MOCK-BOARD-1-MES-with-answer PDF

PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 1. This condition is characterized by a short or absent neck due to fusion of cervical vertebrae: a. Klippel-Feil c. Hemivertebra b. Crouzon's...

PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 1. This condition is characterized by a short or absent neck due to fusion of cervical vertebrae: a. Klippel-Feil c. Hemivertebra b. Crouzon's d. Syprengel's 2. In mat activities for a T11 paraplegic who wishes to roll from supine to prone, he may use the following techniques, EXCEPT: a. Flexion of the trunk c. Crossing the ankles b. Bilateral UE rocking with outstretched arms d. Extension of the head and neck 3. Which milestone is not expected before 9 months age of a normal baby: a. Creeping c. Rolling from prone to supine b. Sting independently d. Cruising 4. The average effort for stair climbing requires a capacity of: a. 6-8 METS c. 2-4 METS b. 10-12 METS d. 4-6 METS 5. An anterior spinal cord syndrome: a. There is unilateral loss of temperature b. Sacral sparing occurs c. Pain and temperature sensations are intact d. Proprioception and position sense are spared 6. This condition is characterized by painful dysesthesias at the soles and toes with weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the foot: a. Morton's neuroma c. Piriformis syndrome b. Fat wallet syndrome d. Tarsal tunnel syndrome 7. This is a cardiac complication which is a consequence of immobilization: a. Decreased cardiac output c. Increased cardiac size b. Increased stroke volume d. Decreased heart rate 8. A C7 quadriplegic patient should be expected to perform these activities independently, EXCEPT: a. Sitting board transfer c. Floor to wheelchair transfer b. Wheelchair to car transfer d. Sliding board transfer 9. Downhill running is commonly associated with tendinitis of the: a. Tendon of Achilles c. Adductor tendons b. Patellar tendon d. Popliteal tendons 10. The U-shaped metatarsal pad is usually placed at which metatarsal head? a. Second c. Fifth b. Third d. Fourth 11. Which prosthetic foot is a force absorbing foot and not an energy storing foot? a. Flex c. Seattle b. Carbon Copy II d. Safe II 12. This problem is uncommon in cerebral palsy patients: a. Under nutrition c. Hearing disability b. Seizure disorders d. Growth disturbance PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 13. This is NOT a cause of toe dragging during the swing phase of gait: a. Palsy of dorsiflexors c. Spastic plantarflexors b. Weak plantarflexors d. Inadequate knee flexion 14. Osteonecrosis of the epiphyseal center of the second metatarsal in adolescents secondary to trauma is: a. Poison's disease c. Kienbock's disease b. Panner's disease d. Freiberg's disease 15. Rupture of the Achilles tendon usually occurs in the narrowest portion of the tendon, which is how many inches above its attachment? a. 5 c. 2 b. 3 d. 4 16. To prevent Low back pain with prolonged sitting, the patient should be advised to get up as often as: a. 2 hours c. 45 minutes b. 1 hour d. 20 minutes 17. Which age group tends to have the lowest normal body temperature? a. Children c. Elderly b. Middle Age d. Infants 18. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis affects the: a. Myelin sheath c. Anterior horn cells b. All of these d. Dorsal root ganglia 19. The "striatal foot" is most prominent in: a. Parkinson's disease c. Poliomyelitis b. Cerebrovascular disease d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 20. The most common foot problem in osteoarthritis patient is: a. Pes planus c. Clawfoot b. Sprain d. Hallux valgus 21. Tight watch bands or hand cuffs may compress this nerve at the wrist: a. Radial c. Ulnar b. Posterior interosseous d. Median 22. A 40 year old woman with breast cancer had a radical mastectomy. Post-operatively, which muscle must be checked for function? a. Rhomboid c. Sternocleidomastoid b. Intercostal d. Serratus anterior 23. What is the highest neurologic level at which a person with complete spinal cord injury may be capable of unassisted, indep **** transfer skills with or without equipment? a. C6 c. T6 b. C5 d. C8 24. Playing competitive basketball will requires: a. 5-6 METS c. 6-7 METS b. 7-8 METS d. 8-9 METS PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 25. This type of validity compares 2 scales which purportedly measure the same characteristics: a. Concurrent c. Criterion b. Construct d. Face 26. Calcaneal apophysitis is also called: a. Sever's disease c. Gamekeeper's disease b. Kienbook's disease d. Sudeck's disease 27. This congenital disorder is characterized by multiple joint contractures: a. Apert c. Arthrogryposis b. Craniosynostosis d. Oligohydramnics 28. These are characteristics of Guillain-Barre Syndrome, EXCEPT: a. Symmetric weakness c. Asymmetric facial palsy b. Proximal paresthesia d. Bilateral areflexia 29. This is a test for tightness or joint capsule contracture of the intrinsic muscles of the hand: a. Hawkin c. Near b. Bunnel Littler d. Allen 30. Pain relief measure for the osteoarthritis knee include/s: a. All of these c. Use of cane on either hand b. TENS d. Wearing shoes with soft soles 31. This type of statistical error is made when the data leads us to conclude that the pull hypothesis is true when, in fact, it is not: a. Type I c. Type III b. Type IV d. Type II 32. The bursa involved in housemaid's knee is the a. Popliteal c. Deep infrapatellar b. Superficial pretibial d. Prepatellar 33. Most households chores are performed at this MET level a. 3-4 b. 5-6 c. 2-3 d. 6-7 34. The crystals seen in the joint spaces of patients with gouty arthritis are: a. Hydroxyapatite c. Monosodium urate b. Calcium pyrophosphate d. Calcium monophosphate 35. Stroking the cheek of an infant causing a turning of the mouth toward the stimulus defines which reflex? a. Blink c. Righting b. Rooting d. Snout 36. This special test is used for deep venous thrombosis patients: a. Homan's test c. Kleiger test b. Bunnel test d. all of these PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 37. The Inflammatory reaction that occurs in early Rheumatold Arthritis involves the: a. Articular cartilage c. Subchondral bone b. Articular capsule d. Synovial 38. Which of the following is an acceptable criterion for stopping a pulmonary exercise test? a. Cardiac Ischemia c. Increased cardiac output b. Increased pulse rate d. Increased respiratory rate 39. This is NOT a factor contributing to low back pain: a. Height c. Smoking b. Age d. Muscle strength 40. The mechanism of injury for the posterior cruciate ligament is: a. A forceful landing on anterior tibia with knee hyperflexed b. An anterior force to tibia while foot is fixed c. Internal rotation of leg with external rotation of body d. A valgus force to knee while foot is fixed 41. A strangulated stump with distal edema is called: a. Neuroma c. Choke syndrome b. Contact dermatitis d. Infected syndrome 42. A patient can reduce the risk for deep venous thrombosis by: a. Taking shallow breaths c. Dangling the head b. Immobilization d. Elevating the leg 43. This structure can be responsible for posterior interosseous nerve compression: a. Ligament of Struthers c. Pronator teres b. Osborne's fascia d. Arcade of Frohse 44. A hearing aid can be given to a hearing impaired child starting from the age of: a. 4 years c. More than 5 years b. Less than 2 years d. 3 year 45. This involuntary movement does not respond to physical or occupational therapy: a. Spasticity c. Chorea b. Bradykinesia d. Rigidity 46. The most objective test for the diagnosis of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is: a. EMG-NCV test c. Tinel's test b. Phalen test d. Sensory Test 47. The most common site of athletic trauma to joints and of overuse injury is the: a. Ankle c. Knee b. Foot d. Spine 48. Which of the following is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve? a. Flexor hallucis longus b. Skin on the medial leg and malleolus c. Skin on web space between first and second toes PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS d. Peroneus longus 49. The orthopedic intervention for the spastic adducted and internally rotated shoulder is release of the tendons of: a. Pectoralis major and subscapularis b. Deltoids and subcapularis c. Pectoralis minor and supraspinaturs d. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus 50. What is damaged part in stroke patient manifested as difficulty in repeating words and phrases? a. Area 22 b. Area 44 c. Arcuate fasciculus d. Cingulate gyrus 51. The following are manifestations of the Lateral Medullary Syndrome or Wallenberg syndrome, EXCEPT: a. Ipsilateral horner syndrome b. Ipsilateral impaired sensation of face c. Loss of ipsilateral pain and temperature d. Ipsilateral limb ataxia 52. A patient is experiencing sensory changes secondary to left CVA. Upon testing, the patient is unable to detect pin prick or temperature in the right hand, leading to disuse and increased safety risk. These changes are BEST documented as “Patient is experiencing”: a. Allodynia b. Abarognosis c. Anesthesia d. Analgesia 53. In athetosis, the most probable site of pathology is a. Cranial nerve V b. Globus pallidus c. Motor cortex d. Neuromuscular junction 54. A teenager is admitted to a skilled nursing facility with a severe traumatic brain injury and marked spasticity. Cognitive function is documented at Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale level IV. Family members visit on a daily basis. In this situation, it would be BEST if passive range of motion (PROM) exercises are which of the following? a. Taught to family members in order for them to participate in the care for the patient b. Performed only by the physical therapist since the patient is unable to follow verbal commands c. Performed only by the physical therapist (PT) or physical therapist assistant (PTA) to minimize the possibility of pathological fractures d. Taught to all registered nurses (RNs) who might participate in the care for the patient 55. Disturbance in the execution of speech without a disorder of language a. Agnosia d. apraxia b. Dysarthria e. NOTA c. Aphasia 56. A patient with angina pectoris has been instructed to use sublingual nitroglycerine in case of an acute anginal attack. What are the primary effects of this medication? a. Vasoconstriction of peripheral vessels b. Vasodilation of the coronary vessels c. Increasing myocardial oxygen consumption d. Increasing left ventricular end diastolic pressure 57. A 38 year old man has a murmur that ceases with the onset of the second heart sound. The second heart sound occurs at the onset of which phase of the cardiac cycle? MES 2017 a. Isovolumetric contraction b. Rapid ejection c. Systole d. Isovolumetric relaxation e. Rapid ventricular filling 58. A physical therapist instructs a patient with pulmonary pathology in energy conservation techniques. Which of the following techniques would be the MOST effective when assisting a patient to complete a selected activity without dyspnea? PT APPS 2020 a. Diaphragmatic breathing b. Pacing c. Pursed-lip breathing d. Ventilator muscle training 59. Lap baby a. Newborn PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS b. 4 months c. 7 months d. 10 months 60. A 47-year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA with left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic examination. Significant results of manual muscle tensting include: hip flexion 3+/5, hip extension 3/5, knee flexion 3+/5, knee extension 3+/5, ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5. Sensation is intact and no abnormal tone is noted. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a: a. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee b. Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis c. Metal upright ankle-foot orthosis locked in neutral d. Prefabricated posterior leaf spring orthosis 61. After examining a patient with foot pain, the therapist finds the following positive findings: reproduction of symptoms in weight-bearing and running on treadmill, pes planus and pain with palpation at the distal aspect of the calcaneus. Late sub-acute management, when pain is manageable/reduced, would include: a. Modalities to reduce pain and inflammation b. Examination of an orthosis c. Strengthening of ankle dorsiflexors d. Stretching of plantar fascia 62. Gait deviation in patients with BK prosthesis having a stiff heel cushion: a. Insufficient knee flexion on amputated side b. Excessive knee flexion on amputated side c. Excessive lateral thrust d. Insufficient lateral thrust 63. An AK amputee is prone to develop: a. Hip ER contracture b. Hip IR contracture c. Hip flexion contracture d. Hip Abduction-rotation contracture 64. Pressure tolerant areas for an AK amputee include all of the following, except: a. Ischial seat b. Lateral distal stump c. Posterior stump d. Mediolateral stump e. All of the above are tolerant areas 65. A deferred from stroke 2 weeks ago and was referred to PT. He and do activities upon command but cannot do them voluntarily. How should PT document this? a. Ideational apraxia b. Ideomotor apraxia c. Dressing apraxia d. Aphasia 66. Which of the following has a viral etiology? a. Parkinsonism b. Guillain-Barre syndrome c. Schrider’s disease d. Multiple sclerosis 67. The peak of LDH is during ___ a. 3-6 days b. 1-2 days c. 6-7 days d. 3-4 days 68. Which of the following choices would warrant medical referral during cardiac rehabilitation program? MS 2016 a. BP of 130/80 mmHg b. Patient is able to climb 1 flight of stairs with minimal effort c. Angina that is relieved upon resting d. Angina that refer pain to the left shoulder and left upper extremity in an ulnar nerve distribution 69. After an uncomplicated total knee replacement, what knee ROM would be a realistic goal for the patient before discharge from the hospital: a. 0-60 degrees b. 0-120 degrees c. 0-90 degrees d. 30-90 degrees 70. Differentiates available behavior patterns for new ends for example pulling a rug on which is a toy a. 10 months b. 14 months c. 18 months d. 2 years PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 71. A 5-month-old should be able to: a. Play peek-a-boo b. Utilize pincer grasp c. Sit without support d. Pull to sit 72. Myelomeningocele low lumbar presents with a. Kyphoscoliosis b. calcaneovarus c. Clawing of toes d. calcaneovalgus 73. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate physical therapy goal is: a. Prevention of contractures and determination of the best method of mobility b. Prevention of strength and muscle tone c. Inhibition of abnormal muscle tone and facilitation of normal movement and postural reactions d. Facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength 74. Children with trisomy 21 should be advised not to engage in contact sports because of a. Balance impairments b. Inability to tolerate cardiac stress c. Predisposition to atlanto- axial instability d. Severe truncal hypotonia 75. A suction suspension for an above knee prosthesis is usually indicated in: a. Athletes c. Children b. Elderly females d. None of these 76. SC1 patients of this level are at highest risk for autonomic dysreflexia a. T10-T12 c. L1-L3 b. T7-T9 d. T4-T6 77. For Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, the static wrist orthosis puts the wrist In: a. 20-50 degrees extension c. Neutral b. 0-18 degrees extension d. 10 degrees flexion 78. Exercises not recommended for osteoporotic patients: a. Swimming c. Trunk flexion exercises b. Weight bearing exercise d. Bicycling 79. Volkmann's ischemic contracture is usually a complication of a fracture of the: a. Ulna c. Radius b. Tibia d. Humeru 80. Benign tumors, EXCEPT: a. Osteoma c. Osteochondroma b. Osteogenic sarcoma d. Chondroma 81. A person's maximum heart rate is estimated by subtracting the age in years from: a. 200 c. 180 b. 160 d. 220 82. Froment's teat is a test for the function of this nerve: a. Ulnar c. Median b. Radial d. Axillary 83. This is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction: a. Multiple sclerosis c. Poliomyelitis b. Myasthenia gravis d. Muscular dystroph 84. Stage of emotional adjustment disability characterized by animosity, anger, negativism, and non-compliance to rehabilitation procedures: PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS a. Anger reaction stage c. Traumatic reaction stage b. Adaptive reconciliation d. Denial 85. An anterior stop in an AFO is used in patients with: a. Weak foot muscles c. Weak hip muscles b. All of these d. Weak calf muscles 86. The major complication associated with pressure ulcers is: a. Economic c. Cosmetic b. Infection d. Anemia 87. The most common site of pressure ulcers in bed level patients is the: a. Sacrum c. Heel b. Trochanter d. Ischium 88. This classification of cerebral palsy is commonly secondary to Rh incompatibility or kernicterus: a. Spastic c. Mixed b. Dyskinetic d. Ataxic 89. A type of skin graft which is taken from a donor of a different patients: a. Heterograft c. Autograft b. Allograft d. Homograft 90. This is true regarding fertility of female spinal cord injury patients: a. The ability to bear children in usually not affected b. The duration of labor is longer than normal women c. Autonomic dysreflexia is uncommon d. Premature labor is infrequent 91. Prosthetic hands provide this type of pinch: a. Hook c. Tip b. Lateral d. 3-jaw chuck 92. A patient is asked to recognize and verbally identify objects placed in the hand. The objects include different sizes and shapes. *** test of: a. Stereognosis c. Kinesthesia b. Barognosis d. Graphesthesia 93. In the development of normal gait, the typical sequence is: a. Rolling, sitting, standing, walking, cruising c. Rolling, sitting, standing, cruising, walking b. Sitting, rolling, standing, cruising, walking d. Rolling, sitting, cruising, standing, walking 94. Metastatic tumors of the prostate produce an increase in: a. Alkaline phosphatase c. Acid phosphatase b. Creatinine d. White blood cells 95. This is a clinical feature of tetanus: a. Butterfly rash c. Crocodile tears b. Reptilians facies d. Risus sardonicus 96. Legg Calve Perthes is most commonly seen in: PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS a. Males, 9-15 years old c. Males, 4-8 years old b. Males, 1-3 years old d. Females, 9-15 years old 97. The most common mode of prehension is: a. Subterminal opposition c. Terminal opposition b. Lateral opposition d. Palmar prehension 98. The components of congenital clubfoot include: a. Forefoot abduction c. External tibial torsion b. Calcaneus valgus d. None of these 99. A convexity of the disc beyond the adjacent vertebral disc margins, but with intact annulus fibrous and Sharpey's fibers is A. bulging disc B. extruded disc C. prolapsed disc D. any of these 100. With a patient prone and knee flexed, you apply a downward force and rotate the leg, knee pain and grinding sensation usually indicates: A. Meniscal tears B. Chondromalacia patella C. Baker's cyst D. Osteoarthritis 101. A 50 year old tennis player complains of pain on the elbow. You expect to elicit pain with A. passive wrist extension B. resisted finger flexion C. resisted wrist extension D. resisted finger extension 102. This is a study of fitting the job to the worker and the worker to the job: A. return-to-work programs B. work hardening C. ergonomics D. functional capacity evaluation 103. This is a hyperkinetic movement disorder that usually occurs after prolonged treatment with neuroleptic medication: A. chorea B. torsion dystonia C. tardive dyskinesia D. postural tremor 104. A patient who manifests personality changes, hemiparesis, aphasia, and apraxia most probably has a tumor on the: A. frontal lobe B. parietal lobe C. occipital lobe D. Cerebellum 105. This drug can induce osteoporosis: A. Antipuretics B. Cathartics C. analgesics D. corticosteroids 106. You suspect this condition if the athlete's thigh is tense, with severe pain. pallor and loss of quadriceps strength: A. quadriceps tendon stretch B. acute compartment syndrome C. hamstring strain D. patellar dislocation 107. The most accurate method to evaluate neurologic tone is: A. passive ROM of involved extremity B. resisted motion of all extremities C. Passive ROM of involved and uninvolved extremities D. Active ROM of involved extremity PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 108. The most commonly involved cranial nerves in Diabetes Mellitus are the: A. III and VI B. II and III C. IV and VII D. III and IV 109. This term best denotes an inflammatory process involving the dura..mater: A. pachymeningitis B. leptomeningitis C. cerebritis D. meningitis 110. Osteochondritis of the inferior pole of the patella, in skeletally immature patients is: A. Sinding Larsen Johansson disease B. Hoffa's disease C. Quadriceps tendonitis D. Osgood-Schlatter disease 111. The palm mechanism of a clawhand deformity is: A. unpposed pull of the FDS at the PIP joint B. inability to actively extend fingers due to weak fingers C. unopposed pull of the EDC at the MCP joint D. unopposed pull of the FDP at the DIP joint 112. Maximum activity of the gluteus medius and minimum occurs at which point of the normal gait cycle? A. swing phase B. heel strike C. midstance D. toe off 113. This describes the choracathetoid dyskinetic type of Cerebral Palsy: A. abnormal positioning of limbs, head and trunk with unpredictable increased tone B. increased muscle tone, which usually blocks involuntary movements C. involuntary movements without increased muscle tone D. involuntary, unpredictable, small movements of the distal parts of the extremities 114. The nasopharynx and ear may be affected in this rheumatic disease: A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Polymyositis 115. An ankle eversion injury will primarily cause: A. bony damage B. Tear of anterior talofibular ligament C. Tear of medial collateral ligament D. ankle sprain 116. The Rancho Los Amigos Level of Cognitive Functioning Level 4 corresponds to: A. confused appropriate B. localized response C. confused agitated D. confused inappropriate 117. A major burn includes the following, EXCEPT: A. electrical burns B. perineum burns C. burns with fracture D. more than 10% body surface area partial thickness burn 118. In Meralgia Paresthetica, there is entrapment of the nerve coming from roots: A. L4-L5 B. L1-L2 C. L3-L4 D. L2-L3 119. The integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament of the foot is assessed by the: A. stress Broden view B. talar tilt test C. anterior drawer test D. posterior drawer test  PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 120. Which of the following can result in the development of neurotrophic arthritis? a. Osteoarthritis c. Parkinson's disease b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d. Diabetis mellitus 121. You are analyzing a patient's cardiopulmonary status in the physical therapy department. You notice during chest physical therapy that percussions sound dull with wheezing and crackles upon auscultation. These clinical signs are most likely associated with which of the following lung pathologies? a. Atelectasis c. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary edema d. Pneumothorax 122. As a result of pituitary tumor affecting the optic chiasm, a patient exhibits a visual field deficit which has inhibited performance in many daily activities. The expected deficit would be: a. Homonymous anopsia c. Circumferential blindness b. Blindness in one eye d. Bitemporal hemianopsia 123. CP Classification with the worst prognosis a. Spastic Diplegia b. Spastic Quadriplegia c. Spastic Hemiplegia d. Dyskinetic 143. A patient with angina pectoris has been instructed to use sublingual nitroglycerine in case of an acute anginal attack. What are the primary effects of this medication? a. Vasoconstriction of peripheral vessels b. Vasodilation of the coronary vessels c. Increasing myocardial oxygen consumption d. Increasing left ventricular end diastolic pressure 144. The peak of this enzyme is during 24-48hrs. a. SGOT b. CPK c. CK MB d. LDH 145. The peak of this enzyme is during 12-24hrs. a. SGOT b. CPK c. CK MB d. LDH 146. The peak of LDH is during ___ a. 3-6 days b. 1-2 days c. 6-7 days d. 3-4 days 147. This phase is well set up in the form of an outpatient hospital-based programme a. Phase I b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4 148. Following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), a patient is hospitalized. The therapist determines that a positioning schedule should be implemented. While in supine, what is the BEST position for the patient’s affected upper extremity? a. Shoulder protracted and slightly abducted with external rotation, elbow extension, wrist neutral, and fingers extended. b. Shoulder protracted and slightly abducted with internal rotation, elbow flexion, wrist neutral and fingers extended c. Shoulder retracted and adducted with internal rotation and elbow, wrist, and fingers flexed d. Shoulder retracted and abducted with external rotation, elbow extension, wrist neutral and fingers flexed 149. Following a cerebrovascular accident involving the right hemisphere, a male patient is exhibiting unilateral neglect. What might he do as a result? a. Eat food only from the left side of a plate b. Bump his wheelchair into things on the right side c. Ignore or deny the existence of the right upper extremity d. Shave only on the right side of the face 150. A physical therapist is working with a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury (Ranco Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale level VII). The best test to determine if this patient demonstrates progression to open skills is to have the patient walk in which environment? a. In the hallway b. Across the busy hospital lobby PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS c. In the patient’s room d. In the patient’s home 151. A patient with a 7-year history of Parkinson’s disease is hospitalized. The patient is ambulatory but requires close supervision to prevent falls. What should be the focus of the physical therapist’s plan of care? a. Manual balance perturbation training b. Transfer and wheelchair training c. Caregiver training for contact guarding during level walking and stairs d. Locomotor training using a rolling walker 152. A physical therapist is treating an elderly patient in the very early stages of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The patient lacks endurance to independently ambulate to and from the bathroom; however, she refuses to use a bedpan. This has caused added difficulties and stress for family members caring for her at home. What should the therapist do in this situation? a. Initiate ambulation endurance training with distance to and from the bathroom as the primary goal b. Recommend that the patient be transferred to a skilled nursing facility until she has sufficient endurance to get to and from the bathroom c. Recommend use of a commode chair for the bedroom d. Recommend use of a wheelchair and toilet grab rails 153. The patients in palliative care has late-stage Bronchial carcinoma, you plan to include all of the following in the treatment plan. The most important of these would be? a. Coughing techniques b. Pain control and comfort c. Modified postural drainage d. Breathing exercises 154. A therapist completes a respiratory assessment on a patient in an acute care hospital. The examination reveals decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus. This finding is MOST indicative of: a. pleural effusion b. consolidation c. pulmonary edema d. atelectasis 155. The respiratory center is located in the ____ and ______. a. Midbrain and pons b. Midbrain and Medulla oblongata c. Pons and Hypothalamus d. Pons and Medulla oblongata 156. Normal volume of dead space air is: a. 100 ml b. 180 ml c. 150 ml d. 250 ml 157. Gait deviations for an AK prosthesis seen during swing phase part, except: a. Vaulting d. Circumduction b. Uneven heel rise e. None of these c. Terminal impact 158. Prosthetic socket used for elbow disarticulation: a. Standard socket c. Single-walled socket b. Munster socket d. Three-walled socket 159. The most physiologicl terminal device: a. Voluntary closing c. Myo-electric hand b. Voluntary opening d. Cosmetic hand 160. A 17-year-old individual with developmental disabilities is referred to a wheelchair clinic for a new wheelchair. The patient presents with a severe kyphoscoliosis. The therapist determines the BEST wheelchair modification to order is a: a. Sling seat with dense foam cushion b. Firm seat back with lateral posture supports & increased seat depth c. Contoured foam seat d. Firm seat with lateral knee positioners 161. A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is in the community phase of his mobility training. In order for him to navigate a standard height curb with his wheelchair, the therapist tells him to: a. Descend backward with the trunk upright & arms hooked around the push handles b. Ascend backwards with the large wheels first c. Lift the front casters & ascend in a wheelie position d. Place the front casters down first during descent 162. A patient with paraplegia at the T10 level wants to participate in wheelchair basketball. An option that should be considered in ordering a wheelchair for this patient is: a. A rigid frame c. A mid-scapular seat back b. Hard-rubber tires d. A folding frame PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS 163. A patient suffered a spinal cord injury with a complete injury at T10. It is now three months post-injury & she is refusing to participate in her functional training program because the major focus is wheelchair independence. She is sure she is going to walk again. The therapist’s BEST approach is to: a. Outline realistic short term goals to improve independence while maintaining for the possibility of further recovery b. Discuss the harmful effects of denial & restrict all discussions to promoting wheelchair independence c. Refer the patient for psychological counseling & discharge her from PT d. Send the patient home for a short time so she will recognize the need for wheelchair training 164. A patient with a 10-year history of multiple sclerosis demonstrates 3+ extensor tone in both lower extremities. The therapist needs to order a wheelchair. It would be BEST to recommend a/an: a. A standard wheelchair with a 30-degree reclining back b. Tilt-in-space wheelchair with a pelvic belt c. Electric wheelchair with toe loops d. Standard wheelchair with elevating leg rests 165. The most common knee locks used to control flexion is: a. offset knee joint c. adjustable knee lock b. drop-ring lock d. pawl lock 166. UE orthoses for mallet finger? a. PIP sleeve b. Thumb posterior splint with wrist strap c. Silver ring splint d. Mallet slipover static splint 167. Type of spinal orthoses that controls flexion? a. Milwaukee c. William b. Minerva d. Cruciform 168. All are purposes of static splints, except: a. Support b. Immobilization c. Serial stretching d. None of the above 169. Functions of basic collars? a. Provide mechanical restriction of forward flexion & extension and to a lesser degree lateral flexion & rotation b. Through sensory feedback it reminds wearer to limit head & neck motion c. Retain body heat which aid soft tissue healing & decrease spasm d. All of the above 170. Which of the following outcomes is the highest expected functional outcome for a patient with a complete C7 spinal cord injury? a. Minimal assistance with transferring from the floor to the wheelchair b. Independent with wheelchair mobility on smooth surfaces c. Minimal assistance with transferring from supine to sitting d. Independent with ascending a curb in the wheelchair 171. A hemiplegic patient wheelchair should have: a. An adductor wedge b. A seat that is lower than a conventional wheelchair c. Permanent arm rest d. Wheels placed backward 172. A PT transports a patient with MS to the gym for her treatment session. The pt is wheelchair dependent & uses a urinary catheter. When transporting the pt, the most appropriate location to secure the collection bag is: a. On the wheelchair cross brace beneath the seat b. In the patient’s lap c. On the patient’s lower abdomen d. On the wheelchair armrest 173. The additional energy expenditure of a wheelchair ambulant person as compared to normal is: a. 5% c. 10-40% b. 10-20% d. 9% 174. A PT attempts to confirm the fit of a wheelchair for a patient recently admitted to a skilled nursing facility. After completing the assessment, the PT determines the wheelchair has too long seat depth. Which adverse effect results from too long seat depth: a. Patient might develop scoliosis b. Patient will have insufficient support for the thighs c. Patient will slide forward d. No effect on the patient 175. Most commonly affected in primary osteoarthritis a. Shoulder  PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS b. Lumbar Spine c. Hips d. Knees 176. Spondylolysis is most common in this athletic activity a. Diving b. Figure skating c. Swimming d. Gymnastics 177. This is the most common intracranial neoplasm of the adult, most often in the 5 th and 6th decades of life a. Medulloblastoma b. Glioblastoma multiforme c. Astrocytoma d. Ependymoma 178. The most common shoulder problem in hemiplegia is: a. Posteroinferior subluxation b. Anteroinferior subluxation c. Lateral dislocation d. Superior dislocation 179. At what speed for the average individual as the worth of walking at a minimum? a. 5 mph c. 3 mph b. 4 mph d. 2 mph 180. A patient with prosthesis who has an increase in lumbar lordosis may have: a. Inadequate suspension system b. Too high anterior wall on prosthesis c. Insufficient support from the anterior wall d. Knee extension aid too tight 181. A posterior circulation stroke involves the: a. Parietal lobe c. Basal ganglia b. Frontal lobe d. Brainstem 182. The tumor of Osteogenic sarcoma is most commonly located at the: a. Distal femur, proximal tibia b. Distal tibia and fibular c. Proximal femur, distal tibia d. Midshaft 183. The most common visual impairment among the elderly is: a. Glaucoma c. Diabetic retinopathy b. Senile cataracts d. Modular degeneration 184. Tandem walking is performed well by a normal child starting the age of: a. 9 years b. 3 years c. 7 years d. 5 years 185. Considered premature: a. 36-40 weeks b. 38-42 weeks c.