Immunity: HIV/AIDS: SLE Practice Exam PDF

**Immunity/HIV/Aids:** **Question 1: Pathophysiology of HIV** A patient newly diagnosed with HIV asks how the virus affects the immune system. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. \"HIV only affects your red blood cells and doesn\'t cause other issues.\"\ **B. \"HIV is a retrovirus that ta...

**Immunity/HIV/Aids:** **Question 1: Pathophysiology of HIV** A patient newly diagnosed with HIV asks how the virus affects the immune system. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. \"HIV only affects your red blood cells and doesn\'t cause other issues.\"\ **B. \"HIV is a retrovirus that targets your T-helper cells, reducing your immune system\'s ability to fight infections.\"**\ C. \"HIV causes your body to produce excessive white blood cells, leading to immune suppression.\"\ D. \"HIV directly attacks and destroys your spleen, rendering it unable to produce antibodies.\" **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** HIV is a retrovirus that primarily targets T-helper cells (CD4+ cells), which are crucial for immune response coordination. **Question 2: Opportunistic Infections in AIDS** A nurse is caring for a patient with AIDS who has a CD4+ count of 150 cells/μL. Which condition should the nurse monitor for as the most common opportunistic infection? A. Cytomegalovirus retinitis\ B. Kaposi sarcoma\ C. Oral candidiasis (thrush)\ **D. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia** **Correct Answer:** D\ **Rationale:** Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection in patients with a severely compromised immune system due to AIDS. **Question 3: Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) Education** Which statement by a patient indicates correct understanding of Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)? A. \"I need to take PrEP only on the days I am sexually active.\"\ B. \"PrEP can cure HIV if I am exposed to the virus.\"\ **C. \"Taking PrEP daily reduces my risk of sexually acquired HIV by more than 90%.\"**\ D. \"I can stop PrEP immediately if I think I'm no longer at risk.\" **Correct Answer:** C\ **Rationale:** Daily adherence to PrEP can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission, particularly through sexual contact. **Question 4: Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions** A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing a hemolytic transfusion reaction after receiving incompatible blood. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the patient experiencing? A. Type I (IgE-mediated)\ **B. Type II (cytotoxic)**\ C. Type III (immune complex)\ D. Type IV (delayed hypersensitivity) **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** Hemolytic transfusion reactions are Type II hypersensitivity reactions, involving the destruction of red blood cells due to antibody-antigen interactions. **Question 5: HIV Testing and Window Period** A patient has a negative HIV ELISA test but is concerned about recent risky behavior. What is the best response by the nurse? A. \"A negative result confirms you are HIV-free.\"\ **B. \"You should repeat the test in three months because of the window period.\"**\ C. \"You need a Western blot test immediately to confirm your status.\"\ D. \"The ELISA test detects the virus within 48 hours of exposure.\" **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** The window period for HIV refers to the time between exposure and detectable antibody levels, which can take up to three months **Question 6: Nursing Management for HIV** What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with HIV experiencing severe diarrhea and weight loss? A. Deficient Knowledge related to HIV transmission\ **B. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than body requirements related to diarrhea**\ C. Anxiety related to chronic disease management\ D. Risk for Infection related to opportunistic pathogens **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** Severe diarrhea and weight loss directly impact nutritional status, requiring priority intervention to restore balance. **Question 7: Immunoglobulins and Hypersensitivity Reactions** A nurse educates a patient about the role of IgE in allergic responses. Which statement by the patient shows understanding? A. \"IgE antibodies are the first to respond to infections.\"\ B. \"IgE antibodies protect mucous membranes from invaders.\"\ **C. \"IgE antibodies increase during allergic reactions and anaphylaxis.\"**\ D. \"IgE antibodies are most abundant and provide long-term immunity.\" **Correct Answer:** C\ **Rationale:** IgE antibodies play a key role in allergic reactions and anaphylaxis by binding to allergens and triggering histamine release. **Question 8: HIV and Ohio Law on Disclosure** A nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with HIV about legal requirements for disclosure in Ohio. Which statement by the nurse is accurate? **A. \"You must disclose your HIV status before engaging in any sexual activity.\"**\ B. \"You need to disclose your status only to healthcare providers.\"\ C. \"Ohio law does not require disclosure of HIV status to anyone.\"\ D. \"HIV disclosure laws only apply if your viral load is detectable.\" **Correct Answer:** A\ **Rationale:** Ohio law mandates that individuals with HIV disclose their status to partners before sexual activity to prevent transmission. **Question 9: HAART Therapy Goals** A patient newly prescribed highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) asks about its goals. Which is the nurse\'s best response? A. \"HAART cures HIV by eliminating all viruses from your body.\"\ **B. \"The main goal of HAART is to decrease your viral load and increase your CD4+ count.\"**\ C. \"HAART will prevent all opportunistic infections immediately.\"\ D. \"This therapy ensures that HIV will not be transmitted to others.\" **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** HAART aims to suppress the viral load and improve immune function by increasing CD4+ cell counts.Continued: **Question 1: HIV Pathophysiology** Which of the following best describes how HIV impacts the immune system? A. HIV destroys the spleen, eliminating antibody production.\ **B. HIV targets and destroys CD4+ T-helper cells, impairing immune responses.**\ C. HIV increases the production of white blood cells, leading to autoimmune reactions.\ D. HIV directly attacks bone marrow, halting red blood cell production. **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** HIV infects and depletes CD4+ T-helper cells, which are crucial for coordinating immune responses, leading to immunosuppression. **Question 2: Opportunistic Infections in AIDS** A nurse is educating a group about opportunistic infections in AIDS patients. Which of the following is a fungal infection most commonly seen in this population? A. Cytomegalovirus\ **B. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia**\ C. Oral hairy leukoplakia\ D. Epstein-Barr virus **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is a common opportunistic fungal infection in patients with AIDS. **Question 3: HIV Transmission Prevention** Which statement made by a patient indicates understanding of Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)? A. \"I should take PrEP only after being exposed to HIV.\"\ **B. \"Taking PrEP daily can significantly reduce my risk of acquiring HIV.\"**\ C. \"PrEP is used to cure HIV after infection.\"\ D. \"I can stop taking PrEP after one month of use.\" **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** PrEP is a daily medication that significantly reduces the risk of acquiring HIV through sexual contact or injection drug use. **Question 4: Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions** A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops a hemolytic reaction. What type of hypersensitivity is this? A. Type I (IgE-mediated)**\ B. Type II (Cytotoxic)\ **C. Type III (Immune complex-mediated)\ D. Type IV (Delayed-type) **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** Hemolytic transfusion reactions are Type II hypersensitivity reactions, involving antibody-mediated destruction of red blood cells. **Question 5: HIV Testing and Window Period** A patient with recent high-risk exposure tests negative for HIV using an ELISA test. What should the nurse advise? A. \"This result confirms you are not infected.\"\ **B. \"Repeat testing in 3 months due to the window period.\"**\ C. \"You should begin antiretroviral therapy immediately.\"\ D. \"No further testing is needed if you feel well.\" **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** The window period refers to the time it takes for HIV antibodies to become detectable, requiring repeat testing in 3 months. **Question 6: HAART Goals** What is the primary goal of Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART) in HIV treatment? A. To cure HIV and eliminate the virus from the body.\ **B. To suppress viral load and improve CD4+ T-cell counts.**\ C. To prevent the transmission of HIV without additional precautions.\ D. To manage symptoms without reducing viral load. **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** The goal of HAART is to suppress viral replication and improve immune function by increasing CD4+ counts. **Question 7: Nursing Care for Hypersensitivity** A patient develops swelling and difficulty breathing after receiving antibiotics. What is the nurse\'s first action? A. Administer prescribed antihistamines.**\ B. Establish and maintain a patent airway.\ **C. Document the reaction in the patient\'s chart.\ D. Notify the healthcare provider. **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** Securing the airway is the priority in anaphylaxis to prevent respiratory distress or failure **Question 8: Education on Immune Health for Older Adults** Which recommendation should the nurse provide to minimize the impact of reduced immunity in older adults? A. \"Limit physical activity to conserve energy.\"\ B. \"Avoid immunizations, as they are less effective with age.\"\ **C. \"Ensure adequate sleep, hydration, and nutrition to support immunity.\"\ **D. \"Take antibiotics regularly to prevent infections.\" **Correct Answer:** C\ **Rationale:** Good nutrition, hydration, and sleep are essential to maintaining immune function in older adults **Question 9: Kaposi Sarcoma in HIV** A nurse assesses a patient with HIV and suspects Kaposi sarcoma. Which finding is most consistent with this condition? A. Painless, raised white lesions on the tongue.\ **B. Purple or brown lesions on the skin and mucous membranes.\ **C. Diffuse rash with accompanying fever and malaise.\ D. Generalized lymphadenopathy and night sweats. **Correct Answer:** B\ **Rationale:** Kaposi sarcoma presents as purple or brown lesions and is commonly associated with late-stage HIV/AIDS. **Question 10: Patient Education on HIV Disclosure** A patient with HIV asks about their legal responsibility to disclose their status. What is the nurse\'s best response? **A. \"You must disclose your HIV status before engaging in any sexual activity.\"**\ B. \"Disclosure is only required if your partner asks.\"\ C. \"You do not need to disclose if your viral load is undetectable.\"\ D. \"Disclosure is only required if you are symptomatic.\" **Correct Answer:** A\ **Rationale:** Legal requirements mandate disclosure of HIV status before engaging in sexual activity to prevent transmission. **Hypersensitivity and SLE:** **Question 1** A nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with Type I hypersensitivity reaction about potential triggers. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. \"I should avoid consuming foods that I have had allergic reactions to in the past.\"\ B. \"Carrying an epinephrine auto-injector can help me manage a severe allergic reaction.\"\ C. \"Antihistamines can help control symptoms of mild allergic reactions.\"\ **D. \"I only need to avoid triggers during the flu season.\"** **Correct Answer: D**\ **Rationale:** Type I hypersensitivity reactions can occur at any time and are not limited to flu season. Avoidance of allergens, use of medications, and emergency management strategies are year-round practices. **Question 2** A patient with SLE presents with a red, butterfly-shaped rash on their face. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse? A. Assess the patient for joint pain and swelling.\ **B. Educate the patient about using sunscreen and limiting sun exposure.\ **C. Monitor for signs of infection due to immunosuppressive therapy.\ D. Obtain a urine sample to check for proteinuria. **Correct Answer: B**\ **Rationale:** Sun exposure can exacerbate symptoms of SLE, including the characteristic rash. Teaching the patient about sun protection is a key preventive measure. **Question 3** A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving corticosteroid therapy for SLE. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention? A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.\ **B. Complaints of abdominal pain and black, tarry stools.**\ C. Weight gain of 3 pounds over a week.\ D. Mild swelling in the lower extremities. **Correct Answer: B**\ **Rationale:** Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of corticosteroid therapy that requires immediate intervention. **Question 4** A patient undergoing treatment with cyclophosphamide for SLE asks the nurse about lifestyle modifications. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding? A. \"I can continue my normal exercise routine, including weightlifting and jogging.\"\ **B. \"I should avoid crowded places and inform my doctor if I develop a fever.\"\ **C. \"It is safe to take over-the-counter herbal supplements without consulting my doctor.\"\ D. \"I should plan to conceive while taking this medication to avoid complications.\" **Correct Answer: B**\ **Rationale:** Cyclophosphamide suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Patients should avoid exposure to infections and report symptoms like fever promptly. Pregnancy should be planned with medical guidance to avoid potential risks. **Question 5** A patient develops a reaction 48 hours after being exposed to poison ivy. This reaction is characterized by localized redness and itching. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is the nurse dealing with? A. Type I\ B. Type II\ C. Type III**\ D. Type IV** **Correct Answer: D**\ **Rationale:** Poison ivy causes a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, a delayed response mediated by T-cells and macrophages. **Question 6** A patient experiencing an acute Type I hypersensitivity reaction is prescribed epinephrine. Which statement best explains the rationale for this treatment? A. \"Epinephrine stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system to reduce inflammation.\"\ B. \"Epinephrine blocks the production of antibodies to prevent further reactions.\"\ **C. \"Epinephrine reverses bronchospasm and vasodilation caused by histamine release.\"**\ D. \"Epinephrine decreases the release of antigens from mast cells and basophils.\" **Correct Answer: C**\ **Rationale:** Epinephrine is a first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It acts by reversing bronchospasm and vasodilation, key features of Type I hypersensitivity reactions. **Question 7** A nurse is caring for a patient with SLE who complains of joint pain and fatigue. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this patient? A. Risk for Disturbed Body Image\ B. Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion\ **C. Risk for Activity Intolerance\ **D. Chronic Confusion **Correct Answer: C**\ **Rationale:** Fatigue and joint pain are common symptoms of SLE and can lead to reduced activity tolerance. Addressing this diagnosis involves planning rest periods and encouraging energy-conserving activities. **Question 8** A patient undergoing testing for SLE has a markedly elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and positive anti-DNA antibodies. What is the clinical significance of these findings? A. They confirm a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.\ **B. They are specific diagnostic markers for SLE.\ **C. They indicate a potential for drug-induced lupus.\ D. They suggest the presence of an acute bacterial infection. **Correct Answer: B**\ **Rationale:** Positive anti-DNA antibodies and elevated ESR are specific and indicative of systemic inflammation and autoimmunity seen in SLE. **Question 9** A nurse is teaching a patient with SLE about strategies to manage skin involvement. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching? A. \"I should apply sunscreen with SPF 30 or higher when going outside.\"\ B. \"Using mild soap and moisturizing cream can help prevent dryness.\"\ **C. \"I can use a tanning bed to even out the rash on my skin.\"**\ D. \"Wearing a wide-brimmed hat will help protect my skin from the sun.\" **Correct Answer: C**\ **Rationale:** Tanning beds exacerbate skin lesions and can worsen symptoms in patients with SLE. Sun protection is crucial to avoid flare-ups. **Question 10** A patient with a history of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is scheduled for a blood transfusion. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Administer acetaminophen prophylactically.\ **B. Ensure the blood type is matched and verified by two nurses.\ **C. Monitor for delayed reactions 24 hours after the transfusion.\ D. Assess for skin rash immediately before starting the transfusion. **Correct Answer: B**\ **Rationale:** Type II hypersensitivity reactions can occur with ABO incompatibility during blood transfusions. Ensuring proper blood type verification is critical to prevent hemolytic reactions.