Metabolism Module Final PDF

METABOLISM MODULE ______by Zaid… Biochemistry Metabolism Module 1. The substrate of proteolytic enzymes are: a. proteins b. carbohydrates c. vitamins d. lipid e. nucleic acids 2. The binding of the substrate to the active site of the enzyme is carrie...

METABOLISM MODULE ______by Zaid… Biochemistry Metabolism Module 1. The substrate of proteolytic enzymes are: a. proteins b. carbohydrates c. vitamins d. lipid e. nucleic acids 2. The binding of the substrate to the active site of the enzyme is carried out according to the principle: a. complementarity b. thermal stability c. absolute substratum d. electrophoretic properties e. thermal lability 3. Enzymes that catalyze reactions of intramolecular transfer of atoms or groups of atoms: a. isomerases b. ligases c. transferases d. hydrolases e. oxidoreductases 4. Name the process of converting an inactive form of pepsin into an active one, accompanied by a decrease in its molecular weight: a. partial proteolysis b. phosphorylation c. dephosphorylation d. deamination e. phosphorolysis 5. An enzyme containing a coenzyme and having enzymatic activity is called: a. holoenzymes b. coenzymes c. cofactors  d. apoenzymes e. protomer 6. Indicate the reaction catalyzed by kinases: a. transfer of the phosphate group from the donor molecule to the acceptor b. cleavage of hydrogen from the substrate and transfer to the acceptor c. by addition of water d. breaking C-C-links e. cleavage of intramolecular bonds with the participation of water 7. The nature of a competitive inhibitor for an enzyme is that it is a structural analog of: a. substrate b. enzyme c. reaction product d. enzyme and reaction product e. all participants in the reaction 8. For diagnostic purposes the activity of enzymes is most often determined in a biological fluid: a. serum b. gastric juice c. cerebrospinal fluid d. lymph e. saliva 9. Indicate the site of the enzyme that provides direct participation in the act of catalysis: a. catalytic center b. substrate center c. allosteric inhibitor d. allosteric effector e. allosteric center 10. Name the site of the enzyme to which the substrate is attached: a. active center b. holoenzyme c. allosteric center d. apoenzyme e. allosteric effector 11. Irreversible inhibitors reduce enzymatic activity as a result of the formation of bonds with an enzyme molecule: a. covalent b. ionic c. disulfide d. non-covalent e. hydrogen 12. In enzyme diagnostics in a patient with lesions of the liver parenchyma, the level of the enzyme is determined: a. ALT b. AST c. CK  d. alfa-amylase e. acid phosphatase 13. What properties are characteristic of the enzyme: a. specificity b. insensitive to pH c. thermally stable d. changeability after completion of the reaction e. low catalytic activity 14. The allosteric center of the enzyme is: a. a site of an enzyme molecule with which low-molecular substances that differ in structure from substrates bind b. a site of the molecule that ionizes the substrate c. a section of the molecule that provides attachment of the substrate d. non-protein part of the enzyme that ionizes the substrate e. a part of the molecule that is part of the active center. 15. Enzyme inhibitors are substances: a. reducing the rate of enzymatic reactions b. increasing the rate of enzymatic reactions c. causing denaturation of enzymes d. reducing the solubility of enzymes e. do not change the rate of enzymatic reactions 16. Vitamin that acts as a coenzyme, capable of accepting and donating electrons and protons along the pyrimidine ring: a. РР b. A c. B2 d. B6 e. D 17. The active form of the vitamin, which is part of the aminotransferase: a. pyridoxal phosphate b. thiamine diphosphate c. coenzyme A d. FAD e. NAD+ 18. The function of vitamins as a cofactor in the body: a. binds to the active site of the enzyme b. binds to the enzyme only by weak bonds c. binds to the enzyme only by covalent bonds d. binds to substrate e. inhibits the action of the enzyme 19. A derivative of vitamin PP is participating in biochemical reactions: a. dehydrogenation b. decarboxylation c. deamination  d. acetylation e. transfer of acyl groups 20. A derivative of the vitamin thiamine participates in biochemical reactions: a. oxidative decarboxylation of keto acids b. transfer of methyl groups c. deamination of the substrate d. dehydrogenation of the substrate e. decarboxylation of the substrate 21. Catabolism is: a. break down of substances with release of energy b. a set of biosynthetic reactions in a cell c. reactions that use the energy of high energy compounds d. a set of reactions for the synthesis of complex substances from simpler ones e. decay of substances with energy consumption 22. Anabolism is: a. synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones b. synthesis of high energy compounds c. decay of biopolymers to monomers d. oxidation of glucose to pyruvate e. biological oxidation 23. Indicate the product of the specific pathway of monosaccharide catabolism: a. pyruvate b. acetyl-CoA c. fumarate d. alpha-ketoglutarate e. oxaloacetate 24. Indicate the steps that refer to the common pathway of catabolism: a. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and the Krebs cycle b. glycerol oxidation c. glucose oxidation d. fatty acid oxidation e. amino acid transamination 25. Indicate the central intermediate metabolite of protein, lipid, carbohydrate metabolism: a. acetyl-CoA b. citrate c. succinyl-CoA d. oxalic acid e. lactate 26. Substrate phosphorylation reaction is: a. ATP synthesis using the energy of high-energy bonds of substrates b. ATP syntheses using the energy of tissue respiration c. glucose oxidation d. the formation of two phosphotriosis in the aldolase reaction of glycolysis e. oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 27. The primary electron acceptor of the respiratory chain is: a. FAD b. cytochrome C c. ubiquinone d. FMN e. NADP 28. The mechanism action of enzyme the first complex of the respiratory chain: a. accepts electrons from NADH and transfers them to coenzyme Q b. accepts electrons from coenzyme Q and transfers them to cytochrome c c. accepts electrons from cytochrome c and transfers them to oxygen to form water d. ensuring the transfer of electrons from FADH2 to the iron-sulfur proteins of the inner mitochondrial membrane e. transfers 2H + to the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane 29. The final electron acceptor in the respiratory chain is: a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. ubiquinone d. NAD+ e. cytochrome oxidase 30. Indicate the correct sequence of respiratory chain: a. NAD, FMN, ubiquinone, cytochrome b, cytochrome c1, cytochrome c, cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 b. NAD, FMN, ubiquinone, cytochrome c1, cytochrome b, cytochrome c, cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 c. NAD, FMN, ubiquinone, cytochrome c1, cytochrome c, cytochrome b, cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 d. NAD, ubiquinone, FMN, cytochrome b, cytochrome c1, cytochrome c, cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 e. NAD, ubiquinone, FMN, cytochrome c, cytochrome b, cytochrome c1, cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 31. Place of localization of the process of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria: a. in the inner membrane b. located in the intermembrane space c. in the matrix d. in the outer membrane e. in the lipid layer of the membrane 32. The simultaneous process of tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation is called as follows: a. energy conjugation b. the general path of catabolism c. a specific pathway of catabolism d. preparatory stage of catabolism e. glycolysis 33. Specify the process that occurs when tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation are uncoupled: a. the formation of ATP decreases and the release of energy in the form of heat increases  b. the formation of ATP increases and the release of energy in the form of heat decreases c. both the release of energy in the form of heat and the formation of ATP increase d. both the release of energy in the form of heat and the formation of ATP are reduced e. energy is absorbed 34. The process leading to the disappearance of the electrochemical potential and the termination of the synthesis of ATP: a. uncoupling of tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation b. energy pairing c. an increase in the consumption of ATP d. conjugation of tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation e. decrease in ATP consumption 35. An increase in the concentration of ADP affects the following process: a. accelerates tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation b. the rate of reaction in the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation decreases c. reactions in the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation stop d. the rate of reaction in the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation slows down e. reduced ATP formation and heat production 36. In the Krebs cycle, the following are decarboxylated: a. isocitrate, ketoglutarate b. isocitrate, oxaloacetate c. citrate, succinate d. malate, fumarate e. alpha ketoglutarate and citrate 37. When the concentration of this substance increases, the activity of the citrate cycle increases: a. ADP b. creatine c. phosphatidylcholine d. cholesterol e. ATP 38. Calculate the number of ATP molecules synthesized due to the reaction of substrate phosphorylation during the oxidation of 1 molecule of acetyl-CoA in the tricarboxylic acid cycle: a. 1 b. 11 c. 12 d. 15 e. 24 39. In heart diseases, cocarboxylase (thiamine pyrophosphate) is used to improve energy supply due to the intensification of oxidative processes. Specify which metabolic process it activates: a. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate b. oxidative phosphorylation c. substrate phosphorylation d. dehydrogenation of succinate e. phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate 40. During aerobic glycolysis, the molecule is cleaved: a. glucose to form two molecules of pyruvate  b. fructose to form two molecules of pyruvate c. sucrose to form two molecules of pyruvate d. glucose to form three molecules of pyruvate e. glucose to form two lactate molecules 41. In during anaerobic glycolysis from 1 molecule of glucose is formed: a. 2 lactate molecules b. 2 molecules of pyruvate c. 4 molecules of pyruvate d. 1 molecule of pyruvate e. 2 molecules of pyruvate and 2 molecules of lactate 42. At the second stage of glycolysis, the process takes place: a. formation of NADHH+ b. NADP+ regeneration c. formation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate d. formation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e. completion of glycolysis with the formation of phosphoenolpyruvate 43. The substrate for the reaction of substrate phosphorylation: a. phosphoenolpyruvate b. glucose-6-phosphate c. glucose-1-phosphate d. pyruvate e. lactate 44. At the second stage of glycolysis, this process occurs: a. regeneration of NAD+ b. formation of NADP+ c. formation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate d. formation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e. completion of glycolysis with the formation of phosphoenolpyruvate 45. In the reaction of 3-phosphoglycerate formation from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate, ATP synthesis is carried out in this way: a. substrate phosphorylation b. oxidative phosphorylation c. substrate and oxidative phosphorylation d. dephosphorylation of ATP e. decay of ADP to AMP 46. In anaerobic glycolysis ATP is formed only in this way: a. substrate phosphorylation b. oxidative phosphorylation c. substrate and oxidative phosphorylation d. dephosphorylation of ATP e. decay of ADP to AMP 47. Brain cells consume the energy of oxidation of these molecules: a. aerobic glucose oxidation b. anaerobic glucose oxidation c. oxidation of fatty acids  d. protein oxidation e. both aerobic and anaerobic glucose oxidation 48. Synthesis of ATP in erythrocytes is possible as a result of the process: a. only anaerobic glycolysis b. oxidative phosphorylation c. with the participation of oxygen d. only aerobic glycolysis e. with the participation of FAD-dependent dehydrogenases 49. In conditions of limited oxygen supply to organs, the process takes place: a. anaerobic glycolysis b. NADH+ regeneration c. formation of pyruvate d. aerobic glycolysis e. completion of glycolysis with the formation of CO2 and H2O 50. Indicate the amount of ATP that is formed during anaerobic glycolysis per 1 mole of glucose: a. 2 mole b. 3 mole c. 8 mole d. 12 mole e. 11 mole 51. One of the reasons for a decrease in blood plasma pH is insufficient activity: a. pyruvate dehydrogenase complex b. enzymes of glycolysis c. FAD-dependent dehydrogenase d. oxidative phosphorylation e. dephosphorylation of ATP 52. The formation of ATP during aerobic glycolysis occurs during the implementation of this process: a. substrate and oxidative phosphorylation b. oxidative phosphorylation c. substrate phosphorylation d. microsomal oxidation e. microsomal oxidation and oxidative phosphorylation 53. Regulation of the rate of glycolysis is determined by this ratio: a. ATP/ADP b. lactate concentration c. ADP/AMP d. P/O e. the formation of phosphoric acid 54. The glycolysis is regulated by the activity of this compound: a. phosphofructokinase b. LDH enzymes c. FAD-dependent dehydrogenase d. substrate phosphorylation e. dephosphorylation of ADP 55. Inhibitor of phosphofructokinase is: a. ATP b. LDH enzymes c. FAD-dependent dehydrogenase d. substrate phosphorylation e. dephosphorylation of ADP 56. In many tissues, inhibitor of hexokinase is: a. glucose-6-phosphate b. AMP c. LDH enzymes d. glucose-1-phosphate e. phosphofructokinase 57. In the first minutes of muscle contraction, glucose oxidation occurs: a. anaerobically b. aerobic c. to pyruvate d. to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e. to glucose-6-phosphate 58. During prolonged physical activity, the synthesis of ATP in the muscles occurs due to the process: a. aerobic glycolysis b. anaerobic glycolysis c. lactate synthesis d. oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e. oxidation of glucose-6-phosphate 59. The substrate for the reaction of substrate phosphorylation is: a. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate b. glucose-6-phosphate c. glucose-1-phosphate d. pyruvate e. lactate 60. Name the main function of the pentose phosphate pathway in red blood cells: a. formation of NADPH2 b. formation of ribose-5-phosphate c. cleavage of pentose phosphates d. synthesis of ATP e. reduction of H2O2 to two water molecules 61. The significance of the pentose phosphate cycle is that it is the source of: a. pentose and NADPH2 b. pentose and NADH2 c. pentose and FADH2 d. energy in the form of ATP e. energy in the form of NADH2 62. In the pentose phosphate pathway, NADPH2 is formed by the following enzymes: a. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase b. glucokinase  c. transketolase d. phosphofructokinase e. transaldolase 63. Name the process ensuring the simultaneous formation of ribose and NADPH2: a. pentose phosphate pathway b. aerobic glycolysis c. anaerobic glycolysis d. gluconeogenesis e. Cori cycle 64. Coenzyme NADPH2 is a hydrogen donor in reduction reactions for the synthesis of substances: a. fatty acids, cholesterol, inactivation of foreign substances and neutralization of reactive oxygen species b. cholesterol, higher fatty acids, bile acids c. bile acids, pyruvate, acetyl CoA d. fatty acids, acetyl CoA, glycerol-3-phosphate e. acetyl CoA, keto acids, neutralization of reactive oxygen species 65. Name the product formed in the oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway of glucose conversion: a. ribulose-5-phosphate b. ribose-5-phosphate c. xylulose-5-phosphate d. glyceraldehyde- 3-phosphate e. fructose-6-phosphate 66. Name the product formed in the non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway of glucose conversion: a. ribose-5-phosphate b. glucose-6-phosphate c. ribulose-5-phosphate d. pyruvate e. glycerol-3-phosphate 67. Pentoses formed in the pentose phosphate cycle are used for the formation of substances: a. purine and pyrimidine nucleotides b. cholesterol c. fatty acids d. bile acids e. fat soluble vitamins 68. Name the product of the pentose phosphate pathway of glucose conversion required for the synthesis of nucleic acids: a. ribose-5-phosphate b. pyruvate c. lactate d. deoxyribose-5-phosphate e. citrate 69. Name the product of the pentose phosphate cycle necessary for the synthesis of glucose: a. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate  b. ribulose-5-phosphate, gluconolactone-6-phosphate c. ribose-5-phosphate, xylulose-5-phosphate d. xylulose-5-phosphate, erythrose-4-phosphate e. glucose-6-phosphate, 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate 70. The reduction of NADP occurs as a result of the reaction: a. oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate cycle b. anaerobic glycolysis c. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate d. non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate cycle e. gluconeogenesis 71. Name the regulatory enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway: a. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase b. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase c. glucose phosphate isomerase d. phosphofructokinase e. glyceroaldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase 72. Indicate the substance that is the substrate for the pentose phosphate cycle: a. glucose-6-phosphate b. fructose-6-phosphate c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate d. ribulose-5-phosphate e. ribose-5-phosphate 73. What are the primary substrates of gluconeogenesis: a. lactate, amino acids, glycerol, fatty acids, glycerol-3 phosphate b. amino acids, glycerol, glycerol-3 phosphate c. lactate, amino acids, fats d. acetyl-CoA, amino acids, lactate 74. Substrate of gluconeogenesis, formed during the breakdown of muscle proteins: a. amino acids b. lactate c. glycerol d. glycerol-3 phosphate e. acetyl CoA 75. Indicate the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction: Oxaloacetate → phosphoenolpyruvate: a. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase b. pyruvate dehydrogenase c. pyruvate carboxylase d. phosphates glycerol-3 dehydrogenase e. phosphofructokinase 76. With insufficient blood circulation during the period of intense muscle work, lactic acid accumulates in the muscles as a result of anaerobic glycolysis. What is the fate of lactate? a. involved in gluconeogenesis in the liver b. excreted in the urine c. used in muscle for amino acid synthesis  d. used by tissues to synthesize ketone bodies e. used in tissues for the synthesis of fatty acids 77. The specific enzymatic reaction of gluconeogenesis is the conversion of: a. glucose-6-phosphate to glucose b. glucose to galactose c. pyruvate to lactate d. fructose-1,6-diphosphate to triose e. citrate to isocitrate 78. The process linking the glucose-lactate cycle with gluconeogenesis: a. formation of lactate in muscles and its entry into hepatocytes for gluconeogenesis b. breakdown of glycogen to glucose and its conversion to lactate c. aerobic glucose oxidation and alcoholic fermentation d. oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria with glycolysis in the cytoplasm e. metabolism of carbohydrates with fat metabolism 79. On the path of gluconeogenesis, oxaloacetate is converted into the substrate: a. malate b. alpha-ketoglutarate c. enolpyruvate d. citrate e. 3-phosphog lycerate 80. Allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase is: a. fructose-2,6 bisphosphate b. fructose 6-phosphate c. fructose-1,6 bisphosphate d. glucose-6-phosphate e. glucose 81. A large number of glucose oxidation metabolites are dissolved in the cytoplasm of myocytes. Name one of them that is directly converted to lactate: a. pyruvate b. oxaloacetate c. glycerophosphate d. glucose-6-phosphate e. fructose-6-phosphate 82. Choose an enzyme involved in the formation of glucose-1-phosphate from glycogen: a. phosphorylase b. amylase c. hexokinase d. phosphoglucoisomerase e. phosphoglucomutase 83. The key enzymes of glycogen metabolism are: a. glycogen phosphorylase, glycogen synthase b. glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase, glycogen synthase c. glucokinase, glucose-6-phosphatase d. phosphoglucomutase, glycogen synthase e. glucose-6-phosphatase, phosphoglucomutase 84. Indicate the biological role of glycogen mobilization in the liver: a. maintains blood glucose concentration between meals b. occurs with the energy consumption of ATP and UTP c. accelerates with prolonged (more than a day) fasting d. includes the reaction: oxaloacetate → phosphoenolpyruvate e. allosterically activated at rest by AMP and H3PO4 85. An enzyme involved in the activation of glycogen synthase: a. phosphoprotein phosphatase b. glucose-6-phosphatase c. glycogen phosphorylase d. phosphorylazkinase e. alpha -1,6-glycosidase 86. An enzyme involved in the catalysis of the reaction: Glucose-6-phosphate → Glucose-1-phosphate: a. phosphoglucomutase b. alpha-1,6-glycosidase c. glycogen phosphorylase d. transferase e. aldolase 87. Name the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of alpha-1,6-glucosidic bonds: a. amylo-1,4 → 1,6-glucosyltransferase b. glycogen synthase c. glycosyltransferase d. phosphoglumutase e. alpha-1,6-glucosidase 88. Indicate an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of UDP-glucose in glycogen synthesis: a. UDP-glucopyrophosphorylase b. hexokinase c. phosphoglucomutase d. glucokinase e. hexose-1-phosphaturidyltransferase 89. The enzymes that are involved in the synthesis of glycogen: a. hexokinase, UDP-glucoprophosphorylase, glycogen synthase b. galactose-1-phosphaturidyltransferase, glycogenensitase, phosphoglucomutase c. glucose-6-phosphatase, UDP-glucoprophosphorylase, glycogen synthase d. UDP-glucuronyltransferase, glycogenensitase, phosphoglucomutase e. UDP-glucopyrophosphorylase, UDP-glucuronyltransferase 90. An enzyme that catalyzes the cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two phosphotrioses: a. aldolase b. hexokinase c. phosphofructokinase d. triosephosphate isomerase e. enolase 91. In the liver, alanine is used for: a. gluconeogenesis b. neutralization  c. Cori cycle d. conjugation e. amination 92. The transport of lipids by blood and lymph is carried out by: a. lipoproteins b. albumin c. in conjugated form d. steroids e. acyltransferase 93. Immature chylomicrons are synthesized in: a. enterocytes b. blood c. liver d. adipocytes e. gallbladder 94. The enzyme triacylglycerol lipase is activated by hormones: a. glucagon, epinephrine b. glucagon, insulin c. ep inephrine, insulin d. insulin, estrogen e. cortisol, glucagon 95. The substrate for hormone-sensitive TAG-lipase is: a. fats deposited in adipocytes b. 2-MAG c. dietary TAG d. lipoproteins e. free fatty acids deposited in adipocytes 96. Name the enzyme that hydrolyzes fats in chylomicrons: a. lipoprotein lipase b. TAG lipase c. colipase d. pancreatic lipase e. esterase 97. The amount of ATP formed during the complete beta-oxidation of palmitic acid (summary of the energy yield from the oxidation of palmitoyl coenzyme A): a. 130 b. 36 c. 12 d. 24 e. 90 98. The substrate for the synthesis of fatty acids is: a. acetyl-CoA b. pyruvate c. glycerol  d. glycerol-3-phosphate e. malonyl-CoA 99. Acetyl-CoA-carboxylase is a regulatory enzyme synthesis of: a. fatty acids b. bile acids c. 2-MAG d. TAG e. acetyl-CoA 100. Mobilization of fat occurs mainly under the action of a hormone: a. glucagon and adrenaline b. insulin c. glucagon d. insulin and glucagon e. adrenaline 101. The substrate for the synthesis of ketone bodies is: a. acetyl-CoA b. bile acids c. cholesterol d. TAG e. fatty acids 102. During fasting, diabetes mellitus, prolonged physical activity, eating food rich in fats, but low in carbohydrates, increase synthesis: a. ketone bodies b. carbohydrates c. TAG d. fatty acids e. acetyl-CoA 103. During the prolonged fasting, the source of energy for the nervous tissue is: a. ketone bodies b. glucose, fructose c. TAG d. fatty acids e. amino acids 104. With an increase in the rate of beta-oxidation of fatty acids, the following change occurs: a. Krebs cycle reaction speed is reduced b. the reaction rate of the Krebs cycle is increased c. increases ADP and NAD+ d. ATP and NADHH+ decreases e. oxaloacetate reduced to malate 105. For the synthesis of ketone bodies is used: a. acetyl-CoA b. acetoacetate c. monosaccharides d. fatty acids e. amino acids 106. The synthesis of fatty acids and TAGs in the liver and adipose tissue during the absorption period is activated by: a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. norepinephrine e. cortisol 107. During the absorption period, mainly in adipose tissue, fatty acids are used for synthesize of: a. TAG b. cholesterol c. bile acids d. 2-MAG e. hormones 108. The synthesis of fats in the body is stimulated by: a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. growth hormone e. cortisol 109. Fatty acid residues are transported with carnitine across the inner mitochondrial membrane by the enzyme: a. carnitine acyltransferase b. acetyl CoA carboxylase c. fatty acid synthase d. citrate lyase e. acyl-CoA transferase 110. The precursor of all steroids in the human body: a. cholesterol b. chylomicrons c. bile acids d. fat-soluble vitamins e. dietary fats 111. Bile acids are synthesized in the liver from: a. cholesterol b. chylomicrons c. fatty acids d. fat-soluble vitamins e. dietary fat 112. Name the lipoproteins that transport lipids, synthesized in the liver: a. VLDL b. chylomicrons c. HDL d. IDL e. LDL 113. During fasting, prolonged intense physical work, and diabetes mellitus, the following biochemical process is activated: a. synthesis of ketone bodies b. TAG synthesis c. oxidation of ketone bodies d. synthesis of carbohydrates e. fatty acid synthesis 114. TAGs synthesized in the liver are transported by: a. VLDL b. HDL c. LDL d. chylomicrons e. IDL 115. The rate of synthesis of fatty acids is determined by the activity: a. acetyl CoA carboxylase b. HMG-CoA reductase c. 7 alpha-hydroxylase d. glycerol kinase e. lipoprotein lipase 116. An enzyme that regulates cholesterol biosynthesis: a. hydroxy-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase b. hydroxy methylglutaryl CoA lyase c. hydroxy methylglutaryl-CoA synthase d. cholesterol esterase e. lipoprotein lipase 117. Name the metabolite of the pentose phosphate cycle required for the synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol: a. NADPH2 b. ribose-5-phosphate c. ATP d. glucose-6-phosphate e. fructose-6-phosphate 118. Name the allosteric enzyme that regulates the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver: a. HMG-CoA reductase b. HMG-CoA synthetase c. HMG-CoA-lyase d. thiolase e. beta-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase 119. Indicate the process that will be disrupted in the absence of bile acids in the intestine: a. emulsification of fats b. absorption of short chain fatty acids c. digestion of proteins d. digestion and absorption of carbohydrates e. absorption of glycerin 120. Indicate the enzyme that catalyzes the transamination reaction: a. aminotransferase b. transketolase c. transferase d. transaldolase e. carboxylase 121. Coenzyme aminotransferase is a derivative of the vitamin: a. B6 b. B1 c. B2 d. B12 e. B5 122. The degree of liver and heart damage can be determined by the ratio of enzyme activity in the blood serum: a. AST / ALT b. ALT / GLU c. GLU / ALA d. ASP / ALT e. THR / ALT 123. Oxidative deamination of glutamate occurs by the enzyme: a. glutamate dehydrogenase b. glutamate decarboxylase c. glutaminase d. glutamate carboxylase e. glutamate hydratase 124. Decline rate of transamination of amino acids occur with hypovitaminosis: a. B6 b. B1 c. B2 d. C e. H 125. The formation of biogenic amines occur by enzyme: a. decarboxylase b. dehydrogenase c. oxidoreductase d. dehydratase e. carboxylase 126. What are the biogenic amines that act as neurotransmitters: a. gamma aminobutyric acid, serotonin b. insulin, glucagon c. melatonin, adrenaline d. alanine, gamma aminobutyric acid e. serine, glutamate 127. What neurotransmitter is formed from tryptophan: a. serotonin  b. acetylcholine c. GABA d. dopamine e. histamine 128. Indicate the products decarboxylation of tryptophan: a. tryptamine b. histidine c. ethanolamine d. dopamine e. histamine 129. Specify an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of dopamine: a. DOPA decarboxylase b. tyrosine hydroxylase c. tyrosine hydratase d. dopamine hydroxylase e. tyrosine carboxylase 130. Indicate the tissue, where amount of gamma aminobutyric acid is higher: a. brain b. liver c. muscles d. intestine e. kidney 131. What is the function of histamine in the body: a. stimulates the secretion of gastric juice b. regulates basal exchange c. serves as the supplier of alpha-ketoglutarate d. improves blood circulation e. is not a mediator 132. Specify the inactivation ways of dopamine: a. oxidation by MAO enzymes b. by decarboxylation c. by dehydrogenation d. by methylation e. by deamination 133. An intermediate carrier of one-carbon groups: a. H4-folate b. folic acid c. pyridoxal phosphate d. acetyl-CoA e. carnitine 134. The amino acid precursor of porphyrins is: a. glycine b. alanine c. valine  d. glutamine e. phenylalanine 135. The active form of methionine, which is synthesized from methionine and ATP under the action of the enzyme methionine adenosyltransferase: a. S-adenosylmethionine b. methenyl-H4-phosphate c. H4-folate d. pyridoxal phosphate e. S-adenosyl homocysteine 136. In the synthesis of cysteine, the donor of the sulfur atom is: a. methionine b. homocysteine c. homocystine d. serine e. carnitine 137. Specify the amino acids used for the synthesis of creatine: a. arginine, glycine, methionine b. glycine, serine, methionine c. arginine, glycine, glutamine d. cysteine, serine, arginine e. lysine, n-aminobenzoic acid 138. In the metabolism of phenylalanine, a defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase leads to: a. phenylketonuria b. albinism c. alkaptonuria d. Parkinson's disease e. allergic reactions 139. Indicate a compound capable of transferring a methyl group to other compounds: a. methylene H4-folate b. folic acid c. pyridoxal phosphate d. acetyl-CoA e. ascorbate 140. In the structure of S-adenosylmethionine, the methyl group is used to neutralize: a. toxic metabolites of medicinal substances b. bilirubin c. protein decay products d. homocysteine e. creatinine 141. Catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine) are synthesized from: a. tyrosine b. tryptophan c. indole d. carnitine e. creatine  141. Indicate a primary nucleotide, that is formed in the purine nucleotide biosynthesis: IMP 142. The rate of purine nucleotide synthesis determines enzyme: PRPP Synthetase 143 The regulatory enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis: Carbanoyl phosphaste synthetase 2 144. Indicate a metabolic pathway, that ribose-5-phosphate forms for synthesis of nucleic acid :Pentose phosphate pathway 145. In Gout in blood is increased concentration of: Uric acid conc. Increases) 146. The final products of pyrimidine nucleotide degradation: Balanine ammonia/CO2 (Uric Acid and Ammonia) 147. IMP is metabolic precursor for nucleotide synthesis: Amp and Gmp 148. Xanthine is synthesized from nucleotide degradation: GMP (Xanthine) 149. Indicate amino acid,which participates in purine nucleotide synthesis: Glycine 150. Name the metabolite of pentose phosphate cycle, which necessary for nucleotide synthesis: Ribose 5 phosphate 151.596. One of the reasons for the loss of specific functions of proteins is the destruction of the protein structure. Explain what levels of the structural organization of a protein molecule undergo changes and what is the name of this process: (: denaturation) 152.Indicate, a correct definition that characterizes the active center of enzymes: (region involved in catalysis) 153. Oxidoreductases class of enzyme include subclass are: (dehydrogenase\ NAD, FAD, FMN, NADP) 154. Proteases refer to the class of enzyme: (: hydrolases) 155. If the pH of the medium coincides with the isoelectric point of the protein, the protein molecule will be characterized by: (uncharged) 156. Pyruvate carboxylase refers to the class: (synthetases\ligases) 157. Identify the isoenzyme used to diagnose heart disease: (enzyme: creatine kinase\KK) 158. Name the type of reaction, that involves the NAD+ coenzyme: (TTR) (Transthyretin,) or oxidative Restorative 159. Enzymes of biological oxidation of substrates include: (aerobic, anaerobic , dehydrogenases ) 160. Vitamin B2 is an integral part of the coenzyme: (HYPO\Avitaminosis\FAD\FAD) 161. Vitamin C takes part in biochemical processes: (Oxidation-reduction) 162.The coenzyme form of vitamin thiamine: (: thiamine diphosphate ) 163.Deficiency of vitamin B1 leads to the disease: (thiamine deficiency disease ) 164. Vitamin, containing the isoalloxazine ring at the base of the structure: (Riboflavin\B2) 165.A derivative of vitamin PP is a cofactor for enzymes: (NAD) 166. Vitamin riboflavin is involved in biochemical reactions: (substrate dehydrogenation occurs.) 167. The coenzyme form of vitamin B6: (pyridoxal 5'- phosphate, P5P, pyridoxal phosphate ) 168. Vitamin, containing the pyridine ring at the base of the structure: (: niacin equivalent, PP, nicotinic acid, niacin) 169.Vitamin performing the function of a coenzyme, capable of accepting and donating electrons and protons along the isoalloxazine ring: (B2\riboflavin) 170. The composition of rhodopsin contains vitamin. (vitamin A, retinol) 170.Vitamins perform the following functions. (change of cofactor-NADH-dependent reactions to NADPH-dependent reactions ) 171.Active form of the vitamin, which is part of the dehydrogenase enzyme. (NAD+) 172.Vitamin. that includes in the part of carboxylase enzyme: (soluble vitamin B, vitamin H, vitamin B7, coenzyme R, biotin) 173.The complex of unsaturated higher fatty acids is called a vitamin: :( vitamin F) 174.The precursor of vitamin D is a substance:(7-dihydrocholesterol) 175. A derivative of the vitamin biotin in the body is involved in chemical reactions: (addition of a carboxyl group to the substrate molecule ) 176.Chemical structure of vitamin A is: (unsaturated alcohol) 177.Water-soluble vitamins include: (Vitamin C ,vitamins-B) 178.The active form of the vitamin, which is part of the decarboxylase enzyme: (pyridoxal phosphate) 179.Deficiency of folic acid in the body leads to the disease: (megablastic anemia) 180. Vitamin, that participates in the reduction of iron and improves its absorption into the intestines: (Ascorbin) 181.Vitamin containing the pyrimidine and thiazole rings at the base of the structure: (B1) 182. Vitamin that has an antioxidant effect: ( vitamin E) 183.In a patient who received long-term sulfa drugs for the treatment of a bacterial infection, a blood test revealed manifestations of megaloblastic anemia. This may be due to vitamin deficiency. Name the vitamin and the active form of this vitamin: (folic acid\4hydrofolate) 184.Name the process of ATP synthesis, which coupled to oxidation reactions, involving enzymes of tissue respiration: (oxidation to oxidation) 185. Which of the following processes are referred to the common pathway of catabolism: (decarboxylation of pyruvate to oxide ) 186.Which of the following substances are high-energy compounds: (creatine phosphate, ATP, UTF) 187.Indicate the most high-energy compound: (phosphoenolpyruvate) 188.The transfer of electrons to oxygen is carried out by enzymes: (cytochrome oxidases) 189. Active center of respiratory chain enzymes includes the following atoms: (: iron, sulfur,cupper ) 190. The complex that receives electrons from NADH dehydrogenase: (Coenzyme Q10, Ubiquinone) 191.Name the enzyme of the respiratory chain containing cytochromes b and c1: ( iv-Cytochrome oxidase \ QH2-dehydrogenase) 192. According to the classification of complex proteins, cytochromes are referred to: (hemoglobins, cytochromes, peroxidases, hemoproteins) 193.Indicate the enzyme involved in the transfer of electrons from primary donors to the ETC: (Succinate dehydrogenase) 194. The only non-protein carrier in the ETC: (ubiquinone, Coenzyme Q10) 195. An enzyme that transfers electron through FeS centers to ubiquinone: (mitochondrial marker enzyme succinate dehydrogenase) 196. Final metabolite of the respiratory chain is: (H2O) 197. Hydrogen atoms of succinate enter the respiratory chain with the participation of the following compounds: (: NADH flavoprotein) 198. Determine the driving force of proton and electron transport along the respiratory chain: (changes in oxidation-reduction) 199. Name the enzyme of the respiratory chain containing cytochromes a and a3: (cytochrome oxidase\CHO) 200.Indicate the enzyme, the active center of which includes the atoms of both iron and copper: (Cytochrome c oxidase:) 201. What is the cause of death due to cyanide poisoning: (; in inhibition) 202.Name the enzyme in the respiratory chain, the activity of which is sharply reduced in case of carbon monoxide poisoning: (CHO) 203.An inhibitor of the transfer of electrons in the respiratory chain from the first enzyme complex to ubiquinone is: (5-Ethyl-5-isoamylbarbituric acid - barbiturate\amobarbital) 204. Inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase is: (NaCN\KCN \cyanide) 205.Inhibitors of NADH dehydrogenase: (barbiturates\retenone NADFN) 206. The P/O ratio of oxidative phosphorylation is called: (Phosphoric acid (P) used for phosphorylation, respiration ratio to the number of oxygen atoms absorbed during) 207. An enzyme that synthesizes ATP in the process of oxidative phosphorylation: (ATP-synthase) 208. Specify a compound, that is not uncoupler of tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation. (barbiturate) 209.A process, that occurs after the isolation of tissue respiration uncouplers: (ATP synthesis is restored) 210. When tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation are uncoupled, the following occurs: (: the electrochemical potential disappears and ATP synthesis stops) 211. Specify the enzyme of the Krebs cycle: (isocitrate dehydrogenase) 212. Specify the process characterizing this fragment: S → NAD+ → FMN(FAD): (:ETT)( electron transport chain (ETC) 213. The products of oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate are: (acetyl-CoA, CO2, NADH2) 214. Specify the multi-enzyme complexes of the Krebs cycle: (alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase) 215.Determine the vitamin, the derivative of which is a coenzyme of succinate dehydrogenase (B2) 216. The end products of common catabolic pathways are: (CO2,H2O ,NH3) 217. How much ATP molecules are formed, when 1 pyruvate molecule is completely oxidized to CO2 and H2O: (15) 218. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate occurs with the participation of coenzymes: (NAD+, FAD, lipoic acid amide, TDF, CoA) 219. The hydration reaction in the tricarboxylic acid cycle occurs as a result of the transformation: (Fumarate to Malate:) 220. The reaction of substrate phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle occurs as a result of the transformation: (succinyl-CoA to succinate) 221. Function of anaplerotic reaction of the Krebs cycle is: (increased concentration of intermediate metabolites) 222. Choose the correct sequence of metabolites according to their formation in the TCA reactions: (: il-KoA, nat, rat ) 223. Indicate the amount of reduced dehydrogenase coenzymes in the tricarboxylic acid cycle: ( 3 NADN+, 1 FADN2) 224. The central intermediate product of all types of metabolism (proteins, lipids, carbohydrates) is: (Acetyl – CoA) 225. The number of ATP molecules that can be synthesized by complete oxidation of acetyl-CoA in the tricarboxylic acid cycle: (equal to twelve, 12) 226.The tricarboxylic acid cycle is the final common pathway for the oxidation of energy-rich molecules (carbohydrates, amino acids, fatty acids). Indicate with which acid acetyl CoA enters into the first reaction in the TCA: (OAA, 3-carboxy-3-oxopropanoic acid) 227. Indicate the first stage of energy metabolism: (acetyl-CoA decay to ) 228..Indicate the process that occurs in the tricarboxylic acid cycle: (acetyl-CoA, FADN2, ATP 12 ) 229. Where are reduced dehydrogenases of the TCA cycle oxidized: (biological way) 230.1Indicate which process refers to the common pathways of catabolism: (oxidation of acetyl CoA to CO2\H2O) 231. Choose the anabolic process: (GLUCONEOGENESIS\PGT) 232.Indicate the specific pathways of catabolism: (acetyl Oxidation of CoA) 233. Cream with coenzyme Q10 improves cell respiration. Explain in what processes ubiquinone is involved. From the respiratory complexes of which tissues do protons and electrons go to coenzyme Q: (ETT, complex 1 and complex 2) 234. In clinical practice, barbiturates are used as hypnotics. Explain the biochemical mechanism of action of barbiturates on EТC. (barbiturates ETT blocker.) 235. At the second stage of glycolysis, this process occurs: (NAD+) 236. The total number of aerobic glycolysis of glucose to pyruvate is: (8) (two) 237. The number of ATP, which is synthesized during oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate: (3) 238. The energetic effect of pyruvate oxidation per 1 molecule in the common pathway of catabolism is: (15 mol) 239.Indicate the amount of ATP that is formed during anaerobic glycolysis per 1 mole of glucose: (2) 240. In pathological conditions, when the supply of oxygen to tissues is disrupted, the following condition may occur: (: lactic acidosis\L-lactate ) 241. Regulation of the glycolysis rate is determined by the accumulation of this product: (ADF) 242. The energy status of a cell is characterized by this ratio: (ATP-ADP-AMP) 243. The reactions of the second stage of aerobic glycolysis are associated with the formation of the product: (ATP) 244. The formation of fructose-6-phosphate is inhibited by a deficiency of the enzyme: (\ADK with fructokinase) 245. Name the biotin-dependent enzyme of gluconeogenesis: (OAA\PK\Pyruvate carboxylase) 246. Indicate the irreversible reaction of gluconeogenesis: (glucose 6 phosphate glucose) 247.. The intensity of gluconeogenesis is increased by the following hormones: (GK-R) (cortisol and glucagon) 248. Choose the correct statement for the gluconeogenesis:(To pyruvate circulating alanine) 249. Allosteric inhibitor of fructose-1,6- bisphosphatase: (Fructose 2, 6bisphosphate) 250. Pyruvate kinase is converted to the active form by the action of this hormone and the enzyme: (:insulin\PTP-1B\phospho-protein-phosphatase) 251. An allosteric activator of pyruvate carboxylase is: (Acetyl-CoA) 252. Indicate the reaction, that catalyzed by glycerol kinase: (lyserodan-glycerol-3phosphate) 253. Name the substrate of the mitochondrial stage of gluconeogenesis:( Pyruvate\Krbes) 254. Specify, a normal level of glucose in human serum: (: 3.5 - 5.5 mol) 255. An increase in blood glucose levels above normal is called: (Hyperglycemia) 256. Choose a hormone that causes hyperglycemia: (Adrenaline) 257. Choose a hormone, that causes hypoglycemia(insulin) 258. Specify the organ most sensitive to hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting: (MI)(brain) 259. With hyperglycemia caused by a decrease in insulin levels, a violation of the flow of glucose into cells, the process is activated in the cells: (synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors metabolic pathway – gluconeogenesis) 260. Indicate the enzyme, the congenital deficiency of which leads to hypoglycemia in glycogenosis: (glycogen phosphorylase) 261. A liver enzyme needed to maintain blood sugar levels: (Glucose6phosphatase) 262. The formation of ribulose-5-phosphate at the oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway occurs as a result of the reaction: (decarboxylden) 263. Indicate, a reaction leading to the formation of erythroso-4-phosphate and fructose-6-phosphate from sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceroaldehyde-3-phosphate: (Transaldose) 264. An enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of ribulose-5-phosphate to ribose-5-phosphate: (Isomerase) 265. Name the method for modifying glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase: (removal of phosphate groups from a biological compound As a result of dephosphorylation, energy-rich ATP is found adenosine triphosphatase across macroergic membranes ion transport\ phosphorylation and dephosphorylation) 266. Muscle glycogen not involved in maintaining blood glucose levels because: (: due to lack of glucose 6-phosphatase.) 267. To identify ways, which stimulates glycogen degradation by glucagon hormone. (glycogenolysis) 268. Indicate the biological role of glycogen mobilization in the liver: (blood glucose concentration saver) 269. Indicate the organ-specific enzyme of liver: (glucose 6 phosphatase) 270. A hormone, that stimulates the mobilization of glycogen in the liver: (Adrenaline) 271. A hormone that activates glycogen phosphorylase: (Adrenaline) 272. Indicate the final product of the breakdown of glycogen in muscles: (glucose 6 phosphate ) 273.Indicate the chemical bond in the linear regions of the glycogen molecule:( alpha-1\4-glycoside) 274.The donor of apoproteins is: (density high lipoproteins) 275.Removal of excess cholesterol from cells is carried out: (high density Lipoproteins) 276. The reason for the increased content of chylomicrons and VLDL in the blood is a genetic defect of: (LPL\LPL genetic (lipoprotein lipase) 277. Indicate, an effect of insulin on beta-oxidation of fatty acids: (: inhibition) 278. The synthesis of ketone bodies are regulated by:( hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA-synthase \ HMG-CoA- synthase) 279. During fasting, physical activity under the influence of the hormones glucagon and epinephrine, increases the speed: (B oxidation (in fat cells) 280. Beta-oxidation of fatty acid is inhibited by:( malonyl-CoA metabolite) 281.. The transport of dietary fats from the intestine to the tissue is carried out: (Chylomicrons/HM \ecosenic lipid) 282.. In the post-absorptive period, the content of chylomicrons and VLDL in the blood is increased with a genetic defect (enzyme): (: LPL/ Lipoprotein lipase) 283. Of all the complexes that transport lipids, atherogenic ones are: (low-density lp) 284. Calculate the number of ATP, that is formed during the completely beta-oxidation of stearic acid: (147) 285. Specify a product of the first reaction of fatty acid synthesis: (Malonyl-CoA metabolite) 286. The regulatory enzyme of synthesis of fatty acids acetyl-CoA-carboxylase is activated: (dephosphorylated in a way) 287. The regulation of the synthesis of ketone bodies is carried out by an enzyme: (hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA-synthase) 288. Name the products of intracellular hydrolysis TAG: (fatty acid ) 289. Synthesis of cholesterol in the liver is regulated according to the feedback principle. Indicate an inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase: (LIPID/FAT/cholesterol) 290. Name the enzyme, that catalyzes the formation of cholesterol esters: (HLD) 291. Choose a key reaction in the biosynthesis of cholesterol from acetyl-CoA: (: 3,5-dihydroxy-3- methylvaleric acid (mevalon) 292.Indicate the type of lipoproteins containing the highest concentration of cholesterol: (HLD) 293. What enzyme is involved in the formation of cholesterol esters: (Acyl—S— CoA+CarnitineÿAcylcarnitine+CoA-SH (acyltransferase) 294. Excess intake of cholesterol from food leads to: (reduction of HMG-CoA reductase) 295. Risk factors for the development of atherosclerosis are: (increased TTLP) 296. With a lack of the coenzyme tetrahydrobiopterin, the metabolism of amino acids is disrupted: (aromatic ak\phen, tyr, tri) 297. The regulatory enzyme that determines the rate of catecholamine synthesis: (tyrosine-3- monooxygenase\TG) 298.Indicate a substance capable of transferring the formyl group to other compounds: (serine- oxymethyltransferase\H4folate) 299.The methyl group of this amino acid is used in transmethylation reactions: (methionine-oxytocin\ -amino acid) 300. Name an enzymes, which necessary for the inactivation of biogenic amines: (DNMT (methyltransferase) Metabolism Module Physiology _____by Zaid… 1. what the total energy metabolism consists of: 00 + work increase + Specific dynamic effect of food 2.What does the temperature in the armpit and rectum correspond to (C0) 36.5-36.9; 37.2-37.5 32.1-33.0; 39.0-40.0 38.0-38.5; 35.0-36.5 37.0-37.8; 36.1-36.8 35.0-36.1; 38.0-38.7 3. A group of hikers has a considerable distance of desert to cover on foot in mid-July. The air temperature is 38o C and there is no wind.What is the way to maintain thermal homeostasis in such conditions? evaporation of sweat from the surface of the body increasing metabolic processes of the liver narrowing of the lumen of skin vessels thermal radiation convection 4. The maximum daily body temperature is observed: at 16-18 hours of the day at 21-23 pm at 01-02 o'clock at night  at 03-04 am at 09-10 am 5. Which proteins are incomplete: proteins deficient in one or more amino acids proteins containing a complex of fat-soluble vitamins proteins containing all essential amino acids proteins that do not contain vitamins A, D, E, K uncooked proteins 6. What is a positive nitrogen balance? nitrogen input is greater than its output synthesized protein is equal to the amount of decayed incoming nitrogen is less than its output nitrogen input equals nitrogen output increased protein breakdown in the body 7. Which of the following hormones greatly increases heat production? thyroxine insulin STG mineralocorticoids glucagon 8. The sympathetic nervous system was irritated in an experimental animal. What metabolic changes can this lead to? increasing fat breakdown increasing glycogenesis micelle formation  deposition of protein fat deposition 9. The main physiological role of carbohydrates in metabolism: energy antitoxic protective plastic homeostatic 10. What is the specific-dynamic action of food: increase in basal metabolism after meals decrease in basal metabolism after eating dilation of intestinal vessels after eating increase in body temperature after eating stomach relaxation immediately after eating 11. Where are the central thermoreceptors located: hypothalamus, midbrain RF, spinal cord cortex, pons Varoliev bridge in the cerebellum, midbrain ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system 12. What is the caloric coefficient of carbohydrates, in kcal: 4.1 9.3 5.5 4.8  3.5 13. What is the caloric coefficient of fats, in kcal: 9.3 4.1 5.5 4.8 3.5 14. Minimum body temperature: at 03-04 am at 21-23 pm at 16-18 pm at 01-02 o'clock at night at 09-10 am 15. What is the method of direct calorimetry based on: taking into account the amount of heat generated by the body accounting for CO2 emissions on calculations using formulas and tables accounting for absorbed per unit. time O2 and released CO2 atm measurement. Pressure 16. On what is the method of indirect calorimetry based: accounting for absorbed per unit. time O2 and released CO2(calculating oxygen consumption and CO2 production per unit) accounting for CO2 emissions taking into account the amount of heat generated by the body on calculations using formulas and tables atm measurement. Pressure 17. By how many per cent does the basal metabolic rate (BMR) increase after eating a protein meal? a) 29-30% b) 5-10% c) 14-15% d) 3-5% e) 16-20% 18. What is the cause of positive nitrogen balance? body growth/increased intake of N2 reducing protein content in food pathology of the digestive system exhaustive load aging of the body 19. What is the cause of acidic urine? physical activity, meat food physical inactivity, vegetarian food dairy-vegetable food salty food, fruit juices fruits and dairy products 20. A patient who came to see a doctor complains of palpitations, sweating, irritability, weakness and weight loss. On examination HR - 95 beats/min, BP - 130 and 70mmHg. Percentage of deviation of the level of basic metabolism - 33%.What can be caused by deviation of the level of basic metabolism from the norm in this patient? increased levels of thyroid hormones/hyperthyroidism increased amount of parathyroid hormones increase in the amount of thyrocalcitonin in the blood decrease in the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood  decrease in the level of iodine-containing thyroid hormones 21. effector centres of chemical thermoregulation is located in: posterior group of hypothalamic nuclei spinal cord midbrain cerebellum anterior nuclei of the hypothalamus 22. The effector centres of physical thermoregulation are located in: anterior nuclei of the hypothalamus spinal cord posterior group of hypothalamic nuclei midbrain cerebellum 23. What is understood by chemical thermoregulation? metabolic intensity heat conduction heat radiation convection evaporation 24.Heat generation in muscles during heavy muscular work increases by 400% 10% 20% 50% 80% 25. What is the coefficient of physical activity in persons of mental labour? 1.4 1.6  2.5 2,2 1.9 26. Cold receptors of the skin are characterised by high speed of excitation and surface location mechanical irritation highest density on the back low speed of excitation and deeper location in the skin no ability to adapt 27. Thermal receptors of the skin are characterised by low speed of excitation and deeper location in the skin mechanical irritation high speed of excitation and surface location highest density on the back no ability to adapt 28. What are the end products of protein dissimilation? urea, uric acid, creatinine, indican carbon dioxide, water amino acids amino acids, urea, water carbon dioxide, creatinine 29. Energy value of 1 gram of protein: 4.1 kcal 9.3 kcal 5.5 kcal 4.8 kcal 3.5 kcal 30. Receptors sensitive to temperature fluctuations are located in the brain: hypothalamus (preoptic zones, midbrain RF, spinal cord cortex, pons Varoliev bridge  in the cerebellum, midbrain ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system 31. The energy source of ATP in the body: anaerobic glycolysis hydrolysis of nutrients in the intestine oxidative phosphorylation(ADP+Pi) energy of photosynthesis energy of the sun’s rays 32. How is heat released from the surface of the skin at air temperatures above 34o C ? evaporation of sweat convection heat radiation heat conduction with exhaled air 33. What is the main way heat is released from the skin surface at comfort temperature ? heat conduction convection evaporation of sweat heat radiation with exhaled air 34. The physiological mechanism of regulation of heat release by heat radiation consists of in changing skin temperature through capillary blood flow// vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels change in sweating breathing frequency change in frequency of urination conscious change in the area of open areas of the body 35. The regulation of contractile thermogenesis occurs through the extrapyramidal tract and pyramidal tract on alpha motor neurons of the spinal cord change breathing rate activation of the metasympathetic system  inhibition of fat metabolism changing the area of open areas of the body 36. Regulation of non-contractile thermogenesis occurs through: change in metabolic rate change in heat transfer change in skeletal muscle tone the occurrence of cold shivering change in voluntary motor activity 37. What does the value of the respiratory quotient depend on? a.Nutrient ratios in the diet b.Oxygen caloric equivalent values c.Tidal volume values d.Values of minute volume of respiration e.Thermal coefficient of essential nutrients 38. In a young healthy woman of 25 years of age with a dietary intake of 120 g of protein per day, 16 g of nitrogen was excreted with urine during the same time. What assumption about the woman's condition can be made? Positive nitrogen balance, pregnancy Negative nitrogen balance, protein starvation Positive nitrogen balance, rehabilitation after a serious illness Positive nitrogen balance, active formation of cellular structures Negative nitrogen balance, pregnancy 39. The energy expenditure of the organism under physiological resting conditions in the supine position, on an empty stomach, at a temperature of comfort is exchange: Main//Basal metabolic rate (BMR) Worker Specific-dynamic Thermal Energy 40. In artificial (medical) hypothermia, the body temperature is reduced to 30oC. Under this condition in the body: Oxygen consumption decreases and tissue resistance to oxygen deficiency increasesm,heart suspends temporarily Oxygen consumption increases to compensate for cooling The excitability of nervous and muscle tissue increases Heart rate increases  The tone of the sympathetic nervous system increases 41. Contractile thermogenesis is associated primordially: With changes in the tone and physical contractions of skeletal muscles With changes in the activity of smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract With skin blood flow With the work of the respiratory muscles With the work of internal organs 42. A man consumed 100 g of protein per day. At the same time, he was in nitrogenous equilibrium. He then switched to a diet with a daily protein content of 500 g. If nitrogen balance is determined in the 3rd week of this diet, how will his nitrogen excretion change: increased 5 times; nitrogen balance increased, but still not in accordance with the arrival; positive nitrogen balance has not changed; positive nitrogen balance decreased, positive nitrogen balance increased 5 times; negative nitrogen balance 43. The respiratory quotient (RQ) in humans is 1 for carbohydrates, 0.8 for proteins, and 0.7 for fats. Under what conditions can the DR be less than 0.7? During recovery after intense physical work Immediately after the start of intense physical work When fats, proteins and carbohydrates are oxidized simultaneously This is impossible, because… DC equal to 0.7 – minimum During intense mental work. 44. Can the urine of a person who does not eat protein contain nitrogen? Yes, always No, never Unknown, depends on the duration of protein fasting  Unknown, depends on initial body weight Unknown, depends on the gender and age of the person 45. It is not recommended to eat a lot of meat in hot weather. Why? Since the body’s energy consumption increases significantly due to the pronounced specificdynamic action of proteins Or Eating meat increases the body's metabolic rate, , producing more heat and making it harder to stay cool. Due to the fact that proteins have the highest caloric equivalent compared to carbohydratesand fats Due to the fact that at high temperatures enzymes that digest proteins do not work well Due to the fact that the body spends a lot of energy on its own cooling and is not able tofully digest proteins Since as a result of the digestion of proteins, many toxic metabolic products are formed thatnegatively affect thermoregulation 46. Is it safe to say that the more sweat the body produces, the better it cools itself? No, because excessive sweating leads to it flowing down the skin, but not to an increase inevaporation, and cooling leads to evaporation Yes, because sweating is the most important heat transfer mechanism Yes, because sweat flowing down the skin cools the body like cold water No, because in high temperature conditions the main cooling mechanism becomes heatconduction No, because evaporation, which is initiated by sweating, is not the main mechanism for heatloss 47. If a hand is held in water of temperature 27oC., then at the first moment when the hand is transferred to water of 25oC. it seems cold. What is the name of the observed phenomenon? Temperature contrast Accommodation True absolute temperature estimate Hypersensitivity Refraction 48. Assimilation is synthesis of complex substances decomposition of complex substances synthesis of simple substances acid breakdown base splitting 49. In pregnancy is observed: positive nitrogen balance or Increased production of progesterone and estrogen negative nitrogen balance absence of nitrogen balance disturbance multiphase changes in nitrogen balance two-phase changes in nitrogen balance 50. Heat production and heat release in homoeothermic animals when the ambient temperature increases Heat production decreases, heat transfer increases. Or decreases decreases increases decreases increases increases does not change does not change 51. Heat balance is: stationary state of heat exchange with the external environment without changing thecontent Body heat heat production during metabolism  heat dissipation into the surrounding space violation of the thermoregulation mechanism exchange of thermal energy of the body with the external environment 52. The main role in heat production is played by.... muscles, liver, gastrointestinal tract muscles, liver, skin liver, heart, lungs liver, gastrointestinal tract, lungs muscles, connective tissue, fatty tissue 53. What causes a positive nitrogen balance? a) reducing the amount of protein in food/ b) pathology of the digestive system c) overload/ d) aging of the body e) body growth 54. What is chemical thermoregulation? a) metabolic rate/ b) thermal conductivity/ c) thermal radiation d) convection// e) sweating 55. Standard conditions for determining basal metabolism a) muscular and mental rest, during sleep, on an empty stomach, at a temperature of 23-25°C; b) muscular and mental rest, in a state of wakefulness, 2 hours after eating, at a temperature of 18- 20°C; c) in a state of wakefulness, when performing a moderate muscular load, on an empty stomach, at a temperature of 18-20°C; d) muscle rest, under the influence of extraneous stimuli, on an empty stomach, while awake, at a temperature of 18-20°C; +e) muscular and mental rest, in a state of wakefulness, on an empty stomach, at a temperature of 18-20°C. 56. Method of direct accounting of the amount of heat in biocalorimeters,Secreted by the body is called: a) closed method of indirect calorimetry; b) direct calorimetry; c) open method of indirect calorimetry; d) study of gross exchange; e) method of incomplete gas analysis. 57. The process of dissimilation should be understood as: a) the process of decay of living matter, as a result of which energy is released; b) removal of breakdown products from the body; c) absorption of nutrients through the intestinal wall; d) supply of nutrients to the body; e) synthesis of complex high-molecular compounds. 58. During the oxidation of which of the nutrients is the caloric equivalent Oxygen has the greatest value?: a) during the oxidation of proteins; b) during the oxidation of fats; c) during the oxidation of carbohydrates; d) during the oxidation of a mixture of equal amounts of proteins, fats and carbohydrates; e) does not depend on the nature of substances. 59. How much heat is lost by the body during evaporation from the surface of the skin 1 ml of water?: a) 56 kcal; b) 5.6 kcal; c) 0.056 kcal; d) 0.58 kcal; e) 560 kcal. 60. Respiratory coefficient is the ratio of: a) the volume of released O2 to the volume of absorbed CO2; b) the volume of released CO2 to the volume of absorbed O2; c) the volume of released CO2 to the volume of exhaled O2; d) the volume of exhaled CO2 to the volume of absorbed O2; e) the volume of released CO2 to the volume of absorbed CO2. 61. Basic metabolism is/ The main exchange is:: a) energy expenditure of the body when performing muscular work; b) energy expenditure of the body when eating; +c) energy expenditure of the body in conditions of muscular and mental rest; d) energy expenditure of the body when the ambient temperature changes; e) energy expenditure of the body when atmospheric pressure changes. 62. Caloric coefficient is: a) the amount of energy released during the combustion of 100 g of a substance; b) the amount of heat released during the combustion of 1 g of a substance; c) the amount of heat released during the combustion of 50 g of a substance; d) the amount of energy released during the combustion of 25 g of a substance; e) the amount of energy released during the combustion of 75 g of a substance. 63. The amount of heat released when 1 liter of oxygen is consumed is Name: a) respiratory coefficient; b) caloric equivalent of oxygen; c) isodynamics; d) thermal coefficient of nutrients; e) caloric coefficient. 64. Higher centers of carbohydrate metabolism are located in: a) thalamus; b) epithalamus; c) hypothalamus; d) red nuclei; e) substantia nigra. 65. The amount of heat released when 1 liter of oxygen is consumed is Name: a) respiratory coefficient; b) caloric equivalent of oxygen; c) isodynamics; d) thermal coefficient of nutrients; e) caloric coefficient. 66. The average daily requirement for fat for an adult is (in Grams): a) 70-100 g; b) 115-130 g; c) 135 -150g; d) 155 -170g; d) 175-190 g 67. The effect of food intake, which increases metabolism and energy expenditure, Called: a) trophic; b) anabolic; c) catabolic; d) adaptive; e) specifically dynamic.. 68. The amount of basal metabolism per day (in kcal) in a middle-aged person and with Average body weight: a) in old age; b) during periods of stress; c) during fasting; d) during the acute period of illness; e) with a significant increase in protein content in food 69. A positive nitrogen balance is observed in the human body: a) in old age; b) during periods of stress; c) during fasting; d) during the acute period of illness; e) with a significant increase in protein content in food 70. A person will experience a negative nitrogen balance: a) with a significant decrease in protein content in food; b) during pregnancy; c) during the period of growth; d) with a significant increase in protein content in food; d) during the period of recovery after illness. 71. The process of assimilation should be understood as: a) absorption of nutrients through the intestinal wall; b) supply of nutrients to the body; c) removal of breakdown products from the body; d) synthesis of complex high-molecular compounds; e) the process of decay of living matter, as a result of which energy is released. 72. Indicate the normal value of the caloric coefficient of carbohydrates (kcal): a) 9.3; b) 5.4; c) 4.1; d) 8.6; e) 6.4. 73. The respiratory coefficient for the oxidation of carbohydrates is: a) 0.7; b) 0.8; c) 0.9; d) 1.0; e) 0.6 74. The digestibility of animal food is (in%): a) 30%; b) 40%; c) 95%; d) 55%; e) 60% 75. The digestibility of plant foods is (in%): a) 30%; b) 35%; c) 80%; d) 50%; e) 100% didn’t find the remaining questions …searching for them…Will update if I find the rest… Peace Out