MBBS I Sample Questions PDF

# MBBS I Sample Questions ## Table of Contents ### SECTION A - SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block - SECTION A: EXTENDED MATCHING QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block - SECTION A: STRUCTURED ANSWER QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block ### SECTION B -...

# MBBS I Sample Questions ## Table of Contents ### SECTION A - SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block - SECTION A: EXTENDED MATCHING QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block - SECTION A: STRUCTURED ANSWER QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block ### SECTION B - SECTION B: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block - SECTION B: EXTENDED MATCHING QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block - SECTION B: STRUCTURED ANSWER QUESTIONS - IASM Block - CPRS Block ## SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS * **You are about to give levobupivicaine, which is a local anaesthetic drug, for local wound infiltration to reduce postoperative pain after surgery. How do local anaesthetic drugs block pain signalling transmission?** * A. Blocking K+ channels * B. Blocking Na+ channels * C. Opening K+ channels * D. Opening Na+ channels Answer: B * **Which of the following is typically recovered from the skin scraping of a patient with tinea infection?** * A. Aspergillus fumigatus * B. Cryptococcus neoformans * C. Microsporum canis * D. Rhizopus microsporus Answer: C * **Infections by which of the following organisms is normally diagnosed by antibody testing rather than bacterial culture?** * A. Klebsiella pneumoniae * B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa * C. Shigella flexneri * D. Treponema pallidum Answer: D * **Which group of parasites typically has an elongated and segmented appearance?** * A. Cestodes * B. Nematodes * C. Protozoa * D. Trematodes Answer: A * **A 24-year-old male patient complains of a recent onset of purulent urethral discharge. What is the MOST LIKELY pathogen involved?** * A. Candida albicans * B. Enterococcus faecalis * C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae * D. Staphylococcus aureus Answer: C * **Which of the following host immune defects predisposes to tuberculosis?** * A. Defective antibody production * B. Defective complement production * C. Defective neutrophil production * D. Defective T-lymphocyte production Answer: D * **The dermis of the skin is made of two major protein fibres. What is the major protein which makes up the dermis of the skin?** * A. Collagen * B. Elastin * C. Ground substance * D. Vimentin Answer: A * **Hair growth occurs in a cycle. What is the average length of the anagen phase in hair growth?** * A. 3 days * B. 3 weeks * C. 3 months * D. 3 years Answer: D * **There are different modes of secretion in the glandular epithelium. Which of the following glands is involved in apocrine secretion?** * A. Mammary gland * B. Pancreatic gland * C. Salivary gland * D. Sebaceous gland Answer: A * **Based on the images above, which epithelium is well suited to withstand increased wear and tear forces in the moist mucosal cavity such as the oral cavity?** A picture, labelled **Fig. 1**, with four sections labelled A,B,C,D is displayed. Each section is a microscopic view of different epithelial tissues. * A. A * B. B * C. C * D. D Answer: C * **During oogenesis, female gamete cells progress through different stages of meiosis and form the primary, secondary and mature oocytes. At which stage of meiosis is the oocyte when it is ovulated?** * A. Metaphase of meiosis I * B. Metaphase of meiosis II * C. Prophase of meiosis I * D. Prophase of meiosis II Answer: B * **Haemostasis is the process to stop bleeding. Which precursor blood cell gives rise to the formed elements responsible for haemostasis?** * A. Lymphoblast * B. Megakaryocyte * C. Myeloblast * D. Proerythroblast Answer: B * **There are different types of cells in the nervous system. Dysfunctional apical cilia of which type of cells may alter choroid plexus function and lead to hydrocephalus?** * A. Astrocytes * B. Ependymal cells * C. Microglia * D. Schwann cells Answer: B * **Epithelium, Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining, High magnification.** A picture displaying the epithelium of the urinary bladder from a histology atlas is shown. * **With reference to the image above, which organ is lined with this type of epithelium?** * A. Oesophagus * B. Skin * C. Trachea * D. Urinary bladder Answer: D * **You are providing care for a family with a rare neurological disorder. A boy and a girl are affected and show very similar symptoms. Three other siblings and the biological parents are healthy. You suspect a monogenic disease. Which inheritance pattern would be the MOST PLAUSIBLE?** * A. Autosomal dominant * B. Autosomal recessive * C. Mitochondrial * D. X-linked Answer: B * **In anaerobic cellular respiration, pyruvate is converted to lactate. Which of the following is required in the conversion?** * A. ADP * B. ATP * C. NAD+ * D. NADH Answer: D * **In vitro fertilisation can help carriers of genetic diseases. Which reproductive technology leads to babies with genetic material from three individuals?** * A. CRISPR/Cas9 * B. Embryo splitting * C. Mitochondrial replacement * D. Sperm donation Answer: C * **Deficiency of vitamin C leads to scurvy. Vitamin C is required for which protein post-translational modification?** * A. Cysteine oxidation * B. Lysine methylation * C. Proline hydroxylation * D. Tyrosine phosphorylation Answer: C * **The mammalian cell cycle can be stopped at specific checkpoints when sensing unfavourable signals. When DNA replication is incomplete, the cell cycle arrests at which of the following checkpoints?** * A. Go * B. G1 * C. G2 * D. M Answer: C * **In aerobic cellular respiration, pyruvate is oxidised to form acetyl­-CoA. Which of the following is also required in this reaction step?** * A. FADH * B. FADH2 * C. NAD+ * D. NADH Answer: C * **Many diseases are associated with defects in RNA processing. In which cellular compartment does RNA processing mainly occur?** * A. Cytoplasm * B. Endoplasmic reticulum * C. Golgi apparatus * D. Nucleus Answer: D * **Single gene disorders often show a predictable 'Mendelian' inheritance pattern. Which pattern of affected individuals in a pedigree diagram would suggest an autosomal dominant inheritance?** * A. All generations are affected * B. Generations are skipped * C. Only females are affected * D. Only males are affected Answer: A * **Vaccination offers long lasting antigen-specific immune protection. What is the key cellular mediator responsible for this protection?** * A. Antibodies * B. Effector T cells * C. Immature B cells * D. Memory lymphocytes Answer: D * **The human body is made up of several fluid compartments. How do you calculate the intracellular fluid volume of the body?** * A. Extracellular fluid volume + interstitial fluid volume - plasma volume * B. Interstitial fluid volume - plasma volume + total body fluid volume * C. Plasma volume + extracellular fluid volume + total body fluid volume * D. Total body fluid volume - plasma volume - interstitial fluid volume Answer: D * **Vesicular transport moves materials into or out of a cell. What process describes the release of neurotransmitters at a chemical synapse?** * A. Endocytosis * B. Exocytosis * C. Phagocytosis * D. Pinocytosis Answer: B * **Calcium ions play an important role in excitation-contraction coupling. Which protein can be activated by calcium ions?** * A. Actin * B. Myosin * C. Tropomyosin * D. Troponin Answer: D * **The core body temperature is normally maintained at a relatively constant level by the thermoregulatory centre. What body response occurs when the core body temperature is below the thermal set-point of the thermoregulatory centre?** * A. Cutaneous vasodilation * B. Decrease in heat production. * C. Shivering * D. Sweating Answer: C * **Dr. Kwong has invented a new blood test for the diagnosis of a disease. What is the false negative rate of this new diagnostic test equivalent to?** * A. 1-sensitivity of the test * B. 1-specificity of the test * C. The negative likelihood ratio of the test * D. The negative predictive value of the test Answer: A * **A test is positive in 60 out of 100 patients and 60 out of 100 normal individuals. What is the positive predictive value of this new test?** * A. 0.00 * B. 0.50 * C. 0.60 * D. 1.00 Answer: B * **A key part of the United Nations (UN) Sustainable Development Goals (SDG3) is to achieve universal health coverage (UHC). What is the target goal for achieving universal health coverage other than access to essential health services and medicines for all?** * A. Development and training of the health care workforce * B. Financial risk protection * C. Public health care system improvement * D. Regulation of health care providers and insurance companies Answer: B * **Drugs can be administrated by different routes. Each route has its specific purposes, advantages and disadvantages. Which of the following is a characteristic of parenteral route of administration?** * A. Intramuscular injection produces a slower response than subcutaneous injection. * B. Subclavian vein is not a suitable site of intravenous infusion. * C. Subcutaneous injection can be given by the patients themselves. * D. Suspension can be injected subcutaneously but not intramuscularly. Answer: C * **Malabsorption of fructose may occur after large consumption of fruit juice. How does fructose get into blood from the small intestine?** * A. By emulsification * B. By glucose transporter * C. By simple diffusion * D. Via intracellular gap junction Answer: B * **A single motor neuron and its innervated muscle fibres constitute a motor unit, What physiological response is triggered in muscle fibres when the motor neuron is stimulated by a threshold stimulus?** * A. Complete tetanus * B. Incomplete tetanus * C. Recruitment of all motor units * D. Recruitment of one motor unit Answer: D * **Mental activities impact on human health. According to the "Zang-Fu" theory in Chinese Medicine, which emotion condition would affect the function of "the Liver"?** * A. Anger * B. Fear * C. Joy * D. Sadness Answer: A * **The innate immune system consists of humoral and cellular components. Which of the following cell types are present in the innate immune system?** * A. B lymphocytes * B. Macrophages * C. Plasma cells * D. T lymphocytes Answer: B * **During infections, many soluble factors mediate innate immunity against invading pathogens. Which of the following soluble factors is directly involved in innate immune response?** * A. Complement * B. Granzyme B * C. Immunoglobulin * D. Toll-like receptor Answer: A * **An intravenous drug addict was diagnosed to have disseminated tuberculosis. Which of the following would be the characteristic cell type seen in the biopsies that would be diagnostic of his condition?** * A. Langhans giant cells * B. Lymphocytes * C. Neutrophils * D. Plasma cells Answer: A * **The innate immune system provides first-line defence mechanisms and consists of humoral and cellular components. Which of the following cellular components does it include?** * A. Lymphocytes * B. Neutrophils * C. Plasma cells * D. Stromal cells Answer: B * **Phenytoin is a drug for treating epilepsy, and it is highly lipophilic. What would be the concern for an obese patient to use phenytoin?** * A. A delayed onset of drug action * B. A higher maximal response of the drug * C. A lower maximal response of the drug * D. A rapid onset of drug action Answer: A * **During implantation, the blastocyst is embedded into the maternal endometrium. Which cell layer plays the MOST ACTIVE role in invading the endometrium?** * A. Cytotrophoblast * B. Epiblast * C. Hypoblast * D. Syncytiotrophoblast Answer: D * **Haematoxylin and eosin-stained section of the tracheal epithelium.** A picture depicting the tracheal epithelium from a histology atlas is shown. * **What types of collagen fibres contribute to layer X?** * A. Type I and II * B. Type II and III * C. Type III and IV * D. Type IV and VII Answer: C * **An electron micrograph of the basal aspect of a gingival epithelial cell.** A microscopic image of a gingival epithelial cell is displayed. * **What are the arrowed structures that help anchor epithelial cells to the underlying basal lamina?** * A. Desmosomes * B. Hemidesmosomes * C. Zona adherens * D. Zona occludens Answer: B * **Photograph of blood smear.** A picture depicting a blood smear with four different blood cells (A,B,C,D) labelled. * **Which formed element of blood contains helminthotoxic granules?** * A. A * B. B * C. C * D. D Answer: B * **Different types of tissues participate in generating movements.** A microscopic image of skeletal muscle is displayed. * **Which type of tissue is shown in the picture (arrowed)?** * A. Cardiac muscle * B. Dense regular connective * C. Skeletal muscle * D. Smooth muscle Answer: C * **Microscopic image of spinal cord.** A microscopic image depicting the spinal cord (cross-section) is displayed. * **Which type of cells shown in the picture (arrowed) lines the inner surface of the central canal of the spinal cord?** * A. Astrocytes * B. Ependymal cells * C. Oligodendrocytes. * D. Pyramidal cells Answer: B * **The mesoderm germ layer differentiates to form different structures of our body. Which of the following is derived from the intermediate mesoderm layer?** * A. Brain * B. Heart * C. Kidney * D. Vertebra Answer: C * **Skin. Stain: H&E. Medium magnification.** A picture depicting a skin sample from a histology atlas that shows multiple layers of the epidermis. * **Given the unique features of the skin in this slide, identify the specific region of the body from which this skin sample was obtained.** * A. Abdomen * B. Palm of the hand * C. Scalp * D. Upper eyelid Answer: B * **Skin, Low Power (H&E)** A microscopic image displaying cross-section of the skin (low-power) is shown. * **What is the arrowed structure?** * A. Blood vessel, artery * B. Blood vessel, vein * C. Duct of a sweat gland * D. Nerve Answer: C * **Skin. Medium Power (H&E)** A microscopic image displaying cross-section of the skin (medium-power) is shown. * **What is the predominant cell type in the outlined area?** * A. Fibroblasts * B. Myocytes (smooth) * C. Myocytes (striated) * D. Schwann cells Answer: A * **The diagram showed a specimen of the external muscle layers of the middle 1/3 of the oesophagus.** A picture showing the oesophagus, along with the external muscle layers is displayed. * **Which type of tissue is found in the circled area?** * A. Dense regular connective tissue * B. Serosa * C. Skeletal muscle * D. Smooth muscle Answer: C * **A patient was diagnosed with an autosomal dominant skin-blistering disorder, a common clinical manifestation involving the formation of blisters between the epidermis and dermis. Disorder of which specific components of cytoskeleton was associated with this condition?** * A. Actin * B. Keratin * C. Tubulin * D. Vimentin Answer: B * **A section of cerebral cortex is shown.** A microscopic image of brain tissue is displayed. * **What are the cells indicated by the arrows in the specimen of cerebral cortex?** * A. Bipolar neurones * B. Multipolar neurones * C. Pseudounipolar neurones * D. Schwann cells Answer: B * **A specimen of sympathetic ganglion is shown.** A microscopic image of part of a sympathetic ganglion (neural tissue) is displayed. * **What are the cells indicated by the arrows?** * A. Astrocytes * B. Multipolar neurones * C. Pseudounipolar neurones * D. Satellite glial cells Answer: D * **A male newborn was diagnosed with a complex of congenital defects affecting both the urinary and genital ducts. A family history of similar problems suggested that a genetic cause might be involved. In which embryonic site was this genetic defect expressed?** * A. Ectoderm * B. Intermediate mesoderm * C. Lateral plate mesoderm * D. Paraxial mesoderm Answer: B * **A muscle specimen.** A microscopic image of cardiac muscle is displayed. * **Which type of muscle tissue is found in the picture?** * A. Cardiac muscle * B. Skeletal muscle * C. Smooth muscle * D. Visceral striated muscle Answer: A * **Sagittal section of the knee.** A picture depicting the sagittal view of the knee joint is shown. * **Which fluid normally fills the arrowed space?** * A. Cerebrospinal * B. Lymph * C. Serous * D. Synovial Answer: D * **Spinal muscular atrophy is a hereditary disease that results in a loss of motor neurons and muscle wasting. Spinal muscular atrophy is caused by defects in which underlying molecular process?** * A. Protein translation * B. RNA Splicing * C. Transcriptional initiation * D. Transcriptional termination Answer: B * **An understanding of gene expression is important for medicine. Which of the following stops an enhancer from interacting with a promoter in vivo?** * A. Antagonist * B. Antibody * C. Inhibitor * D. Insulator Answer: D * **Pre-clinical research has found a new drug for treating cystic fibrosis, but It is only effective in patients with specific cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene variants. What test should be performed on cystic fibrosis patients to determine their suitability for the drug?** * A. Blood glucose test * B. DNA genotyping test * C. Lung function test * D. Sweat test Answer: B * **Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a monogenic disease inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. Why can heterozygous female carriers also develop symptoms for the disease?** * A. Dosage compensation * B. Lack of Y-chromosome * C. Mitochondrial heteroplasmy * D. Skewed X-inactivation Answer: D * **A family with a history of autosomal recessive cystic fibrosis have opted for in-vitro fertilisation. They want to use genetic testing to reduce the risk of their future child developing the condition. What genetic test would be APPROPRIATE?** * A. Direct-to-consumer genetic test * B. New-born screening * C. Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis * D. Pre-natal screening Answer: C * **A large volume of structured and unstructured data is commonly found in an electronic health record database. Why are patient diagnosis International Classification of Diseases (ICD) codes considered as structured data in big data analysis?** * A. Extraction of information requires natural language processing. * B. ICD codes allow a standardised definition of diagnosis. * C. The size of these data is very large. * D. These codes can be entered by many different people. Answer: B * **Chylomicrons are formed in the intestinal epithelium for the transport of lipids. Which of the following molecules is packaged into chylomicrons?** * A. Leukotriene * B. Prostaglandin * C. Short-chain fatty acid * D. Triacylglycerol Answer: D * **Which of the following hormones promotes the storage of fuels for the maintenance of blood glucose levels?** * A. Cortisol * B. Epinephrine * C. Glucagon * D. Insulin Answer: D * **Some cancers are related to point mutations in RAS. Such mutation locks RAS in an active state for a prolonged duration. Why is RAS locked in an active state?** * A. Decreased GDP binding * B. Decreased GEF activity * C. Decreased GTP binding * D. Decreased GTPase activity Answer: D * **Cell cycle checkpoints are important surveillance mechanisms. Which cell cycle checkpoint would be activated if a duplicated chromosome is not properly attached to the mitotic spindle?** * A. Anaphase * B. Metaphase * C. Prophase * D. Telophase Answer: B * **Antibodies can elicit protective function by bridging with other immune components. Which immune component is recruited for antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity?** * A. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells * B. Complement * C. Macrophages * D. Natural killer cells Answer: D * **Glucose is oxidised in glycolysis. Which of the following compounds is used for the oxidation of glucose in glycolysis to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?** * A. Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) * B. Flavin mononucleotide (FMN) * C. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) * D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) Answer: C * **Both hereditary genetics and lifestyle choices impact an individual's susceptibility to colorectal cancer. What percentage of colorectal cancer is hereditary?** * A. Between 10 to 20% * B. Between 20 to 30% * C. More than 30% * D. Up to 10% Answer: D * **Haemoglobin carries oxygen in the human body, and is often described as being in the T state or in the R state. What is the difference between T state and R state haemoglobin?** * A. T state has low affinity for oxygen, but R state has high affinity for oxygen. * B. T state is allosteric, but R state is cooperative. * C. T state is oxygen-bound, but R state is oxygen-free. * D. T state is tetrameric, but R state is monomeric. Answer: A * **Carbon monoxide poisoning accounts for dozens of emergency department visits in Hong Kong every year. Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs through carbon monoxide binding to which component of haemoglobin?** * A. Alpha subunit * B. Backbone histidine * C. Beta subunit * D. Iron ion of the haem Answer: D * **CRISPR-Cas9 is revolutionising many aspects of molecular medicine. Which enzyme activity does engineered dCas9 lack?** * A. Deaminase * B. Endonuclease * C. Ligase * D. Protease Answer: B * **Genetic variation accounts for phenotypic differences between individuals. What is the MOST COMMON type of genetic variation in the human genome?** * A. Copy number variation * B. Insertion and deletion * C. Single nucleotide polymorphism * D. Structural variation Answer: C * **Alpha-ketoacid is a reaction product of amino acid deamination. Which alpha-ketoacid is derived from alanine deamination?** * A. Acetyl-CoA * B. Alpha-ketoglutarate * C. Oxaloacetate * D. Pyruvate Answer: D * **Cellular respiration involves a set of metabolic reactions. Where in the cell does the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA take place?** * A. Cytosol * B. Endoplasmic reticulum * C. Mitochondria * D. Nucleus Answer: C * **Oncogenes can be activated by a variety of mechanisms. Which of the following is a common mechanism of oncogene activation?** * A. Aneuploidy * B. Gene conversion * C. Gene deletion * D. Point mutation Answer: D * **Pluripotent stem cells hold great promise for regenerative medicine. Which of the following properties is typically associated with pluripotent stem cells?** * A. Ability to differentiate into extraembryonic tissues * B. Expression of anti-apoptotic genes * C. Low risk of genetic mutations * D. Self-renewal capacity Answer: D * **Metabolism refers to the set of chemical reactions occurring throughout the body to sustain life. Metabolic pathways can be separated into anabolic and catabolic pathways. Which of the following statement BEST describes catabolic pathways?** * A. Catabolic pathways degrade larger molecules into smaller molecules and release energy in the process * B. Catabolic pathways degrade larger molecules into smaller molecules using energy * C. Catabolic pathways synthesize larger molecules from smaller ones and release energy in the process * D. Catabolic pathways synthesize larger molecules from smaller ones using energy Answer: A * **Enzyme inhibitors are compounds that bind to an enzyme and decrease the rate of its reaction. Which of the following BEST describes a noncompetitive inhibitor?** * A. A noncompetitive inhibitor competes with the substrate for the same binding site * B. A noncompetitive inhibitor forms covalent bonds with the enzyme * C. A noncompetitive inhibitor is structurally dissimilar to the substrate * D. Inhibition by a noncompetitive inhibitor can be overcome by the increase in substrate concentration Answer: C * **Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and amino acids in the liver differ in different nutritional states. Which of the following BEST describes the metabolism of fatty acids in the liver during fasting?** * A. Fatty acids will be exported to adipose tissues for storage. * B. Fatty acids will be produced from amino acids. * C. Fatty acids will be produced from glucose. * D. Fatty acids will be used by the liver as the principal source of fuel. Answer: D * **Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) is an important dietary reference standard to prevent the risk of certain nutritional deficiencies. Which of the following BEST describes RDA?** * A. Average amount of a nutrient ingested daily by 50% of the population * B. Average amount of a nutrient required each day to maintain normal function in 50% of the population * C. Average amount of a nutrient required each day to maintain normal function in nearly all of the population * D. Maximum amount of a nutrient ingested daily that prevents deficiency symptoms Answer: C * **A male patient presented to a clinic with fatigue and muscle cramps. He was later diagnosed with thiamine deficiency. Which one of the following is MOST LIKELY to accumulate in a thiamine deficiency?** * A. Alpha-ketoglutarate * B. Fumarate * C. Oxaloacetate * D. Succinyl CoA Answer: A * **Electron transfer in the electron transport chain (ETC) is essential for oxidative phosphorylation to occur. Which of the following statements describes the flow of electrons through the electron transport chain?** * A. Complex I transfers electrons from NADH to cytochrome C. * B. Complex II transfers electrons from FAD to CoQ. * C. Complex III transfers electrons to cytochrome C. * D. Complex IV transfers electrons from oxygen. Answer: C * **Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a popular drug used in 1960s. LSD binds to 5-HT2A serotonergic receptors, which signal through Gq. Which of the following reactions is affected by the action of LSD?** * A. Activation of phosphodiesterase * B. Activation of protein kinase A * C. Inhibition of adenylate cyclase * D. Opening of calcium channels in the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D * **A 30-year-old man has a haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) level of 9%. Which of the following is essential to determine whether the patient has diabetes mellitus?** * A. A clinical examination * B. A decision cut-off value of HbA1c for diabetes mellitus * C. A Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) Curve analysis * D. A reference interval of HbA1c of the general population Answer: B * **The epidermis is composed of different layers of stratified cells. Which layer composes the outermost layer of the epidermis?** * A. Stratum basale * B. Stratum corneum * C. Stratum granulosum * D. Stratum lucidum Answer: B * **The skin is composed of the epidermis, dermis, and subcutis. What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?** * A. Stratum basale * B. Stratum corneum * C. Stratum granulosum * D. Stratum spinosum Answer: B * **Bacterial cell structure is different from human cell structure. What is the unique bacterial structure targeted by penicillin and shown up by Gram stain?** * A. Cell wall peptidoglycan * B. Chromosomal and plasmid DNA * C. Fimbriae and pili. * D. Ribosomal protein Answer: A * **The picture shows a Gram-negative bacterium visualised by dark field microscopy.** A picture depicting a spiral-shaped bacteria is displayed. * **Which of the following terms BEST DESCRIBES the appearance of this bacterium?** * A. Bacillus * B. Coccobacillus * C. Coccus * D. Spirochaete Answer: D * **Plasmodium falciparum is a potentially fatal cause of fever in travellers returning from endemic areas. Which of the following hosts are involved in the life cycle of Plasmodium falciparum?** * A. Aedes mosquitoes, wild birds, humans * B. Anopheles mosquitoes, humans * C. Hard ticks, dogs, humans * D. Hard ticks, humans Answer: B * **A 35-year-old man presented with fever, rash, and multiple joint pain. The diagnosis of disseminated gonococcal infection is suspected. Which of the following accurately describes Neisseria gonorrhoeae?** * A. It can grow on selective media such as Thayer­-Martin agar. * B. It forms Gram­-negative cocci in clusters. * C. It is a facultative anaerobe. * D. It is always susceptible to third­-generation cephalosporins. Answer: A * **Regarding microbiological diagnosis of infection, which of the following methods is rapid, sensitive and specific?** * A. Culture for the microbe using artificial medium or tissue cell line * B. Detecting the host antibody response by enzyme immunoassay. * C. Detecting the microbial DNA/RNA by PCR or RT-PCR * D. Light or electron microscopy examination for the microbe Answer: C * **A 25­-year­-old man presented with fever, myalgia and generalised rash 3 days after returning from a trip to Bangladesh. During the trip, he gave a history of swimming in a crowded river, taking partially cooked seafood in street stalls, and visiting commercial sex worker. He also reported bites by mosquitos and insects. Blood test for Dengue IgM is positive. What is the MOST LIKELY route of transmission of the infection?** * A. Direct contact with a patient. * B. Direct contact with contaminated water. * C. Faecal-oral * D. Mosquito bites Answer: D * **Candida albicans is a medically important yeast that can cause disease in both immunocompetent and immunocompromised hosts. Which of the following clinical syndromes does Candida albicans commonly cause in immunocompetent hosts?** * A. Candidemia * B. Endophthalmitis * C. Esophageal candidiasis * D. Vaginal thrush Answer: D * **The neurosurgery team has just performed a brain surgery on a patient with confirmed Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. What is the optimal way to reprocess the surgical equipment?** * A. Autoclave at 121°C for 30 minutes * B. Dispose the contaminated equipment if possible * C. Sterilisation by immersing in formaldehyde * D. Wiping with 80% isopropanol Answer: B * **Different bacteria are characterised by their staining properties, morphology, and growth requirements. Which of the following pairs of bacteria and characteristics is CORRECT?** * A. Listeria monocytogenes - Gram positive cocci in clusters * B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - obligate anaerobic Gram negative bacilli * C. Treponema pallidum - non-cultivable spirochaetes * D. Vibrio cholerae - Gram negative microaerophilic bacilli Answer: C * **Some environmental bacteria are associated with severe infections in humans. Which of the following Gram negative bacteria is the cause of melioidosis?** * A. Acinetobacter baumannii * B. Burkholderia pseudomallei * C. Legionella pneumophila * D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Answer: B * **You are in charge of the infection control team of a long-term care facility. There is a recent outbreak of norovirus among the residents over the past 2 weeks. What infection control advice will you give to the staff of the facility?** * A. Ask the staff to disinfect their hands with glutaraldehyde after patient contacts. * B. Enforce handwashing in addition to routine use of alcohol hand rubs for hand hygiene. * C. Fumigate all the rooms of the facility with formaldehyde. * D. Replace the alcohol hand rubs with chlorhexidine gluconate. Answer: B * **A lymph node biopsy from an immunosuppressed patient showed presence of caseating granulomas. What are the MOST IMPORTANT cells responsible for the formation of these granulomas?** * A. Epithelioid histiocytes * B. Fibroblasts * C. Foreign body giant cells * D. Plasma cells