MICROBIOLOGY.docx

MICROBIOLOGY: 1. Described as "tackhead" because of swollen terminal spore: - a. Clostridium botulinum - b. Yersinia - c. Bacillus anthracis - d. Clostridium tetani - **Correct Answer: d. Clostridium tetani** 2. Gram positive, highly pleomorphic, resembles "Chinese character": - a. C. diptheriae - b...

MICROBIOLOGY: 1. Described as "tackhead" because of swollen terminal spore: - a. Clostridium botulinum - b. Yersinia - c. Bacillus anthracis - d. Clostridium tetani - **Correct Answer: d. Clostridium tetani** 2. Gram positive, highly pleomorphic, resembles "Chinese character": - a. C. diptheriae - b. H. influenzae - c. Clostridium - d. Erysipelothrix - **Correct Answer: a. C. diptheriae** 3. Gram positive, lancet shape, catalase negative, susceptible in optochin: - a. S. agalactaciae - b. S. aureus - c. S. pneumoniae - d. Viridans - **Correct Answer: c. S. pneumoniae** 4. Described as "grape-fruit" in MacConkey and distinct blue-green appearance: - a. P. aeruginosa - b. - c. - d. - **Correct Answer: a. P. aeruginosa** 5. Stain used for metachromatic granule also used in C. diptheriae: - a. Lacto phenol cotton blue - b. Malachite green - c. Calcofluor white - d. Methylene blue - **Correct Answer: d. Methylene blue** 6. Cetrimide agar is selective for: - **Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa** 7. Reaction after addition of zinc to confirm true negative: - a. Bubble formation - b. Black ring precipitate - c. Red color - d. No reaction - **Correct Answer: c. Red color** 8. Culture media for antimicrobial susceptibility: - **Correct Answer: Mueller Hinton** 9. Negative reaction of nitrate reduction test after the addition of zinc dust will be confirmed by which result: - **Correct Answer: Development of a red color** 10. Elek test is used for: - **Correct Answer: Corynebacterium diptheriae** 11. Which of the following is mismatched: - a. Yersinia enterocolitica - diptheriae - b. Hortea wernicki - tinea nigra - c. Lyme disease - Borrelia burgdorferi - d. Treponema pallidum - Syphilis - **Correct Answer: a. Yersinia enterocolitica - diptheriae** 12. Rapid growing mycobacteria is characterized by growth in: - **Correct Answer: <7 days** 13. Selective media for the isolation of N. gonorrhoea and N. meningitidis: - a. XLD - b. MODIFIED THAYER MARTIN - c. CHOC. AGAR - d. MSA - **Correct Answer: b. Thayer Martin** 14. Facultative anaerobes are the predominant flora of mucus membrane providing low redox potential, therefore facilitating the growth of obligate aerobes: - True or False - **Correct Answer: FALSE** 15. Which of the following is mismatched: - a. Capsule- immune evasion - b. Endospore- reproduction - c. Fimbriae - adherence - d. Plasma membrane - osmotic barrier - **Correct Answer: b. Endospore-reproduction** 16. Formation of tough, gray to white pseudomembrane in the tonsillar area: - a. Pinta - b. Diphtheria - c. Erysipeloid - d. Atypical pneumonia - **Correct Answer: b. Diphtheria** 17. Helminth egg, bile stained, with bipolar plugs: - **Correct Answer: Trichuris trichiura** 18. Transmission of human from pet snake, lizards, fish: - a. Y. pestis - b. F. tularensis - c. L. interrogans - d. Salmonella subgroup III - **Correct Answer: d. Salmonella subgroup III** 19. Biochemical test, forms yellow indicating carbohydrate fermentation: - a. MSA - b. EMB - c. MAC - d. HE - **Correct Answer: a. MSA** 20. Non fermenting, Gram negative, not acidify TSI: - a. OF - b. ONPG - c. Choc - d. EMB - **Correct Answer: a. OF tube** 21. Which is true about PYR? - 1. Differentiates between Staphylococcus and Micrococcus, - 2. A +ve reaction has a black precipitate, - 3. Differentiates between group D streptococcus and enterococcus - **Correct Answer: 3. Differentiates between group D streptococcus and enterococcus** 22. S. Saprophyticus found in __ that is significant: - **Correct Answer: Female urine** 23. Vietnamese Time bomb + melioidosis: - **Correct Answer: B. Pseudomallei** 24. Arrow Head: - **Correct Answer: CAMP** 25. Simmon's Citrate Test (Citrate Utilization Test)- shows that bacteria utilize Citrate as a source of carbon: - a. Blue - b. Growth - c. Both - d. None - **Correct Answer: a. Blue** 26. Which test indicates whether an organism is a late LF or a true non lactose fermenter: - **Correct Answer: ONPG Test** 27. All are examples of selective media EXCEPT: - a. Thayer-Martin - b. Mueller-Hinton - c. PEA - d. Selenite F - **Correct Answer: b. Mueller Hinton Agar** 28. Agents of food poisoning EXCEPT: - a. S. aureus - b. B. cereus - c. Clostridium perfringens - d. N. meningitides - **Correct Answer: d. N. meningitides** 29. E. coli associated with DYSENTERY: - **Correct Answer: Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)** 30. Safranin is a: - **Correct Answer: Secondary stain (counterstain)** 31. Spirochete with tight coils and hooked ends: - a. Leptospira - b. Treponema - c. Borrelia - **Correct Answer: a. Leptospira** 32. Not gram negative bacteria: - a. C. perfringens - b. E. coli - c. Vibrio - d. Bordetella - **Correct Answer: a. C. perfringens** 33. Non fermenting gram negative bacilli except: - a. Pleisomonas - b. Stenotrophomonas - c. Pseudomonas - d. Acinetobacter - **Correct Answer: a. Plesiomonas** 34. Which helminth eggs do not float in zinc sulfate solution: - **Correct Answer: Paragonimus spp and D. latum** 35. Cause of epidemic gastroenteritis: - **Correct Answer: Norwalk virus** 36. Grows on MacConkey EXCEPT: - a. Pseudomonas - b. Acinetobacter - c. Aureus - d. Legionella - **Correct Answer: d. Legionella** 37. Smells like fish, clue cell: - a. G. vaginalis - b. T. Vaginalis - c. Baciliformis - d. Moniliformis - **Correct Answer: a. G. vaginalis** 38. Automated system for susceptibility: - a. Alamar system - b. Vitek - c. Spiral gradient - d. Epsilometer - e. AOTA - **Correct Answer: b. Vitek** 39. Branched hyphae, transmitted through inhalation of soil/dust: - a. Bacillus - b. Actinobacillus - c. Nocardia - d. Pasteurella - **Correct Answer: c. Nocardia** 40. Which component in Gram-positive organisms stain by Gram-stain? - a. Peptidoglycan - b. Teichoic acid - c. Lipopolysaccharide - d. Mycolic acid - **Correct Answer: a. Peptidoglycan** 41. S. pneumoniae: - a. Grow consistently even in old culture - b. Grow in slightly acidic pH - c. Motile - d. Capsule is made for virulent strain - **Correct Answer: d. Capsule is made for virulent strain** 42. Strict anaerobes: - a. L. monocyt ogenes - b. P. acnes - c. Lactobacillus - d. Clostridium - **Correct Answer: d. Clostridium** 43. Which test is best for the presumptive identification of S. pneumoniae? - a. Bacitracin test - b. Coagulase test - c. Optochin susceptibility test - d. Novobiocin test - **Correct Answer: c. Optochin susceptibility test** 44. Gram negative bacilli, produces red pigment: - a. Bordetella pertussis - b. Proteus mirabilis - c. Serratia marcescens - d. Acinetobacter - **Correct Answer: c. Serratia marcescens** 45. Laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria: - a. Blood culture - b. Throat swab - c. Skin scrapings - d. CSF - **Correct Answer: b. Throat swab** 46. Kinyoun's Acid Fast Stain method uses: - **Correct Answer: Basic Fuchsin** 47. Meningitis in AIDS patients is associated with: - **Correct Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans** 48. Most common parasite in the Philippines: - **Correct Answer: Ascaris lumbricoides** 49. Pleomorphic organisms isolated from urethral discharge with fried egg appearance on culture: - **Correct Answer: Mycoplasma hominis** 50. Susceptibility test for MRSA: - **Correct Answer: Oxacillin** 51. Contaminated milk and dairy products, abortive, gram positive bacilli: - a. L. monocytogenes - b. - c. - d. - **Correct Answer: a. Listeria monocytogenes** 52. Test for typhoid fever: - a. Sabin Feldman dye - b. Widal test - c. Toxoplasma test - d. Weil Felix test - **Correct Answer: b. Widal test** 53. Wet prep of H. capsulatum: - a. Broths - b. Culture media - c. Direct wet mount - d. Giemsa stain - **Correct Answer: d. Giemsa stain** 54. Test for acute glomerulonephritis: - a. Anti streptolysin O - b. Dick's test - c. Schultz Charlton - d. Aldehyde test - **Correct Answer: a. Anti streptolysin O** 55. Fever, pharyngitis, tonsillar enlargement with exudates and cervical lymphadenopathy: - a. Brucellosis - b. Scarlet fever - c. Infectious mononucleosis - d. Rocky mountain spotted fever - **Correct Answer: c. Infectious mononucleosis** 56. Uses blood as culture medium, gram-negative coccobacilli: - a. Bordetella pertussis - b. Clostridium perfringens - c. Francisella tularensis - d. Haemophilus influenzae - **Correct Answer: d. Haemophilus influenzae** 57. Bacterial infection associated with amputation: - a. Aeromonas - b. Proteus - c. Bacillus - d. Staph saprophyticus - **Correct Answer: a. Aeromonas** 58. Gram-positive bacilli with tumbling motility, growth in cold: - **Correct Answer: Listeria monocytogenes** 59. Pus cells with no organisms on gram stain, pneumonia: - a. Legionella - b. Chlamydia - c. Bordetella - d. Pasteurella - **Correct Answer: a. Legionella** 60. Bacterial strain identified as Group A strep by latex agglutination test, which is incorrect: - **Correct Answer: Bacitracin resistant** 61. A positive CAMP test enhances the hemolysis of which organism: - a. Staphylococcus aureus - b. Listeria monocytogenes - c. Streptococcus agalactiae - d. Clostridium perfringens - **Correct Answer: c. Streptococcus agalactiae** 62. A test useful for the identification of Enterococcus species is: - a. Bile esculin test - b. Coagulase test - c. Catalase test - d. Oxidase test - **Correct Answer: a. Bile esculin test** 63. A disease commonly associated with pigeon droppings is: - a. Aspergillosis - b. Cryptococcosis - c. Histoplasmosis - d. Coccidioidomycosis - **Correct Answer: b. Cryptococcosis** 64. E. coli O157:H7 produces: - a. Shiga toxin - b. Enterotoxin - c. Cytotoxin - d. Neurotoxin - **Correct Answer: a. Shiga toxin** 65. Plasmodium species is best detected in: - a. Thick blood smear - b. Thin blood smear - c. Both thick and thin smears - d. Serum sample - **Correct Answer: c. Both thick and thin smears** 66. The organism responsible for swimmer's ear: - a. Staphylococcus aureus - b. Streptococcus pneumoniae - c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - d. Haemophilus influenzae - **Correct Answer: c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa** 67. Organism with double zone of hemolysis on blood agar: - a. Clostridium perfringens - b. Bacillus anthracis - c. Streptococcus pyogenes - d. Listeria monocytogenes - **Correct Answer: a. Clostridium perfringens** 68. Spirochete causing Lyme disease: - a. Leptospira interrogans - b. Borrelia burgdorferi - c. Treponema pallidum - d. Spirillum minus - **Correct Answer: b. Borrelia burgdorferi** 69. H2S production can be detected in which media: - a. MacConkey agar - b. Triple sugar iron agar - c. Mannitol salt agar - d. Blood agar - **Correct Answer: b. Triple sugar iron agar** 70. All of the following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis EXCEPT: - a. Acid-fast - b. Non-motile - c. Spore-forming - d. Obligate aerobe - **Correct Answer: c. Spore-forming** 71. Chocolate agar is primarily used for the isolation of: - a. Enterobacteriaceae - b. Neisseria and Haemophilus - c. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus - d. Pseudomonas - **Correct Answer: b. Neisseria and Haemophilus** 72. Which of the following bacteria is not an enteric pathogen: - a. Shigella - b. Escherichia coli - c. Salmonella - d. Bacillus cereus - **Correct Answer: d. Bacillus cereus** 73. Which of the following organisms exhibits tumbling motility at room temperature: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Listeria monocytogenes - c. Clostridium tetani - d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - **Correct Answer: b. Listeria monocytogenes** 74. A cold enrichment technique is used to enhance the isolation of: - a. Campylobacter jejuni - b. Listeria monocytogenes - c. Yersinia enterocolitica - d. Legionella pneumophila - **Correct Answer: b. Listeria monocytogenes** 75. A bacterial colony producing a green metallic sheen on EMB agar is most likely: - a. Staphylococcus aureus - b. Escherichia coli - c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - d. Proteus mirabilis - **Correct Answer: b. Escherichia coli** 76. Coagulase-positive, Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters: - a. Staphylococcus aureus - b. Staphylococcus epidermidis - c. Streptococcus pneumoniae - d. Streptococcus pyogenes - **Correct Answer: a. Staphylococcus aureus** 77. The bacterial shape described as "coccoid rods" best fits: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Haemophilus influenzae - c. Clostridium difficile - d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - **Correct Answer: b. Haemophilus influenzae** 78. Which of the following is an obligate intracellular pathogen: - a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae - b. Chlamydia trachomatis - c. Staphylococcus aureus - d. Escherichia coli - **Correct Answer: b. Chlamydia trachomatis** 79. What is the appearance of Cryptococcus neoformans on an India ink preparation: - a. Budding yeast with a large capsule - b. Hyphae with septate - c. Gram-positive cocci in chains - d. Gram-negative rods - **Correct Answer: a. Budding yeast with a large capsule** 80. The causative agent of gas gangrene is: - a. Bacillus cereus - b. Clostridium perfringens - c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - d. Staphylococcus aureus - **Correct Answer: b. Clostridium perfringens** 81. Which of the following bacteria is acid-fast: - a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - b. Escherichia coli - c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - d. Bacillus anthracis - **Correct Answer: a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis** 82. The causative agent of whooping cough is: - a. Bordetella pertussis - b. Haemophilus influenzae - c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae - d. Streptococcus pneumoniae - **Correct Answer: a. Bordetella pertussis** 83. The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is primarily used to identify: - a. Spore-forming bacteria - b. Gram-positive bacteria - c. Acid-fast bacteria - d. Gram-negative bacteria - **Correct Answer: c. Acid-fast bacteria** 84. The presence of clue cells is indicative of an infection with: - a. Gardnerella vaginalis - b. Trichomonas vaginalis - c. Candida albicans - d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae - **Correct Answer: a. Gardnerella vaginalis** 85. The bacterium responsible for the formation of dental caries is: - a. Staphylococcus aureus - b. Streptococcus mutans - c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - d. Escherichia coli - **Correct Answer: b. Streptococcus mutans** 86. Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated with biofilm formation on medical devices: - a. Staphylococcus epidermidis - b. Escherichia coli - c. Streptococcus pyogenes - d. Clostridium difficile - **Correct Answer: a. Staphylococcus epidermidis** 87. The coagulase-negative staphylococcus that is novobiocin resistant is: - a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus - b. Staphylococcus epidermidis - c. Staphylococcus aureus - d. Staphylococcus haemolyticus - **Correct Answer: a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus** 88. An organism that exhibits swarming motility on agar plates is: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Proteus mirabilis - c. Staphylococcus aureus - d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - **Correct Answer: b. Proteus mirabilis** 89. The causative agent of syphilis is: - a. Treponema pallidum - b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae - c. Chlamydia trachomatis - d. Haemophilus ducreyi - **Correct Answer: a. Treponema pallidum** 90. The medium of choice for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is: - a. Blood agar - b. Chocolate agar - c. MacCon key agar - d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium - **Correct Answer: d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium** 91. The following bacteria is known to produce a blue-green pigment: - a. Staphylococcus aureus - b. Escherichia coli - c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - d. Proteus mirabilis - **Correct Answer: c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa** 92. Which of the following organisms is known to cause atypical pneumonia: - a. Streptococcus pneumoniae - b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae - c. Klebsiella pneumoniae - d. Haemophilus influenzae - **Correct Answer: b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae** 93. The gram-negative bacillus that is oxidase positive and has a characteristic grape-like odor is: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - c. Proteus mirabilis - d. Klebsiella pneumoniae - **Correct Answer: b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa** 94. The causative agent of anthrax is: - a. Clostridium perfringens - b. Bacillus cereus - c. Bacillus anthracis - d. Staphylococcus aureus - **Correct Answer: c. Bacillus anthracis** 95. The Quellung reaction is used for serotyping which bacterium: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Streptococcus pneumoniae - c. Neisseria meningitidis - d. Haemophilus influenzae - **Correct Answer: b. Streptococcus pneumoniae** 96. An enteric pathogen that produces a black precipitate on Hektoen enteric agar is: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Shigella dysenteriae - c. Salmonella typhi - d. Vibrio cholerae - **Correct Answer: c. Salmonella typhi** 97. Which of the following bacteria is urease positive: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Proteus mirabilis - c. Staphylococcus aureus - d. Streptococcus pyogenes - **Correct Answer: b. Proteus mirabilis** 98. The bacterium known to cause "rice-water stool" is: - a. Salmonella typhi - b. Shigella sonnei - c. Vibrio cholerae - d. Escherichia coli - **Correct Answer: c. Vibrio cholerae** 99. The bacterium commonly associated with peptic ulcers is: - a. Escherichia coli - b. Helicobacter pylori - c. Salmonella enteritidis - d. Campylobacter jejuni - **Correct Answer: b. Helicobacter pylori** 100. Which of the following bacteria is not a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs): - a. Escherichia coli - b. Proteus mirabilis - c. Klebsiella pneumoniae - d. Bordetella pertussis - **Correct Answer: d. Bordetella pertussis**