MCB3020 Final Exam Kahoot PDF

Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Learning Objectives Part 1...

Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Learning Objectives Part 1 Scan to sign in (enter ID without the Z) 16 1. Which experiment would best isolate bacteria auxotrophic for tryptophan? a) Grow bacteria on a minimal medium lacking tryptophan and select those that grow. b) Use replica plating to identify colonies that grow on complete medium but not on minimal medium lacking tryptophan. c) Plate bacteria on an agar containing tryptophan and screen for rapid growth. 2. Which of the following is a key difference between homologous recombination and site-specific recombination? a) Homologous recombination requires RecA protein, while site-specific recombination uses recombinase. b) Homologous recombination occurs at specific sites, while site-specific recombination occurs between similar DNA sequences. c) Site-specific recombination requires long DNA sequences with high similarity. 3. Who discovered bacterial conjugation and what process did they use? a) Griffith, through transformation in pneumococcus. b) Lederberg and Tatum, by mixing two auxotrophic E. coli strains and observing prototroph formation. c) Watson and Crick, by observing DNA recombination in bacterial cultures. 4. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to bacterial competence? a) Presence of cell-surface receptors for DNA uptake. b) Environmental signals such as cell density and nutrient levels. c) Presence of a sex pilus for direct DNA transfer. 5. What is the primary difference in the outcomes of transformation using a DNA fragment versus a plasmid? a) A plasmid integrates into the host genome, while a DNA fragment does not. b) A plasmid can replicate independently, while a DNA fragment must integrate into the genome to be inherited. c) A DNA fragment is more stable than a plasmid in the cell. 6. Which of the following best describes the difference between mutant detection and mutant selection? a) Mutant detection involves selective growth, while mutant selection does not. b) Mutant detection screens for visible phenotypes, while mutant selection favors mutants with specific traits under selective conditions. c) Both involve selective growth conditions. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 7. Match the following to their description: conjugative plasmid, transposon, and integrative conjugative elements (ICE) Can integrate into the host genome using recombinase. Integrative conjugative elements Carries genes for conjugative transfer + a type IV secretion system, combining features of plasmids and transposons. Exist as extrachromosomal DNA, carrying genes for Conjugative plasmid conjugation but do not integrate into the genome. "Jumping genes" that can move within or between genomes Transposon and often carry genes like antibiotic resistance. 17 Restriction sites 1. Restriction enzymes recognize specific _________________________________ which are usually palindromic DNA sequences. These enzymes hydrolyze the DNA at those sites, creating either sticky ends or blunt ends, depending on the enzyme. 2. What are two common techniques by which DNA constructed in vitro is introduced into host cells? 1) chemical transformation- host cells are treated with chemicals (divalent cations), and then heat-shocked, making their membranes more permeable to DNA 2) electroporation- cells are exposed to an electrical pulse, which temporarily creates pores in the cells membrane 3. T / F PCR generates DNA fragments of varying sizes depending on the cycle conditions. 4. Explain the main difference between end-point PCR and real-time, quantitative PCR. Identify an application for each. End point PCR: analyzes DNA at the end of the reaction, while real time PCR measures DNA amplification in real time, allowing for quantification of DNA in that sample. Endpoint is commonly used for clothing, or detecting the presence or absence of certain DNA (example detecting a pathogenic DNA). Quantitative PCR can be used for gene expression studies and to measure the viral load in a patient’s blood or saliva sample. Genomic 5. ______________________ libraries contain DNA from a single organism, allowing researchers to Meta-genomic study specific genes and their functions. _______________________________ libraries, which contain DNA from all organisms in an environment, expand the pool of genes available for research and can reveal previously unknown genes with useful functions (ex. novel enzymes). For learning objective (LO) 12 look at the diagram on slide 27. For LO 16 look at chart on slide 35. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 18 1. Complete the following steps in whole-genome shotgun cloning: 1) Fragment the genome. Cloning vectors 2) Insert fragments into ________________________ to create a library. 3) Sequence each fragment. Align 4) Use computational tools to _______________ overlapping fragments and assemble the genome. You can review ‘Whole-Genome Shotgun Sequencing’ in section 18.2 of your textbook. 2. Match each technique with its primary use: 16s rRNA Sequencing, Metagenomics Sequencing all DNA in a sample for a comprehensive view Meta-genomics of microbial diversity and function Identifying and classifying bacterial species in a community 16s rRNA sequencing 3. List two areas where metagenomics can be applied, providing one example each in environmental and medical microbiology. Environmental – analyzing soil, water, feces to understand ecosystem, and its functions Medical – analyzing the human micro biome to understand its impact on health and disease 4. In genome annotation, a potential protein-coding gene is recognized by finding an ORF. How are ORFs generally defined? (slide 56) A reading frame > 100 codons that is not interrupted by a stop codon. A ribosomal binding site at the 5’ end and termination sequences at the 3’ end. Physical map 5. A _____________________________ shows where genes are located on a chromosome. To create this, scientists cut the DNA into small pieces, figure out where each piece belongs on the chromosome by aligning them, and use reference points (markers) or DNA sequencing to help place each piece accurately. Functions 6. Genome annotation assigns ___________________ to genes and allows graphical representation by grouping or color-coding genes involved in specific functions like metabolism, motility, transport, etc. Systems 7. ______________________ biology studies natural cellular networks holistically, while Synthetic ___________________ biology involves designing and constructing new biological systems. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Learning Objectives Part 2 Scan to sign in (enter ID without the Z) What are some key concepts can you recall from chapters 12 and 14? 12 1. Which of the following represents the correct order of steps for cellular construction from basic molecules? (slide 3) a) Precursor metabolites → Carbon source → Monomers → Supramolecular systems b) Carbon source/Inorganic molecules → Precursor metabolites → Monomers → Macromolecules → Supramolecular systems → Organelles → Cells c) Carbon source/Inorganic molecules → Monomers → Macromolecules → Cells d) Cells → Organelles → Macromolecules → Monomers → Precursor metabolites Learning objective #2 is covered in 12.1 ‘Principles Governing Biosynthesis’. Chloroplasts 2. The Calvin cycle occurs in the ___________________ of plants and algae. In cyanobacteria, the cycle occurs in the cytoplasm, with the carbon fixation step specifically taking place in specialized structures Carboxy sounds called _________________________. 3. The Calvin cycle is primarily responsible for: a) Breaking down glucose for energy. b) Fixing carbon dioxide into organic molecules. c) Synthesizing proteins. d) Producing ATP directly. RuBisCO 4. ________________ is the enzyme responsible for fixing CO₂ in the Calvin cycle by catalyzing its attachment to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP). 5. Certain bacteria and archaea are capable of nitrogen fixation. Why is nitrogen fixation an energy- intensive process? a) It requires a lot of energy to break the strong N₂ triple bond. b) It involves the conversion of glucose to ammonia. c) It does not produce any by-products. d) It only occurs in the presence of oxygen. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 6. Simple / complex amino acids like glutamate are synthesized directly from intermediates in central metabolism, requiring only a few steps. In contrast, simple / complex amino acids like arginine require multiple steps and energy-intensive pathways, often involving regulation at several points to ensure efficient synthesis only when needed. 14 1. When can bacterial cells regulate gene expression? a) Only at the transcriptional initiation stage b) At transcriptional, translational, and posttranslational levels c) Only after protein synthesis d) Only during replication 2. Why did microbial geneticists historically focus on the regulation of transcription initiation? It is the primary control point where gene expression can be switched on or off based on the cells needs. This stage is also more straightforward to study, as the mechanisms involved are relatively well understood. Also, regulating gene expression at this point is energy, efficient, as it prevents unnecessary mRNA and protein production. 3. Matching: Inducible, Repressible, and Constitutive genes Continuously expressed as they perform essential functions. Constitutive genes Typically active, but their expression is turned off when an end- Repressible genes product is abundant. Expressed only in the presence of specific substrates. Inducible genes 4. In bacterial transcriptional control, which of the following statements best describes the difference between negative and positive transcriptional control mechanisms? a) Negative control involves a repressor binding to the DNA, which blocks transcription, while positive control involves an activator enhancing RNA polymerase binding to initiate transcription. b) Positive control requires a repressor to initiate transcription, whereas negative control uses an activator to inhibit transcription. c) In positive control, transcription is inhibited by a repressor protein, whereas in negative control, transcription is initiated by an activator protein. d) Both negative and positive control rely on repressors binding directly to RNA polymerase to regulate transcription initiation. 5. mRNA has long leader region, and RNA folding patterns in leader affect transcription elongation based Attentuation on the availability of specific amino acids. This type of regulation, called _______________________, Riboswitch was first demonstrated with trp operon. For ______________________, their folding pattern in the leader region is altered in response to an effector molecule binding to it, affecting transcription elongation. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 6. T / F Coordination between RNA polymerase and the ribosome (coupling of transcription and translation) is critical to attenuation. It also increases the efficiency of gene expression in response to environmental changes. 7. What is the role of alternate sigma factors in bacteria? a) They terminate transcription b) They are used to inhibit transcription c) They only respond to glucose levels d) They initiate transcription of distinct operons based on environmental changes Glucose 8. Catabolite repression allows bacterial cells to preferentially use _______________ over other energy sources like lactose. 9. How does E. coli respond in a chemorepellent gradient? a) Increased flagellar rotation towards the repellent b) Frequent tumbling to move away from the repellent c) Constant swimming without tumbling d) Movement toward the repellent 10. Matching: Restriction-modification vs. CRISPR-Cas Adaptive immunity, where bacterial cells incorporate segments of CRISPR-Cas viral DNA into their own genome to recognize and defend against the virus if it infects again. Restriction Innate defense mechanism that cleaves unmethylated viral DNA using modification restriction endonucleases. stringent 11. The _________________ response suppresses metabolic activity and conserves resources during nutrient deprivation. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Learning Objectives Part 3 Scan to sign in 10 (enter ID without the Z) 1. The energy required to perform cellular work, such as muscle contraction and active transport, is primarily supplied by: a) Glucose b) NADH c) ATP d) Oxygen 2. In all organisms, the energy cycle involves the continuous transformation of energy through metabolic processes. The energy Catabolism cycle in organisms involves _____________________, which releases energy by breaking down molecules, and Anabolism ________________________, which uses that energy to build complex molecules. D 3. Molecules commonly found in ETCs and what they carry/transfer (11.4): Flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and coenzyme Q (ubiquinone): both electrons and protons Cytochromes: only electrons NADH and FADH2: mainly electrons, but protons as well when oxidized. Oxygen: TEA 4. Which of the following is an example of a cyclic biochemical pathway? a) Glycolysis b) Electron Transport Chain c) Krebs Cycle 5. As substrate concentration increases, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction: a) Decreases continuously b) Increases continuously c) Increases until it reaches a maximum rate, then levels off d) Remains constant regardless of concentration 11 1. T / F: Microbes are ubiquitous and can survive in extreme conditions (ex. high temperatures, acidity, salinity, and low oxygen) due to their adaptability and metabolic diversity. This creates a variety of metabolic pathways for different environmental conditions. 2. Which of the following are the primary products of microbial fueling reactions? a) Water and oxygen b) ATP, reducing power, and precursor metabolites c) Carbon dioxide and ATP d) Precursor metabolites and lactic acid Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 3. Which of the following is NOT a type of chemoorganotrophic metabolism? a) Aerobic respiration b) Anaerobic respiration c) Photosynthesis d) Fermentation Glycolytic 4. Important pathways for chemoorganotrophs include the ___________________ pathways (Embden- Meyerhof, Entner-Doudoroff, and pentose phosphate pathways) Tricarboxylic acid the ________________________________ Electron transport cycle, and the _____________________________ chain. These pathways provide ATP, reducing power, and precursors for biosynthesis. Amphibolic 5. _________________________ pathways function in both catabolism and anabolism, making cellular processes more efficient. (ex. EMP, pentose phosphate pathway) 6. Which of the following is NOT a use of the proton motive force in bacteria? a) ATP synthesis b) Flagellar rotation c) Protein synthesis d) Active transport of nutrients 7. Why is less energy conserved in anaerobic respiration compared to aerobic respiration? a) Anaerobic pathways do not use an electron transport chain. b) Anaerobic respiration uses terminal electron acceptors with lower redox potentials than oxygen. c) Oxygen is not involved in anaerobic respiration. d) Anaerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm only. Anaerobic 8. _____________________ respiration is essential because it allows organisms to produce energy rapidly even in an oxygen-poor environment and survive. It is crucial for certain biogeochemical cycles, such as the nitrogen and sulfur cycles. 9. Chemolithotrophs obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic molecules. Since these molecules have more positive redox potentials than NAD⁺/NADP⁺, what process is required in their ETCs to generate reducing power for biosynthesis? Reverse electron flow (field by proton motive force) 10. Compared to glucose oxidation in aerobic and anaerobic respiration, the energy released from using inorganic compounds in chemolithotrophy is: a) Higher b) Lower c) Equal Nitrification 11. ____________________________ is a two-step process where ammonia (NH₃) is oxidized to nitrite (NO₂⁻) and then to nitrate (NO₃⁻). _______________________ Denitrification is an anaerobic process in which nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas (N₂), returning nitrogen to the atmosphere. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 12. Some anaerobic archaea and bacteria bypass the thermodynamic barrier of unfavorable, endergonic redox reactions by tightly coupling them with favorable, exergonic ones. This process is known as Electron bifurcation _____________________________________. It enables energy conservation in reactions that would otherwise be energetically unfavorable, without directly using ATP hydrolysis or a proton motive force. (11.9) Phototrophy 13. _______________________ is the use of light energy to fuel a variety of cellular activities (ex. generating ATP via photophosphorylation and producing reducing power), but not necessarily for carbon fixation. _________________________ Photosynthesis specifically includes carbon fixation, converting CO₂ into organic compounds along with ATP and reducing power production. (Read 11.10 around page 246, Figure 11.27 is good too) 14. Which pigment is primarily used by anoxygenic phototrophs? a) Chlorophyll b) Bacteriochlorophyll 15. Matching: oxygenic photosynthesis, anoxygenic phototrophy, and rhodopsin-based phototrophy. (ex. plants, algae, cyanobacteria) uses water as an electron donor, releasing O₂ in the process, and involves two photosystems (PSI Oxygenic photosynthesis and PSII). Rhodopsin-based relies on a light-driven proton pump, generating ATP without an ETC. Often in nutrient-limited environments which is important for phototrophy photoheterotrophs. (ex. purple sulfur bacteria) uses electron donors other than water, Anoxygenic like hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) to convert light energy to chemical phototrophy energy. So, it does not produce O₂ and uses one photosystem. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Learning Objectives Part 4 Scan to sign in Ch.5 (enter ID without the Z) 1. Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between eukaryotic, bacterial, and archaeal cells? a) Eukaryotic cells are smaller than bacterial and archaeal cells and lack a nucleus. b) Bacterial and archaeal cells have membrane-bound organelles, while eukaryotic cells do not. c) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, while bacterial and archaeal cells do not. d) Archaeal cells are larger than eukaryotic cells and have more complex membrane structures. 2. Why is compartmentation of the cell interior particularly advantageous to eukaryotic cells? a) It allows the cell to store genetic information more efficiently. b) It prevents the loss of cellular energy during reproduction. c) It enables the separation of incompatible biochemical processes, making them more efficient. d) It allows for the rapid exchange of materials between organelles. 3. Compare and contrast the lipids found in bacteria and eukaryotes. Both consist of phospholipids with ester linkages between the glycerol and fatty acids. Some bacteria, incorporate hopanoids into their membranes to stabilize the structure. Eukaryotes contain sterols in sphingolipids (example cholesterol and ergosterol) that produce rigidity and fluidity to the membrane. Ch.6 1. What is the field of study that focuses on viruses? a) Microbiology b) Virology c) Bacteriology d) Immunology Capsid 2. The protein coat of a virus is called the ___________________ and protects the viral genome. The Envelope _________________ is covered in peplomers and aids in the attachment of the virus to the host cell. 3. Which type of viral infection results in cell death? a) Cytocidal infection b) Transformative infection c) Chronic infection Viroids 4. _______________ are small RNA molecules that do not encode proteins and cause plant diseases through RNA silencing. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 5. This infectious agent has their nucleic acid enclosed in a capsid and they need a helper virus to replicate. a) Prions b) Virions c) Viroids d) Satellites 6. Prions cause disease by: a) Infecting cells with RNA b) Misfolding other proteins c) Inserting their genetic material into host DNA d) Producing toxins 7. Which of the following is a characteristic of diseases caused by prions? a) Inflammation of the skin b) Neurodegeneration c) Blood cell mutation d) Fever Ch.7 1. The most common reproductive strategy of bacteria is: a) Budding b) Multiple fission c) Binary fission 2. The bacterial cell cycle consists of three phases. What are they? 1) period of growth after the cell is born 2) chromosome replication and partitioning (occurs concurrently) 3) cytokinesis, during which a septum and daughter cells are formed 3. T / F: Nutrient-rich conditions correspond to exponential growth, while nutrient depletion leads to stationary and death phases. 4. Name some adaptations that allow thermophiles to survive at high temperatures. Heat stable enzymes with more hydrogen bonds, proline, and chaperones. Membrane adaptations, including saturated fatty acids (and bacteria) or branched isoprene chains with ether linkages (in Archaea) for increased stability. 5. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism microbes use to survive starvation? a) Endospore formation b) Increased DNA replication c) Production of starvation proteins d) Entry into VBNC state 6. ____________________ Quorum, sensing __________________ involves microbial communication using signaling molecules to coordinate group behaviors like virulence factor production, bioluminescence, and biofilm formation. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 7. Briefly describe each phase. 1) lag phase – sells adapt to their new environment and grow in size (not dividing) 2) exponential (log) phase - rapid growth and division 3) stationary phase- nutrient depletion and waste accumulation, balance growth (reproduction) and death rates 4) death phase– viable cell numbers, decline exponentially as cells die 5) long-term stationary phase – population evolves with genetically distinct variants surviving Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Learning Objectives Part 5 Scan to sign in Ch.1 (enter ID without the Z) 1. Which sentence best defines microbiology? a) Microbiology is the study of organisms visible to the naked eye, focusing on the diseases they cause. b) Microbiology is the study of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and their roles in human health and the environment. c) Microbiology is the branch of biology that focuses exclusively on the genetic makeup of macroscopic and microscopic organisms. d) Microbiology is the study of ecosystems where macroscopic and microscopic life forms interact. 2. What was Carl Woese’s primary contribution to microbiology? a) Established Koch's postulates. b) Discovered viruses. c) Introduced the germ theory of disease. d) Developed the three-domain system using SSU rRNA sequences. 3. Match each type of microorganism to its correct description: Bacteria, Archaea, Fungi, Protists Prokaryotic, lack a nucleus, and have peptidoglycan in their cell walls, found in Bacteria a wide variety of environments. Fungi Eukaryotic, have chitin in their cell walls, and include organisms such as molds and yeasts. Eukaryotic, unicellular (most common) or multicellular, include amoebas and Protists algae, often found in aquatic environments. Prokaryotic, many are extremophiles, lack peptidoglycan in their cell envelopes, Archaea have unique membrane lipids. 4. Number the steps in the correct order to classify a microbe based on SSU rRNA and build a phylogenetic tree. (review diagram on slide 45) 3 _______ Sequence the SSU rRNA genes. 5 _______ Count nucleotide differences between sequences and calculate evolutionary distance (ED). 1 Lyse cells to release contents and isolate DNA. _______ 4 _______ Align sequences to compare evolutionary relationships. 2 _______ Amplify SSU rRNA genes using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). 6 Use computer analysis to construct a phylogenetic tree with the data. _______ Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 5. Which of the following is NOT a similarity between mitochondria and chloroplasts? a) Both have double membranes. b) Both evolved from photosynthetic bacteria. c) Both contain their own circular DNA. d) Both replicate independently of the host cell. Ch.3 1. Why is the term "prokaryotic" considered outdated? (Ch.4 handout) a) It does not account for differences between Bacteria and Archaea. b) It implies a lack of complexity in bacterial cells. c) It excludes eukaryotic cells from the classification. d) It only refers to cells without DNA. 2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bacterial cells when compared to plant or animal cells? a) Bacterial cells are typically smaller in size than plant or animal cells. b) Bacterial cells have a nucleoid instead of a nucleus. c) Bacterial cells contain membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria. d) Bacterial cells can have various shapes such as cocci, bacilli, and spirilla. 3. Compare and contrast the cell walls of gram-positive & gram-negative bacteria. (review chart in Ch.3 pt1 handout) Gram-positive: purple, monoderm, thick peptidogylcan, smaller periplasmic space, very porous, more susceptible to antibiotics, contains techoic acids. Gram- negative: pink,diderm, outer membrane (LPS), thin peptidoglycan, larger periplasmic space, less porous, and less susceptible to antibiotics. 4. T / F The prokaryotic plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins. It functions as a selectively permeable barrier for nutrient transport, waste elimination, and energy generation (respiration and photosynthesis). 5. Which transport mechanism chemically modifies the molecule being transported? a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion c) Group translocation d) Active transport Endospores 6. _____________________ are dormant, highly resistant structures for survival under harsh conditions (heat, UV, starvation). ____________________ Inclusions are storage compartments for nutrients, such as glycogen (glycogen granules) or carbon (carbonosomes), or for specialized functions, such as buoyancy (gas vacuoles). Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Ch.4 S- layer 1. Archaeal cell envelopes often consist of an _________________ made of protein or glycoprotein, with no peptidoglycan. Archaeal cell envelopes are more diverse. Their plasma membranes contain Ether ____________-linked isoprenoid lipids, providing resistance to extreme conditions. Bacterial cell Peptidoglycan envelopes include _____________________ Ester in their cell walls and ___________-linked fatty acids in their membranes. (review chart in Ch.4 handout) 2. Which of the following is true regarding the archaeal cytoplasm? a) Contains 80S ribosomes b) Includes a nucleoid with histones c) Contains linear chromosomes d) Has membrane-bound organelles 3. T / F: Archaea and bacteria use entirely different mechanisms for nutrient uptake. T / F: Archaea may have unique shapes, such as flat or branched forms. T / F: The rotation of archaella is powered by ATP hydrolysis, similar to the mechanism used by bacterial flagella. 4. How do archaeal ribosomes differ from bacterial ribosomes? (Protein and rRNA make up ribosomes) Archael ribosomes have more r-proteins (proteins components of the ribosome), and share homology with eukaryotic r-proteins, further distinguishing them from bacteria. The different composition makes archael ribosomes unaffected by antibiotics that target the ribosomes in bacteria. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI Exam 4 review: W 4:00–7:00pm (GS 222) Tutoring: M, W, Th 12:00-3:00pm (SLC) Online Tutoring: M 7-8pm, Th 10-11am Exam 4 Learning Objectives pt6 (Ch.13) 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of RNA? a) Contains uracil b) Usually double-stranded c) Contains ribose sugar d) Functions in protein synthesis 2. T / F: Both the nucleotides of DNA and RNA are linked together by phosphodiester bonds. 3. The sugar phosphate backbone of nucleic acids are formed via covalent bonds between the 3 __’-hydroxyl 5 of one sugar and a __’-phosphate attached to an adjacent sugar. 4. Describe the structure of an amino acid. What links amino acids together to form a polypeptide? Central carbon attached to an amino group, carboxyl group, hydrogen, and a variable R group. A peptide bond. 5. Label the DNA replication phase to its correct description: Initiation, Elongation, Termination Initiation Origin recognition, unwinding by helicase, primer synthesis by primase. Replication ends at termination sites or when replication forks meet for Termination circular DNA. Elongation DNA polymerase synthesizes new strands, leading strand is continuous, lagging strand in Okazaki fragments. 6. Label the transcription phase to its correct description: Initiation, Elongation, Termination RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA in the 5’→3’ direction. Elongation Termination Factor dependent (rho factor) or intrinsic (stem-loop structure) termination mechanisms occur. Sigma factor guides RNA polymerase to the promoter. Initiation Operons 7. __________________ are clusters of genes transcribed together under a single promoter, producing polycistronic mRNA. Components include promoter, operator, structural genes, and regulatory sequences. Reading frame ________________ ensures proper translation into functional 8. The correct ___________________ proteins; any shifts can alter codon alignment and results in nonfunctional or shortened proteins. 9. Describe the genetic code. The genetic code is degenerate (multiple codons per amino acid), universal, and read in triplets (codons). Start codon (AUG). stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA). Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI Exam 4 review: W 4:00–7:00pm (GS 222) Tutoring: M, W, Th 12:00-3:00pm (SLC) Online Tutoring: M 7-8pm, Th 10-11am 10. Which position of a codon allows for “wobble” pairing? a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth 11. T / F: Bacterial ribosomes are 80S, composed of 50S (23S and 5S rRNA) and 30S (16S rRNA) subunits. fMet 12. In bacteria, the start codon is recognized by ____________-tRNA (the initiator tRNA) during translation Met initiation. Archaea and eukaryotes use _________-tRNA. What region of the mRNA is critical for translation initiation? Shine Dalgarno sequence 13. T / F: Co-directional collisions between DNA and RNA polymerases are more challenging to resolve than head-on collisions. (Ch.13 pt2 handout) Polyribosome 14. In bacteria, transcription and translation are coupled. The _______________________ enables multiple ribosomes to translate a single mRNA while transcription is ongoing. 15. Match the process to its definition: Translocation and Secretion Moves proteins from the cytoplasm to external environments Secretion Moves proteins across or into the plasma membrane. Translocation 16. T / F: The Sec and Tat systems are common to both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Effector proteins that 17. Many secretion systems play a role in the pathogenicity of a bacteria by secreting _____________ contribute to host injury. (review info from discussion on the secretion systems in Ch.13 pt2 recording) Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Welcome to SI Exam 4 Review Scan to sign in (enter ID without the Z) 1. A microorganism is described as a eukaryote with chitin in its cell walls. It forms multicellular filaments under certain conditions and produces spores. What type of microbe is this? a) Bacterium b) Archaea c) Protist d) Fungus 2. T / F: Archaea is more closely related to Bacteria than Eukarya. 3. Which of the following was a characteristic originally used to describe prokaryotic cells? a) Lack of a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles b) Presence of peptidoglycan in all cell walls c) Complex cytoskeletal structures d) Multicellularity with specialized tissues 4. Which of the following is unique to bacterial cells when compared to plant and animal cells? a) Membrane-bound organelles b) Presence of a nucleoid c) Linear chromosomes d) Large vacuoles 5. Which of the following is a key difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacterial cell walls? a) Gram-positive bacteria lack a cell wall entirely. b) Gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane, while gram-negative bacteria do not. c) Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, while gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane. d) Gram-negative bacteria lack lipopolysaccharides in their cell wall 6. T / F: Facilitated diffusion requires ATP to move molecules across a membrane. 7. T / F: Endospores are primarily involved in the reproduction of bacterial cells. 8. What is the function of bacterial inclusions? a) Protection against environmental stress b) Storage of nutrients like carbon or phosphate c) Movement of the bacterial cell d) Protein synthesis Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of archaeal cells? a) Contain peptidoglycan in their cell walls b) Have ether-linked lipids in their plasma membrane c) Have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles d) Are exclusively multicellular 10. T / F: Archaea are known for thriving only in environments with moderate conditions. 11. Which of the following correctly describes a difference between bacteria and archaea? a) Archaea lack ribosomes, while bacteria have them. b) Archaeal cell walls lack peptidoglycan, while most bacterial cell walls contain it. c) Archaea possess a nucleus, while bacteria do not. d) Bacteria have ether-linked lipids in their membranes, while archaea have ester-linked lipids. 12. Which of the following best describes the archaeal cell envelope? a) Contains peptidoglycan as the main structural component. b) Has ether-linked lipids that may form a monolayer for increased stability. c) Includes an outer membrane like gram-negative bacteria. d) Contains chitin as the main structural polymer. 13. T / F: Both bacterial and archaeal cell envelopes can include an S-layer as a structural component. 14. Which of the following statements correctly describes the cytoplasm of archaea compared to bacteria? a) Archaea have 80S ribosomes, while bacteria have 70S ribosomes. b) Both have a cytoplasm rich in RNA and enzymes but differ in ribosomal structure and RNA sequences. c) Archaeal cytoplasm lacks any ribosomes, while bacterial cytoplasm contains ribosomes. d) Archaeal cytoplasm is organized into membrane-bound compartments 15. Which of the following correctly describes a difference between bacterial, archaeal, and eukaryotic cells? a) Only bacteria and archaea use membranes for compartmentalization. b) Eukaryotes are generally larger and have greater morphological diversity than bacteria and archaea. c) Archaeal cells possess membrane-bound organelles, while bacterial cells do not. d) Bacterial and archaeal cells lack membranes altogether. 16. Which of the following correctly describes a difference in the lipids found in bacterial and eukaryotic membranes? a) Bacterial membranes contain sterols like cholesterol, while eukaryotic membranes do not. b) Eukaryotic membranes use ester-linked lipids, while bacterial membranes often contain ether-linked lipids. c) Bacterial membranes contain hopanoids for stability, while eukaryotic membranes contain sterols like cholesterol. d) Both bacterial and eukaryotic membranes exclusively use glycolipids. 17. Which of the following organisms can serve as hosts to viruses? a) Only animals b) Only prokaryotes c) All living organisms, including plants, animals, and microbes d) Only organisms with a nucleus Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 18. What distinguishes enveloped viruses from nonenveloped viruses? a) Enveloped viruses are larger than nonenveloped viruses. b) Enveloped viruses contain a lipid bilayer derived from the host cell, while nonenveloped viruses lack this structure. c) Nonenveloped viruses can replicate outside of a host cell, while enveloped viruses cannot. d) Enveloped viruses lack genetic material, while nonenveloped viruses contain it. 19. T / F: The capsid of a virion is composed of nucleic acids and protects the viral genome. 20. What is the primary difference between satellite viruses and satellite nucleic acids? a) Satellite viruses have a complete genome, while satellite nucleic acids require a helper virus for replication. b) Satellite nucleic acids have a capsid, while satellite viruses do not. c) Satellite viruses infect plants, while satellite nucleic acids infect animals. d) Satellite nucleic acids are more virulent than satellite viruses. 21. _____________ Prions are infectious proteins that replicate by inducing misfolding of normal cellular proteins. These infectious proteins cause neurodegeneration due to the accumulation of misfolded proteins in neural tissue. 22. What is the primary practical importance of viroids? a) They serve as a model for understanding virus replication in animals. b) They cause significant economic damage by infecting plants. c) They are used in genetic engineering to deliver DNA. d) They protect plants from other pathogens. 23. Which of the following describes binary fission in bacteria and archaea? a) A process where a single parent cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. b) A process involving mitosis and meiosis for reproduction. c) A method where cells form spores that germinate under favorable conditions. d) A reproductive strategy involving budding from the parent cell. 24. Which of the following is NOT a bacterial reproductive strategy? a) Binary fission b) · Sporulation Multiplet vision c) Budding d) Sexual reproduction involving gametes 25. What are the three phases of a typical bacterial cell cycle? a) Lag phase, exponential phase, and stationary phase b) DNA replication, chromosome segregation, and cytokinesis c) Cell growth, cell differentiation, and cell death d) Sporulation, germination, and growth 26. Which phase of the microbial growth curve involves a period of no cell division while cells adjust to their environment? a) Lag phase b) Exponential phase Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu c) Stationary phase d) Death phase 27. During which phase of the microbial growth curve do nutrient levels become limiting and waste levels increase, causing growth to plateau? (discuss nutrient levels for all phases) a) Lag phase b) Exponential phase c) Stationary phase d) Death phase 28. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation found in thermophiles to ensure survival at high temperatures? a) Increased number of hydrogen bonds in proteins to enhance stability. b) Membranes enriched with more saturated, branched, and higher molecular weight lipids. c) Use of ester linkages in membrane lipids for increased hydrolysis resistance. d) Chaperones that aid in the proper folding of proteins at elevated temperatures. 29. Quorum sensing is defined as: a) The ability of bacteria to respond to population density via signaling molecules. b) The process of nutrient uptake in microbial communities. c) The movement of planktonic cells to form biofilms. d) The ability of bacteria to survive under starvation conditions. 30. Which of the following mechanisms helps microbes survive starvation? a) Increased production of secondary metabolites b) Formation of endospores c) Activation of stress response pathways d) All of the above 31. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biofilms? (discuss planktonic vs sessile) a) Biofilms protect microbes from antibiotics and environmental stressors. b) Biofilm formation involves quorum sensing and secretion of extracellular matrix. c) Biofilms consist solely of a single microbial species. d) Biofilms can cause medical device-related infections. 32. Why is culturing microbes essential in microbiology? a) It allows scientists to observe microbial growth and behavior under controlled conditions. b) It eliminates the need for molecular techniques in microbiology. c) It ensures microbes remain dormant for future use. d) It prevents contamination in natural environments. 33. Which of the following is a feature common to all types of metabolism? a) Reactions occur only in the presence of oxygen. b) Energy is conserved in the form of ATP. c) Only catabolic pathways are used. d) Reactions take place exclusively in membrane-bound organelles. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of work carried out by cells? a) Chemical work b) Transport work c) Mechanical work d) Photosynthetic work 35. What is the relationship between cellular work and energy? a) Cellular work is independent of energy input. b) Energy in the form of ATP drives cellular work. c) Cellular work requires energy only under anaerobic conditions. d) Cellular work generates energy stored as glucose. 36. How does ATP function as a coupling agent in cellular reactions? a) It absorbs energy from the environment to power all reactions. b) It donates its phosphate group to lower activation energy. c) It transfers energy from exergonic reactions to power endergonic reactions. d) It directly generates glucose molecules from inorganic carbon. 37. Where are electron transport chains (ETCs) located in bacterial cells? a) Mitochondrial inner membrane b) Plasma membrane c) Nuclear envelope d) Chloroplast thylakoid membrane 38. Which of the following best describes a biochemical pathway? a) A random set of reactions occurring in the cytoplasm b) A structured series of reactions catalyzed by enzymes, leading to a specific product c) A process that does not involve enzymes d) A mechanism exclusive to eukaryotic cells 39. T / F: Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction, allowing it to proceed faster without being consumed in the process. 40. Which of the following factors typically increases enzyme activity up to a certain limit? a) Extreme pH values b) Higher substrate concentration c) Drastic increases in temperature above optimal range d) Addition of non-competitive inhibitors 41. What explains how microbes can thrive in extreme environments despite harsh conditions? a) Microbes depend on forming protective multicellular communities to withstand extreme conditions. b) Microbes use unique enzymes and metabolic pathways that allow them to harness a variety of energy, carbon, and electron sources tailored to their surroundings. c) Microbes passively absorb nutrients, which is sufficient for survival in extreme settings. d) Microbes require a host organism to survive in extreme environments. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 42. Which of the following correctly describes a chemoorganoheterotroph? a) Carbon from CO₂, energy from inorganic chemicals, electrons from water b) Carbon from organic compounds, energy from light, electrons from inorganic compounds c) Carbon, energy, and electrons from organic compounds d) Carbon from inorganic sources, energy from light, electrons from organic sources 43. Which of the following is a product of fueling reactions in microorganisms? a) Precursor metabolites for biosynthesis b) ATP for energy c) Reducing power such as NADH and NADPH d) All of the above 44. Which of the following is NOT a type of chemoorganotrophic metabolism? a) Aerobic respiration b) Anaerobic respiration c) Photosynthesis d) Fermentation 45. What is the primary function of the TCA cycle? a) Fixing carbon dioxide into organic molecules b) Generating electron carriers and precursors for biosynthesis c) Synthesizing ATP directly through substrate-level phosphorylation d) Reducing molecular oxygen 46. What is the relationship between the length of an electron transport chain (ETC) and the proton motive force (PMF)? (discuss what is powered by the PMF) a) Shorter ETCs generate larger PMF due to fewer energy losses. b) Longer ETCs allow for more efficient energy transfer and larger PMF. c) PMF is independent of ETC length. d) ETC length affects ATP synthesis but not PMF. 47. Which of the following can serve as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration? a) Oxygen b) Nitrate c) Sulfate d) Both b and c 48. Why does anaerobic respiration conserve less energy than aerobic respiration? a) It uses electron acceptors that have lower reduction potentials than oxygen. b) It lacks an electron transport chain entirely. c) It produces ATP exclusively through fermentation. d) It does not utilize NADH as an electron carrier. 49. Which of the following best describes the ecological importance of anaerobic respiration? a) It is limited to specialized environments and has minimal global impact. b) It enables nutrient cycling by utilizing non-oxygen electron acceptors like nitrate and sulfate. c) It produces more ATP than aerobic respiration, fueling rapid growth in microbes. d) It only occurs in human pathogens. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 50. T / F: Chemolithotrophs derive energy by oxidizing inorganic molecules such as ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, or ferrous iron. 51. Why do chemolithotrophs generally release less energy than aerobic chemoorganotrophs? a) Inorganic electron donors have higher reduction potentials than organic donors like glucose. b) Chemolithotrophs lack the enzymes required for ATP synthesis. c) They do not utilize electron transport chains. d) They rely entirely on fermentation. Ammonia into ___________, 52. Nitrification converts ___________ Nitrate to Nitrate while denitrification reduces ___________ N2 ___________. Electron bifurcation 53. ___________________ ____________________ enables anaerobic archaea and bacteria bypass the thermodynamic barrier of unfavorable, endergonic redox reactions by tightly coupling them with favorable, exergonic ones. Phototrophy 54. ___________________ uses light as a source of energy (ATP), while photosynthesis includes the light- driven processes that generate organic molecules. 55. Which of the following principles governs biosynthesis? a) Biosynthetic pathways are completely separate from catabolic pathways. b) Biosynthesis consumes ATP and reducing power to build macromolecules. c) Biosynthesis does not require any metabolic intermediates. d) Biosynthesis produces energy instead of consuming it. 56. How do microbes manage the genomic and energetic costs of biosynthesis? a) By solely increasing their genomic content to encode all possible biosynthetic pathways b) By evolving strategies such as regulating metabolite production, competition, predation, genome loss, and cooperation c) By eliminating all biosynthetic pathways and relying exclusively on environmental resources d) By avoiding interactions with other organisms to conserve energy 57. What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle? a) To generate ATP directly b) To fix CO₂ into organic compounds for growth and metabolism c) To reduce O₂ into H₂O d) To oxidize glucose into pyruvate N2 58. Nitrogen fixation is catalyzed by the nitrogenase complex, which converts ________ into usable nitrogen compounds like ammonia (NH3) for biosynthesis. 59. How did Griffith's experiment contribute to the discovery that DNA is the genetic material? a) It demonstrated that heat-killed S strain bacteria could transform live R strain bacteria into a virulent form, suggesting the presence of a "transforming principle." b) It showed that RNA, not DNA, was responsible for transformation. c) It proved that proteins were the genetic material through transformation. d) It demonstrated that bacterial transformation could occur only in the presence of enzymes degrading DNA. 60. Know the purpose of these processes: DNA replication, transcription, and translation. RNA vs DNA D Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu Sigma factors 61. _______________________ help RNA polymerase recognize specific promoter sequences to initiate transcription. Third position of a codon can tolerate mismatches, allowing 62. The wobble hypothesis states that the ______ tRNA molecules to recognize all codons. fewer ______ 63. What is the first step in forming a translation initiation complex in bacteria? a) The mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit. b) The ribosome binds directly to the stop codon. c) tRNA leaves the ribosome after peptide bond formation. d) The large subunit assembles before the mRNA binds. 64. In bacteria, DNA and RNA polymerases can operate simultaneously on the same template, with transcription beginning before replication is complete. This enables regulatory mechanisms like _____________________, Attentuation where the translation of a leader peptide controls transcription. 65. T / F: Type III secretion systems in Gram-negative bacteria function like molecular syringes to inject proteins directly into host cells. 66. T / F: In negative transcriptional control, a repressor protein binds to the operator to inhibit transcription, while in positive control, an activator protein enhances RNA polymerase binding to the promoter. 67. Which of the following describes an inducible gene? a) It is expressed continuously at a constant level. b) It is expressed only when a specific substrate is present. c) It is turned off in response to a specific signal. d) It encodes proteins involved in basic cellular functions. 68. What role do small RNAs (sRNAs) play in regulating translation? a) They degrade mRNA by binding directly to DNA. b) They can block translation by binding to the ribosome binding site of mRNA. c) They catalyze the formation of ribosomes. d) They modify the structure of tRNAs. 69. T / F: Alternate sigma factors enable RNA polymerase to recognize and transcribe distinct sets of operons under specific environmental conditions. 70. How might operons encoding catabolic enzymes for molecules other than glucose be regulated by catabolite repression? a) They are always expressed regardless of environmental conditions. b) They are turned off in the presence of glucose to prioritize its utilization. c) They are activated when glucose levels are high. d) They only function during DNA replication. Stringent response 71. The _________________________in bacteria is triggered by nutrient deprivation, leading to the accumulation of (p)ppGpp, which adjusts transcription and metabolic activity to conserve resources and prioritize survival. 72. T /F: CRISPR-Cas systems are innate immunity, while restriction-modification mechanisms are adaptive immunity. Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 73. Which of the following best distinguishes spontaneous mutations from induced mutations? a) Spontaneous mutations occur due to environmental agents, while induced mutations arise randomly. b) Spontaneous mutations occur naturally during replication or repair errors, while induced mutations result from exposure to mutagens like UV light or chemicals. c) Spontaneous mutations involve specific mutagens, while induced mutations occur randomly. d) Both spontaneous and induced mutations arise exclusively from replication errors. 74. Which of the following is an example of mutant selection? a) Plating bacteria on a medium containing a specific antibiotic to identify resistant mutants. b) Observing colony morphology to identify mutants with a pigmentation change. c) Exposing bacteria to UV light and looking for colonies that survive. d) Both A and C 75. Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome of horizontal gene transfer? a) DNA is integrated into the host genome. b) DNA is degraded by restriction enzymes. c) DNA is replicated independently as a plasmid. d) DNA always replaces the entire host genome. 76. Which of the following is true about homologous recombination compared to site-specific recombination? a) Homologous recombination requires long identical DNA sequences, while site-specific recombination occurs at short and specific recognition sites. b) Homologous recombination requires recombinase enzymes, while site-specific recombination does not. c) Site-specific recombination only occurs in eukaryotes. d) Both processes involve the replacement of plasmids in bacteria. 77. What distinguishes conjugative plasmids from transposons? a) Conjugative plasmids can transfer themselves between cells, while transposons cannot. b) Transposons encode their own replication machinery, while conjugative plasmids do not. c) Transposons are limited to Gram-positive bacteria. d) Conjugative plasmids require helper proteins for mobility. 78. How do restriction enzymes recognize and hydrolyze DNA? a) By binding to methylated DNA sequences and cleaving at random sites b) By recognizing specific palindromic sequences and cutting at defined locations c) By degrading both RNA and DNA indiscriminately d) By binding to single-stranded DNA and forming sticky ends mRNA into ________, 79. Reverse transcriptase catalyzes the conversion of ________ cDNA which can be used for cloning and sequencing. 80. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of a cloning vector? a) Origin of replication b) Selectable marker gene c) Unique restriction sites d) RNA polymerase enzyme Jaedyn Wint, Tutor & SI Leader MCB3020 [email protected] SI: W&F 11:30–12:20pm (GS 222) Tutoring: W 2:00-4:00pm (SLC) Appointments: tutoring.fau.edu 81. Which of the following best describes cosmids? a) They are plasmids engineered to carry large DNA fragments that can be packaged into phages for delivery. b) They are bacterial artificial chromosomes used exclusively for human genome projects. c) They are cloning vectors derived from yeast chromosomes. d) They are plasmids with no selectable markers or origins of replication. 82. T / F: Electroporation and chemical transformation are two common techniques for introducing DNA into host cells. 83. What happens during the annealing step of PCR? (discuss ways PCR cycle conditions can affect fragment length) a) DNA is denatured into single strands. b) Primers bind to complementary sequences on the template DNA. c) DNA polymerase extends the primers. d) The template DNA is degraded. 84. What is the primary purpose of expression vectors? a) To insert large DNA fragments into eukaryotic cells b) To overexpress genes of interest for protein production c) To monitor bacterial growth rates d) To create genomic libraries 85. T /F: GFP fusion proteins can be used to monitor protein localization and expression in living cells. 86. Which of the following components is essential in the Sanger chain termination method? a) RNA polymerase b) ddNTPs c) Restriction enzymes d) Reverse transcriptase 87. T / F: The Sanger method produces longer read lengths than Illumina sequencing but is less efficient for large-scale projects. Orthologs 88. ______________________ are genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestral gene, Paralogs while _________________________________ are duplicated genes within the same genome that have diverged in function. Genome annotation 89. _________________ __________________________ identifies genes within a genome, assigns their functions, and groups them by their functions in order to create a graphical representation. 90. How does RNA-Seq differ from microarray analysis in studying transcriptomes? a) RNA-Seq detects only highly expressed genes, while microarrays can detect all transcripts. b) RNA-Seq provides a quantitative measure of transcript levels and identifies novel transcripts, while microarrays rely on pre-designed probes. c) Microarrays can sequence entire transcripts, while RNA-Seq cannot. d) RNA-Seq requires fluorescent labeling of RNA, unlike microarrays.