Organic Chemistry-III Practice Questions PDF

THIRD YEAR SEMESTER EXAMINATION Third Year B.Pharm. Semester-V SUBJECT- BPH_C_501_T-Organic Chemistry-III Practice questions 1. Skraup synthesis is used to synthesize which of the following heterocycles? a. Isoquinoline...

THIRD YEAR SEMESTER EXAMINATION Third Year B.Pharm. Semester-V SUBJECT- BPH_C_501_T-Organic Chemistry-III Practice questions 1. Skraup synthesis is used to synthesize which of the following heterocycles? a. Isoquinoline b. Quinoline c. Indole d. Imidazole 2. Which of the following sentence is correct. a. Pyridine is more basic than aniline b. Aniline is more basic than quinoline c. Pyridine and aniline is equally basic d. All of the above 3. Reaction of Imidazole with HNO3/H2SO4 gives following products. a. 2-Nitroimidazole b. 4-Nitroimidazole c. 1-Nitroimidazole d. All of the above 4. Which of the following heterocycles is most aromatic in nature. a. Furan b. Pyrrole c. Thiophene d. All of the above 5. Elctrophilic Substitution reaction in furan occurs at which position a. 1st position b. 2nd position c. 3rd position d. All of the above 6. Reaction of Quinoline to 2-Aminoquinoline which if the following reagents is used a. NaNH2 / Liquid Ammonia b. Sodium azide c. Ammonia d. None of the above 7. What is the name of starting material used for Paal-Knoor synthesis of Furan? a. 1,4-diketo compound b. 1,5-diketo compound c. All of the above d. None of the above 8. Following is the correct order of aromaticity. a. Thiophene > Pyrrole > Furan b. Thiophene < Pyrrole < Furan c. Furan > Pyrrole > Thiophene d. Pyrrole > Furan > Thiophene 9. Identify the product for following reaction. a. Pyridine-3-carboxylic acid b. Pyridine-2,3-dicarbaldehyde c. Pyridine-N-oxide d. All of the above 10. Which of the following is Non-aromatic in nature. a. 2,3-dihydropyrrole b. Piperidine c. 3,4-dihydrofuran d. All of the above 11. Identify the phenolic group containing amino acid from the following a. Leucine b. Tyrosine c. Tryptophan d. Asparagine 12. A propylene polymer in which methyl groups have alternate positions along the chain of the polymer is known as: a. Syndiotactic polymers b. Isotactic polymers c. Atactic polymers d. None of the above 13. Thermoplastics are polymers that are a. Hard at room temperature but become soft and viscous when heated b. That are highly cross-linked c. Solidify into a hard, insoluble mass when heated d. All of the above 14. Reductive amination of pyruvic acid, using ammonia and NaBH4, gives which of the following amino acids? a. Glycine b. Valine c. Alanine  d. Proline 15. Isobutyrl group is used to protect which nucleic acid base: a. Thymine b. Adenine c. Cytosine d. Guanine 16. Steroidal ester hydrolysis exhibits following order of reactivity: a. Axial groups are hydrolyzed faster than equatorial groups b. Equatorial groups are hydrolyzed faster than axial groups c. Both axial and equatorial groups are hydrolyzed at the same rate d. The rate of hydrolysis is independent of the orientation of the group 17. Action of potassium acetate on 3β-Tosyl derivative of cholesterol in aqueous acetone gives: a. 6β-Acetoxy-3α,5α-cyclocholestane b. 6β-Acetoxy-5α-cyclocholestane c. 3β-Acetoxy-5α-cyclocholestane d. 3α-Acetoxy-5α-cyclocholestane 18. The hormone cortisone contains the steroid core as: a. Estrane b. Andrsotane c. Cholestane d. Pregnane 19. Bromination of 5α-Cholestan-3-one gives a a. 5-bromo derivative b. 2-bromo derivative c. 4-bromo derivate d. 3-bromo derivative 20. Catalytic hydrogenation of steroidal ketones when carried out under neutral conditions will give: a. Axial alcohol b. Trans-diaxial diol c. Equitorial alcohol d. Trans-di equatorial diol  Answers for MCQs: 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)  THIRD YEAR UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION AY 2020-2021 Third Year B.Pharm Semester V SUBJECT - BPH_C_502_T- Pharmaceutics II Practice Questions 1) Acacia is an emulsifying agent of a class of: a) Surfactants b) Polysaccharides c) Sterol containing substance d) Finely divided solids 2) Ratio of oil: water: gum for Mineral oil Emulsion is a) 4:2:1 b) 3:2:1 c) 1:2:1 d) 2:2:1 3) ‘Small particles in suspension seem to disappear and large particles grow after repeated temperature cycling’ refers to a) Stoke’s law b) Ostwald ripening c) Gibbs equation d) Stokes Einstein Law 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa can contaminate cosmetic products having pH: a) 6-8 b) 3-5 c) 6-10 d) 3-11 5) Schedule M(II) of D and C Act: a) lists the colors used in Cosmetics b) gives the guideline for manufacturing Cosmetics c) is a list of Cosmetic Products d) gives labelling details for cosmetic products 6) Oral pharmaceutical Suspensions are: a) Thermodynamically stable b) Thermodynamically unstable c) kinetically unstable 7) Dispersed phase in a biphasic liquid is: a) Internal phase b) External phase c) Emulsifier d) Viscolizer 8) An emulsifier having a HLB value of 12 promotes formation of: a) o/w emulsion b) w/o emulsion c) microemulsion d) Multiple emulsion 9) Deflocculated suspensions tend to exhibit: a) plastic or pseudoplastic flow b) dilatant flow c) plastic flow b) pseudoplastic flow 10) List of Cosmetic products to be manufactured as per recommended standards is given in: a) Schedule M b) Schedule Q c) Schedule S d) Schedule M (II) 11) A stable suspension with a low rate of sedimentation can be obtained by: a) by reducing the size of the dispersed particles and by increasing viscosity of the dispersion/continuous phase b) by reducing the size of the dispersed particles and viscosity of the dispersion/continuous phase c) by increasing the size of the dispersed particles and viscosity of the dispersion/continuous phase d) by increasing the size of the dispersed particles and by decreasing viscosity of the dispersion/continuous phase 12) Electrolytes such as KCl and NaCl are: a) Flocculating agents b) Dispersants c) Deflocculating agents d) Wetting agents 13) DLVO theory explains: a) Rate of sedimentation b) Wetting phenomenon c) Particle-particle interactions d) rate of precipitation 14) Permeation of drug through skin is directly proportional to a) partition coefficient b) molecular size c) molecular weight d) particle size 15) Following is the dosage form intended for rectal administration a) Tablet b) Capsule c) Lozenge d) Suppository 16) Following are the examples of Hydrocarbon bases except a) ozokerite b) mineral oil c) petrolatum d) lanolin 17) Drug penetration through skin can be altered by: a) by decreasing resistance of stratum corneum b) by changing hydration of stratum corneum c) by changing the structure of lipids d) All of the above 18) Following factors affect systemic absorption of drug following rectal administration except a) pKa of drug b) lipid water partition coefficient c) colonic fluid d) gastrointestinal pH 19)Following are the commonly used suppository bases except: a) Cocoa butter b) Gelatin c) Polyethylene Glycol d) Lanolin 20) Following are the objectives of performing sensorial testing except: a. interpret responses to the product based on senses b. the testing is done to assess the overall acceptance of consumers c. Sensorial testing is done on cosmetic products d. sensorial testing is done to check the safety of product 21) Following is the commonly used propellant in aerosols : a. Nitrogen b. Neon c. Hydrofluoroalkanes d. Oxygen 22) Following are the tests performed in sensitivity testing of cosmetic except: a. Diagnostic test b. Prophetic Patch test c. Photopatch test d. Softness test 23) Following is the quality control tests performed on aerosols: a. Disintegration b. Melting point c. Discharge rate d. Dissolution 24) Aerosol pack comprises of the following except a. Can b. Metering valve c. Actuator d. Bottle 25) Following is the quality control test performed on suppositories: a. Melting point b. Discharge rate c. Flash point d. Disintegration 26) Semisolids are evaluated for the following tests except: a. pH b. viscosity c. spreadability d. crushing strength  Practice Questions Answer Key Question No Answer 1 b 2 b 3 b 4 d 5 b 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 c 11 a 12 a 13 c 14 a 15 d 16 d 17 d 18 d 19 d 20 d 21 c 22 d 23 c 24 d 25 a 26 d Examination name and AY : THIRD YEAR UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION 2020-21 Course and Semester: Third Year B. Pharm. Semester V Subject code and name: BPH_C_503_T- Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Practice Question Bank Each question is of 2 marks Q.1 In Air lift fermenter: a) the stirring is done using air at high speed b) the stirring is done using mechanical stirrer c) stirring is not required d) stirring is done after the completion of fermentation using mechanical stirrer. Q.2 It the part of Downstream process: a) Equipment sterilization b) Media formulation c) Recovery and purification d) Inoculum preparation Q.3 Oral polio vaccine (sabin) is a: a) Killed vaccine b) Live vaccine c) Subunit vaccine d) Bacterial product vaccine Q.4 BCG VACCINE is used for protection against the disease: a) Malaria b) Typhoid c) Tuberculosis d) Plague Q.5 Restriction enzymes are called as : a) Molecular scissors b) Molecular glue c) Ligase enzymes d) Polymerase enzymes Q.6 which type of restriction enzymes are used in recombinant DNA experiments: a) Type-I b) Type-II c) Type-III d) Type-IV Q.7 Function of Ligase enzyme is to a) Isolate a specific gene sequence from a genome. b) Join a foreign gene in a vector c) Extend a gene sequence by addition of nucleotides d) Protect the self DNA Q.8 Plasmid is obtained from a) Virus b) Bacteria c) Yeast d) Molds Q.9 Cosmid is obtained from a) Bacteria and Virus b) Virus and Yeast c) Yeast and bacteria d) Molds and Virus Q.10 Post translational modifications are absent in a) Bacteria b) Yeasts c) Molds d) Protozoa Q.11 The first step in the PCR is called as a) Annealing b) Denaturation c) Extension d) Priming Q. 12 Using enzyme immobilization methods a) Enzymes cannot be reused b) Enzymes can be reused only once c) Enzymes can be reused several times d) Enzymes can be reused two times only Q.13 Enzyme immobilization is a a) highly toxic process b) Eco-friendly process C) Sometimes it becomes eco-friendly process d) always non eco-friendly process Q.14 In the microencapsulation method of enzyme immobilization a) Enzymes come out of the capsule and react with the substrate and go back again into the capsule. b) the substrate enters the capsule and is converted into the product c) The capsule dissolves into the reaction mixture d) the product formed does not come out of the capsule. Q.15 In a biosensor a) Cells cannot be immobilised b) Both cells and enzymes can be immobilised but one at a time for a particular biosensor. c) Enzymes cannot be immobilised. d) Neither enzymes nor cells are immobilised. Q.16 A transducer in a biosensor a) displays the signal b) coverts the interaction between the analyte and the immobilized enzymes and into a measurable signal. c) is used as a bioreceptor d) is an optional part which is rarely used Q.17 Using western blotting technique a) DNA is identified b) Protein is identified c) RNA is identified d) small nucleotide fragments are identified Q.18 sodium dodecyl sulphate is a) an anionic detergent b) a strong cationic detergent c) a weak cationic detergent d) not a detergent Q.19 Stem cells are collected from a) the umbilical cord b) the lungs c) the liver d) the heart Q.20 From the bioinformatics tool Protein data bank ( PDB) a) all the protein files can be freely downloaded b) only few files can be freely downloaded c) all the files are paid files d) some protein files are paid and some are free to download Answer key: Q.1-a Q.2-c Q.3-b Q.4-c Q.5-a Q.6-b Q.7-b Q.8-b Q.9. –a Q.10-a Q.11-b Q.12-c Q.13-b Q.14-b Q.15-b Q.16-b Q.17-b Q.18-a Q.19-a Q.20-a  On behalf of University of Mumbai Centre: SVKM's Dr.Bhanuben Nanavati College of Pharmacy, College Code:048 Third YEAR B. PHARM SEMESTER V CBCS, PRATICE QUESTIONS Subject: Pharmacology Max Marks: 40 Total Questions: 20 Multiple choice questions (Each carry 2Marks) 1. The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal b) Inhibition of translocase activity c) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl – tRNA to bacterial ribosomes d) Inhibition of DNA–dependent RNA polymerase 2. Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice in a) Staphylococcal infection b) Viral infection c) Amoebic dysentery d) Salmonella infection 3. Drug which interfere with the bacterial cell wall synthesis is a) Chloramphenicol b) Tetracycline c) Macrolide d) Penicillins and cephalosporins 4. Superinfections are more common with a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics b) Short courses of antibiotics c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria 5. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that a. Requires pyridoxine supplementation b. May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red c. Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued d. May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic 6. Cyclosporine is used for a. Allergies b. Angina c. Prevention of transplant rejection d. Steroid deficiency  On behalf of University of Mumbai Centre: SVKM's Dr.Bhanuben Nanavati College of Pharmacy, College Code:048 7. Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur 8. Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms 9. Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system 10. Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble (c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections 11. The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is (a) Benzathine penicillin (b) Sodium penicillin (c) Potassium penicillin (d) Procaine penicillin 12. Antiviral agents that are active against cytomegalovirus (CMV) include which of the following? I. Ganciclovir II. Foscarnet III. Acyclovir (a) Only I is correct (b) Only III is correct (c) I and II are correct (d) I, II and III are correct 13. Which one of the following agents is not used in oral or implantable contraceptives? (a) Clomiphene (b) Ethinyl estradiol (c) Mestranol (d) Norethindrone  On behalf of University of Mumbai ATKT EXAMINATION (THEORY) Centre: SVKM's Dr.Bhanuben Nanavati College of Pharmacy, College Code:048 14. Which of the following preparations is used to attain remission of thyrotoxicosis? (a) Propranolol (b) Liotrix (c) Levothyroxine (d) Propylthiouracil 15. Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3-4 cycles of continued use (a) Glucose intolerance (b) Rise in blood pressure (c) Headache (d) Fluid retention 16. The duration of action of insulin–zinc suspension (lente insulin) is (a) 2–4 hours (b) 8–10 hours (c) 20–24 hours (d) 30–36 hours 17. Sulfonylureas are more commonly used than biguanides as oral hypoglycaemics because (a) Biguanides are less efficacious (b) Sulfonylureas lower blood sugar in both IDDM and NIDDM patients (c) Sulfonylureas also aid weight reduction in obese diabetics (d) Biguanides are prone to precipitate ketoacidosis 18. Which fibrioolytic drug(s) is/are antigenic (a) Streptokinase (b) Urokinase (c) Alteplase (d) Both (a) and (b) 19. Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of (a) Clotting factors in liver (b) Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium (c) Cyclic AMP in platelets (d) Thromboxane A2 in platelets 20. Contraindications to bisphosphonates include all expect: a. History of hypersensitivity to the bisphosphonate b. Hypocalcemia c. Chronic kidney disease d. Myasthenia gravis  On behalf of University of Mumbai ATKT EXAMINATION (THEORY) Centre: SVKM's Dr.Bhanuben Nanavati College of Pharmacy, College Code:048 Answers key 1. c 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. d  On behalf of University of Mumbai ATKT EXAMINATION (THEORY) Centre: SVKM's Dr.Bhanuben Nanavati College of Pharmacy, College Code:048  THIRD YEAR UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION AY 2020-2021 Third Year B.Pharm Semester V SUBJECT - BPH_E_512_T- Cosmeticology Practice Questions 1) Cold creams are traditionally based on : a) Stearic acid and Sodium hydroxide b) Borax-beeswax c) Stearic acid and Triethanolamine d) Anhydrous systems 2) Blush test is a Quality control test for: a) Nail lacquers b) Lipsticks c) Skin creams d) Shampoos 3) Nitrocellulose in nail lacquers is a a) Secondary film former b) Primary film former c) Plasticizer d) Emulsifier 4) UVB spectrum ranges from a) 300-340 nm b) 320-340 nm c) 290-320 nm d) 290-400 nm 5) SPF is defined as a) MED (PS—protected skin) / MED (US—unprotected skin) b) MED (PS—protected skin) c) MED (US—unprotected skin) d) MED (US—unprotected skin) / MED (PS—protected skin) 6) BIS Drying time limit for nail polish is: a) 2 minutes b) 4 minutes c) 1 minute d) 6 minutes 7) Coupler solvents are: a) Active solvents b) latent solvents c) Diluents d) True solvents 8) Carnauba wax is an example of a) Vegetable wax b) Animal wax c) Hydrocarbon wax d) Mineral wax 9) Halogenated derivatives of fluorescein are: a) Inorganic pigments b) Organic pigments c) Staining dyes d) Natural colors 10) Crinkling wrinkles are: a) fine wrinkles commonly seen on the unexposed skin of elderly people b) wrinkles caused due to UV exposure c) wrinkles caused by pollution d) fine wrinkles seen on the nape of the neck 11) Quaternary ammonium compounds are effective as preservatives in a) acidic creams b) alkaline cream products c) At any pH d) at neutral pH 12) One of the properties of a face pack is: a) To impart desired color to the skin b) To help the skin tan c) To absorb the malodors d) To leave a coat on the face which rejuvenates the skin on drying 13) Lipsticks BIS specification for the number of microbes per gram is: A) NMT 60 B) NMT 500 C) NMT100 D) NMT 1000 14) In case of depilatories containing thioglycollate following statement is an exception A) Depilatories containing thioglycollate have alkaline pH. B) They are safe at concentration range between 2-5% C) Depilation effect seen in 15 minutes. D) Depilatories based on thioglycollate cannot be applied on face. 15) In case of abrasives used in dentifrice following statement is not applicable A) Particle size, shape, brittleness, hardness have strong impact on abrasivity and cleansing effect y. B) The optimum particle size of Calcium Carbonate for effective cleansing is 2-20 μ C) Calcium Pyrophosphate is not the preferred abrasive in Fluoride containing medicated dentifrice. D) Dicalcium Phosphate dehydrate is available in metastable form 16) The role of super-fatting agents in the shaving creams includes the following except: A) to neutralize the alkali B) to stabilize the cream C) to stabilize the lather D) to provide alkaline pH 17) Following is the correct sequence of hair waving & perming A) Oxidation, Reduction, Shampooing, Hair waving B) Shampooing, Oxidation, Reduction, Hair waving C) Shampooing, Reduction, Oxidation, Hair waving D) Hair waving, Reduction, Oxidation, Shampooing 18) Following are the surfactants used in baby shampoos except: A) Sulphosuccinates B) Cocamidopropylbetaine C) PEG 80 Sorbitan laurate D) Alpha olefin sulphonates 19) Amphoteric surfactants show irritation in ______ solution A) alkaline B) acidic C) hypotonic D) hypertonic 20) Hair rinses are classified as A) Permanent hair colours B) Semi-permanent hair colours C) Hair straightener D) Hair waving products 21) In case of hair dyes and hair care cosmetics following test is performed A) Open patch test B) Closed patch test C) Photosensitization D) Photoallergy 22) Following points are applicable for floating bath oils except A) They leave thin film on body. B) They contain Light mineral oil, Iso propyl myristate C) They reduce foaming of soaps d) They increase foaming of soaps 23) Cetyl alcohol is used as ----------------- in shampoos A) Viscolizer B) Sequesterant C) Clarifying Agent D) Opacifier 24) Non -alcoholic aftershave lotions contain the following except: A) Astringents B) Denaturants C) Emollients D) Antiseptic agents 25) Sensorial testing involve following tests except: A) Discriminative B) Descriptive C) Hedonic D) Sensitivity  Answer key - Practice Questions Question No Answer 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. D  Subject: Packaging of Pharmaceuticals Sem-V (CBCS syllabus) Select correct answer for the following Multiple Choice Questions. 1. Type II glass is called as 2 a General soda lime glass b NP glass c BS glass d Treated Soda lime glass 2. Thermoplastics are (Choose correct option) 2 a Gets softened on heating b can be molded c does not degraded by repeated heating d all of the above 3. The package that comes in contact with formulation directly is called 2 a Primary package b Secondary package c. Primary and Secondary package d Tertiary package 4. Number '6' on plastic containers refers that it is manufactured using 2 a Polyethylene b Polystyrene c Polyvinyl d polypropylene 5. Cullets are 2 a broken glass pieces b broken metal pieces c broken glass and metal pieces d broken plastic pieces  Subject: Packaging of Pharmaceuticals Sem-V (CBCS syllabus) 6. Regular Soda Lime Glass is ------ glass and releases --------- in comparison to 2 the treated soda lime glass a Type II and acid b Type II and alkali c Type III and acid d Type III and alkali 7. Uncoated steel is called 2 a Black plate b White plate c Tin plate d Steel plate 8. Plastic containers are sterilised using ----------- 2 a Autoclave b Bleach c Ethylene oxide d All of the above 9. Caps that have threads that engage with the corresponding threads on the 2 neck of the bottle are called as a Friction caps b Screw caps c Push caps d Press on caps 10. In comparison with blister, strips occupy 2 a Lesser volume b Greater volume c Same volume d. Too less volume  Subject: Packaging of Pharmaceuticals Sem-V (CBCS syllabus) 11. Double wall corrugated fiberboard has 2 a One liner b Two liner c Three liner d Four line 12. Water-based inks are prefered over solvent-based inks due to 2 a Lesser drying time b More pigment solubility c Environment friendly d Cost effective 13. Parison is converted into plastic container by 2 a Blow molding b Injection molding c Injection and blow molding d None of the above 14 Bubble test is used as a quality control test for 2 a. Sache b. Plastic container c. Glass container d. Blister pack 15. Which statement is false about the cold forming blister packs in comparison to 2 thermoforming blister packs a. Faster speed of production compared to thermoforming b. The lack of transparency of the package c. The larger size of cold forming blister card d. All of the above  Subject: Packaging of Pharmaceuticals Sem-V (CBCS syllabus) 16. Which of the following is not a component of corrugated fiber board 2 Flute Liner Plastic wrap Adhesive 17. Identify the packaging material that is tamper evident 2 Aerosol Blister packs Bubble packs All of the above 18. According to the stability studies guidelines of ICH photostablity studies need 2 to be carried out on ------- batches of products a One b Two c Three d Four 19. Identify the correct property of thermoset plastics 2 a Highly recycled. b Less resistant against high temperature c Can be remolded or reshaped. d May softened when heated 20. Aerosol containers are manufactured using which metal 2 a Tin plate b Aluminium c Brass d All of these  Subject: Packaging of Pharmaceuticals Sem-V (CBCS syllabus) Answer Key 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (b)