MCQ Question Bank PDF

1. Which of the following best describes the ureter in the renal hilum? A. Most posterior structure B. Most dilated structure C. Most inferior structure D. Most Lateral ANSWER: A 2. Which statement of the following describes the relations of kidneys? A. Diaphragm is directly relate...

1. Which of the following best describes the ureter in the renal hilum? A. Most posterior structure B. Most dilated structure C. Most inferior structure D. Most Lateral ANSWER: A 2. Which statement of the following describes the relations of kidneys? A. Diaphragm is directly related to the superior part of both kidneys. B. The left kidney is related to the duodenum. C. The kidneys are posteriorly related to quadrates lumborum. D. The pancreas is related to the left kidney above the stomach ANSWER: C 3. Which of the following does not describe the capsules of the kidney? A. Fibrous capsule surrounds the kidney and loosely applied to its outer surface B. Perirenal fat covers the fibrous capsule C. Renal fascia encloses the kidney and suprarenal gland D. Pararenal fat, renal fascia and pararenal fat support the kidney ANSWER: A 4. Which of the following arteries does not supply the urinary bladder? A. Superior vesical arteries B. Inferior vesical arteries C. Obturator arteries D. External iliac artery ANSWER: D 5. Which of the following anatomical structures marks the vesicle trigone? A. The two urethral openings superior. B. The ureter opening at the antero-inferior angle C. The urethra opening at the postero-inferior angle D. The urethra orifice at the apex of the trigone ANSWER: D 6. A female patient has a tumor at the level of posterior wall of the urinary bladder. An ultrasound was performed and it seems that the tumor invades the posterior structures. Which of the following structures can be involved? A. Anal canal B. Vagina C. Prostate D. Rectum ANSWER: B 7. Which of the following describes Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) in adults? A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant ANSWER: B 8. Which of the following is a feature of nephritic syndrome? A. Microscopic hematuria 1  B. Heavy proteinuria C. Hyperlipidemia D. Lipiduria ANSWER: A 9. A child suffered from upper respiratory tract infection. Two weeks later, he presented with loin pain, edema of the face with puffiness of the eyelids. Which of the following feature will be seen in his renal biopsy? A. Membranous glomerulonephritis. B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. C. Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. D. Chronic glomerulonephritis ANSWER: C 10. Which of the following is a pathogenesis of glomerular diseases? A. Hypertension related. B. Inflammatory reaction. C. Immune mediated. D. Proliferation of the mesangial cells. ANSWER: C 11. Which of the following is a feature of minimal change disease of the glomeruli? A. The incidence is greatest between the ages of 20 and 40 years. B. Fusion of the foot processes of the podocytes is seen on electron microscope. C. A non-selective proteinuria is usual. D. Light microscopy shows crescent formation in glomeruli. ANSWER: B 12. Which of the following is a feature of chronic glomerulonephritis? A. The calyces and renal pelvis are usually normal. B. The kidneys are often enlarged. C. There is often no history of preceding renal disease. D. Many glomeruli are hyalinized. ANSWER: D 13. Which of the following substances is a non-essential substance that can be excreted through the kidney? A. Water B. Sodium C. Urea D. Glucose ANSWER: C 14. Which of the following did not fit with the functions of the kidney? A. Formation of active vitamin D B. Regulation of arterial blood pressure C. Hemostatic function D. Secretion of renin ANSWER: C 15. Concerning endocrine functions of the kidney, which of the following is secreted and released by the kidney? 2  A. Erythropoietin hormone B. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol C. Aldosterone hormone D. Antidiuretic hormone ANSWER: A 16. Which of the following best fit with the detoxifying function of the kidney? A. Form large amount of histamine B. Destroys histamine by histaminase enzyme C. Destroys hippuric acid into benzoic acid. D. Form angiotensin II from angiotensinogen ANSWER: B 17. Which of the following represents the percent of cortical nephrons from total kidney nephrons? A. 15% B. 85% C. 65% D. 50% ANSWER: B 18. What is the number of peritubular capillaries the juxtamedullary nephrons have? A. One type B. Two types C. Four types D. Three types ANSWER: B 19. Which of the following equations express the process of urine formation? A. Excretion= Filtration – secretion + reabsorption. B. Excretion= Reabsorption + Filtration – secretion C. Excretion= Filtration – reabsorption + secretion D. Excretion= Filtration +reabsorption + secretion. ANSWER: C 20. Which of the following describe the process of secretion during urine formation process? A. Transport of substances from peritubular capillaries to renal tubules B. Transport of substances from renal tubules to peritubular capillaries. C. Transport of substances from renal glomerulus to renal tubules. D. Excretion of the substances outside the body. ANSWER: A 21. Which of the following describes the process of filtration during the urine formation process? A. Transport of substances from peritubular capillaries to renal tubules B. Transport of substances from renal tubules to peritubular capillaries. C. Transport of substances from renal glomerulus to renal tubules. D. Excretion of the substances outside the body. ANSWER: C 22. Which of the following describes the process of reabsorption during the urine formation process? 3  A. Transport of substances from peritubular capillaries to renal tubules B. Transport of substances from renal tubules to peritubular capillaries. C. Transport of substances from renal glomerulus to renal tubules. D. Excretion of the substances outside the body. ANSWER: B 23. Which of the following best fit with the glomerular filtration barrier? A. Formed of two layers B. Formed of three layers C. Formed of four layers D. Formed of One layer ANSWER: B 24. Which of the following drugs causes diabetes insipidus? A. Cyclosporin B. NSAIDs C. Lithium D. Gold ANSWER: C 25. Which of the following drugs does not induce crystallization in the kidney? A. Methotrexate B. Sulfonamides C. Lithium D. Triamterene ANSWER: C 26. Which of the following drugs should be avoided when aminoglycosides are used? A. Loop diuretics B. Penicillins C. Beta blockers D. Spironolactone ANSWER: A 27. Which of the following pathogens is the commonest cause of cystitis? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. E. coli D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ANSWER: C 28. Which of the following structures allow adherence of uropathogens to receptors on uroepithelial cells? A. Pilli B. Flagella C. Endospores D. Cell wall ANSWER: A 29. Which of the following findings suggests urinary tract infection with Proteus? A. Acidic urine B. Urease negative organism 4  C. Alkaline urine D. Proteinuria ANSWER: C 30. Which of the following describes podocytes? A. Glomerular endothelial cells. B. Parietal epithelial cells of Bowman. C. Mesangial cells. D. Visceral epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule ANSWER: D 31. Which of the following describes the nature of the glomerulus? A. Afferent arteriole B. Efferent arteriole C. Capillary tuft D. Peritubular capillaries ANSWER: C 32. Which of the following structures describes the renal pyramid and its associated cortex? A. Medulla B. Lobe C. Renal columns D. Nephron ANSWER: B 33. Which of the following is the interstitial cells located in matrix between glomerular capillaries? A. Pericytes. B. Juxtaglomerular cells. C. Mesangial cells. D. Podocytes. ANSWER: C 34. Which of the following describes the site of the podocytes? A. The wall of the blood capillaries. B. In the pars nervosa of the pituitary gland. C. The alveoli of the lung. D. The epithelial lining of the bowman's capsule. ANSWER: D 35. Which of the following describes the projection of the medulla into the renal cortex? A. Medulla B. Medullary ray C. Lobe D. Renal columns 5  ANSWER: B 36. Which of the following is the origin of the urinary system development? A. Ectoderm B. Paraxial mesoderm C. Intermediate mesoderm D. Endoderm ANSWER: C 37. which of the following is the region in which the first kidney develops during the pronephros period? A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. Sacral ANSWER: A 38. which of the following is the site of the mesonephros development? A. Cervical region B. Thoracic and upper lumbar regions C. Lower lumbar and sacral regions D. Sacral region ANSWER: B 39. which of the followings is the time at which the metanephros appears? A. 4th week B. 5th month C. 8th week D. 3rd month ANSWER: B 40. Which of the following is derived from the ureteric bud? A. Nephrons B. Distal and proximal convoluted tubules C. Loop of Henle D. Renal pelvis ANSWER: D 41. Which of the following structures arises from the metanephric mesoderm? A. Collecting system B. Bowman’s capsule C. Renal pelvis D. Ureter ANSWER: B 42. Which of the following statements describes the urorectal septum? A. Divides anorectal canal from urogenital sinus B. Divides urogenital sinus from mesonephric duct C. Divides urinary bladder from allantois D. Divides urachus from allantois ANSWER: A 43. Which of the following describes the cause of bifid ureter? A. Formation of two ureteric buds 6  B. A second ureteric bud arising from a single mesonephric duct C. Premature division of the ureteric bud D. failure of union between the collecting and excretory tubules ANSWER: C 44. Which of the following structures is not derived from the urogenital sinus? A. The epithelium of most of the urinary bladder B. Prostatic urethra C. Membranous urethra D. Trigone of the urinary bladder ANSWER: D 45. A newborn baby presents with fluid draining from the umbilicus onto the skin. Testing of the fluid identifies it as urine. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Urachal cyst B. Urachal fistula C. Urachal sinus D. Bifid ureter ANSWER: B 46. Which of the following best describes the process of active transport through the kidney? A. Transport occurred against electric but with concentration gradient. B. Transport required energy either direct or indirect. C. Carrier protein is not required. D. Transport occurred with electric but against concentration gradient. ANSWER: B 47. which of the following factors is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion through the kidney? A. Concentration difference of the substance B. The thickness of the membrane C. Temperature of the molecules D. Surface area of the membrane ANSWER: B 48. Which type of transport in the kidney represents the sodium-potassium pump? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Osmosis C. Active transport D. Simple diffusion ANSWER: C 49. Which of the following best fits with the free movement of the solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from the compartment of lower concentration to the compartment of higher concentration of the solute? A. Diffusion B. Osmosis C. Filtration D. Active transport ANSWER: B 7 50. which of the following mechanisms describes glucose is reabsorption in the early segment of proximal convoluted tubules? A. Secondary active cotransport. B. Secondary active counter transport. C. Osmosis. D. Filtration ANSWER: A 51. Which of the following does not contribute to the countercurrent system of the kidney? A. Loop of Henle B. Vasa recta C. Medullary collecting ducts D. Proximal convoluted tubule ANSWER: D 52. Which of the following correlates with the medullary blood flow? A. Very fast flow rate B. Very sluggish flow rate C. Represent 98 percent of renal blood flow D. Represent 30 percent renal blood flow ANSWER: B 53. Which of the following best describes the descending limb of the vasa recta? A. NaCl and urea diffuse inside it. B. Water diffuses inside it. C. Osmotic concentration decreases progressively. D. Part of the countercurrent multiplier system ANSWER: A 54. Which of the following best fits with the loop diuretic, furosemide? A. It stimulates cotransport of Na+, K+, and Cl- in the ascending limb of LHs. B. It inhibits cotransport of Na+, K+, and Cl- in the ascending limb of LHs. C. It inhibits K excretion. D. It increases insulin secretion. ANSWER: B 55. Which of the following best describes the process of urine concentration? A. Is completed in the loop of Henle B. Occurs progressively along proximal convoluted tubule C. Depend on osmolarity of the medullary interstitium D. Is independent of antidiuretic hormone ANSWER: C 56. Which of the following nephron regions show increased calcium reabsorption under effect of parathormone hormone? A. PCT B. LH C. DCT D. Vasa recta ANSWER: C 8 57. Which of the following best describe type B intercalated cells in late distal tubule and collecting duct? A. Secretes H+ in the tubular lumen. B. Secretes bicarbonate in the tubular lumen C. Inactive in case of alkalosis D. Activated in case of acidosis. ANSWER: B 58. Which of the following hormones controls final adjustment of urine volume? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Aldosterone hormone C. Atrial naturitic peptide D. Growth hormone ANSWER: A 59. Which of the following hormones controls final adjustment of electrolytes in urine (Sodium reabsorption in exchange with potassium secretion)? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Aldosterone hormone C. Atrial naturitic peptide D. Growth hormone ANSWER: B 60. Which of the following describes urea reabsorption in PCT? A. All filtered urea is reabsorbed B. Urea is reabsorbed by active transport C. PCT is not a site for urea reabsorption D. 40-50 percent of the filtered urea is reabsorbed by passive diffusion. ANSWER: D 61. Which of the following best describes the function of ADH? A. Increased water reabsorption B. Decreased sodium reabsorption C. Angiotensin formation D. Decreased phosphate reabsorption ANSWER: A 62. Which of the following best describes the function of renin? A. Decreased water reabsorption B. Decreased sodium reabsorption C. Angiotensin II formation D. Decreased phosphate reabsorption. ANSWER: C 63. Which of the following stimulates renin angiotensin aldosterone system? A. Hypertension B. Hypotension C. Increased sodium concentration in macula densa cells D. Hypervolemia 9  ANSWER: B 64. which of the following explains failure of renal autoregulation that may result from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs? A. Inhibition of renin secretion. B. Inhibition of prostaglandin production. C. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion D. Stimulation of prostaglandin production. ANSWER: B 65. Which of the following dilates the afferent arteriole to increase RBF and GFR? A. Angiotensin II B. Prostaglandins PGE2 C. Sympathetic stimulation D. Aldosterone. ANSWER: B 66. Which of these serum glucose levels at which splay of glucose occurs? A. 200 mg/dL B. 150 mg/dL C. 80 mg/dL D. 300mg/dL ANSWER: A 67. Which of the following is the tubular maximum of protein? A. 30 mg/minute. B. 100 mg/minute. C. 80 mg/minute. D. 150 mg/minute ANSWER: A 68. A50-year old diabetic woman has glucosuria. which of the following nephron regions is the site where inadequate glucose reabsorption may occur? A. Collecting duct B. DCT C. Glomerulus D. PCT ANSWER: D 69. Which of the following is the tubular transport maximum of glucose in adult males? A. 375 mg/min B. 300 mg/min C. 250 mg/min D. 150 mg/min ANSWER: A 70. Transport maximum of glucose measures the power of the tubules as regard which of the following? A. Absorption 10  B. Secretion C. Filtration D. Excretion ANSWER: A 71. Which of the following mechanisms can regulate acid base balance by the kidney in cases of acidosis? A. Decrease reabsorption of NaHCO3. B. Decrease reabsorption of filtered buffers C. Decrease secretion of hydrogen. D. Form titratable acids. ANSWER: D 72. Which of the following is the cause of metabolic acidosis in starvation? A. Excessive formation of sulphuric acid. B. Excessive formation of lactic acid. C. Excessive formation of phosphoric acid. D. Excessive formation of ketone bodies ANSWER: D 73. Which of the following best fits with the meaning of ammonia adaptation? A. Ability of ammonia to be secreted as long as hydrogen is secreted. B. Ability of ammonia to buffer excess acids. C. Ability of ammonia to transformed into NH4Cl D. Decrease secretion of ammonia with excess acid secretion ANSWER: A 74. Which of the following prevents the pH of the tubular fluid from dropping below 4.5? A. Phosphate buffer B. Ammonia. C. Bicarbonate buffer. D. Protein buffer. ANSWER: B 75. What is the amount of hydrogen secreted and entirely buffered by the filtered bicarbonate in PCT? A. 90 percent. B. 10 percent C. 65 percent D. 100 percent ANSWER: A 76. What is the lining epithelium of the prostatic urethra? A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Stratified squamous epithelium C. Transitional epithelium D. Pseudostratified epithelium ANSWER: C 77. What is the lining epithelium of the female urethra? A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium 11  C. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium D. Pseudostratified epithelium ANSWER: B 78. What is the distinguishing character of the ureter? A. Has 2 layers of smooth muscles in lower part B. Has 3 layers of smooth muscles in lower part C. Has 3 layers of smooth muscles in upper part D. Has 3 layers of skeletal muscles in lower part ANSWER: B 79. What is the distinguishing character of the urinary bladder? A. Has 2 layers of smooth muscles B. Has 3 layers of smooth muscles C. Has many layers of smooth muscles D. Has many layers of skeletal muscles ANSWER: B 80. What is the distinguishing character of the apical cell of urinary bladder epithelium? A. Has many vesicles in empty state B. Has many vesicles in full state C. Has few vesicles in empty state D. Has no vesicles in empty state ANSWER: A 81. Which of the following structures originates from dilated cranial end of ureteric bud? A. The ureter B. The urinary bladder C. The prostate D. The primitive renal pelvis ANSWER: D 82. Which of the following conditions results from failure of union between some collecting and excretory tubules? A. Double kidney B. Congenital cystic kidney C. Horseshoe kidney D. Hypoplastic kidney ANSWER: B 83. Which of the following structures is derived from vesical portion of primitive urogenital sinus in males? A. Epithelium of most of urinary bladder and whole urethra B. whole urethra C. whole urinary bladder D. Epithelium of most of urinary bladder and part of prostatic urethra. ANSWER:D 12 84. Which of the following anomalies occurs when mucosa of posterior bladder wall is exposed to the outside due to absence of the anterior wall. A. Urachal sinus B. Ectopia vesica C. Recto-vesical fistula D. Urachal cyst ANSWER: B 85. What is the lining epithelium of the major calyx? A. stratified squamous non-keratinized B. Stratified squamous keratinized C. Transitional epithelium D. Pseudo stratified epithelium ANSWER: C 86. What is the lining epithelium of the minor calyx? A. stratified squamous non-keratinized B. Stratified squamous keratinized C. Transitional epithelium D. Pseudo stratified epithelium ANSWER: C 87. What is the lining epithelium of the end part of penile urethra? A. stratified squamous non-keratinized B. Stratified squamous keratinized C. Transitional epithelium D. Pseudo stratified epithelium ANSWER: A 88. What is the value of the blood osmotic concentration at the tips of vasa recta? A. 300 mosmol/L B. 1200 mosmol/L C. 150 mosmol/L D. 500 mosmol/L ANSWER: B 89. Which of the following produces vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole more than the afferent arteriole? A. Angiotensin II. B. Prostaglandins PGE2 C. Sympathetic stimulation D. Aldosterone. ANSWER: A 90. Which of the following is the nerve of filling of the urinary bladder? A. Pelvic nerve B. Sympathetic supply C. Pudendal nerve D. Vagus nerve ANSWER: B 13 91. What is the amount of hydrogen is secreted and buffered by phosphate buffer and ammonia in DCTs and CDs? A. 90 percent B. 10 percent C. 65 percent D. 100 percent ANSWER: B 92. Which of the following best describes the descending limb of the vasa recta? A. NaCl and urea diffuse inside it. B. Water diffuses inside it. C. Osmotic concentration decreases progressively. D. Part of the countercurrent multiplier system ANSWER: A 93. Which of the following drugs inhibit epithelial sodium channels in collecting ducts? A. Spironolactone B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Mannitol ANSWER: B 94. Which one of the following drugs is used in dialysis disequilibrium syndrome? A. Mannitol B. Furosemide C. Dorzolamide D. Thiazides ANSWER: A 95. Which one of the following drugs is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used topical in treatment of glaucoma? A. Dorzolamide B. Spironolactone C. Triamterene D. Mannitol ANSWER: A 96. Which of the following conditions is an indication of spironolactone use with thiazides? A. Prevent hypokalemia B. Prevent hyponatremia C. Prevent hypercalcemia D. Prevent hyperglycemia ANSWER: A 97. Which one of the following is a therapeutic use of diuretics? A. Hypotension B. Congestive heart failure C. Diabetes mellitus D. Angina pectoris ANSWER: B 14 98. Which of the following is a side effect of loop diuretics? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Peptic ulcer D. Hyperuricemia ANSWER: D 99. Which of the following describes loop diuretics? A. They have moderate efficacy B. They can act even GFR below 30 ml/min C. They are preferred for chronic hypertension D. They can induce hypernatremia ANSWER: B 100. Which of the following is an advantage for the use of thiazides in hypertension? A. They act in presence of renal failure B. They are effective in blacks and elderly C. They are effective in emergency cases D. They help treating hypercalcemia ANSWER: B 101. Which one of the following is a side effect of thiazide diuretics? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. Hypernatremia ANSWER: C 102. Which of the following drugs block aldosterone receptors? A. Amiloride B. Indapamide C. Acetazolamide D. Spironolactone ANSWER: D 103. Which of the following diseases is characterized by a microscopic finding RBCs casts in the renal tubules? A. Chronic interstitial nephritis B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Acute tubular injury ANSWER: D 104. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Analgesic nephropathy? A. RBCs cast in renal tubular lumen B. Dense stromal infiltration by neutrophils C. Coagulative necrosis of renal papillae D. Generalized oedema ANSWER: C 15 105. Which of the following diseases is a bacterial inflammation of the interstitial tissues of the renal pelvis, medulla and cortex? A. Pyelonephritis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Hydronephrosis ANSWER: A 106. Which of the following is an important microscopic feature of chronic pyelonephritis? A. Adherent renal capsule B. Cortex is not differentiated from medulla C. Lymphoid follicle formation in interstitium D. Shedding of renal tubular epithelium ANSWER: C 107. Which of the following diseases is characterised by end arteritis obliterans? A. Acute glomerunephritis B. Acute tubular injury C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Chronic pyelonephritis ANSWER: D 108. Which of the following occurs in hydronephrosis? A. Dilatation of renal pelvis & calyces B. Hypertrophy of renal parenchyma C. Atrophy of renal calyces D. Dilatation of urinary bladder ANSWER: A 109. Which one of the following is considered a congenital cause for hydronephrosis? A. Atresia of urethra B. Agenesis of one kidney C. Ectopic kidney D. Hypoplasia of kidney ANSWER: A 110. Which of the following may lead to unilateral hydronephrosis? A. Agenesis of one kidney B. Blockage at the ureter or above C. Atresia of urethra D. Paralysis of urinary bladder ANSWER: B 111. Which one of the following is a common route of infection in acute cystitis? A. Drinking contaminated water B. Spread form adjacent organ C. Direct from urethra D. Metastasis ANSWER: C 112. Which one of the following is a predisposing factor for acute cystitis? 16  A. Urine stasis B. Cigarette smoking C. Atrophy of renal calyces & pelvis D. Hypoplasia of kidney ANSWER: A 113. Which of the following describes renal cell carcinoma (RCC)? A. Embryonic tumor arising from primitive cells B. Transitional cell carcinoma arising from tubular epithelium C. Adenocarcinoma arising from tubular epithelium D. Adenocarcinoma arising from glomerular tufts ANSWER: C 114. A 68-year-old male presented to the clinic with gross hematuria, hypertension & abdominal swelling. Clinical examination detected a palpable right sided abdominal mass. Microscopic examination of the excised tumor showed infiltration of the kidney tissue by sheets of clear cells separated by stromal septa. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Papillary type renal cell carcinoma B. Clear cell type renal cell carcinoma C. Papillary transitional cell carcinoma D. Wilm’s tumor ANSWER: B 115. What is the age incidence of Wilms’ tumor? A. It occurs commonly in young children, between 1-6 years old B. It occurs most commonly from 6th to 7th decades C. It occurs above 40 years D. It can occur at any age ANSWER: A 116. A 5-year-old-male child was presented with right-sided large palpable abdominal mass, pain & hematuria. Excision has been done and revealed a greyish fish-flesh like mass measuring 7 cm in diameter containing areas of hemorrhage & necrosis. Microscopic examination showed a triphasic tumor that contains mixture of primitive epithelial & mesenchymal cells and stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Undifferentiated carcinoma B. Chromophobe cell RCC C. Renal Sarcoma D. Wilms’ tumor ANSWER: D 117. Which of the following forms describes transitional cell carcinoma of bladder microscopically? A. Papillary & non-papillary pattern B. Keratinized & non-keratinized C. Well differentiated, moderately or poorly differentiated D. Adenocarcinoma 17  ANSWER: A 118. A 25-year-old female presents with edema, hematuria, proteinuria, and decreased urination indicative of glomerulonephritis. Three weeks ago, she had impetigo on her chest which resolved without treatment. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of her renal disease? A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes ANSWER: D 119. Which of the following describes Escherichia coli? A. Gram-negative, oxidase positive bacilli. B. Gram-negative, oxidase negative bacilli. C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Non lactose fermenting bacilli ANSWER: B 120. Which of the following bacteria is a common cause of nosocomial urinary tract infection in catheterized patients? A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Proteus ANSWER: C 121. Which of the following describes Staphylococcus Saprophyticus? A. Gram negative and oxidase negative bacilli B. Gram positive coagulase negative and novobiocin resistant cocci C. Gram negative coagulase negative and novobiocin resistant cocci D. Gram positive coagulase positive and novobiocin resistant cocci ANSWER: B 122. Which of the following is the causative agent of Weil’s disease? A. Enterobacteriaceae B. Leptospira C. Staphylococci D. Proteus ANSWER: B 123. Which of the following parasites causes focal renal lesions? A. Plasmodium faclciparum B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Enterobius vermicularis 18  ANSWER: C 124. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of urinary schistosomiasis? A. Hematuria B. Terminal hematuria C. Diarrhea D. Dysentery ANSWER: B 125. What type of renal pathology is associated with Plasmodium malariae? A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Chronic kidney disease ANSWER: A 126. Which of the following parasites causes black water fever? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Wuchereria bancrofti ANSWER: A 127. What is a characteristic finding in the urine of patients with trichomoniasis? A. Eggs B. Motile trophozoites C. Bacteria D. Crystals ANSWER: B 128. Which one of the following stones is formed when there is a urinary tract infection with a urease positive bacterium? A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium phosphate C. Uric acid D. Struvite ANSWER: D 129. Which one of the following stones is formed at acidic pH? A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium phosphate C. Uric acid D. Struvite ANSWER: C 19