MLT 83 Final Review PDF

What is the dilution factor if 10 mL of sample is added to 190 mL of diluent? a.10 b. 19 c. 20 d. 25 How much serum is required to make a 1 to 4 dilution with a total volume of 100.0 µL ? A) 0.025 µL B) 0.25 µL C) 2.5 µL D) 25 µL A patient's creatinine is outside the linear range of the an...

What is the dilution factor if 10 mL of sample is added to 190 mL of diluent? a.10 b. 19 c. 20 d. 25 How much serum is required to make a 1 to 4 dilution with a total volume of 100.0 µL ? A) 0.025 µL B) 0.25 µL C) 2.5 µL D) 25 µL A patient's creatinine is outside the linear range of the analyzer; 10 µL of serum is added to 90.0 µL of diluent and the diluted sample is reanalyzed. The creatinine value of the diluted sample is 1.0 mg/dL. Which of the following creatinine values is correct? A) 1.0 mg/dL B) 10.0 mg/dL C) 20.0 mg/dL D) 100 mg/dL A serum creatine kinase is diluted 1/200 with a result of 50 U/L. What is the patient's actual creatine kinase result? A) 50 U/L B) 200 U/L C) 1000 U/L D) 10,000 U/L 5. According to CLSI, the resistivity of clinical laboratory reagent water (CLRW) must be: A) > 100 milliamps. B) < 10 millivolts. C) > 10 MΩ ∙ cm. D) < 10 MΩ ∙ cm. Ion-exchange filters remove which of the following from a water source? A) Ions to reduce the mineral content of water B) Lead C) Organic solvents. D) Bacteria The anion gap is determined from which of the following groups of electrolytes? A) Sodium, chloride, potassium, and calcium B) Sodium, chloride, potassium, and HCO3- C) Sodium, chloride, potassium, and phosphorus D) TCO2, chloride, potassium, and magnesium Plasma osmolality can be calculated using which of the following? A) Na + Cl + K + HCO3 B) Na + 2(HCO3) + Urea nitrogen - glucose C) 2(Na) + (glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8) D) Glucose + 2(Na) - 2 (BUN) Measurement of sodium, potassium, and chloride are commonly performed in laboratories using which of the following? a. Ion selective electrodes b. Colorimetry c. Photometry d. Gas chromatography Which of the following electrolyte levels best correlate with plasma osmolality? b. Chloride c. Sodium d. Calcium a. Bicarbonate.Name the equation shown below. pH = pK' + log cHCO3-/α x pCO2 A) Anion gap transformation B) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation C) Isohydric shift algorithm D) Negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration formulation 2.The specimen of choice for measuring blood pH, pO2, and pCO2 is: A) Heparinized capillary blood. B) Heparinized arterial blood. C) Heparinized venous blood. D) Serum. A patient's blood gas results are: pH= 7.48; PCO2 = 52 mmHg; HCO3- = 40 mEq/L; pO2 = 98 mmHg. These results are consistent with which of the following? Question options: Respiratory alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis.A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.25; dissolved CO2 = 1.8 mEq/L; HCO3- = 27 mEq/L. These results would be classified as: Question options: Metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory acidosis. Respiratory alkalosis..A patient's blood gas results are shown below: pH 7.32; pCO2 = 58 mm Hg; HCO3- = 28 mEq/L. These results indicate: A) Respiratory acidosis. B) Metabolic alkalosis. C) Respiratory alkalosis. D) Metabolic acidosis. 6Which of the following represents the compensatory response of the kidney and lungs to a patient who is in metabolic acidosis? Question options: The kidneys will increase bicarbonate reabsorption and the patient will begin to breathe very deeply and often gasp for air. The kidneys will decrease bicarbonate reabsorption and the patient will begin to hyperventilate. The kidneys will increase retention of hydrogen ions and the patient will begin to hold their breath for as long as possible. The kidneys will "shut down" in an attempt to retain all electrolytes and the patient will place a bag over their face to conserve oxygen and carbon dioxide..Which of the following compensatory mechanisms is correct for a patient in respiratory acidosis? Question options: Decrease respiration rate Increase the movement of electrolytes such as Na+ and H+ out of the cells and into the blood while increasing K+ from blood into cells. Decrease whole blood pCO2.Which of the following is the primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis? Hypoventilation Hyperventilation Bicarbonate excretion Retention of hydrogen ions.Which of the following is a derived blood gas parameter? Actual base excess pCO2 pO2 pH Which of the following carbohydrates is a polysaccharide? A) Starch B) Sucrose C) Lactose D) Glucose Glycolysis is: A) The conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate and then CO2 and H2O. B) The conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage. C) The breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and other intermediate products. D) The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources. The only hormone that causes a decrease in blood glucose levels is: A) Glucagon. B) Thyroxine. C) Insulin. D) Parathyroid hormone. Glycogen is stored in the: A) Pancreas. B) Liver. C) Spleen. D) Gall bladder. Which form of diabetes usually manifests itself early in life, and is associated with ketosis, low insulin levels, and autoantibodies to islet cells? A) Gestational B) Type 1 C) Type 2 D) Congenital Which of the following is characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus? A) High insulin levels B) Ketosis C) Obesity and physical inactivity D) Juvenile onset Select the enzyme that is most specific for β-D glucose. A) Phosphohexisomerase B) Hexokinase C) Glucose oxidase D) Glucose dehydrogenase In the Hexokinase method for glucose determinations, the actual end product measured is the: A) Amount of hydrogen peroxide produced. B) NADPH + H+ produced from the reduction of NADP. C) Amount of glucose combined with bromcresol purple. D) Condensation of glucose with an aromatic amine The glucose concentration in normal cerebrospinal fluid is: A) Usually less than 30 mg/dL. B) 60-75% of the plasma glucose concentration. C) Equal to the plasma glucose concentration. D) Usually greater than 100 mg/dL All of the following are confirmatory of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT: A) Fasting glucose greater than 126 mg/dL. B) Urine glucose greater than 300 mg/dL C) 2-hour postprandial glucose greater than 200 mg/dl. D) 1- and 2-hour glucose tolerance values greater than 200 mg/dL. A protein that is increased or normal in nephrotic syndrome is: α1-antitrypsin. α2-macroglobulin. Albumin. Hemopexin. High serum total protein but low albumin is usually seen in: Multiple myeloma. Hepatic cirrhosis. Glomerulonephritis. Nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following laboratory test groups and results best reflects a patient with iron deficiency anemia? A) Serum iron, decreased; serum TIBC, increased; transferring saturation, decreased B) Serum iron, increased; serum TIBC, increased; transferrin saturation, increased C) Serum lead, increased; serum TIBC, increased; transferrin saturation, increased D) Serum iron, decreased; serum TIBC, decreased; transferrin saturation, decreased A breakdown product of bilirubin metabolism that is produced in the colon from the oxidation of urobilinogen by microorganisms is: A) Porphobilinogen. B) Urobilin. C) Stercobilinogen. D) Protoporphyrin. Which of the following would be classified as prehepatic jaundice? A) Hepatitis B) Congestive heart failure C) Rotor syndrome D) Cancer of the bile ducts What is the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia? A) Hemolytic anemia B) Gilbert's disease C) Bile duct obstruction D) Dubin-Johnson E) Neonatal physiologic jaundice A patient presents with the following symptoms: ∙ Loss of appetite ∙ Generalized weakness and irritability ∙ Abdominal pain and vomiting ∙ Bright red tongue (glossitis) ∙ Skin rash ("Casal's necklace") Which of the following is associated with these symptoms? A) Scurvy B) Rickets C) Pellagra D) Dermatitis Scurvy is a disorder caused by a deficiency in which of the following? A) Vitamin K B) Vitamin B2 C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin A In fluorescence polarization immunoassay (FPIA), the electrons in fluorescein molecules chemically attached to the hapten react in which of the following manner? A) They do not spin at all. B) They spin 100 times faster than normal. C) They do not fluoresce. D) They fluoresce. Which of the following is an example of a chemiluminescent compound? A) Fluorescein B) Luminol C) Acridinium D) Cis-platinum Microparticulate enzyme immunoassay uses which of the following enzymes to catalyze the conversion of the substrate, 4-methylumbelliferyl phosphate to methylumbelliferone? A) Acid phosphatase B) Alkaline phosphatase C) Gamma-glutamyltransferase D) Aldolase Which of the following immunoassays produces a fluorescent molecule, 4-methylumbelliferone that serves as the detector compound? A) Microparticulate enzyme immunoassay B) Substrate labeled fluorescent immunoassay C) Enzyme multiplied immunoassay D) Fluorescent polarization immunoassay Cushing's syndrome is characterized by which of the following? A) Excess secretion of pituitary ACTH B) Adrenal insufficiency C) ACTH independent D) ACTH dependent.. A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.25; dissolved CO2 = 1.8 mEq/L; HCO3- = 27 mEq/L. These results would be classified as: Question options: Metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory acidosis. Respiratory alkalosis. A patient's blood gas results are: pH= 7.48; PCO2 = 52 mmHg; HCO3- = 40 mEq/L; pO2 = 98 mmHg. These results are consistent with which of the following? Question options: Respiratory alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis. A patient's blood gas results are: pH= 7.48; PCO2 = 52 mmHg; HCO3- = 40 mEq/L; pO2 = 98 mmHg. These results are consistent with which of the following? Question options:  Respiratory alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis A patient's blood gas results are shown below: pH 7.32; pCO2 = 58 mm Hg; HCO3- = 28 mEq/L. These results indicate: A) Respiratory acidosis. B) Metabolic alkalosis. C) Respiratory alkalosis. D) Metabolic acidosis. Which of the following is NOT an NPN substance? A) Urea B) Ammonia C) Creatinine D) Troponin T. Urea/BUN is produced from: A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids. B) Oxidation of purines. C) Oxidation of pyrimidines. D) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates. Creatinine is formed from the: A) Oxidation of creatine. B) Oxidation of protein. C) Deamination of dibasic amino acids. D) Metabolism of purines.. Renal azotemia is found in: Question options: Advanced cirrhosis. High protein diets. Nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration.. A high BUN/creatinine ratio with an elevated creatinine is usually seen in: Question options: Liver disease. Low protein intake. Tubular necrosis. Postrenal azotemia. All of the following conditions are associated with hyperuricemia EXCEPT: Question options: Liver failure. Malignancy. Renal failure.  Primary "essential" overproduction of uric acid.. Uric acid values are usually elevated in patients with leukemia because of the breakdown of: Question options: Proteins. Nucleic acids (adenine and guanine). Amino acids. Epinephrine.. A protein that is increased or normal in nephrotic syndrome is: α1-antitrypsin. α2-macroglobulin. Albumin. Hemopexin. sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain is the: Question options: Primary structure. Secondary structure Tertiary structure Quaternary structure Protein is approximately ________ nitrogen. 10% 12% 16% 20% 22%. The principal protein for transport of iron from the intestine to the liver, bone marrow, or spleen for storage is: Question options: Haptoglobin. Transferrin. Ceruloplasmin. Alpha-fetoprotein. The common ingredients of all biuret reagents are: Question options: Sodium potassium tartrate, copper sulfate, and sodium hydroxide. Sodium tungstate and sulfuric acid. Copper sulfate and NaOH. In agarose gel electrophoresis of human serum at pH 8.6, the slowest moving fraction is:. Which is the most abundant γ-globulin? IgG IgM IgA IgE. Many enzymes in the blood plasma show maximum activity in which of the following pH ranges? 4 to 5 6 to 7 7 to 8 8 to 9 The most sensitive indicator of alcoholic liver disease is: A) AST. B) ALT. C) γGT. D) ALP Aspartate aminotransferase is elevated in diseases involving the: Renal cortex. Heart muscle. Intestinal epithelium. Acinar cells of the pancreas.. Which of the following cardiac biomarkers is a better biomarker of plaque instability? A) MPO B) CRP C) Lp-PLA2 D) Leptin Which of the following statements summarizes the significance of CRP in the arterial wall? A) It predicts the severity of arteriosclerosis. B) It predicts the severity of atherosclerosis and is able to bind to damaged membranes and lipids. C) It predicts the severity of atherosclerosis but cannot bind to damaged membranes and lipids. D) It has nothing to do with either arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis. Which of the following statements is TRUE about cTnI? A) Cardiac forms are never expressed in skeletal muscle. B) Cardiac forms are expressed in skeletal muscle. C) In fetal development, the cardiac and skeletal forms are co-expressed in skeletal and cardiac tissues. D) It is the same as cardiac troponin C (cTnC). Which of the following is FALSE concerning blood cholesterol concentrations? A) Increased cholesterol is associated with diabetes mellitus. B) Increased cholesterol is associated with hyperthyroidism. C) Increased cholesterol is associated with nephrotic syndrome. D) Cholesterol levels decrease following strenuous exercise. E) Cholesterol levels are unchanged when comparing results from fasting and nonfasting blood. HDL cholesterol + LDL cholesterol + chylomicrons → HDL. Which is NOT used as a precipitating reagent for determining cholesterol? A) Heparin-manganese chloride B) Dextran-sulfate-Mn (II) C) Phosphotungstate-Mn (II) D) Sulfosalicylic acid. The enzymatic determination of glycerol in triglyceride analysis usually involves conversion of glycerol to: A) Oleic acid. B) Phospholipid. C) Formaldehyde. D) CO2 and H2O. E) Glycerol phosphate.. The Friedwald formula for estimating LDL cholesterol should NOT be used when: A) HDL cholesterol is greater than 40 mg/dL. B) Triglyceride is greater than 400 mg/dL. C) Plasma shows no visible evidence of lipemia. D) Total cholesterol is elevated based on the age and sex of the patient.. A 52-year-old man went to his doctor for a physical examination. The patient was overweight and had missed his last two appointments because of business dealings. His blood pressure was elevated, his cholesterol was 250 mg/dL, and his triglyceride was 170 mg/dL. A high- density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol test was performed, and the result was 30 mg/dL (20-60 mg/dL). Which of the following would be this patient's calculated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol value? A) 157 mg/dL B) 186 mg/dL C) 200 mg/dL D) Cannot be determined from the information given. Secondary causes of elevated LDL include all of the following EXCEPT: Hypothyroidism. Chronic renal failure. Obstructive liver disease. Hyperthyroidism.  A 40-year-old male patient with hemochromatosis often presents to his clinician with which of the following triad of symptoms? A) Bronzing of the skin, cirrhosis, and diabetes B) Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia C) Yellowing of the sclera of the eyes, shortness of breath, and chest pain D) Abdominal pain, chest pain, and grayish-blue lips What is the required oxidation state (valence) of iron that enables it to bind to a chromogen in most spectrophotometric assays? A) +1 B) +2 C) +3 D) -3 Which of the following chromogens will produce a colored complex with iron? Biuret Ferrozine Molybdic acid 8-hyroxyquinoline Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) is equal to: A) The sum of the serum iron and unsaturated iron binding capacity (UIBC). B) The sum of the serum iron and serum ferritin. C) The sum of the serum transferrin and transferrin saturation. D) Serum iron minus unsaturated iron binding capacity (UIBC).. What is the primary storage form of iron? A) Hemosiderin B) Ferritin C) Apotransferrin D) Myoglobin. A direct assay for measurement of plasma phylloquinone is useful to assess: A) Vitamin D status. B) Vitamin B12 status. C) Folate deficiency. D) Vitamin K status. The term associated with indirect methods for assessment of vitamin status is termed: A) Proportional assays. B) Functional assays. C) Reciprocal assays. D) Bioassays.. Rickets in children or osteoporosis in adults can be minimized though dietary supplementation with which of the following? A) Vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus B) Vitamin K C) Vitamin A D) High doses of ascorbic acid In fluorescence polarization immunoassay (FPIA), the electrons in fluorescein molecules chemically attached to the hapten react in which of the following manner? A) They do not spin at all. B) They spin 100 times faster than normal. C) They do not fluoresce. D) They fluoresce.. Which of the following is an example of a chemiluminescent compound? A) Fluorescein B) Luminol C) Acridinium D) Cis-platinum Which of the following immunoassays produces a fluorescent molecule, 4-methylumbelliferone that serves as the detector compound? A) Microparticulate enzyme immunoassay B) Substrate labeled fluorescent immunoassay C) Enzyme multiplied immunoassay D) Fluorescent polarization immunoassay. Plastic beads, polyclonal gels, and particles coated with iron oxide used in immunoassays are all examples of which of the following? A) Antigen label B) Solid phase material C) Immunogens D) Double antibodies. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by which of the following? A) Excess secretion of pituitary ACTH B) Adrenal insufficiency C) ACTH independent D) ACTH dependent. Once produced, the thyroid hormones are stored as thyroglobulin in which of the following? A) Epithelial cell wall of the follicle B) Colloid C) Isthmus of the thyroid gland D) Extracellular space of the thyroid gland. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by: A) Elevated blood levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B) Loss of thirst sensation. C) No urine production (anuria). D) Copious production of urine (polyuria).. Pituitary gigantism is associated with which of the following? A) Growth (GH) deficiency B) Growth (GH) excess C) Hypercorticolism D) Hypeprolactinemia. Which of the following assays is recommended as a screening test for colorectal cancer in persons over 50 years of age? A) Fecal typsin B) AFP C) BTA D) Occult blood test. 7) What is the clinical usefulness of measuring carcinoembryonic antigen? A) Diagnosis of lung cancer B) Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C) Screening for breast cancer D) Monitoring for recurrence of colon cancer. A new tumor marker assay for prostate specific antigen (PSA) is evaluated for diagnostic sensitivity by testing serum samples from patients who have been diagnosed as having prostate cancer. The following results were obtained: Number of prostate cancer patients who tested positive by the new assay = 42 out 46 Number of patients who did not have cancer and tested negative by the new assay = 31 out of 32 What is the sensitivity of the new assay for PSA? A) 98.0% B) 95.0% C) 91.3% D) 88.5%. What is the clinical usefulness of measuring carcinoembryonic antigen? A) Diagnosis of lung cancer B) Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C) Screening for breast cancer D) Monitoring for recurrence of colon cancer. Which tumor marker is associated with cancer of the urinary bladder? A) CA 125 B) CA19-9 C) CA 50 D) Nuclear matrix protein. Which of the following biomarkers is elevated in nonmucinous epithelial ovarian cancer? A) CA 15-3 B) CA 19-9 C) CA 125 D) CEA. Which of the following is used to assess the usefulness of trastuzumab (Herceptin®) therapy for breast cancer? A) CA 15-3 B) HER-2/neu C) CA 125 D) Prolactin. Which type of hCG test would be most useful to assess a person suspected of having testicular cancer? A) Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the β-hCG subunits B) Plasma immunoassay for the free alpha and β-hCG subunits C) Urine assay for hCG-β core D) Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG only. The production of alpha fetal protein (AFP) in a healthy individual is best reflected by which of the following statements? A) The production of AFP remains the same through life. B) The production of AFP increases rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have negligible or undetectable levels in serum. C) The production of AFP declines rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have higher than normal levels in serum. D) The production of AFP declines rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have negligible or undetectable levels in serum.. Which of the following do calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium have in common? A) They all exist in circulation as only free or ionized forms. B) They all exist as free or ionized forms, bound to proteins and complexes to radicals, e.g., sulfates to form salts. C) Calcium exists as bound and free only, phosphorus exists only as bound and complexes to radical to form salts and magnesium exists as free or ionized forms, bound to proteins and complexes to radicals to form salts. D) Calcium blood levels are regulated by parathyroid hormones, phosphorus is regulated by testosterone, and magnesium is regulated by insulin.. Which of the following is an effect of increased parathyroid secretion? A) Decreased intestinal absorption of calcium B) Increased intestinal absorption of calcium C) Decreased blood calcium levels D) Decreased bone resorption Biomarkers of bone formation include which of the following? A) Hydroxproline B) Carboxyl-terminal cross-linked telopeptide of type I collagen C) Bone sialoprotein D) Osteocalcin. Which of the following statements best reflects the clinical usefulness for measuring Ionized or free calcium in blood? A) It is the best indication of phosphate status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D. B) It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D. C) It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically inactive and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D. D) It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by thyroid hormones.. Valium and Librium are examples of which of the following classes of drugs? A) Opiates B) Benzodiazepines C) Barbiturates D) Amphetamines Overexposure to compounds such as Marathon®, Parathion®, Diazinon®, Sevin®, and Furadan® insecticides may prompt a physician to order which of the following tests? A) Acetaminophen B) Salicylate C) Pseudocholinesterase D) Creatine kinase Trace metals in biological fluids can be measured using which of the following instrumentation techniques? A) Reflectometry B) Enzyme immunoassay C) Atomic absorption spectrometry D) Osmometry Which of the following biological fluids is the specimen of choice for screening and/or analyzing drugs of abuse? A) Serum B) Whole blood C) Urine D) CSF THC (∆9-tetrahydrocannabinol) is the principal active metabolite of which of the following? A) Benzodiazepine B) Marijuana C) Acetaminophen D) Morphine Identification of the urinary metabolite benzoylecgonine would be useful in determining the presence of which of the following compounds? A) Codeine B) Cocaine C) Amphetamine D) Acetaminophen