should be monitored when using Clonazepam? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Blood glucose levels c) Seizure frequency d) Improvement in anxiety symptoms or seizures 10. What is a clinical pearl about Clonazepam? a) It can be safely used in elderly patients b) It has a low abuse potential among benzodiazepines c) It should be abruptly discontinued after chronic use d) It should be used with caution when combined MODULE 22 1. What is the brand name of Clonidine? a) Catapres b) Kapvay c) Both a and b d) None of the above 2. Which drug class does Clonidine belong to? a) β-Adrenergic Agonist b) α1-Adrenergic Antagonist c) α2-Adrenergic Agonist d) Dopamine Agonist 3. Which of the following is NOT a form of Clonidine? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Tablet, Extended Release, 12 h c) Tablet Extended Release, 24 h d) Injectable Solution 4. What is the common starting dose of Clonidine for oral tablets? a) 0.1 mg po bid b) 0.2 mg po bid c) 0.5 mg po bid d) 1 mg po bid 5. What condition(s) does Clonidine treat? a) ADHD b) HTN c) Both a and b d) None of the above 6. How does Clonidine work in the body? a) It stimulates α1-adrenergic receptors b) It blocks α2-adrenergic receptors c) It activates inhibitory neurons to decrease sympathetic outflow d) It increases peripheral vascular resistance 7. Which of the following is NOT an adverse reaction of Clonidine? a) Feeling nervous b) Headache c) Erythema (patchy) d) Increased heart rate 8. What should be monitored when taking Clonidine? a) Increased blood pressure b) Improved mental and behavioral symptoms of ADHD c) Rebound hypertension d) All of the above 9. Which formulation of Clonidine is not interchangeable with the others? a) Oral Tablet b) Extended-Release Tablet c) Transdermal Patch d) Injectable Solution 10. What is the clinical pearl regarding Clonidine use for hypertension? a) It is not recommended for children b) It is the first-line treatment for hypertension c) It can be used as monotherapy for hypertension d) It is not effective in lowering blood pressure 1. What is the brand name of Clopidogrel? a) Plavix b) Aspirin c) Cefprazil d) None of the above 2. Which drug class does Clopidogrel belong to? a) Platelet Aggregation Inhibitor b) Anticoagulant c) Antibiotic d) Beta Blocker 3. What is the common dose of Clopidogrel for daily use? a) 300-600 mg b) 75 mg c) 1000 mg d) 50 mg 4. What condition(s) does Clopidogrel treat? a) Acute ST segment elevation MI b) Non–ST segment elevation MI c) Thrombosis prevention in arteriosclerotic vascular disease d) All of the above 5. How does Clopidogrel work in the body? a) It prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting ADP binding to receptor sites b) It reduces inflammation in the body c) It lowers blood pressure d) It increases the production of red blood cells 6. What is a potential adverse reaction of Clopidogrel? a) Headache b) Nausea c) Muscle pain d) Dizziness 7. What should be monitored when taking Clopidogrel? a) Signs/symptoms of bleeding, especially with concomitant anticoagulant therapy b) Blood pressure c) Blood sugar levels d) Liver function 8. True or False: Clopidogrel should be discontinued prior to elective surgery if an antiplatelet effect is not desired. a) True b) False 9. True or False: Clopidogrel is safe and effective for use in pediatric patients. a) True b) False 10. What is the clinical pearl regarding Clopidogrel and its effectiveness? a) Clopidogrel effectiveness is dependent on its activation to an active metabolite by CYP2C19 b) Clopidogrel is not affected by other medications or metabolizers c) Clopidogrel is equally effective in all patients, regardless of their metabolism d) None of the above 1. What is the brand name of the combination medication Clotrimazole/Betamethasone? a) Lotrisone b) Clotrimazole c) Betamethasone d) None of the above 2. Which drug class does Clotrimazole/Betamethasone belong to? a) Anti-infective b) Anti-inflammatory c) Combination d) All of the above 3. What are the common forms of Clotrimazole/Betamethasone? a) Topical Cream b) Topical Lotion c) Oral Tablets d) Injectable Solution 4. What is the recommended dosing regimen for Clotrimazole/Betamethasone for tinea corporis or tinea cruris? a) Apply once a day for 2 weeks b) Apply twice a day for 2 weeks c) Apply once a day for 4 weeks d) Apply twice a day for 4 weeks 5. What is a contraindication for using Clotrimazole/Betamethasone? a) Hypersensitivity to Clotrimazole b) Hypersensitivity to Betamethasone c) Hypersensitivity to both Clotrimazole and Betamethasone d) None of the above 6. How does Clotrimazole work in the body? a) It inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol, damaging the fungal cell wall membrane b) It stimulates the synthesis of enzymes responsible for anti-inflammatory effects c) It reduces inflammation and itching d) It promotes the growth of healthy skin cells 7. What should be monitored when using Clotrimazole/Betamethasone? a) Resolution of erythema and pruritus b) Improvement in symptoms within 3-5 days c) Review of diagnosis if no improvement after 1 or 2 weeks d) All of the above 8. True or False: Clotrimazole/Betamethasone can be used with occlusive dressings. a) True b) False 9. What is a potential adverse reaction of Clotrimazole/Betamethasone? a) Severe skin irritation b) Rash c) Systemic absorption of Betamethasone d) none STUDY CODEINE BC NO MC! 1. What is the common dose of Colchicine for a gout flare? a) 0.6 mg b) 1.2 mg c) 1.8 mg d) 2.0 mg 2. Which drug class does Colchicine belong to? a) Antihypertensive b) Antibiotic c) Antigout d) Antidepressant 3. What is the main adverse reaction associated with Colchicine? a) Headache b) Diarrhea c) Dizziness d) Insomnia 4. What is the mechanism of action of Colchicine in treating gout? a) Inhibits urate crystal deposition b) Reduces inflammation in joints c) Increases uric acid levels d) Stimulates immune response 5. Which form(s) does Colchicine come in? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Capsule c) Oral Solution d) All of the above 6. What condition(s) does Colchicine treat? a) Gout, acute b) Gout, prophylaxis c) Familial Mediterranean fever d) All of the above 7. What is the maximum recommended dose of Colchicine over 1 hour? a) 0.6 mg b) 1.2 mg c) 1.8 mg d) 2.0 mg 8. What should patients do if they experience signs of agranulocytosis or myotoxicity while taking Colchicine? a) Continue taking the medication b) Reduce the dose c) Discontinue the medication and seek medical attention d) Take an over-the-counter pain reliever 9. Which enzyme does Colchicine inhibit? a) CYP2D6 b) CYP3A4/5 c) CYP1A2 d) CYP2C9 10. What plants contain the natural alkaloid Colchicine? a) Autumn crocus b) Glory lily c) Both a and b d) None of the above 1. What is the common dose of Colesevelam for treating hyperlipidemia? a) 1.875 mg po bid b) 3.75 mg po daily c) 1.875 g po bid d) 3.75 g po daily 2. Which drug class does Colesevelam belong to? a) Antihypertensive b) Antibiotic c) Hypolipidemic d) Antidepressant 3. What is the main mechanism of action of Colesevelam? a) Inhibits cholesterol synthesis b) Increases HDL-cholesterol levels c) Binds intestinal bile acids d) Reduces triglyceride levels 4. What condition(s) does Colesevelam treat? a) Primary hyperlipidemia b) Familial hyperlipidemia c) Diabetes mellitus type 2 d) All of the above 5. What is the common adverse reaction associated with Colesevelam? a) Diarrhea b) Constipation c) Nausea d) Headache 6. What are the monitoring parameters for patients taking Colesevelam? a) Total cholesterol levels b) LDL-cholesterol levels c) Triglyceride levels d) All of the above 7. What is a contraindication for using Colesevelam? a) History of bowel obstruction b) Hypertriglyceridemia-induced pancreatitis c) Serum triglyceride level >500 mg/dL d) All of the above 8. Which drug forms does Colesevelam come in? a) Oral Tablet b) Granules for Oral Suspension c) Chewable bar d) All of the above 9. What deficiencies should be monitored in patients taking Colesevelam? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K 10. What patient population has safety and efficacy not been established for Colesevelam? a) Pediatric patients <10 years of age b) Premenarcheal girls c) Adults over 65 years of age d) All of the above 1. What is the common dose of Premarin for treating abnormal vasomotor function? a) 0.3 mg po daily b) 0.6 mg po daily c) 0.3 mg po twice daily d) 0.6 mg po twice daily 2. Which drug class does Premarin belong to? a) Antihypertensive b) Antibiotic c) Estrogen Hormone d) Antidepressant 3. What is the main mechanism of action of Premarin? a) Inhibits estrogen production b) Increases LH and FSH levels c) Binds to estrogen receptors d) Reduces vasomotor symptoms 4. What condition(s) does Premarin treat? a) Postmenopausal osteoporosis prophylaxis b) Female hypogonadism syndrome c) Abnormal vasomotor function d) All of the above 5. What is a contraindication for using Premarin? a) History of abnormal genital bleeding b) Severe liver dysfunction c) Known or suspected pregnancy d) All of the above 6. What are the common adverse reactions associated with Premarin? a) Weight change b) Headache c) Migraine d) All of the above 7. What should be monitored in patients taking Premarin? a) Resolution of abnormal bleeding or hot flashes b) Prevention of osteoporosis c) Bone mineral density (BMD) d) All of the above 8. Which drug form(s) does Premarin come in? a) Oral Tablet b) Injectable c) Vaginal cream d) All of the above 9. What is a clinical pearl about Premarin? a) It can be used as a combination therapy with progestins b) It is only available as an oral tablet c) It is not recommended for postmenopausal women d) All of the above 10. What patient population should be cautious when using Premarin? a) Women with a history of DVT or PE b) Women with severe liver dysfunction c) Women with undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding d) All of the above MODULE 23 1. What is the brand name of CRISABOROLE? a) Eucrisa b) Crisaborole c) Phosphodiesterase-4 Enzyme Inhibitor d) Ointment 2. Which drug class does CRISABOROLE belong to? a) Phosphodiesterase-4 Enzyme Inhibitor b) Topical steroid c) Antihistamine d) Antibiotic 3. What is the common dose of CRISABOROLE for adults and infants over 3 months of age? a) Apply a thick layer to the affected area once a day b) Apply a thin layer to the affected area twice a day c) Apply a thick layer to the affected area twice a day d) Apply a thin layer to the unaffected area twice a day 4. What is a contraindication for using CRISABOROLE? a) Hypersensitivity b) Atopic dermatitis c) Topical steroid use d) Antibiotic use 5. What condition does CRISABOROLE treat? a) Atopic dermatitis b) Psoriasis c) Acne d) Eczema 6. How does CRISABOROLE work? a) It inhibits phosphodiesterase 4, increasing cAMP levels and cytokines that cause itching b) It blocks histamine receptors, reducing allergic reactions c) It kills bacteria on the skin, treating infections d) It reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system 7. What are the adverse reactions associated with CRISABOROLE? a) None b) Decreased libido c) Impotence d) Gynecomastia 8. What should be monitored when using CRISABOROLE? a) Improvement in rash, itching, and skin appearance b) Blood pressure and heart rate c) Liver function tests d) Kidney function tests 9. What is a clinical pearl about CRISABOROLE? a) A trial of topical steroids is usually tried before crisaborole due to cost b) It is the first-line treatment for all types of dermatitis c) It is only prescribed for severe cases of atopic dermatitis d) It can be used as a substitute 1. What is the drug class of Cyanocobalamin? a) Essential B Vitamin (B12) b) Antibiotic c) Painkiller d) Antihistamine 2. Which of the following is a common dose of Cyanocobalamin for oral administration? a) 100 mcg po daily b) 500 mcg in 1 nostril once weekly c) 1000 mcg po daily d) 2000 mcg in 1 nostril once weekly 3. What is a potential adverse reaction of Cyanocobalamin? a) Nausea b) Fever c) Injection site pain d) Insomnia 4. What is the mechanism of action of Cyanocobalamin? a) It reduces inflammation in the body b) It increases blood pressure c) It promotes DNA synthesis d) It blocks the production of red blood cells 5. What is one of the contraindications for Cyanocobalamin? a) Allergy to vitamin C b) Hypersensitivity to Cyanocobalamin or cobalt c) History of heart disease d) Pregnancy 6. Which drug can decrease Cyanocobalamin concentrations? a) Metformin b) Ibuprofen c) Acetaminophen d) Aspirin 7. What is one of the monitoring parameters for Cyanocobalamin? a) Blood sugar levels b) Blood pressure c) B12 and folic acid levels d) Liver function tests 8. What condition does Cyanocobalamin treat? a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Cobalamin deficiency d) Asthma 9. Which drug can cause an elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) in the absence of vitamin B deficiency? a) Cyanocobalamin b) Metformin c) Hydroxyurea d) Pemetrexed 10. What is one of the potential symptoms of anemia that should be resolved with Cyanocobalamin treatment? a) Fatigue b) Nausea c) Muscle pain d) Insomnia 1. What is the drug class of Cyclobenzaprine? a) Painkiller b) Antibiotic c) Antidepressant d) Centrally Acting Skeletal Muscle Relaxant 2. Which of the following is a common dose of Cyclobenzaprine for immediate release tablets? a) 2.5 mg po tid b) 5 mg po tid c) 10 mg po tid d) 15 mg po tid 3. What is one of the contraindications for Cyclobenzaprine? a) Allergy to painkillers b) Hypersensitivity to Cyclobenzaprine c) History of heart disease d) Thyroid disease 4. What condition does Cyclobenzaprine treat? a) Migraine b) Insomnia c) Skeletal muscle spasm d) Depression 5. What is the mechanism of action of Cyclobenzaprine? a) It reduces inflammation in the body b) It increases blood pressure c) It blocks pain signals in the brain d) It relieves skeletal muscle spasm without interfering with muscle function 6. What is one of the potential side effects of Cyclobenzaprine? a) Increased libido b) Impotence c) Decreased appetite d) Drowsiness 7. What is one of the monitoring parameters for Cyclobenzaprine? a) Blood pressure b) Blood sugar levels c) Reduction in pain and muscle spasms d) Liver function tests 8. How long should Cyclobenzaprine be used for? a) Up to 1 week b) Up to 2-3 weeks c) Up to 1 month d) Indefinitely 9. What should be avoided when taking Cyclobenzaprine? a) Alcohol b) Caffeine c) Dairy products d) Opioids 10. Who should use Cyclobenzaprine with caution? a) Children b) Elderly individuals c) Pregnant women d) Athletes 1. What is the drug class of Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) Painkiller b) Antibiotic c) Antihistamine d) Calcineurin Inhibitor 2. Which of the following is a common dose of Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) 1 drop in affected eye(s) q6h b) 1 drop in affected eye(s) q8h c) 1 drop in affected eye(s) q12h d) 1 drop in affected eye(s) q24h 3. What condition does Cyclosporine Ophthalmic treat? a) Dry mouth b) Sinusitis c) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca d) Glaucoma 4. What is the mechanism of action of Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) It reduces inflammation in the eye b) It increases tear production c) It blocks pain signals in the eye d) It prevents eye infections 5. What is one of the potential side effects of Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) Itchy scalp b) Decreased libido c) Impotence d) Burning sensation in the eye 6. What should be monitored while using Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) Blood pressure b) Blood sugar levels c) Improved tear production d) Liver function tests 7. Can Cyclosporine Ophthalmic be used in children under 16 years of age? a) Yes, it is safe for all ages b) No, it is not recommended for children under 16 years old c) Only with a doctor's prescription d) Only for short-term use in children 8. What are the available drug forms of Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) Oral tablets b) Injectable solution c) Ophthalmic emulsion and ophthalmic solution d) Nasal spray 9. What is one of the contraindications for Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) Allergy to antibiotics b) Hypersensitivity to Cyclosporine c) History of heart disease d) Thyroid disease 10. What is one of the clinical pearls about Cyclosporine Ophthalmic? a) It is commonly used for 1. What is the drug class of Dabigatran? a) Painkiller b) Antibiotic c) Antihistamine d) Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC) 2. What is the common dose of Dabigatran for initial treatment? a) 50 mg po bid b) 100 mg po bid c) 150 mg po bid d) 200 mg po bid 3. What condition does Dabigatran treat? a) High blood pressure b) Diabetes c) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) and Pulmonary Embolism (PE) d) Migraine headaches 4. What is the mechanism of action of Dabigatran? a) It reduces inflammation in the body b) It lowers cholesterol levels c) It prevents blood clot formation by inhibiting thrombin d) It increases blood flow to the heart 5. What are some potential side effects of Dabigatran? a) Nausea and vomiting b) Decreased libido and impotence c) Gynecomastia and dyspepsia d) Headache and dizziness 6. What should be monitored while using Dabigatran? a) Blood pressure b) Blood sugar levels c) Clotting status and signs of bleeding d) Liver function tests 7. Can Dabigatran be used in patients with prosthetic heart valves? a) Yes, it is safe for all patients b) No, it is contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves c) Only with a doctor's prescription d) Only for short-term use in patients with prosthetic heart valves 8. What are the available drug forms of Dabigatran? a) Oral capsules b) Injectable solution c) Nasal spray d) Transdermal patch 9. What is one of the contraindications for Dabigatran? a) Allergy to antibiotics b) Active bleeding or hypersensitivity to Dabigatran c) History of heart disease d) Thyroid disease 10. What is one of the clinical pearls about Dabigatran? a) It can be stored at room temperature b) It should be taken with food to improve absorption 1. What is the drug class of Dapagliflozin? a) Antibiotic b) Painkiller c) Antidiabetic Agent, Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitor d) Antihistamine 2. What is the common dose of Dapagliflozin? a) 2.5-5 mg po daily b) 5-10 mg po daily, before first meal c) 10-15 mg po daily d) 15-20 mg po daily 3. What condition does Dapagliflozin primarily treat? a) High blood pressure b) Diabetes mellitus, type 2 c) Migraine headaches d) Asthma 4. What is the mechanism of action of Dapagliflozin? a) It reduces inflammation in the body b) It lowers cholesterol levels c) It inhibits SGLT2 in the proximal renal tubules, reducing glucose reabsorption d) It increases insulin production in the pancreas 5. What are some potential adverse reactions of Dapagliflozin? a) Nausea and vomiting b) Decreased libido and impotence c) Gynecomastia and dyspepsia d) None known 6. What should be monitored while using Dapagliflozin? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Blood sugar levels and HbA1c c) Liver function tests d) Thyroid function tests 7. Can Dapagliflozin be used in patients with severe renal impairment? a) Yes, it is safe for all patients b) No, it is contraindicated in patients with severe renal impairment c) Only with a doctor's prescription d) Only for short-term use in patients with severe renal impairment 8. What are the available drug forms of Dapagliflozin? a) Oral tablets b) Injectable solution c) Nasal spray d) Transdermal patch 9. Which of the following conditions can Dapagliflozin treat? a) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction b) Chronic kidney disease c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b 1. What is the drug class of Darbepoetin? a) Antibiotic b) Painkiller c) Hematopoietic d) Antihistamine 2. What is the common dose of Darbepoetin for subcutaneous administration? a) 0.25 mcg/kg weekly b) 2.25 mcg/kg weekly c) 5 mcg/kg every 3 weeks d) 10 mcg/kg every 2 weeks 3. What are the contraindications for Darbepoetin? a) Hypersensitivity to darbepoetin b) Uncontrolled hypertension c) Pure red cell aplasia d) All of the above 4. What condition does Darbepoetin primarily treat? a) Anemia due to chemotherapy b) Anemia of chronic kidney disease c) Hypertension d) Diabetes mellitus 5. What is the mechanism of action of Darbepoetin? a) It reduces inflammation in the body b) It lowers cholesterol levels c) It stimulates the production and differentiation of mature red blood cells d) It increases insulin production in the pancreas 6. What are some potential adverse reactions of Darbepoetin? a) Cough and dyspnea b) Edema and hypertension c) Diarrhea and myalgia d) All of the above ` 7. What parameters should be monitored while using Darbepoetin? a) Hemoglobin levels and iron studies b) Blood pressure and weight c) Signs and symptoms of thrombosis d) All of the above 8. What is the preferred route of administration for Darbepoetin? a) Oral tablets b) Injectable solution c) Nasal spray d) Transdermal patch 9. What are the common drug forms of Darbepoetin? a) Injection solution and vial b) Injectable solution and prefilled syringe c) Oral tablets and capsules d) Transdermal patch and nasal spray 10. How does Darbepoetin affect the risk of cardiovascular events? a) It decreases the risk of cardiovascular events b) It increases the risk of cardiovascular events c) It has no effect on the MODULE 24 1. What is the brand name of darifenacin? a) Enablex b) Darifenacin XR c) Urinary Antispasmodic d) Overactive bladder 2. Which drug class does darifenacin belong to? a) Urinary Antispasmodic b) Gastric retention c) Glaucoma d) Urinary retention 3. What are the common drug forms of darifenacin? a) Oral Tablet, Extended Release b) Oral Solution c) Injectable d) Transdermal Patch 4. What is the starting dose of darifenacin? a) 7.5 mg po daily b) 15 mg po daily c) 5 mg po daily d) 10 mg po daily 5. What are the contraindications for darifenacin? a) Hypersensitivity to darifenacin b) Gastric retention c) Glaucoma d) Urinary retention 6. What condition does darifenacin treat? a) Overactive bladder b) Gastric retention c) Glaucoma d) Urinary retention 7. What is the mechanism of action of darifenacin? a) Competitive muscarinic receptor agonist b) Competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist c) Non-competitive muscarinic receptor agonist d) Non-competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist 8. What are the common adverse reactions of darifenacin? a) Constipation, xerostomia, blurred vision b) Diarrhea, excessive salivation, visual disturbances c) Nausea, excessive sweating, dry eyes d) Abdominal pain, increased urination, eye pain 9. What should be monitored while taking darifenacin? a) Resolution of clinical signs of bladder spasticity b) Incontinence, urinary urgency, and frequency c) Severe anticholinergic effects d) All of the above 10. What clinical pearl should be considered when prescribing darifenacin? a) May note decline in cognitive function, especially in elderly patients. b) May cause gastric retention and glaucoma. c) May cause urinary retention and constipation. d) May cause excessive salivation and blurred vision. 1. What is the brand name of desvenlafaxine? a) Pristiq b) Khedezla c) Serotonin/Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor d) Depression 2. Which drug class does desvenlafaxine belong to? a) Serotonin/Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor b) Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor c) Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor d) Antidepressant 3. What are the common drug forms of desvenlafaxine? a) Tablet, Extended Release b) Oral Solution c) Injectable d) Transdermal Patch 4. What is the starting dose of desvenlafaxine? a) 50 mg po daily b) 100 mg po daily c) 25 mg po daily d) 75 mg po daily 5. What are the contraindications for desvenlafaxine? a) Hypersensitivity to desvenlafaxine or venlafaxine; MAOI use b) Hypersensitivity to desvenlafaxine or sertraline; SSRI use c) Hypersensitivity to desvenlafaxine or fluoxetine; SNRI use d) Hypersensitivity to desvenlafaxine or citalopram; tricyclic antidepressant use 6. What condition does desvenlafaxine treat? a) Depression b) Anxiety c) Bipolar disorder d) Schizophrenia 7. What is the mechanism of action of desvenlafaxine? a) Reuptake inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine b) Reuptake inhibitor of serotonin only c) Reuptake inhibitor of norepinephrine only d) Reuptake inhibitor of dopamine and serotonin 8. What are the common adverse reactions of desvenlafaxine? a) Diaphoresis, dizziness, headache, nausea, xerostomia b) Diarrhea, excessive salivation, visual disturbances c) Nausea, excessive sweating, dry eyes d) Abdominal pain, increased urination, eye pain 1. What is the brand name of Dexamethasone? a) Decadron b) Prednisone c) Hydrocortisone d) Fludrocortisone 2. Which drug class does Dexamethasone belong to? a) Adrenal Corticosteroid b) Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drug c) Antihistamine d) Antidepressant 3. What are the common drug forms of Dexamethasone? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Solution c) Oral Elixir d) All of the above 4. What is the common dose range of Dexamethasone for adults? a) 0.75-9 mg/d po b) 10-20 mg/d po c) 50-100 mg/d po d) 100-200 mg/d po 5. What are the contraindications for Dexamethasone? a) Hypersensitivity to glucocorticosteroids b) Concurrent use of live vaccines c) Fungal infections d) All of the above 6. What conditions does Dexamethasone treat? a) Allergic states b) Dermatologic diseases c) Endocrine disorders d) All of the above 7. What is the mechanism of action of Dexamethasone? a) Modifies the body's immune responses b) Blocks histamine receptors c) Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis d) Stimulates the release of cortisol 8. What are the common adverse reactions of Dexamethasone? a) Hypertension b) Gastrointestinal upset c) Both a and b d) None of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking Dexamethasone? a) Improvement or resolution of clinical signs and symptoms b) PFT (pulmonary function tests) c) Signs of hyperglycemia d) All of the above 10. True or False: The frequency and severity of adverse effects of Dexamethasone are dependent on the length of treatment and dose. a) True b) False 1. What is the brand name of Dexlansoprazole? a) Dexilant b) Nexium c) Prilosec d) Zantac 2. Which drug class does Dexlansoprazole belong to? a) Proton Pump Inhibitor b) H2 Antagonist c) Antacid d) Antihistamine 3. What are the common drug forms of Dexlansoprazole? a) Oral Capsule b) Oral Tablet c) Oral Suspension d) All of the above 4. What is the common dose range of Dexlansoprazole for adults and children ≥12 years of age? a) 30 mg po daily × 8 weeks b) 60 mg po daily × 8 weeks c) 30 mg po daily × 6 months d) 60 mg po daily × 6 months 5. What are the contraindications for Dexlansoprazole? a) Hypersensitivity to Dexlansoprazole or other PPIs b) Hypersensitivity to H2 antagonists c) Hypersensitivity to antacids d) None of the above 6. What conditions does Dexlansoprazole treat? a) Erosive esophagitis b) Symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux disease c) Peptic ulcers d) All of the above 7. What is the mechanism of action of Dexlansoprazole? a) Binds to H2 receptors in the stomach b) Blocks the production of stomach acid c) Covalently binds to the proton pump in the parietal cells d) Increases the production of mucous in the stomach lining 8. What are the common adverse reactions of Dexlansoprazole? a) Headache b) Blistering skin rash c) GI discomfort d) None known 9. What should be monitored while taking Dexlansoprazole? a) Resolution of GI discomfort b) Severe headache or blistering skin rash c) Risk of C. difficile infection d) All of the above 10. True or False: Dexlansoprazole may interact with clopidogrel and C 1. What is the brand name of Dexmethylphenidate? a) Ritalin b) Adderall c) Focalin d) Concerta 2. Which drug class does Dexmethylphenidate belong to? a) Antidepressant b) Antipsychotic c) CNS Stimulant d) Sedative 3. What are the common forms of Dexmethylphenidate? a) Injectable solution b) Transdermal patch c) Oral Tablet and Oral Capsule d) Inhalation aerosol 4. What is the maximum daily dose of immediate-release Dexmethylphenidate for adults? a) 10 mg b) 20 mg c) 30 mg d) 40 mg 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for Dexmethylphenidate use? a) Allergy to penicillin b) History of asthma c) Glaucoma d) Diabetes 6. What condition does Dexmethylphenidate primarily treat? a) Anxiety disorder b) Bipolar disorder c) ADHD d) Insomnia 7. How does Dexmethylphenidate work in the body? a) By increasing serotonin levels b) By inhibiting norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake c) By blocking histamine receptors d) By suppressing the immune system 8. Which of the following is a potential adverse reaction of Dexmethylphenidate? a) Increased appetite b) Fatigue c) Dizziness d) Weight loss 9. What monitoring parameters should be considered when using Dexmethylphenidate? a) Liver function tests b) Blood glucose levels c) Blood pressure and heart rate d) Lung function tests 10. What is a clinical pearl about Dexmethylphenidate? a) It is the S-enantiomer of methylphenidate b) It should be used in combination with MAOIs c) It has a low potential for abuse d) Prolonged use may lead to drug dependence MISSING DIAZEPAM 1. What is the drug class of diclofenac? a. Antidepressant b. Antihistamine c. NSAID d. Antibiotic 2. Which of the following is NOT a brand name for diclofenac? a. Cambia b. Voltaren c. Zipsor d. Zorvolex 3. What is the common dose range for diclofenac? a. 5-10 mg po tid b. 18-50 mg po tid c. 100-200 mg po tid d. 500-1000 mg po tid 4. What condition can diclofenac be used to treat? a. High blood pressure b. Diabetes c. Pain d. Allergies 5. What is the mechanism of action of diclofenac? a. Blocks histamine receptors b. Inhibits viral replication c. Reduces inflammation by inhibiting COX enzymes d. Increases serotonin levels in the brain 6. What are the potential adverse reactions of diclofenac? a. Dizziness and fatigue b. Upset stomach and headaches c. Muscle pain and joint stiffness d. Allergic skin reactions and blurred vision 7. What monitoring parameters should be considered when taking diclofenac? a. Blood pressure and heart rate b. Blood glucose levels c. Liver function tests and kidney function tests d. Lung function tests and oxygen saturation 8. True or False: Diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with asthma. a. True b. False 9. What population is at increased risk of GI ulceration when taking diclofenac? a. Children b. Pregnant women c. Elderly patients d. Athletes 10. What are the box warnings associated with diclofenac? a. Increased risk of heart attack and stroke b. Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding c. Increased risk of bleeding after surgery d. Increased risk of liver damage MODULE 25 1. What is the brand name of the drug Dicyclomine? a) Bentyl b) Dicyclo c) Antimuscarinic d) GI distress 2. Which drug class does Dicyclomine belong to? a) Antimuscarinic b) Antihistamine c) Antacid d) Antibiotic 3. What are the common forms of Dicyclomine? a) Oral Capsule, Oral Tablet, Oral Solution b) Injectable, Nasal Spray, Eye Drops c) Transdermal Patch, Inhaler, Suppository d) Chewable Tablet, Liquid Suspension, Sublingual Tablet 4. What is the recommended dosage for Dicyclomine? a) 2 mg po tid-qid b) 5 mg po tid-qid c) 10 mg po tid-qid d) 20 mg po tid-qid 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using Dicyclomine? a) Allergy to dicyclomine b) Age <6 months c) Breastfeeding d) All of the above 6. What condition does Dicyclomine treat? a) Irritable bowel syndrome b) Migraine headaches c) High blood pressure d) Diabetes 7. How does Dicyclomine work in the body? a) It blocks histamine receptors b) It reduces stomach acid production c) It relaxes smooth muscles in the GI tract d) It stimulates the release of digestive enzymes 8. What are some common adverse reactions of Dicyclomine? a) Increased sweating, excessive salivation, diarrhea b) Blurred vision, dizziness, constipation c) Rapid heart rate, severe drowsiness, shortness of breath d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking Dicyclomine? a) Improved bowel function, decreased flatulence, diarrhea b) Blood pressure, liver function, kidney function c) Blood sugar levels, cholesterol levels, body weight d) Eye pressure, hearing, lung function 10. What is a clinical pearl about Dicyclomine? a) It should not be used in infants b) It can be given intravenously for rapid relief 1. What is the brand name of the drug Digoxin? a) Digitek b) Digox c) Lanoxin d) All of the above 2. Which drug class does Digoxin belong to? a) Digitalis Glycoside b) Beta Blocker c) Calcium Channel Blocker d) ACE Inhibitor 3. What are the common forms of Digoxin? a) Oral Tablet, Oral Solution b) Injectable, Nasal Spray, Eye Drops c) Transdermal Patch, Inhaler, Suppository d) Chewable Tablet, Liquid Suspension, Sublingual Tablet 4. What is the recommended loading dose of Digoxin? a) 0.25 mg po q2h to a total dose of 1.5 mg b) 0.125 mg po daily c) 0.375 mg po daily d) 0.5 mg po q6h 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using Digoxin? a) Hypersensitivity to digoxin b) Ventricular fibrillation c) Allergy to digitalis glycosides d) All of the above 6. What conditions does Digoxin treat? a) Atrial fibrillation b) Heart failure c) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia d) All of the above 7. How does Digoxin work in the body? a) It blocks histamine receptors b) It reduces stomach acid production c) It exerts positive inotropic effects on the heart d) It increases blood pressure 8. What are some common adverse reactions of Digoxin? a) None known b) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea c) Headache, dizziness, fatigue d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking Digoxin? a) ECG, decreased HR, improvement in signs/symptoms of heart failure b) Therapeutic serum range, serum electrolytes, kidney function c) Blood pressure, liver function, cholesterol levels d) Eye pressure, hearing, lung function 10. What is a clinical pearl about Digoxin? a) Tablet and solution are interchangeable b) Use with caution in the elderly c) Injectable form is less irritating than the oral form 1. What is the brand name of the drug Diltiazem? a) Cardizem b) Cartia XT c) Dilacor XR d) All of the above 2. Which drug class does Diltiazem belong to? a) Calcium Channel Blocker b) Beta Blocker c) ACE Inhibitor d) Diuretic 3. What are the common forms of Diltiazem? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Capsule, Extended Release c) Injectable d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended starting dose of Diltiazem for hypertension? a) 60 mg po daily b) 120 mg po daily c) 240 mg po daily d) 360 mg po daily 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using Diltiazem? a) Hypersensitivity to diltiazem b) Hypotension c) 2nd- or 3rd-degree AV block d) All of the above 6. What conditions does Diltiazem treat? a) Hypertension b) Stable, chronic angina c) Atrial arrhythmia and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia d) All of the above 7. How does Diltiazem work in the body? a) It blocks histamine receptors b) It reduces stomach acid production c) It decreases heart rate and arterial tone d) It increases blood pressure 8. What are some common adverse reactions of Diltiazem? a) Edema b) Headache c) Nausea d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking Diltiazem? a) Decreased blood pressure b) Reduction in chest pain c) Signs/symptoms of heart failure d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about Diltiazem? a) Avoid concurrent use of beta-blockers or digoxin during therapy b) Injectable formulation is not available c) It is only used for acute coronary insufficiency d) It has positive inotropic properties 1. What is the brand name of the drug DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) Lomotil b) Diphenoxylate/Atropine c) Diarrhea Relief d) GastroStop 2. Which drug class does DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE belong to? a) Antidiarrheal b) Antibiotic c) Antihistamine d) Analgesic 3. What are the common forms of DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Solution c) Injectable d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) 1 tablet po qid until diarrhea resolves b) 2 tablets po qid until diarrhea resolves c) 3 tablets po qid until diarrhea resolves d) 4 tablets po qid until diarrhea resolves 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) Hypersensitivity to diphenoxylate or atropine products b) Diarrhea associated with enterotoxin-producing bacteria c) Obstructive jaundice d) All of the above 6. What condition does DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE treat? a) Diarrhea b) Constipation c) Nausea d) Abdominal discomfort 7. How does DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE work in the body? a) It increases GI motility b) It decreases GI motility c) It reduces stomach acid production d) It blocks histamine receptors 8. What are some common adverse reactions of DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) Abdominal discomfort b) Nausea and vomiting c) Headache d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) Frequency and volume of bowel movements b) Body temperature c) Blood in stool d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about DIPHENOXYLATE/ATROPINE? a) Signs of 1. What is the brand name of the drug DIPYRIDAMOLE? a) Aggrenox b) Persantine c) Dipyridamole d) Platelet Aggregation Inhibitor 2. Which drug class does DIPYRIDAMOLE belong to? a) Platelet Aggregation Inhibitor b) Anticoagulant c) Antiplatelet d) Thrombolytic 3. What are the common forms of DIPYRIDAMOLE? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Capsule c) Extended Release (with Aspirin) d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DIPYRIDAMOLE? a) 75-100 mg po qid as an adjunct to warfarin therapy b) 50 mg po qid as a stand-alone therapy c) 200 mg po qid as an adjunct to aspirin therapy d) 100 mg po qid for thromboprophylaxis after heart valve replacement 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using DIPYRIDAMOLE? a) Hypersensitivity to dipyridamole b) Thrombocytopenia c) Uncontrolled hypertension d) History of bleeding disorders 6. What condition does DIPYRIDAMOLE treat? a) Thromboprophylaxis after heart valve replacement b) Deep vein thrombosis c) Atrial fibrillation d) Myocardial infarction 7. How does DIPYRIDAMOLE work in the body? a) It inhibits the uptake of adenosine into platelets, endothelial cells, and erythrocytes resulting in an increase in local concentrations of adenosine, which is a coronary vasodilator and a platelet aggregation inhibitor. b) It directly inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking specific receptors. c) It interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. d) It breaks down existing blood clots. 8. What is a common adverse reaction of DIPYRIDAMOLE? a) Dizziness b) Nausea c) Headache d) Fatigue 9. What should be monitored while taking DIPYRIDAMOLE? a) Prevention of AMI, stroke, 1. What is the brand name of the drug DIVALPROEX? a) Depakote b) Valproic Acid c) Divalproex Sodium d) Depakene 2. Which drug class does DIVALPROEX belong to? a) Anticonvulsant b) Antidepressant c) Antipsychotic d) Analgesic 3. What are the common forms of DIVALPROEX? a) Oral Tablet b) Extended Release c) Oral Capsule d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DIVALPROEX? a) Once daily b) Twice daily c) Three times daily d) As needed 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using DIVALPROEX? a) Hypersensitivity to divalproex b) Hepatic disease c) Urea cycle disorders d) All of the above 6. What condition does DIVALPROEX treat? a) Absence seizure b) Complex partial epileptic seizure c) Manic bipolar disorder d) All of the above 7. How does DIVALPROEX work in the body? a) It increases the levels of GABA, a neurotransmitter that helps calm the brain. b) It blocks the reuptake of serotonin, increasing its availability in the brain. c) It inhibits the release of glutamate, a neurotransmitter that can cause seizures. d) It modulates calcium channels, reducing abnormal electrical activity in the brain. 8. What is a common adverse reaction of DIVALPROEX? a) Abdominal pain b) Alopecia c) Dizziness d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking DIVALPROEX? a) Reduction in number of seizures b) Control of manic symptoms c) Signs/symptoms of peripheral edema d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about DIVALPROEX? a) Safety and efficacy in children <10 y of age have not been established. b) It is safe to use in pregnant women. c) It has a narrow therapeutic range. d) It is not effective for migraine prophylaxis. 1. What is the brand name of the drug DONEPEZIL? a) Aricept b) Namzaric c) Memantine d) Piperidine 2. Which drug class does DONEPEZIL belong to? a) Central Cholinesterase Inhibitor b) Antipsychotic c) Antidepressant d) Analgesic 3. What are the common forms of DONEPEZIL? a) Oral Tablet b) Oral Disintegrating Tablet c) Transdermal Patch d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DONEPEZIL? a) 5 mg po daily HS b) 10 mg/d or 5 mg/d patch q 7 d c) 10 mg/d after 4-6 wk d) As needed 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using DONEPEZIL? a) Hypersensitivity to donepezil b) Hypersensitivity to piperidine derivatives c) Hypersensitivity to memantine d) All of the above 6. What condition does DONEPEZIL treat? a) Alzheimer disease b) Dementia c) Parkinson's disease d) Epilepsy 7. How does DONEPEZIL work in the body? a) It enhances the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. b) It blocks the reuptake of serotonin, increasing its availability in the brain. c) It modulates dopamine receptors, improving cognitive function. d) It inhibits the release of glutamate, reducing abnormal electrical activity in the brain. 8. What is a common adverse reaction of DONEPEZIL? a) Asthenia b) Nausea c) Headache d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking DONEPEZIL? a) Improvement in symptoms of Alzheimer-type dementia b) Symptoms of GI bleeding, particularly if patient has ulcer disease or is taking NSAIDs c) Bradycardia, particularly in patients with sick-sinus syndrome or conduction abnormalities d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about DONEPEZIL? a) Safety and effectiveness in children have not been established. b) It can alter the course of Alzheimer disease. c) Dis MODULE 26 1. What is the brand name of the drug DOXAZOSIN? a) Cardura b) Cardura XL c) Flomax d) Proscar 2. Which drug class does DOXAZOSIN belong to? a) α1-Adrenergic Blocker b) Proton Pump Inhibitor c) Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor d) Beta Blocker 3. What are the common forms of DOXAZOSIN? a) Immediate release oral tablet b) Extended release oral tablet c) Oral tablet, extended release, 24 h d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DOXAZOSIN? a) 1 mg po daily b) 4 mg po daily c) 8 mg po daily d) 10 mg po daily 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using DOXAZOSIN? a) Hypersensitivity to doxazosin b) Hypersensitivity to quinazolines c) Hypersensitivity to tamsulosin d) Hypersensitivity to silodosin 6. What condition does DOXAZOSIN treat? a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia b) Hypertension c) Erectile dysfunction d) Migraine 7. How does DOXAZOSIN work in the body? a) It selectively blocks postsynaptic α1-adrenergic receptors, reducing peripheral resistance through arterial and venous dilations. b) It inhibits the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. c) It blocks the action of beta receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure. d) It increases the production of nitric oxide, promoting smooth muscle relaxation. 8. What is a common adverse reaction of DOXAZOSIN? a) Dizziness b) Fatigue c) Malaise d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking DOXAZOSIN? a) Decreased blood pressure b) Improvement in urinary symptoms c) Signs of hypotension d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about DOXAZOSIN? a) It is not recommended for initial management of hypertension. B 1. What is the brand name of the drug DOXEPIN? a) Sinequan b) Silenor c) Prozac d) Zoloft 2. Which drug class does DOXEPIN belong to? a) Tricyclic Antidepressant b) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor c) Benzodiazepine d) Beta Blocker 3. What are the common forms of DOXEPIN? a) Oral Capsule b) Oral Tablet c) Oral Solution d) All of the above 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DOXEPIN in very mild cases? a) 25 mg po daily b) 50 mg po daily c) 75 mg po daily d) 300 mg po daily 5. Which of the following is a contraindication for using DOXEPIN? a) Hypersensitivity to doxepin b) MAOI use c) Glaucoma d) Severe urinary retention 6. What condition does DOXEPIN treat? a) Depression b) Anxiety c) Alcoholism d) Insomnia 7. How does DOXEPIN work in the body? a) It influences adrenergic activity at the synapses, preventing norepinephrine deactivation. b) It binds to histamine receptor sites, competitively inhibiting the activation of histamine receptors. c) It increases the production of serotonin in the brain. d) It blocks the action of dopamine receptors in the central nervous system. 8. What is a common adverse reaction of DOXEPIN? a) Xerostomia (dry mouth) b) Drowsiness c) Increased appetite d) Blurred vision 9. What should be monitored while taking DOXEPIN? a) Improvement in depression b) Worsening of depression or suicidality c) Changes in ECG d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about DOXEPIN? a) It is not recommended for use in children. b) It is available in a topical formulation for pruritus due to atopic dermatitis. c) It has a black box warning for suicidality. d) It is not effective for treating anxiety disorders. 1. What is the brand name of the drug DULAGLUTIDE? a) Trulicity b) Jardiance c) Victoza d) Farxiga 2. Which drug class does DULAGLUTIDE belong to? a) Antidiabetic Agent b) Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 Receptor Agonist c) Insulin d) Biguanide 3. What are the common forms of DULAGLUTIDE? a) Oral Tablet b) Subcutaneous Injection c) Inhalation Aerosol d) Intravenous Infusion 4. What is the recommended dosing schedule for DULAGLUTIDE? a) 0.5 mg every week b) 1 mg every day c) 1.5 mg every month d) 0.75-1.5 mg every week 5. What is a contraindication for using DULAGLUTIDE? a) Family history of medullary thyroid carcinoma b) Type 1 diabetes c) Severe renal impairment d) Allergy to sulfa drugs 6. What condition does DULAGLUTIDE treat? a) Diabetes mellitus, type 1 b) Diabetes insipidus c) Diabetes mellitus, type 2 d) Hypoglycemia 7. How does DULAGLUTIDE work in the body? a) It increases insulin production in the pancreas b) It decreases glucose production in the liver c) It slows gastric emptying and increases insulin secretion d) It inhibits the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gut 8. What are common adverse reactions of DULAGLUTIDE? a) Nausea b) Diarrhea c) Weight loss d) All of the above 9. What should be monitored while taking DULAGLUTIDE? a) HbA1c levels b) Renal function c) Vital signs d) All of the above 10. What is a clinical pearl about DULAGLUTIDE? a) It is the first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes b) It is administered daily c) It is contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disease d) It can be used for weight loss in addition 1. Duloxetine belongs to which drug class? a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor b) Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor c) Benzodiazepine d) Antipsychotic 2. What are the common drug forms of duloxetine? a) Oral tablet, immediate release b) Oral capsule, delayed release c) Transdermal patch d) Injectable solution 3. What are the common doses of duloxetine? a) 30 mg po daily b) 60 mg po daily c) 120 mg po daily d) 240 mg po daily 4. Which of the following conditions is duloxetine NOT used to treat? a) Anxiety b) Depression c) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy pain d) Hypertension 5. What is the mechanism of action of duloxetine? a) Inhibits serotonin reuptake only b) Inhibits norepinephrine reuptake only c) Inhibits both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake d) Inhibits dopamine reuptake 6. What are the contraindications of duloxetine? a) Hypersensitivity to duloxetine b) MAOI use c) Uncontrolled glaucoma d) All of the above 7. What are the common adverse reactions of duloxetine? a) Headache b) Nausea c) Dizziness d) All of the above 8. What monitoring parameters should be considered during duloxetine therapy? a) Improvement in symptoms of depression, pain, or anxiety b) Worsening of depression, suicidality, or unusual changes in behavior c) Blood pressure, CBC, electrolytes, and liver function tests d) All of the above 9. True or False: Duloxetine is approved for use in children. a) True b) False 10. What is the black box warning associated with duloxetine? a) Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding b) Increased risk of cardiovascular events c) Increased risk of suicidality in children and adolescents d) Increased risk of hepatotoxicity 1. Dutasteride belongs to which drug class? a) 5α-Reductase Inhibitor b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor c) Benzodiazepine d) Antipsychotic 2. What is the brand name for dutasteride? a) Proscar b) Flomax c) Avodart d) Jalyn 3. What is the common drug form of dutasteride? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Transdermal patch d) Oral capsule 4. What is the common dose of dutasteride? a) 0.25 mg po daily b) 0.5 mg po daily c) 1 mg po daily d) 2 mg po daily 5. What condition does dutasteride treat? a) Erectile dysfunction b) Hypertension c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia d) Depression 6. What is the mechanism of action of dutasteride? a) Inhibits the conversion of testosterone to estrogen b) Inhibits the conversion of testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) c) Stimulates hair growth d) Increases blood flow to the prostate 7. What are the contraindications of dutasteride? a) Hypersensitivity to dutasteride b) Pregnancy c) Use in children d) All of the above 8. What are the common adverse reactions of dutasteride? a) Headache b) Nausea c) Decreased libido d) None known 9. What monitoring parameters should be considered during dutasteride therapy? a) American Urologic Association (AUA) Symptom Score b) Residual urine volume c) Urinary flow d) All of the above 10. True or False: Dutasteride is used to treat hair loss. a) True b) False 1. Edoxaban belongs to which drug class? a) ACE inhibitor b) Factor Xa inhibitor c) Beta blocker d) Calcium channel blocker 2. What is the brand name for edoxaban? a) Xarelto b) Eliquis c) Pradaxa d) Savaysa 3. What is the common drug form of edoxaban? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Transdermal patch d) Oral capsule 4. What is the common dose of edoxaban? a) 30 mg po once daily b) 60 mg po once daily c) 90 mg po once daily d) 120 mg po once daily 5. What condition does edoxaban treat? a) Hypertension b) Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation c) Diabetes d) Asthma 6. What is the mechanism of action of edoxaban? a) Inhibits factor Xa, reducing thrombin generation and thrombus development b) Inhibits platelet aggregation c) Dilates blood vessels d) Increases insulin sensitivity 7. What are the contraindications of edoxaban? a) Hypersensitivity to edoxaban b) Active bleeding c) Pregnancy d) All of the above 8. What are the common adverse reactions of edoxaban? a) Headache b) Nausea c) Bleeding d) None known 9. What monitoring parameters should be considered during edoxaban therapy? a) Absence of thrombosis if used for prophylaxis b) Resolution of DVT or PE if used for treatment c) Hepatic and renal function d) All of the above 10. True or False: Edoxaban is commonly used for the treatment of high blood pressure. a) True b) False 1. Elbasvir/Grazoprevir belongs to which drug class? a) ACE inhibitor b) NS3/4A Protease Inhibitor c) Beta blocker d) Calcium channel blocker 2. What is the brand name for Elbasvir/Grazoprevir? a) Xarelto b) Eliquis c) Pradaxa d) Zepatier 3. What is the common drug form of Elbasvir/Grazoprevir? a) Oral tablet b) Injectable solution c) Transdermal patch d) Oral capsule 4. What is the common dose of Elbasvir/Grazoprevir? a) 1 tablet po once daily b) 2 tablets po once daily c) 3 tablets po once daily d) 4 tablets po once daily 5. What condition does Elbasvir/Grazoprevir treat? a) Hypertension b) Chronic hepatitis C (CHC) infection c) Diabetes d) Asthma 6. What is the mechanism of action of Elbasvir/Grazoprevir? a) Inhibits HCV NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase b) Inhibits platelet aggregation c) Dilates blood vessels d) Increases insulin sensitivity 7. What are the contraindications of Elbasvir/Grazoprevir? a) Hepatic impairment b) Strong CYP3A4/5 inducers c) Pregnancy d) All of the above 8. What are the common adverse reactions of Elbasvir/Grazoprevir? a) Fatigue b) Nausea c) Headache d) None known 9. What monitoring parameters should be considered during Elbasvir/Grazoprevir therapy? a) Improvement in signs and symptoms of hepatitis C infection b) Serum hepatitis C viral RNA levels prior and during treatment c) Pregnancy tests in female patients and female partners of male patients d) All of the above 10. True or False: Elbasvir/Grazoprevir is commonly used for the treatment of high MODULE 27 1. Eletriptan is primarily used to treat: a) Hypertension b) Insomnia c) Migraine 2. Eletriptan belongs to which drug class? a) Antidepressants b) Antipsychotics c) Antimigraine Serotonin Receptor Agonists 3. What is the recommended starting dose of Eletriptan for migraines? a) 10 mg b) 20 mg c) 40 mg 4. Eletriptan binds to which serotonin receptors? a) 5-HT1B, 5-HT1D, and 5-HT1F b) 5-HT2A, 5-HT2B, and 5-HT2C c) 5-HT3 and 5-HT4 5. Eletriptan has significant affinity for adrenergic receptors. True or false? 6. What are the contraindications for Eletriptan use? a) Hypersensitivity to eletriptan and cerebrovascular syndromes b) Hypertension and diabetes c) Allergies and asthma 7. Eletriptan is used for prophylaxis of migraines. True or false? 8. What is the maximum daily dose of Eletriptan? a) 20 mg b) 40 mg c) 80 mg 9. Which adverse reaction is associated with Eletriptan use? a) Weakness b) Nausea c) Insomnia 10. What monitoring parameters should be considered when using Eletriptan? a) Resolution of signs of migraines b) Blood pressure monitoring c) Liver function tests 1. Enalapril belongs to which drug class? a) Antidepressants b) Antipsychotics c) ACEI, Antihypertensive 2. Enalapril is primarily used to treat: a) Hypertension b) Insomnia c) Diabetes 3. Enalapril is available in which drug forms? a) Injection only b) Oral tablet and oral solution c) Topical cream 4. What is the common starting dose of Enalapril? a) 5 mg po daily b) 10 mg po daily c) 2.5 mg po daily 5. Enalapril is contraindicated in patients with a history of: a) Allergies b) Angioedema c) Asthma 6. Enalapril reduces serum aldosterone, leading to: a) Increased sodium retention b) Decreased sodium retention c) No effect on sodium levels 7. What adverse reaction is associated with Enalapril use? a) Increased SCr b) Decreased SCr c) Increased potassium levels 8. What monitoring parameters should be considered when using Enalapril? a) Blood pressure only b) Electrolytes, SCr, and urine protein c) Heart rate and respiratory rate 9. Enalapril is available in an injectable formulation called: a) Enalaprilat b) Enalaprilin c) Enalapriline 10. Enalapril can be used in combination with which other medication? a) Metformin b) Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) c) Atorvastatin 1. Enoxaparin belongs to which drug class? a) Antidepressants b) Antipsychotics c) Anticoagulant, Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin 2. Enoxaparin is primarily used to treat: a) Hypertension b) Insomnia c) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis 3. Enoxaparin is available in which drug forms? a) Tablets and capsules b) Prefilled syringes and multiple-dose vials c) Injectable solution only 4. What is the common dose of Enoxaparin for DVT prophylaxis? a) 20 mg SUBQ once daily b) 40 mg SUBQ once daily c) 80 mg SUBQ once daily 5. Enoxaparin is contraindicated in patients with a history of: a) Allergies b) Active major bleeding c) Diabetes 6. What is the mechanism of action of Enoxaparin? a) It inhibits platelet aggregation b) It has anti-factor Xa and IIa properties c) It increases blood pressure 7. What adverse reaction is associated with Enoxaparin use? a) Anemia and hemorrhage b) Nausea and vomiting c) Headache and dizziness 8. What monitoring parameters should be considered when using Enoxaparin? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Prevention or resolution of thrombosis, signs and symptoms of bleeding, and CBC c) Liver function tests (LFTs) only 9. How should Enoxaparin be monitored? a) Using standard aPTT testing b) By measuring anti-factor Xa levels c) By measuring platelet count 10. What caution should be taken when administering Enoxaparin for neuraxial anesthesia? a) Increased risk of bleeding b) Increased risk of infection c) Increased risk of allergic reactions 1. Epinephrine Autoinjectors are primarily used for: a) Hypertension b) Allergic reactions and anaphylaxis c) Asthma management 2. Which of the following is not a brand of Epinephrine Autoinjector? a) Adrenaclick b) Auvi-Q c) EpiPen Jr 3. What is the common dose of Epinephrine Autoinjector for severe anaphylaxis? a) 0.1 mg IM or SUBQ b) 0.3 mg IM or SUBQ c) 1 mg IM or SUBQ 4. What is the mechanism of action of Epinephrine Autoinjector? a) Decreases blood pressure and heart rate b) Relaxes bronchial smooth muscles c) Stimulates α- and β-adrenergic receptors 5. Which of the following is not an adverse reaction of Epinephrine Autoinjector? a) Headache b) Nausea c) Decreased libido 6. How should Epinephrine Autoinjector be monitored? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Resolution of anaphylaxis symptoms c) Liver function tests 7. Can Epinephrine Autoinjector be used as a substitute for immediate medical care? a) Yes, it can replace medical care b) No, it is only for emergency supportive therapy c) It depends on the severity of the allergic reaction 8. Which route of administration should not be used for Epinephrine in anaphylaxis treatment? a) IV b) IM or SUBQ c) Oral 9. What should be done after using an Epinephrine Autoinjector for anaphylaxis? a) Seek immediate medical attention b) Take a nap c) Take antihistamines 10. Are there other injectable formulations of Epinephrine available for different medical uses? a) Yes, there are other formulations available b) No, Epinephrine Autoinjector is the only option c) It depends on the country and healthcare system 1. Epoetin is primarily used to treat: a) Hypertension b) Anemia of cancer chemotherapy c) Diabetes 2. Which of the following is NOT a brand name for Epoetin? a) Epogen b) Procrit c) Retacrit 3. What is the common dose of Epoetin for subcutaneous administration? a) 10,000 units weekly b) 40,000 units daily c) 40,000 units weekly 4. Epoetin is contraindicated in patients with: a) Diabetes b) Hypersensitivity to epoetin c) Asthma 5. What is the mechanism of action of Epoetin? a) It stimulates the production of red blood cells b) It lowers blood pressure c) It reduces inflammation 6. What are some common adverse reactions of Epoetin? a) Headache and nausea b) Edema and hypertension c) Dizziness and fatigue 7. Which parameters should be monitored when using Epoetin? a) Blood pressure and weight b) Hemoglobin levels and iron studies c) Liver function tests 8. In which patient population should Epoetin be discontinued after completing chemotherapy? a) Cancer patients with breast tumors b) Cancer patients with lung tumors c) Cancer patients with head and neck tumors 9. What are the recommended iron levels for patients receiving Epoetin therapy? a) Transferrin saturation >20% and ferritin >100 ng/mL b) Transferrin saturation <20% and ferritin <100 ng/mL c) Transferrin saturation >50% and ferritin >200 ng/mL 10. What risks have been associated with Epoetin use in renal failure patients? a) Increased risk of stroke and cardiovascular events b) Increased risk of infection and bleeding c) Increased risk of allergic reactions 1. Escitalopram is primarily used to treat: a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Depression and generalized anxiety disorder 2. What is the brand name for Escitalopram? a) Prozac b) Zoloft c) Lexapro 3. What is the common daily dose of Escitalopram? a) 5 mg b) 10 mg c) 20 mg 4. Escitalopram is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypersensitivity to citalopram or escitalopram b) High blood pressure c) Asthma 5. What is the mechanism of action of Escitalopram? a) It increases the reuptake of serotonin b) It decreases the reuptake of norepinephrine c) It is a selective and potent inhibitor of serotonin reuptake 6. What are some common adverse reactions of Escitalopram? a) Headache and nausea b) Dry mouth and dizziness c) Insomnia and increased appetite 7. What should be monitored when using Escitalopram? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Improvement in symptoms of depression and anxiety c) Liver function tests 8. In what conditions is Escitalopram used? a) Depression and generalized anxiety disorder b) Hypothyroidism and insomnia c) Migraine and panic disorder 9. What should be monitored for during the initiation of Escitalopram therapy? a) Unusual changes in behavior and suicidality b) Increased appetite and weight gain c) Allergic reactions and skin rash 10. What is the black box warning associated with Escitalopram? a) Increased risk of bleeding b) Risk of suicidal thoughts and behavior c) Risk of liver toxicity 1. Esomeprazole belongs to which drug class? a) Antihistamine b) Proton Pump Inhibitor c) Antibiotic 2. What is the brand name for Esomeprazole? a) Zantac b) Nexium c) Prilosec 3. What are the common forms of Esomeprazole? a) Oral Capsule, Immediate Release b) Oral Tablet, Immediate Release c) Oral Capsule, Delayed Release 4. Esomeprazole is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypersensitivity to omeprazole or esomeprazole b) High blood pressure c) Asthma 5. What conditions does Esomeprazole treat? a) Helicobacter pylori GI infection and heartburn b) Diabetes and hypertension c) Migraine and insomnia 6. What is the mechanism of action of Esomeprazole? a) It increases the production of gastric acid b) It inhibits the release of histamine c) It binds to the proton pump and reduces acid secretion 7. What is a common adverse reaction of Esomeprazole? a) Headache b) Nausea and vomiting c) Diarrhea 8. What should be monitored when using Esomeprazole? a) Resolution of GI discomfort and ulcers shown on endoscopy b) Blood pressure and heart rate c) Liver function tests 9. What is a clinical pearl about Esomeprazole? a) It is available in injectable formulation b) It is not available over-the-counter c) It is commonly used to treat insomnia 10. What is an important consideration for patients taking Esomeprazole? a) Increased risk of fractures; use lowest effective dose in patients at risk for osteoporosis b) Avoid taking multiple products concurrently c) Choose calcium citrate if calcium therapy is required MODULE 28 1. Estradiol Oral belongs to which drug class? a) Antihistamine b) Estrogen c) Antibiotic 2. What is the brand name for Estradiol Oral? a) Estrace b) Nexium c) Prilosec 3. What are the common forms of Estradiol Oral? a) Oral Capsule, Immediate Release b) Oral Tablet c) Injectable Solution 4. Estradiol Oral is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypersensitivity to estradiol b) High blood pressure c) Asthma 5. What conditions does Estradiol Oral treat? a) Abnormal vasomotor function, menopause, and postmenopausal osteoporosis b) Diabetes and hypertension c) Migraine and insomnia 6. What is the mechanism of action of Estradiol Oral? a) It inhibits the release of histamine b) It increases the production of estrogen c) It produces characteristic effects on specific tissues and accelerates bone deposition 7. What is a common adverse reaction of Estradiol Oral? a) None known b) Nausea and vomiting c) Diarrhea 8. What should be monitored when using Estradiol Oral? a) Improvement in menopause symptoms and bone mineral density b) Blood pressure and heart rate c) Liver function tests 9. What is a clinical pearl about Estradiol Oral? a) It is available in injectable formulation b) It is commonly used for breast cancer treatment c) It is taken orally as a tablet 10. What is an important consideration for patients taking Estradiol Oral? a) Regular physical examinations including cervical cytology and breast exams b) Avoid taking multiple products concurrently c) Choose the lowest effective dose for postmenopausal osteoporosis 1. Estradiol Transdermal Patch belongs to which drug class? a) Antihistamine b) Estrogen c) Antibiotic 2. What is the brand name for Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) Alora b) Nexium c) Prilosec 3. What are the common forms of Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) Oral Tablet b) Transdermal Patch, Once Weekly or Twice Weekly c) Injectable Solution 4. Estradiol Transdermal Patch is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypersensitivity to estradiol b) High blood pressure c) Asthma 5. What conditions does Estradiol Transdermal Patch treat? a) Abnormal vasomotor function, menopause, and postmenopausal osteoporosis b) Diabetes and hypertension c) Migraine and insomnia 6. What is the mechanism of action of Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) It inhibits the release of histamine b) It increases the production of estrogen c) It produces characteristic effects on specific tissues and accelerates bone deposition 7. What is a common adverse reaction of Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) Edema b) Nausea and vomiting c) Diarrhea 8. What should be monitored when using Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) Improvement in menopause symptoms and bone mineral density b) Blood pressure and heart rate c) Liver function tests 9. What is a clinical pearl about Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) It is available in injectable formulation b) It is commonly used for breast cancer treatment c) It is applied to the skin as a transdermal patch 10. What is an important consideration for patients using Estradiol Transdermal Patch? a) Regular physical examinations including cervical cytology and breast exams b) Avoid taking multiple products concurrently c) Choose the lowest effective dose for postmenopausal osteoporosis 1. Eszopiclone belongs to which drug class? a) Antidepressant b) Nonbarbiturate Hypnotic c) Antihistamine 2. What is the brand name for Eszopiclone? a) Zolpidem b) Lunesta c) Ambien 3. What are the common forms of Eszopiclone? a) Injectable Solution b) Transdermal Patch c) Oral Tablet 4. Eszopiclone is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypersensitivity to eszopiclone b) High blood pressure c) Asthma 5. What condition does Eszopiclone treat? a) Insomnia b) Anxiety c) Depression 6. What is the mechanism of action of Eszopiclone? a) It increases the production of serotonin b) It binds to or interacts allosterically at the GABA-receptor complex domain c) It inhibits the release of histamine 7. What is a common adverse reaction of Eszopiclone? a) Headache b) Nausea and vomiting c) Diarrhea 8. What should be monitored when using Eszopiclone? a) Improvement in sleep onset, duration, and quality b) Blood pressure and heart rate c) Liver function tests 9. What is a clinical pearl about Eszopiclone? a) It is safe and effective for use in children b) Elderly individuals may be more susceptible to adverse effects, so a lower starting dose is recommended c) It is available as a chewable tablet 10. What is a black box warning associated with Eszopiclone? a) Risk of complex sleep behaviors such as sleepwalking and sleep driving b) Increased risk of heart attack and stroke c) Potential for addiction and abuse 1. Etanercept belongs to which drug class? a) Antidepressant b) Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) c) Antirheumatic, Disease-Modifying, Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)-Blocking Agent 2. What are the common forms of Etanercept? a) Injectable Solution b) Oral Tablet c) Transdermal Patch 3. What condition does Etanercept treat? a) Migraine b) Osteoporosis c) Rheumatoid arthritis 4. What is the mechanism of action of Etanercept? a) It increases the production of serotonin b) It binds to or interacts allosterically at the GABA-receptor complex domain c) It binds to soluble human tumor necrosis factor alpha with the p55 and p75 cell surface tumor necrosis factor receptors 5. What is a common adverse reaction of Etanercept? a) Fatigue b) Nausea and vomiting c) Headache 6. What should be monitored when using Etanercept? a) Blood pressure and heart rate b) Improvement in symptoms and physical functioning c) Liver function tests 7. What is a clinical pearl about Etanercept? a) It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for osteoarthritis b) It is usually used in combination with methotrexate in patients with inadequate response for rheumatoid arthritis c) It is available as a chewable tablet 8. What are the brand names for Etanercept? a) Enbrel, Erelzi b) Humira, Remicade c) Celebrex, Voltaren 9. What are the common doses of Etanercept? a) 100 mg SUBQ once per week b) 50 mg SUBQ once per week or 25 mg SUBQ twice per week c) 200 mg orally once daily 10. What should be screened for prior to using Etanercept? a) Allergies to latex b) Active or latent infections (hepatitis C, hepatitis B, herpes, tuberculosis, etc.) c) History of heart disease 1. What is the brand name of the contraceptive containing ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel? a) NuvaRing b) Ortho Tri-Cyclen c) Mirena 2. What is the drug class of NuvaRing? a) Antidepressant b) Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) c) Contraceptive 3. In what form is NuvaRing available? a) Oral tablet b) Vaginal ring c) Transdermal patch 4. How is NuvaRing used? a) Inserted vaginally and removed daily b) Inserted vaginally and remains continuously for 3 weeks, then removed for 1 week c) Inserted orally and swallowed with water 5. What are the contraindications for using NuvaRing? a) Hypersensitivity to ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel b) History of thromboembolic disorders c) Smoking ≥15 cigarettes per day and >35 years of age 6. What does NuvaRing prim

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