Microbio Ptest PDF - Microbiology Practice Test

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. E. coli never cause disease. B. E. coli often exists in mutual relationship with humans. C. E. coli gets nutrients from intestinal contents. D. coli provides vitamin K for its host. 2. The invasion or colonization of the body b...

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. E. coli never cause disease. B. E. coli often exists in mutual relationship with humans. C. E. coli gets nutrients from intestinal contents. D. coli provides vitamin K for its host. 2. The invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic microorganisms is called: A. Normal microbiota B. Infection C. viremia D. Disease 3. A __________ infection is acquired in a hospital. A. zoonosis B. focal C. nosocomial D. subclinical 4. An example of a non-communicable infection is: A. Tetanus B. Leprosy C. Measles D. Tuberculosis 5. The emergence of new infectious diseases is probably due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. the need of bacteria to cause disease. B. the ability of humans to travel by air. C. the increasing human population. D. a pathogen crossing the species barrier. E. changing environments (e.g., flood, drought, pollution). 6. Which of the following is not one of Koch's postulates? A. The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease. B. The pathogen must be isolated in pure culture from an experimentally infected lab animal. C. The disease must be transmitted from a diseased animal to a healthy, susceptible animal by some form of contact. D. The pathogen from pure culture must cause the disease when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal. For questions 7 and 8, please refer to the scenario below: On September 6, a 6-year-old boy experienced fever, chills, and vomiting. On September 7, he was hospitalized with diarrhea and swollen lymph nodes under both arms. On September 3, the boy had been scratched and bitten by a cat. The cat was found dead on September 5, and Yersinia pestis was isolated from the cat. Chloramphenicol was administered to the boy from September 7, when Y. pestis was isolated from him. On September 17, the boy's temperature returned to normal; and on September 22, he was released from the hospital. 7. Identify the incubation period for this case of bubonic plague. A. September 3-5. B. September 3-6. C. September 6-7. D. September 6-17. 8. Identify the prodromal period for this disease. A. September 6-17. B. September 3-5. C. September 6-7. D. September 3-6. For questions 9 to 11, please refer to the scenario below: A Maryland woman was hospitalized with dehydration; Vibrio cholerae and Plesiomonas shigelloides were isolated from the patient. She had neither traveled outside the United States nor eaten raw shellfish during the preceding month. She had attended a party 2 days before her hospitalization. Two other people at the party had acute diarrheal illness and elevated levels of serum antibodies against Vibrio. Everyone at the party ate crabs and rice pudding with coconut milk. Crabs left over from this party were served at a second party. One of the 20 people at the second party had onset of mild diarrhea; specimens from 14 of these people were negative for vibriocidal antibodies. 9. This is an example of ____________. A. transmission by fomites. B. airborne transmission. C. nosocomial transmission. D. direct contact transmission. E. vehicle transmission. 10. The etiologic agent of the disease is ___________. A. Vibrio cholerae. B. coconut milk. C. crabs. D. rice pudding. E. Plesiomonas shigelloides. 11. The source of the disease was ___________. A. Vibrio cholerae. B. coconut milk. C. rice pudding. D. crabs. E. Plesiomonas shigelloides. 12. Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota ____________. A. Are present for a relatively short time. B. Are found in a certain location on the host. C. Cause diseases. D. Are acquired by direct contact. 13. Objective changes the physician can observe and measure are called _______. A. Characteristics B. A syndrome C. Symptoms D. Signs 14. A disease acquired by many people in a given area in a short period of time is called _________. A. Sporadic B. Pandemic C. Endemic D. Epidemic 15. The spread of disease agents via contaminated water is an example of _________. A. Direct contact transmission B. Biological transmission C. Vehicle transmission D. Mechanical transmission 16. The science that studies when and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted in populations is called ________. A. Communicable disease B. Etiology C. Epidemiology D. Morbidity and mortality 17. Most pathogens that gain access through the skin ___________________. A. must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. B. must be injected C. just infect the skin itself. D. can penetrate intact skin. E. enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. 18. All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT: A. hair follicle. B. injection. C. skin cut. D. bite. E. surgery. 19. Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by: A. boiling food prior to consumption. B. preventing fecal contamination of food. C. not eating canned food. D. filtering food. E. administering antibiotics to patients. 20. Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen? A. numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses B. numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host C. numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production D. evasion of host defenses E. toxin production 21. A blanket from a child with chickenpox is likely to be contaminated with the virus that causes chickenpox (Varicella-zoster virus). What is the blanket called? A. pathogen B. vector C. host D. fomite 22. An encapsulated bacterium can be virulent because the capsule ________. A. resists phagocytosis. B. interferes with physiological processes. C. is an endotoxin. D. has no effect; because many pathogens do not have capsules, capsules do not contribute to virulence. E. destroys host tissues. 23. The earliest smallpox vaccines were infected tissue rubbed into the skin of a healthy person. The recipient of such a vaccine usually developed a mild case of smallpox, recovered, and was immune thereafter. What is the most likely reason this vaccine did not kill more people? A. The vaccine consisted of a mild form of the virus. B. The virus mutated. C. Smallpox is a virus. D. Smallpox is normally transmitted by skin-to-skin contact. E. Skin is the wrong portal of entry for smallpox. 24. Which of the following statements is true? A. A successful pathogen doesn't kill its host before it is transmitted. B. The primary goal of a pathogen is to kill its host. C. Evolution selects for the most virulent pathogens. D. A successful pathogen never kills its host. 25. Which of the following is not a portal of entry for pathogens? A. Skin. B. Blood. C. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. D. Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. E. Parenteral route. 26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases? A. Prodromal, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence B. Incubation, decline, prodromal, illness, convalescence C. Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, convalescence D. Convalescence, prodromal, incubation, illness, decline 27. Which of the following are most likely to cause disease? A. Pathogens lacking the enzyme collagenase B. Pathogens lacking the enzyme kinase C. Highly virulent organisms D. Opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host 28. Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector? A. mosquito B. person C. animal D. virus 29. Botulism occurs rarely and is not a communicable disease when it does occur. Assuming that the incidence of botulism remains unchanged, one would classify botulism as a _________ disease. A. sporadic B. epidemic C. pandemic D. none of these 30. Measles is an example of a disease which herd immunity (i.e., protection of a population against the epidemic spread of a disease as a consequence of the fraction of susceptible hosts being sufficiently small) has little effect. This implies that the ability of the measles virus to be transmitted from one host to another is very high. Measles especially therefore is an example of a ________. A. contagious disease B. communicable disease C. both of these D. none of these 31. The disease that is constantly present in a population is called: A. sporadic disease B. pandemic disease C. endemic disease D. epidemic disease 32. Granulocytes are which type of cell? A. leukocyte B. erythrocyte C. lymphocyte D. megakaryocyte 33. Which of the following best describes the innate nonspecific immune system? A. the production of antibody molecules against pathogens B. a targeted and highly specific response to a single pathogen or molecule C. a set of barrier mechanisms that adapts to specific pathogens after repeated exposure D. a generalized and nonspecific set of defenses against a class or group of pathogens 34. Which of the following constantly sheds dead cells along with any microbes that may be attached to those cells? It is also the outer, thinner portion; in direct contact with the environment. A. epidermis B. hypodermis C. mucous membrane D. dermis 35. Which of the following chemical mediators is secreted onto the surface of the skin? It is also composed of unsaturated fatty acids inhibiting the growth of certain pathogenic bacteria and fungi. A. sebum B. cerumen C. gastric acid D. prostaglandin 36. Leukocytes are also referred to as which of the following? A. platelets B. white blood cells C. plasma D. red blood cells 37. Which of the following refers to the ability to ward off diseases? A. resistance B. susceptibility C. immunity D. all of these 38. What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection? A. artificially acquired passive immunity B. naturally acquired passive immunity C. naturally acquired active immunity D. innate immunity E. artificially acquired active immunity 39. What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps? This type of immunity is also obtained due to exposure to antigens. A. innate immunity B. naturally acquired passive immunity C. naturally acquired active immunity D. artificially acquired passive immunity E. artificially acquired active immunity 40. Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of: A. naturally acquired active immunity. B. artificially acquired passive immunity. C. innate immunity. D. naturally acquired passive immunity. E. artificially acquired active immunity. 41. Which of the following is the best definition of antigen? A. something foreign in the body B. a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies C. a chemical that combines with antibodies D. a protein that combines with antibodies E. a pathogen 42. Which of the following types of vaccines contains weakened microorganisms (or virus) that generally provides lifelong immunity? A. Conjugated vaccine B. Subunit vaccine C. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine D. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine 43. Which of the following types of vaccines contains antigenic fragments of a microorganism and includes recombinant and acellular vaccines? A. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine B. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine C. Conjugated vaccine D. Subunit vaccine 44. Who is the individual that first identified penicillin coming from the mold penicillium? A. Koch B. Kirby and Bauer C. Florey and Chain D. Ehrlich E. Fleming 45. Drug resistance occurs: A. because bacteria are normal microbiota. B. when antibiotics are used indiscriminately. C. against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. D. when antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. E. all of these answers are correct 46. Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A. Amphotericin B B. Polymyxin C. Penicillin D. Bacitracin E. Cephalosporin 47. Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A. It can prevent drug resistance. B. It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. C. Two are always twice as effective as one. D. It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. E. All of the above are advantages. TRUE PART II. TRUE OR FALSE. Read each statement carefully. On your answer sheets, shade A if the statement is correct, and shade B if it is wrong. NO ERASURES ARE ALLOWED. MULTIPLE ANSWERS ARE ALSO NOT ACCEPTED. 48. Heptens are small chemicals that become antigen only when combined with large molecules. TRUE 49. The complement system is a non-specific defense system consisting of serum proteins.TRUE 50. Phagocytosis refers to a local defensive response caused by infection, physical or chemical injury, indicated by redness, pain, heat and swelling. TRUE 51. Inflammation is a systematic defensive response caused by infection from bacteria and virus, indicated by abnormal high body temperature. FALSE 52. The B cells are responsible for humoral immunity. TRUE 53. The B cells are responsible for cellular immunity.FALSE 54. IFNs are a class of anti-viral proteins that disrupt viral multiplication. TRUE 55. Salmonellosis may cause leukopenia. FALSE 56. One of the functions of inflammation is to repair or replace tissue damaged by injurious agent or its by-products. TRUE 57. Saliva is produced by the lacrimal apparatus. FALSE 58. Edward Jenner developed the modern practice of vaccination when he inoculated people with cowpox virus to protect them against smallpox. TRUE 59. The vaccines used against Poliomyelitis contains Antigenic fragments. TRUE 60. The vaccine used against measles contains attenuated virus. TRUE 61. Acyclovir and newer derivatives work by selective inhibition of herpes virus replication. TRUE 62. Ivermectin is an antifungal drug which is effective against nematodes, mites, lice, among others.FALSE 63. Metronidazole is an antiprozoan drug.TRUE 64. One of the features of an antimicrobial drug is selective toxicity. Selective toxicity means that the drug kills the pathogens without damaging the host. TRUE 65. Howard Florey and Ernst Chain developed Salvarsan (Arsphenamine) against syphilis in 1910.FALSE