Midterm Preparation PDF

1. Normal/abnormal refer to ____, while adaptive/maladaptive refer to _____ a) Statistical deviance, effectiveness b) Psychopathology, functioning c) Effectiveness, statistical deviance d) Functioning, psychopathology 2. Which conception of psychopathology involves determining psychopathology onl...

1. Normal/abnormal refer to ____, while adaptive/maladaptive refer to _____ a) Statistical deviance, effectiveness b) Psychopathology, functioning c) Effectiveness, statistical deviance d) Functioning, psychopathology 2. Which conception of psychopathology involves determining psychopathology only by involuntary behavior? a) Harmful dysfuction b) Social deviance c) Statistical deviance d) Dyscontrol or dysregulation e) DSM/ICD 3. Which conception of psychopathology involves creation of a taxonomy? a) Harmful dysfunction b) Social deviance c) Statistical deviance d) Dyscontrol or dysregulation e) DSM/ICD 4. Which conception of psychopathology involves determining psychopathology by measuring deviance from the norm? a) Harmful dysfunction b) Social deviance c) Statistical deviance d) Dyscontrol or dysregulation e) DSM/ICD 5. Which is a major difference between the social deviance vs. statistical abnormality conceptualizations of psychopathology? a) Social deviance uses tests and measures, while statistical abnormality uses cultural rules to determine psychopathology b) Social deviance uses cultural rules, while statistical abnormality uses tests and measures to determine psychopathology c) Social deviance is objective, while statistical abnormality is subjective d) Social deviance is addresses dysfunction while statistical abnormality addresses function 6. Which conception of psychopathology involves in a way based upon evolution? A ) Harmful dysfunction  b) Social deviance c) Statistical deviance d) Dyscontrol or dysregulation e) DSM/ ICD 7. The notion that development consists of a set of interrelated domains that exert transactional effects refers to: a) Differentiation of modes and goals b) Directedness c) Holism d) Mobility of behavioral function e) Developmental cascades 8. The dynamics transactions that occur among developing systems cuts across developmental systems and affects the course of development refers to: a) Differentiation of modes and goals b) Directedness c) Holism d) Mobility of behavioral function 9. Multifinality refers to: a) Pathology is not a stable entity that a child either has or does not have b) There are multiple pathways to a single outcome c) Individuals have a “self-righting” tendency to strive towards adaptive modes of functioning d) individuals may begin at a common starting point but the resultant pathways from that origin may diverge to other outcomes. e) The co-existence of two or more disorders 10. Which of the following is FALSE about developmental psychopathology? a) Psychological functioning is the best understood through reliance on and integration of multiple levels of analyses b) Developmental psychopathology is the single theory that can best explain the diverse nature of psychopathology c) A goal is to provide a comprehensive knowledge base concerning the mutually influencing processes that underlie maladaptive as well as adaptation. d) Developmental psychopathology approach draws on diverse scientific fields. 11. Comorbidity refers to: a) Pathology is not a stable entity that a child either has or does not have b) There are multiple pathways to a single outcome c) Individuals have a “self-righting” tendency to strive towards adaptive modes of functioning d) Individuals may begin at a common starting point but the resultant pathways from that origin may diverge to other outcomes. e) The co-existence of two or more disorders. 12. Equifinality refers to a) Pathology is not a stable entity that a child either has or does not have b) There are multiple pathways to a single outcome c) Individuals have a “self-righting” tendency to strive towards adaptive modes of functioning d) Individuals may begin at a common starting point but the resultant pathways from that origin may diverge to other outcomes. e) The co-existence of two or more disorders 13. With development, children’s behavior becomes more flexible with increased organization and differentiation refers to: a) Differentiation of modes and goals b) Directedness c) Holism d) Mobility of behavioral function e) Developmental cascades 14. Earlier, more undifferentiated forms of behavior become hierarchically integrated into later forms of behavior refers to: a) Differentiation of modes and goals b) Directedness c) Holism d) Mobility of behavioral function e) Developmental cascades 15. The notion that children are active shapers of their environment and not passive recipients of experience refers to: a) Differentiation of modes and goals b) Directedness c) Holism d) Mobility of behavioral function e) Developmental cascades 16. Which neuroimaging approach involves measuring changes in magnetic field properties due to oxygenated versus deoxygenated blood? a) functional magnetic resonance imaging b) computerized axial tomography c) positive emission tomography d) Electroencephalogram 17. The proportion of the variability in psychological symptoms or traits that can be attributed to genetic variability refers to: a) Heritability b) Relatedness c) Nurture d) Nature 18. This neurotransmitter is especially involved in reward and reinforcement, motor function, and cognition and attention. a) Glutamate b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin 19. This neurotransmitter is involved in attention and memory a) Glutamate b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin 20. Which neuroimaging approach involves radioactively labeled substances being introduced into the bloodstream, where they are taken up into the brain? a) Functional magnetic resonance imaging b) Computerized axial tomography c) Positive emission tomography d) Electroencephalogram 21. Which part of the brain is important in emotion processing? a) Left hemisphere b) Right hemisphere 22. This neurotransmitter is associated with behavioral and emotional regulation a) Epinephrine b) Dopamine c) Glutamate d) Serotonin e) Acetylcholine 23. This neurotransmitter is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the adult brain a) Glutamate b) Serotonin c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Acetylcholine 24. This neurotransmitter is involved in the flight or fight response a) Acetylcholine b) Serotonin c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) glutamate 25. This refers to a cluster or group of co-occurring symptoms that represents a cultural pattern of distress. a) Cultural syndromes b) Cultural idioms of distress c) Cultural explanation d) Cultural identity 26. This involves an explanatory model of distress focused on specific causal factors rather than on a core of symptoms or experiences. a) cultural syndromes b) Cultural idioms of distress c) Cultural explanation d) cultural identity 27. Which of the following was NOT one of the Collaborative Psychiatric Epidemiology Surveys? a) National Comorbidity study b) Adult psychiatric morbidity study c) National Survey of American Life d) The National Latino and Asian American Study 28. Which disorder or phenomenon involves trembling, attacks of crying, screaming uncontrollably, and verbal or physical aggression? a) emotion dysregulation b) Koro c) Expressed emotion d) Ataques de nervios 29. Which disorder or phenomenon involves criticism, hostility, and emotional involvement? a) Emotion dysregulation b) Koro c) Expressed emotion d) Ataques de nervios 30. This refers to ways of talking about suffering that are not associated with a core set of syndromes or causes. a) Cultural syndromes b) Cultural idioms of distress c) Cultural explanation d) Cultural Identity 31. Which is true about misdiagnosis of antisocial personality disorder? a) A diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder is more likely to occur for females b) A diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder is more likely to occur for males 32. This is when a test item has different measurement properties for different groups. a) Differential item functioning b) Gender bias in measurement c) Measurement error d) Sex bias in measurement 33. This refers to when men or women are more likely to endorse an item a) Sex bias in measurement b) Measurement error c) Gender bias in measurement d) Differential item functioning 34. Men are more likely to ____, while women are more likely to _____ a) be underdiagnosed, be over-diagnosed b) Seek treatment in general; delay seeing treatment c) delay seeking treatment; seek treatment in general d) be overdiagnosed, be underdiagnosed 35. This occurs when masculine or feminine persons are more likely to endorse an item a) Measurement error b) Gender bias in measurement c) Sex bias in measurement d) Differential item functioning 36. Generally speaking, when are clinicians more accurate in making a diagnosis? a) When just the gender of the case is the same as those of the clinician b) When the gender and race of the case are the same as those of the clinician c) When just the age of the case is the same as those of the clinician d) When just the race of the case is the same as those of the clinician 37. Which is true about misdiagnosis of schizophrenia? a) Black and Hispanic patients were more likely than White patients to be misdiagnosed with schizophrenia when symptoms suggest psychotic affective disorders. b) White parents were more likely than Black and Hispanic patients to be misdiagnosed with schizophrenia when symptoms suggest psychotic affective disorders. 38. What is the primary distinction between the DSM and ICD? a) The ICD is for psychiatrists; the DSM is for psychologists. b) The ICD has a research and a clinican version, while the DSM has only one version. c)The DSM uses an order numbering system than the ICD d) The ICD was developed with medication management in mind while the DSM was developed for therapists. 39. What is the current focus of the DSM 5? a) Psychosocial b) behavioral c) cognitive d) Neurobiological e) It is atheoretically focused 40. What type of information is excluded from the DSM-IV-TR? a) Treatment b) Prevalence c) symptoms d) Time of onset 41. What is the current version of the DSM? a) IV b) IV-TR c) V d) VI 42. Using a less-efffective therapy as a control condition is an example of what type of control? a) randomized control b) Placebo control c) Waitlist control d) Alternative therapy control 43. Which type of research investigates variables such as therapist behaviors and interactions with the client? a) Psychotherapy research b) Process research c) Outcome research d) Clinical trials research 44. Which is not true about a waiting list control? a) There are ethical issues involved in using these controls b) They are similar to the delay many clients undergo when seeking treatment c) Clients receive treatment after a delay d) Clients do not receive treatment at all 45. What is a major difference between probably efficacious and efficacious ESTs? a) More than one research group has validated the treatment in efficacious ESTs, while only one group is needed for probably-efficacious ESTs. b) Placebo controls are only used in efficacious treatments. c) Efficacious treatments involve testing against a known therapeutically effective treatment. d) Probably efficacious treatments have less than five peer receive publications demonstrating effectiveness. 46. What term refers to comparing effectiveness of a therapy to other published measures? a) controlling b) Process research c) Benchmarking d) Comparative Science Answer keys 1. A 2. D 3. E 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. E 9. D 10. B 11. E 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. E 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. C