Micro 2 Variant 2 PDF

Which of the following are seasonal diseases? a. Hepatitis B b. Syphilis c. Flu d. Tick borne encephalitis Which of the following is an adhesion factor? a) teichoic acids b) exotoxin c) flagella d) endospore A patient develops fever, fatigue, and headache. Which period...

Which of the following are seasonal diseases? a. Hepatitis B b. Syphilis c. Flu d. Tick borne encephalitis Which of the following is an adhesion factor? a) teichoic acids b) exotoxin c) flagella d) endospore A patient develops fever, fatigue, and headache. Which period of infection is the characteristic for? a. Acme b. Complication period c. Incubation period d. Prodrome What inhibits phagocytosis? a. Lipid A Acme b. Capsule c. Flagella d. Plasma coagulase Which of the following are seasonal diseases? a) tick-born encephalitis b) flu c) syphilis d) hepatitis b Which of the following is part of inflammation? a. Activation of toll-like receptors b. Presentation of antigens to Th1 c. Release of cytokines by macrophage d. Leakage of fluid into tissues e. Vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels Find the incorrect statement regarding MHC: a. It is a polymorphic region with many loci b. It is located on chromosome 6 c. It is divided into 3 classes d. MHC class III has a role in transplant rejection Which antibody is most commonly found on mucous membranes and in secretions? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgE d. IgD e. IgM Which cells are able to express MHC-1 molecules? a. Erythrocytes b. Endothelial cells c. Hepatocytes d. Antigen presenting cells e. Epithelial cells Antibodies are: a. Polysaccharides b. Proteins c. Lipoproteins d. Lipids Match the C’ fraction with its name (C3 convertase, C5 convertase, Opsonin, Chemotaxin): (C3b)2PBb C5 convertase  C2bC4bC3b C5 convertase C3bPBb C3 convertase C3b Opsonin C5a Chemotaxin C5bC6C7C8C9 MAC C2bC4b C3 convertase Drag items on the scheme to describe cellular immune response: Drag items on the scheme to describe humoral immune response: Select one: Answer: lgM What is detected using precipitation tests? a. Ab b. Ag What is precipitin? a. Immune complex which is formed during the precipitation test b. Ab, which is used in precipitation tests c. Ag, which is used in precipitation tests What is precipitinogen? a. Ab, which is used in precipitation tests b. Immune complex which is formed during the precipitation test c. Ag, which is used in precipitation tests Which Ab are produced by delta plasma cells? a. Delta protein b. IgG c. IgD d. IgM e. IgA After activation Tcyt releases perforins and granzymes to destroy virus-infected cell: a. True b. Fals Third signal for activation comes from _Th1__. This signal is _IL-2__. After activation Tcyt proliferates and becomes _Tcyt effector__. The receptor molecule FasL appears on its surface. It will be used to bind virus-infected cells. After that __Granzymes_ and _Perforins__ will be released and the cell will day. Which molecule presentation process is seen on the picture? a. None Of Them b. MHC-I c. MHC-II Which of the following is a secretory antibody? a. IgE b. IgD c. IgA d. IgM e. IgG Bacterium loses its PBP, which makes it resistant against beta-lactam antibiotics. What type of resistance is described here? Extrachromosomal Resistance Chromosomal Resistance Biochemical resistance Non-genetic resistance What is the purpose of vaccines? All Answers Are Correct Protection Of Society From Dangerous Diseases Decrease of country’s economic burden Protection Of Human Beings From Life-threatening diseases What kind of immune response is seen in the picture? Answer: Primary immune response The second signal in B ly activation is connected between CD40L localised on _Th2__ and CD40 localised on __Bly_. Third soluble signals include IL-4, IL5, and _IL-6__. After activation of B ly differentiate into _plasma cells__ and _memory cells __. Plasma cells start secretion of _Ab__. Which of the following cells take part in cellular immune response? a. Th2 b. Th1 c. Tcyt d. Nk e. B ly f. APC g. Plasma cells In case of secondary humoral immune response concentration of lgM is much higher that concentration of lgG. a) false What is the result of B ly activation in case of humoral immune response? a. Differentiation of B ly into memory cells b. Release of IL-12, and IL-4 c. Differentiation of B ly into plasma cells d. Suppression of Th2 proliferation e. Synthesis of INF gamma f. Synthesis of Ab g. Proliferation of Th1 IL-4 is necessary for activation of Th2: a. True b. False Which of the following cells are involved in humoral immune response? a) APC b) Plasma cells c) Th2 d) B ly Choose if statement about anaphylactic shock is true or false: It usually does not lead to death since it is local reaction (true/false) Can be cured by injection of epinephrine (true/false) Typical symptoms include fever, hypertension, headache, difficulties in breathing (true/false) It belongs to type I hypersensitivity reaction (true/false) Symptoms are caused by Ab attacking host’s tissues (true/false)  Typical Ag leading to it, are venoms and medications, and sometimes ingested Ag (true/false) Which of the following is true about the receptor seen on the picture? a. Peptides on this receptor are usually presented to CD8+ T ly b. This is MHC-II receptor c. Peptide cleft of this receptor can bind approximately 9 amino acids d. Peptide cleft of this receptor can bind 10-20 amino acids e. This receptor is found on all nucleated cells f. Peptides on this receptor are usually presented to CD4+ T ly g. This is MHC-I receptor h. This receptor is found on APCs In which type of hypersensitivity all of the following macrophages, NK and C’, are involved? a. Type III hypersensitivity b. Type IV hypersensitivity c. Type II hypersensitivity d. None of the above e. Type I hypersensitivity What is atopy? a. An example of type I hypersensitivity which is described by localized symptoms caused by the release of histamine from mast cells b. Example of type III hypersensitivity which is described deposition of immune complexes on blood vessel walls c. Generalized reaction to Ag which includes vasodilation, fluid leakage from blood vessel collapse d. Process when Th becomes activated and start stimulation of macrophages during type IV hypersensitivity Contact hypersensitivity tuberculin-type hypersensitivity are examples of? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type III hypersensitivity c. Type II hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity Which of the following is a route of exposure to Ag which can lead to hypersensitivity reaction? a. Injection of Ag b. Inhalation of Ag c. Ingestion of Ag d. Direct contact of Ag to skin Which of these statements about hypersensitivity is WRONG? a. It results in a host damage b. It usually is seen after secondary exposure to Ag c. It always involves synthesis of increased amount of IgG d. It is increased reaction to usually normal environmental Ag e. It is type of abnormal immune response In which organ T-ly undergo Ag dependent development? a. In bloodstream b. On the site of infection, because it is the place where T ly need to “fight” c. In thymus d. In lymph nodes (+spleen and tonsils) Put the right names to describe the procedure of direct ELISA. Which of the following statements is true? a. Plasma cells can produce Ab of all types against one specific Ag b. Plasma cells can produce Ab of only one class against one specific Ag c. Plasma cells, which produce IgM, can produce aldo IgG antibodies after secondary Ag presentation d. Plasma cells can produce Ab of one class against several Ag Which of the following signals are necessary to activate Th1? a) B7 to CD28 b) IL4 to IL4 receptor c) lgG to lgG receptor d) IL12 to IL12 receptor e) MHC2 to TcR/CD3 f) IL2 to IL2 receptor Which of these CD receptors are found on Th? a) CD4 b) CD28 c) CD8 d) CD100 e) CD3 What type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen in the picture? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type IV hypersensitivity d. Type III hypersensitivity What type of hypersensitivity can be seen in the picture? TypeI hypersensitivity TypeII hypersensitivity Type IV hypersensitivity Type III hypersensitivity How is a relationship in which one species benefits while other species is harmed called? a) Parasitism What type of hypersensitivity is shown in the picture? a. Type I Hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type IV hypersensitivity d. Type III hypersensitivity WHich of the following are involved in type I hypersensitivity? a. B ly b. T cyt c. IgG d. InF gamma e. Mast cells f. Th1 g. IgE Which of the following is an example of type III hypersensitivity? a. Serum sickness b. Hay fever c. Bronchial asthma d. Glomerulonephritis after streptococcal infection  e. Urticaria f. Alveolitis Which of the following is an example of type II hypersensitivity? a. Contact dermatitis b. Hay fever c. Drug induced reaction to blood cells d. Anaphylactic shock e. Hemolytic disease of newborn Which of the following types of hypersensitivity involves no Ab production? a. Type IV hypersensitivity b. Type I hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type II hypersensitivity Which type of hypersensitivity is described by each statement? Immune complexes are usually deposited by each statement Type III hypersensitivit After secondary exposure to Ag it binds to FcR of mast cell which causes Type I hypersensitivity degranulation Can be caused by inappropriate ABO transfusion reaction Type II hypersensitivity Soluble Ag are usually involved Type III hypersensitivity Ab usually work against tissue Ag or Ag attached to the cell surfaces Type Iv hypersensitivity Belongs to T cell-mediated Type IV hypersensitivity hypersensitivity reactions Has two forms, serum sickness and Arthus reaction Type III hypersensitivity Which of the following are involved in type IV hypersensitivity? a. T cyt b. Mast cells c. Macrophages d. INF gamma e. B ly f. Th1 Which of the following are involved in type II hypersensitivity? a. T cyt b. Mast cells c. IgM d. NK e. C’ system Which of the following can serve as an Ag and cause hypersensitivity reaction? a. Anesthetic agents (e.g. Novacaine) b. Dander particles c. Venoms d. Molds e. Food f. Cosmetics g. Pollen h. Penicillin Following symptoms are typical for? - Hay fever, allergic bronchial asthma, wheal and flare, food allergy a. Type IV hypersensitivity b. Type I hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type II hypersensitivity Which of the following are involved in type III hypersensitivity? a. IgM b. Th2 c. IgG d. Mast cells e. C’ system f. NK g. Th1 Match the C fraction with it’s name (C3b)2PBb C5 convertase C3bPBb C3 convertase C3b opsonin C5bC6C7C8C9 MAC C2bC4b C3 convertase C5a Chemotaxin C2bC4bC3b C5 convertase Decide where positive and negative result of Latex agglutination is seen! 1. Positive 2. Negative What can be detected using Latex agglutination test? Select one: a) Immune complex b) Ag c) Ab d) Bacterial pathogenicity For which purpose is Elek’s test (gel precipitation test) used? Select one: a) To detect, if bacterium releases endotoxin b) To detect, if bacterium releases exotoxin (e.g. used for c. diptheriae) c) To detect, if bacterium is able to survive in human organism. d) To detect bacterial motility. Bacterial endotoxin can be released only when bacterium dies. - true Which of the following affect a process of infection? a) immunity of the host b) outer enviroment (humidity, tempatrue) c) pathogenicity of microorganism d) all of the above Put the right term in appropriate space to describe Elek’s test 1. Positive control 2. Negative control 3. Test organism (non-toxigenic strain of C. diptheriae) 4. Test organism (toxigenic strain of C. diptheriae) In case of yersiniosis, rodents contaminate water reservoirs and food products with infected urine. People contract the infection when using these products. What is the mode of transmission in case of yersiniosis? Select one: a) Indirect transmission b) Direct transmission c) Contamination transmission d) Droplet transmission Pregnant woman has HIV. After delivery her child is also HIV positive. What type of transmission is it? a) Vector-born transmission (e.g. disease from ticks or mosquitoes) b) Vertical transmission (mother to child) c) Indirect transmission (infectious agent from reservoir to host, e.g. through contaminated food) d) Horizontal transmission (direct contact between infected individual and new eventual host) Which of the following can serve as an infectious disease reservoir? a) soil b) sick person c) food d) all of the above e) animal Move names of different parts on the appropriate place on the image: Find the incorrect statement about latex agglutination! Select one: a. Latex particles are used to provide better visualisation of the results b. Latex agglutination is used to detect Ab c. Clumping of the latex particles will be seen in case of positive result d. One latex particle can contain even 1000 antibodies Some bacteria are able to produce the exotoxin while staying in the site of entry. a) True b) False What is a pandemic? Select one: a) An infection that has spread across one exact area, region. b) An infection that has spread across multiple continents or worldwide. c) Bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract caused by a bacterial infection d) Multiplication of parasites in blood (malaria) Which statement about exotoxins is correct? a. Only released by Gr b. Action of exotoxins is specific c. Cannot be used to produce vaccines d. Typically made of polysaccharides What type of infectious disease prevalence is seen on the picture? a) Pandemic infection b) Epidemic infection c) Sporadic infection d) None of the above Choose the correct Ab subunit responsible for the given function! Attachment to the cell surface is provided by CH3 Complement is bound by CH2 Antigen binding sites of Ab molecule are VL, VH Allotype of Ab is determined by CH1 Which of the following statements about indirect immunofluorescence is incorrect? a. More than one labeled Ab can be used b. The secondary labeled Ab are used c. Obtained immune complexes are well visualisable in fluorescent microscope d. Direct IF is more sensitive than indirect one It is possible to detect the exact gene, which encode for example, synthesis of toxin or development of antibiotic resistance using PCR a. True b. False Which result of direct immunofluorescence is seen in the picture? a. Positive b. Negative Which of the following are functions of B ly? a. Presentation of Ag b. Inhibition of Tcyt c. Inhibition of Th d. Differentiation into plasma cells e. Differentiation into memory cells To which group of diagnostic methods does conventional PCR belongs to? a. Quantitive b. Qualitative What is the difference between dendritic and Langerhans cells? a. Dendritic cells contains B7, Langerhans cells lack it b. Langerhans cells contain CD4, dendritic cells contains CD8 c. Langerhans cells contain B7, dendritic cells lack it d. Langerhans cells are found only in children, dendritic cells only in adults because they are phylogenetically younger Which of the following statements about indirect immunofluorescence is true? a. Ag, labeled with a fluorescent dye are used b. Activated enzymes are added to the IC c. A+C d. Ab, labeled with a fluorescent dye are used e. All statements are correct What is an evasion factor? a) a factor that protects bacteria from host’s immune system SUBUNITS IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE Where do APC present Ag to other cells? a. In bone marrow b. In gastrointestinal tract ( because there is a highest concentration of antigens in our organism c. In bloodstream d. In lymph node In which organ T-ly undergo Ag independent development? a. It depends on the site of infection b. Bone marrow c. In lymph nodes d. In blood stream e. In thymus Which of the following cells can serve as APC? a. B ly b. Langerhans cells c. Th1 d. Th2 e. Macrophages f. Dendritic cells What is determined using indirect immunofluorescence? a. Ag b. Ab What is determined using direct IF (immunofluorescence) c. Ag d. Ab Which of the following are functions of T cyt? a. Destruction of cells infected by i/c bacteria b. Tcyt cells are pathologic, because these cells are cytotoxic against our normal cells c. Functions are not known yet d. Destruction of virus infected cells Choose the right answer: - Antigens on MHC-I molecule are most commonly presented to CD8+ cells - MHC-II molecule is presented on APC - Antigens on MHC-II molecule are most commonly presented to CD4 cells - What kind of antigens most commonly are presented on MHC-II - Extracellular - What kind of antigens most commonly are presented on MHC-I - Intracellular - MHC-I molecules are presented on - All nucleated cells OPTIONS: -All nucleated cells -Extracellular -CD4 cells -APC -Intracellular -Extracellular Which of the following processes are mediated by cytokines?  a) dilation of blood vessels b) plasma leakage and odema c) fibrin depostion d) diapedesis of ohagocytes e) a+b+c f) all answers are correct Decide which type of vaccine is described in the statement? - These vaccine contains Ag of intact but inactivated microorganisms - killed vaccine - In the vaccines only one or several Ag are given to the patient instead of the whole microorganisms - subunit vaccine - These vaccine comprise several vaccines that have been developed using different techniques - combined vaccines - These vaccines are used to immunise patients against toxins produced by bacteria - toxoids - These vaccines contain a strain of virus or bacterium which virulence is reduced live attenuated vaccines Options: -Killed vaccines -Acellular vaccine -Combined vaccines -Toxoids -Live vaccines 1. Match the correct names: 2. Match the correct name 1) Which of these antibiotics are beta-lactamase resistant? a) Ticarcillin b) Ampicillin c) Oxacillin d) Penicillin G e) Methicillin  2) Which of these antibiotics act on the bacterial cell wall? a) Rifampicin b) Meropenem c) Amoxicillin d) Trimetoprim e) Gentamicin f) Tetracycline g) Vancomycin h) Cefoprim 3) Which of these antibiotics inhibits the 50S subunits of ribosomes? a) Cefazolin b) Klindamycin c) Amoxicillin d) Penicillin G e) Erythromycin f) Doxycycline g) Ciprofloxacin h) Gentamicin i) Chloramphenicol 4) Combine the type of antibacterial resistance with a suitable example! Mycoplasma spp. Do not have cell wall, so antibiotics inhibiting cell wall Primary resistan synthesis will not affect it Block of antibiotic transport into the cell Chromosomal resistance Bacteria loose target structure, so antibiotic will not be able to penetrate the Non-genetic cell resistance Bacteria localise intracellularly so antibiotic will not be able to penetrate cellNon-genetic resistance Bacterial conjugation and exchaneo of plasmids carrying genes encoding Extrachromosom resistance resistance Synthesis of alternated BPB Chromosomal resistance 5) Which statement about plasmids is false? a) Exchange of plasmids can occur only between one genera of bacteria b) Bacterium can carry only one plasmid c) plasmid may determine resistance against high concentrations of antibiotics d) Multi resistant bacteria can develop due to plasmids e) Plasmid encoded resistance develops rapidly f) All statements are true 6) Which statement about TLR is true? a) TLR supply intracellular signal transmission and induce cytotoxin synthesis b) TLR can recognize different microorganism structures c) TLR is part of acquired immunity d) TLR is connected with macrophages and dendritic cell activation e) TLR are not found in endothelial cells 7) Name the structures (1-5) 1. Chemotaxis/cell migration 2. Attraction 3. Engulfment 4. Phagosome formation 5. Microorganism digestion Which bacterial enzyme breaks down tissue collagen? a) collagenase Some bacteria are able to produce the exotoxin while staying in the site of entry a) true 8) Which statements regarding inflammatory process is correct? a) Characteristic features is pain, redness, swelling and heat b) Macrophage coming from blood vessels make pain/irritation i) (better translation - The release of macrophages from the blood vessels causes pain irritation) c) Inflammation process activates late, 5-7 days after m/o inclusion and phagocytosis. d) During inflammation, diapedesis occurs. e) Blood plasma secretes fibrin f) Blood vessel dilation happens due to action of cytokinesTLR g) Blood vessels excrete swelling liquid made up of thrombocytes + leukocytes 9) Match the complement fractions with a corresponding function/ name C3b Opsonin C5a, C3a, C4a Anaphylatoxin/Chemotaxis C2b, C4b, C3b C5 convertase C2b, C4b C3 convertase (C3b)2PBb C5 convertase C5b C6 C7 C8 C9 Membrane attack complex C3bPBb C3 convertase 10) Which from the statements about alternative pathway is wrong? a) Central role is for C3 fraction b) Activates 4-5 days after onset of inflammation c) During activation, acquired C3b can strengthen opsonization and complement activation by classical pathway d) B and D-plasma toxins plays a central role i) (better translation - Plasma B and D factors play an important role.)  e) Activates CRO and MBP, which opsonize microorganisms. f) Initiated by microorganism or its decomposition products - LPS, endotoxins. g) As a result of activation, antibodies are developed. h) Resulting in the formation of a membrane lysing complex. 11) Which from the mentioned belongs to complement C fractions? a) Cell lysis b) Virus neutralization c) Inflammation activation (chemotaxis) d) Phagocytosis activation 12) Connect the statement to the corresponding complement activation pathway! During activation C4b, C2b, C3b occurs Classic complement pathway During activation C3bBb is formed Alternative complement pathway Activated 1-2 days after the entry of the microorganism Lectin complement pathway Properdine in the presence of Mg ++ splits C3. Alternative complement pathway Activation requires the formation of an immune complex Classic complement pathway During the infection occurs first. It is activated faster than the other Alternative complement pathway complement activation pathways. I Interleukins (IL-1, IL-6, etc.) stimulate the acute phase protein Lectin complement pathway synthesis in the liver. Formation of immune complexes is necessary for it’s activation Classical pathway It is activated at the very beginning of the infection, earlier than other Alternative pathway pathways In the pressence of MG+++ p factors cleaves C3 Alternative pathway Is activated on 1st to 2nd day after invasion of microorganism Lectin pathway  13) Which cells can express MHC-I class form molecules? a) Antigen-presenting cells b) Epithelial cells c) Erythrocytes d) Endothelial cells e) Hepatocytes 14) Select which of the MHC receptors the statement corresponds to Binds to CD4 cells MHC-II responsible for complement and TNF synthesis MCH-III antigenic peptides with 10-20 amino acids bind in the peptide binding gap MCH-II antigens bind in phagolysosomes and are deposited on the cell surface MCH-II determines antigen synthesis of transplant compatability MCH-I binds peptides in the endoplasmic reticulum MCH-I Binds to CD8 cells MCH-I β2 microglobulin is part of its structure MCH-I In it’s antigen-binding cleft can bind antigenic peptides, which are 10-20 amino acids MHC-II lonh 15) Q is the picture in the beginning of file #2.  16) Match correct term with correct antibody Pentamere structure IgM Synthesized during 1st immune response IgM Cytophilic antibody which amount increases for people with allergic reaction IgE Transplacental transmission into foetus blood and provide passive immunity IgG Located on B-lymphocyte surface and works as antigen binding receptor IgD Secretory components bind these molecules into dimers and primers IgA I Is being produced during embryonic period IgM Secretory antibodies are found in mucous membrane secretion and breastmilk IgA 17) Which of the types of the immune response characterizes the graph below? a) Primary humoral immune response b) Secondary humoral immune response c) Primary cellular immune response d) Secondary cellular immune response e) None of the mentioned 18) Which of the following signals are necessary for activation of B lymphocytes in case of thymus- dependent immune response? a) FasL → Fas b) IL- 4,5,6,13 c) CD40L → CD40 d) IL 12 e) Ly49 → MHC I f) MCH II → TcR/CD3 19) Which of these following receptors and antigens can be found on the APCs? a) CD64 b) MHC-I c) CD4 d) NKRP1 e) MHC-II f) B7 g) MHC-III h) Receptors for FcIgG i) Ly49 j) CD8 k) Receptors for C3b 20) Which statement about Langerhans cells is true? a) Located in skin+mucous membranes b) Activates T-helpers c) Dendritic cells are Langerhans cell precursors d) Transports antigens located in organism to lymphatic system e) On surface there are MHC-II and B7 molecules Which statement is correct regarding endotoxin? a) part of LPS  Hyaluronidase: a) invasion factor 21) Q is the picture in first page #1 22) Which from these statements regarding NK-cells functional activity are correct? a) NK does not require activators b) Secrete perforins and granzymes c) IL-12 amplifies (strengthens) NK activity d) Produce TNF and INF gamma e) destroys cells with or without an altered MHC-II molecule f) NK destroys cell, if NKRP-1 receptor receives negative signal 23) What is the role of INF gamma in the antiviral immune response? a) promotes plasma cell heavy chain switching and IgG synthesis b) Inhibit protein synthesis in infected cells c) The INF gamma released by Th1 stops the maturation of Th0 to Th2 d) Activates T- regulatory lymphocyte e) T- regulatory lymphocytes secreted INF gamma suppresses the T cytotoxic development. f) After activation it is secreted by Th1 and it activates macrophages, improving phagocytosis. 24) what is the role of antibody synthesis in the antiviral immune response? a) destroys the viral RNA, but is unable to act on the DNA of the virus b) stabilizes the viral capsid, enzymes cannot cleave it, there is no disintegration of the virus c) prevents the virus from attaching to the cell d) opsonizes the virus and improves phagocytosis e) attaches to the virus-infected cell and stops protein synthesis at that time f) Activates antibody mediated cytotoxicity g) lytically destroys the viral super capsid 25) Put development of T-lymphocytes in right order 1 T-Ly precursors from bone marrow to thymus 2 Pro-B lymphocyte development in thymus 3 Double-positive cells that can synthesize TCR/CD3 development 4 Pre-thymocytes die in thymus if they can't lose one of their receptors (CD4 or CD8) 5 Clonal selection and deletion 6 Migration of T-Ly subclasses to periphery 7 Antigen-dependent development 26) Which of the following signals are necessary of development of Th2? a) MHC II to TcR/CD3 b) MHC I to TcR/CD3 c) IL-4 d) IL-12 e) B7 to CD28 f) CD40L to CD40 g) IL-5, IL-6 27) What of the following does not happen after activation of Th1 ?  a) IL-2 self-secretion and proliferation b) IL-2 synthesis and T-cytotoxic lymphocytes activation c) IgM synthesis induction d) Suppression of proliferation of Th2 28) Mark whether statement about Treg cells is true or false T-reg is located in the lymphoid follicles and takes part in antigen specific help for B- lymphocytes false T-reg produces TGF-β and IL-10 true Treg may contribute to the development of autoimmune diseases false T-reg promotes the switching of heavy chains in plasma cells false T-reg gets activated as a result of TGF-β synthesis, TGF-β acts on Th0 t rue T-reg suppresses Th1 in antiviral immune response True 29) What is the role of Th17 in antifungal immune response? a) Th17 synthesizes IL-17 and IL-22 b) Activated TH-17 synthesizes defensins c) Th17 synthesizes IL-21 and activates Th1 d) Th17 suppresses Th2 proliferation e) Th17 suppresses neutrophil leukocyte action f) All answers are correct g) None of the answers are correct 30) What is the role of complement activation in anticapsular immune response? a) Membrane attack complex activates thymus-dependent immune response b) Membrane attack complex activates NK, which subsequently kills the encapsulated bacterium by secreting perforins and granzymes c) C 5b, 6, 7, 8 in lytic way kills encapsulated bacterium d) C3b opsonizes the encapsulated bacterium and improves phagocytosis e) Complement activation has no role in the anticapsular immune response 31) Antitoxic immune response is initiated by thymus-dependent B-lymphocyte activation a) True b) False 32) In antifungal immune response IL-22 induces granulocytes and monocyte maturation in the bone marrow a) True b) False 33) which type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen in the picture? a) Type I hypersensitivity b) Type II hypersensitivity c) Type III hypersensitivity d) Type IV hypersensitivity 33) Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen in the picture? a) Type I hypersensitivity b) Type II hypersensitivity c) Type III hypersensitivity d) Type IV hypersensitivity 34. For each example find the right type of hypersensitivity Antibodies IgE synthesized during the sensitization phasType I hypersensitivity binding to empty cell FcR may be caused by inappropriate ABO group erythrocyte Type II hypersensitivity mass transfusion The effect of antibodies on tissue antigens is predominaType II hypersensitivity to tissue antigens, or antigens that are related to the different cell surfaces most commonly soluble antigens are involved Type III hypersensitivity Belongs to two ways of symptoms - Serological … and Type III hypersensitivity Arthus reaction characteristic deposition of immune complexes in blood Type III hypersensitivity vessels Belongs to T-cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction Type IV hypersensitivity 35) Which of these are involved in type-II hypersensitivity reactions? a) IgM b) Second class cells c) NK-cells d) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes e) Complement system 36) Which of the following is an example of type IV hypersensitivity reaction? a) Anaphylactic shock b) Hay Fever c) Contact Dermatitis d) Tuberculine reaction e) Arthus reaction, glomerulonephritis’ f) Newborn hemolytic anemia 37) Connect correct vaccine with vaccine type a) Pertussis vaccine = acellular vaccine b) Neisseria meningitidis vaccine = conjugative vaccine c) Measles vaccine = Attenuated vaccine d) Influenza vaccine = Killed vaccine e) Hepatitis B vaccine = Subunit vaccine f) Tetanus vaccine = Toxoid vaccine g) Diphtheria vaccine = Toxoid vaccine h) Rabies vaccine = killed vaccine i) BCG vaccine = attenuated vaccine 38) Which from the mentioned methods can be used to detect antibodies in patients serum? a) Direct immunofluorescence b) indirect immunofluorescence c) Direct ELISA d) Indirect ELISA e) Indirect or passive hemagglutination f) Latex agglutination g) PCR 39) What reaction is it and choose the positive reaction? a) This is latex agglutination reaction b) the positive reaction is image number one! 40) Point out the correct steps in process of PCR: First pink box = DNA chain denaturation. Second box = Annealing of primers Third box = DNA chain Elongation Which of the following are functions of INF gamma secreted by Th1? - Activation of Th1 differentiation - Inhibition of further th2 differentiation - Activation of macrophages and improvement of phagocytosis Which substances are released by Th17? - IL -17 - IL-22 Tcyt binds virus infected cells using Ly49 receptors and releases granzymes and perforins to destroy the cell. - false Which of the following serves as a risk factor of opportunistic infections? - Stress - Malnutrition - HIV, AIDS - Diabetes mellitus - Antibiotic treatment Match the group of antibiotics with its effect on bacteria. - Aminoglycosides nhibition of protein synthesis Amphotericin B Damaging of fungal plasma membrane Penicillins nhibition of cell wall synthesis ( with B lactam ring ) Vancomycin nhibition of cell wall synthesis Rifampin nhibition of mRNA synthesis Cephalosporins nhibition of cell wall synthesis Tetracycline nhibition of protein synthesis Nystalin Damaging of fungal plasma membrane Macrolides Inhibition of protein synthesis Choose the correct AB subunit responsible for the given function! Antigen binding sites if AB molecule are VL, VH Attachments to the cell surfaces is provided by CH3 Complement is bound by CH2  Allotype of AB is determined by CH1 What is detected using precipitation tests? - Ag What is precipitin? - Ab, which is used in precipitation tests. What is precipitation? - Ag, which is used in precipitation tests. Fill the gaps! Put the right name of MHC class molecule subunits in the appropriate place. Which of the following Abs are monomeric? - IgE - IgD - IgG Recognize the receptor and name its parts! Place the unnecessary part in a box as well! Decide which test is seen on the picture! Choose which picture shows a positive result of the test! - Latex agglutination -1 Which of the following serves as a C5 convertase in alternative pathway? - ( C3b)2PBb Which stage of phagocytosis is affected by C5a, C4a, C3a? - Chemotaxis Which of the following belong to innate response? - Phagocytosis - Activation of alternative complement pathway - Lysozyme breaks down beta 1-4 links in bacterial cell wall - Epithelial cells block entry of microorganism into submucosa Find the incorrect statement regarding MHC? - MHC class III has a role in transplant rejection Which antibody is most commonly found on mucous membrane? - IgA Which mayor antibody molecules has the ability to cross the placenta? - IgG Name the parts of antibody molecule Antibodies are: - Proteins Which cells are able to express MHC-1 molecules? - Epithelial cells - Hepatocytes - Endothelial cells - Antigen presenting cells Which molecule presentation process is seen on the picture? - MHC -I Match the vaccine with the group it belongs to Clostridium botulinum vaccine Toxoid Hepatitis B vaccine Subunit vaccine H. influenzae vaccine Conjugated vaccine N.meningitidis vaccine Conjugated vaccine Pertussis vaccine Acellular vaccine nfluenza vaccine Killed vaccine BCG Attenuated vaccine Varizella zoster vaccine Attenuated vaccine In which type of vaccines capsule polysaccharides are combined with protein carriers to produce a complete Ag? - Conjugated vaccine For which purpose is Elek’s test ( gel precipitation test) used? - To detect, if bacterium releases exotoxin Find the incorrect statement about Latex agglutination!********’’’ ( a är fel svar) -.. Which type of hypersensitivity lacks involvement of antibodies? - Type IV hypersensitivity To which hypersensitivity type does blood transfusion reactions belong to? - Type II hypersensitivity What is the function of defensins in an antifungal response? - They cover fungal hyphae and facilitate attachment of phagocytes - They stimulate innate immune responses after binding fungal hyphae Select one: - IgM Which of the following is NOT a function of Ab? - Lysis of microorganism Choose the right answers!***********’ Antigen on MHC-I molecules are most commonly presented to CD8+ MHC- II molecule is presented on APC Antigens on MHC -II molecule are most commonly presented to CD4 cells What kind of antigen most commonly are presented on MHC-II? Extracellular What kind of antigen most commonly are presented on MHC-I? ntracellular MHC- I molecules are presented on All nucleated Put right names to describe procedure of direct ELISA Which Ab are produced by delta plasma cells? - IgD Which of the following statements is true? - Plasma cells can produce Ab of only one class against one specific Ag. Which result of direct immunofluorescence is seen on the picture? - Positive Which of the following are functions of Bly? - Presentation of Ag - Differentiation into plasma cells - Differentiation into memory cells To which group of diagnostic methods does conventional PCR belong? - Qualitative What is the difference between dendritic and Langerhans cells? - Dendritic cells contain B7, Langerhans cells lack it. In which organ Tly undergo Ag dependent development? - In lymph nodes Which of the following are functions of Th2? - Suppression of Th1 - Activation of Bly Activated Bly will develop into … - Memory cells - Plasma cells Which of the following signals are necessary to activate Th1? - B7 ---> CD28 - IL12 → IL12 receptor - MHC2 → TcR/ CD3 In which organs TIy undergo Ag independent development? - In Thymus Which of the following cells can serve as APC? - Bly - Langerhans cells - Macrophages - Dendritic cells What is determined using direct ELISA? - Ag Incomplete phagocytosis: - intracellular persistence of microorganisms What is determined using direct IF? - Ag What is determined using indirect immunofluorescence? - Ab It is possible to defect the exact gene, which encodes, for example, synthesis of toxin or development of antibiotic resistance using PCR. - True Some bacteria become pathogenic only after they obtain a plasmid encoding ability to synthezise exotoxin. a) true What is determined using indirect ELISA? - Ab Which of the following signals are necessary to activate Th2? - B7 ---> CD28 - MHC II → TcR/ CD3 - IL4 ---> IL4 receptor Which of the following are functions of Tcyt? - Destruction of virus uínfected cells - Destruction of cells infected by i/c bacteria Which of the following are functions of Th1? - Stimulation of m/ph - Activation of T cyt - Suppression of Th2 - Stimulation - of Bly What can be detected, using Latex agglutination test? - Ag Decide, where positive and negative results of Latex agglutination is seen! IMMUNE RESPONSE!! Dominating immune response to a virus is: - Cellular Target of the cellular immune response is: - Tcyt activation Type I interferons are: - IFN alpha - IFN beta Activations signals of CD8+ cells include all, except: - IL -2 from m/ph Monokines are: - IL- 1,6,8,12, TNF alpha Ly-49 and NKR-P1 receptors are characteristic for: - NK cells Antibody dependent cytotoxicity is: - NK cell function Which IFN are synthetised by virus-infected cells? - A.Type I IFN – IFN alpha beta T ly-independent (no T helper) immune response is: - Antitoxic - Anti Capsular Which immune response is a major protection against extracellular bacteria? - Humoral Which statement is true regarding a superantigen: - A.Binds directly to MHC II and TCR Vbeta3 - A.Induces cytokine storm Capsular Ag firstly binds to - Bly Which Th cell play the main role in antifungal immune response? - Th1 and Th17 Which cytokine plays major role in adaptive immunity against i/c bacteria (M.tuberculosis)? - IFN gamma What is seen in the electron microscope image ? - neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) Which arrow shows to the MIC on E-test seen on the picture? -C OSÄKER!! Clarithromycin is a … - Macrolide Amoxicillin is a.. - Penicillin Which of the following statements is true regarding the priorities of benzylpenicillin - - it is a bacteriostatic agent Drag names on the scheme to describe humoral immune response. Decide which type of vaccine is described in the statement! These vaccines contain Ag of intact but inactivated microorganisms killed vaccines  n these vaccines only one or several Ag are given to the patient sub nstead of the whole microorganism vacci These vaccines comprise several vaccines that have been developed Combi using different techniques vacci These vaccines are used to immunise patients against toxins produced Toxo by bacteria These vaccines contain a strain of virus or bacteria which virulence is Live vacci reduced Why are conjugated vaccines used? - To immunise patients against microbial polysaccharide Ag Conventional antigen and superantigen: 1. Which statements about inflammation are true? a. Plasma fluid, leukocytes and thrombocytes are released from blood vessels. b. Diapedesis is een during inflammation c. Vasodilation happens due to release of cytokines d. fibrin is released from plasma e. Typical signs are pain, swelling, fever and redness f. The migration of macrophages from blood vessels causes pain g. inflammation activates laterly approximately 5-7 days after phagocytosis and invasion of microorganism. 2. Which statement about alternative complement pathways is false a. C3b, which is synthesised during activation can improve opsonization and activation of classical C(cant see the number) pathway b. It is activated approximately 4-5 days after inflammation c. Activation of it leads to synthesis of antibodies d. Results in formation of MAC e. Plasma B and D factors have an important role in this pathways f. It is initiated by microorganisms themselves or their particles - LPS endotoxins g. C3 fraction plays central role in this C pathway h. Is activated by CRO and MBP, which opsonized microorganisms. 3. Which of the following are functions of complement C? a. Lysis of cells b. Stimulation of phagocytosis c. Neutralisation of viruses d. Increase in inflammation 4. Match the number with a correct name of phagocytosis stage 1. Chemotaxis 2. Attraction 3. Engulfment 4. Formation of phagolysosomes 5. Digestion of microorganism 5. What is the difference between thymus-independent immune response? a. in thymus.independent immune response B lymphocytes receives activation signals from Th1 b. Superantigens induce thymus-dependent immune response only. c. In case of thymus- independent immune response B lymphocytes proliferate and become follicular cells, which are able to excrete IgE. d. Antibody class- switching can happen only in thymus-dependent immune response. e. In case of thymus-independent immune response no immunological memory is gained. 6. Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis in virus - infected cells? a. TGFbeta b. TNF alpha c. IL-10 d. INF-gamma e. INF-alpha Which statement regarding TLRs is true? Select one or more: a) TLRS are not found in intracellular structures b) TLRS recognize different microbial structures c) TLRs are part of the adaptive immune response d) TLRs are associated with activation of macrophages and dendritic cells e) TLRs ensure signal transmission inside of the cell and induction of cytokine production. Which pathway of complement is activated by Ag-Ab complexes? a) All of the above b) Alternative c) Classical d) Lectin e) None of the answers are correct Which of the following statements regarding innate immunity is false? Select one: a) Develops throughout life b) Functions the same regardless of the infectious agent c) Immune response is greater upon secondary exposure to the same infectious agent d) It is not specific to antigens e) A+C f) B+D g) All answers are correct Which cells do not express TLRs on their surface? Select one: a) Macrophages b) Dendritic cells c) Endothelial cells d) Epithelial cells e) Neurocytes Which pathway of complement is activated by microorganisms and their breakdown products? Select one: a) Alternative b) Classical c) Lectin d) All of the above  e) None of the answers are correct The complement system can spontaneously activate in the bloodstream without any trigger factors Select one: a) True b) False Which of the complement pathways is activated first in case of an infection? Select one: a) Lectin b) Alternative c) Classical Which of the following are opsonins? Select one or more: a) C3a b) Fibronectin c) C3b d) Chemoattractine e) IgG Which statement regarding the complement system is false? Select one: a) Is a part of the innate immune system b) Complement system is composed of 30 polypeptides divided into 9 fractions c) Complement is in its active form in blood d) Complement is a heat-labile blood serum globulin Which of the following statements regarding phagocytosis is false? Select one: a) Only an Ag processed in a phagocyte can trigger cell activation and formation of Ab b) Phagocytosis is necessary for removal of IC in the final stages of an immune response c) Phagocytosis is the main mechanism of innate immunity for fighting microorganisms d) Phagocytosis is part of the specific immune response e) B+D C3b, C4b, C5b function as: Select one: a) Chemotactic factors b) Anaphylotoxins c) Membrane attack complex d) Opsonins C5b, 6, 7, 8 , 9 function as: a) membrane attack complex What is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis? a) Chemotaxis, attraction, capture, digestion b) Attraction, chemotaxis, capture, digestion c) Attraction, capture, chemotaxis, digestion d) Chemotaxis, capture, attraction, digestion C3a, C4a, C5a function as: Select one: a) Anaphylotoxins b) Membrane attack complex c) Chemotactic factors d) Opsonins Toll-like receptors (TLR) are capable of generating signals and activating the adaptive immune response: Select one: a) True b) False Which of the following is not a function of Ab? Select one: a) Toxin neutralisation b) Activate complement when Ab-Ag complexes are formed c) Opsonisation d) Lysis of microorganisms What is opsonization? a. Ingestion of a microorganism into phagocyte b. Digestion of a microorganism in a phagocyte using oxygen independent mechanisms c. Phagocyte approaching its target d. Coating of particle with proteins Which of the following is a function of complement? a. Cell lysis b. Activation of inflammation c. Opsonization of bacteria  d. Stimulation of phagocytosis e. All answers are correct Which of the following is a subunit vaccine? a. HAV vaccine b. DTaP c. Rabies vaccine d. HBV vaccine e. None of the above What do vaccines contain? a. Synthetic Ag which are similar to Ag of causative agent b. Ab of people who have recovered from the disease c. Ag of causative agents or Ag similar to them d. Chemical elements, which mimic symptoms of the disease Inflammation is a protective response to tissue injury. Select one: a. True b. Fale Find the correct statements about anticapsular immune response! Select one: a. Th1 releases INFgamma which lysis bacteria b. It is initiated by APC and phagocytosis c. It is initiated by Bly d. It starts with lectin complement pathway activation e. A+D Which statement about capsular Ag is correct? Select one: a. It is made mainly of proteins b. Its particles cannot be presented on MHC-II c. It primarily activates thymus-dependent immune response. d. It is primarily bound by macrophages TLR-2 and TLR-6 receptors What is the role of thymus-independent Bly activation in anticapsular immune response? Select one: a. Synthesis of IgM, which opsonises Ag and initiates complement activation. b. Degradation of capsule c. Synthesis of IgG, which opsonises capsule and macrophages bind to Fc of Ab. d. Synthesis of memory cells Which statement about anticapsular immune response is wrong? Select one: a. Thymus-dependent Bly activation ensures synthesis of IgG and memory cells. b. Th1 plays most important role in anticapsular immune response since it releases INFgamma and activates macrophages and Bly. c. Primarily thymus-independent immune response is activated. d. Thymus-dependent immune response is activated after IgM binds capsular Ag and activates complement system. What is an incubation period? a. Time following an infection, when symptoms resolve, however the infectious agent persists in the host b. Time from the moment of exposure to an infectious agent until signs and symptoms of the disease appear c. Time during which a patient is always infectious, yet has no clinical symptoms d. Time period during which non-specific symptoms manifest Which statement about INF is false? Select one: a. INF-gamma activated endonucleases present inside of cells and degrades viral mRNA. b. INF alpha and beta are secreted by virus-infected cell. c. Fungi can induce release of INF-gamma despite they are not i/c organisms. d. Normally epithelial cells do not release INF alpha and beta. e. INF alpha and beta suppress protein synthesis in neighbouring cells of virus-infected cell. Which of the following cells will destroy virus-infected cell? Select one: a. Virus-dependent effector macrophages b. CD8+ CD4- directly after positive, negative selection in thymus c. Th1, since they release INFgamma. d. NK, since they check presence and structure of MHC-I on cells. Which of the following is NOT a function of Ab in antiviral immune response? Select one or more: a. Inhibition of disintegration. b. Neutralisation of viral adhesion factors. c. Opsonisation of viruses. d. Provision of Ab-mediated cytotoxicity. e. Insurance of virus destruction. What is the role of Th17 in antifungal immune response? Select one: a. Destruction of fungal hyphae via release of granzymes. b. Production of IL-17 and IL-22. c. Supression of Th1 and inhibition of macrophages. d. Activation of Bly and Ab synthesis. Which cell stimulates macrophages in antifungal immune response? Select one or more: a. Bly b. Th1 c. NK d. Th2 e. Th17 Which of the following are functions of Ab in case of humoral immune response? a) ab mediated cytotoxicity b) opsonization of ag c) neutralization of ag d) improvement of phagocytosis e) activation of c’ classical pathway Immune complexes formed during antitoxic immune response are bound by erythrocytes and destroyed in spleen. Select one: True False In antitoxic immune response B-ly presents toxin to Th0 to activate thymus-dependent immune response. Select one: True False Which substances are released by Treg in antiviral immune response? Select one or more: a. IL-12 b. TGF beta c. IL-10 d. INFgamma e. IL-4 Which of the following are functions of Treg in antiviral immune response? Select one or more: a. Facilitates switch from cellular immune response switch to Ab synthesis. b. Suppress NK and destruction of virus-infected cells. c. Releases INF alpha and beta. d. Ensures immunologic memory agents the virus. e. Synthesis of IL-10 and suppression of Th1. In antifungal immune response IL-17 induces maturation of granulocytes and monocytes in bone marrow. Select one: a) True b) False Which of the following pathogens will induce anticapsular immune response? Select one or more: a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Influenza virus c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Candida albicans e. Neisseria meningitidis In which of following immune responses thymus-independent Bly activation is involved? Select one or more: a. Antiviral b. Antitoxic c. Anticapsular d. Antifungal Defensins are part of adaptive immunity and they are able to make pore in fungal hyphae in case of antifungal immune response. Select one: True False