Human Health and Disease Class 12 Biology MCQs PDF

Human Health and Disease Class 12 Biology MCQs Question 1. AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV? (a) Transfusion of contaminated blood. (b) Sharing the infected needles. (c) Shaking hands with infected persons. (d) Sexual contact with infected pe...

Human Health and Disease Class 12 Biology MCQs Question 1. AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV? (a) Transfusion of contaminated blood. (b) Sharing the infected needles. (c) Shaking hands with infected persons. (d) Sexual contact with infected persons. Answer: (c) Shaking hands with infected persons. Question 2. ‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the (a) latex of Papever somniferum (b) leaves of Cannabis saliva (c) flowers of Datura (d) fruits of Erythroxyl coca. Answer: (a) latex of Papever somniferum Question 3. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is (a) serotonin (b) colostrum (c) interferon (d) histamine. Answer: (c) interferon Question 4. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of (a) IgG type (b) IgA type (c) IgD type (d) IgE type. Answer: (b) IgA type Question 5. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be (a) nicotine (b) tannic acid (c) curaimin (d) catechin. Answer: (a) nicotine Question 6. Antivenom against snake poison contains (a) antigens (b) antigen-antibody complexes (c) antibodies (d) enzymes Answer: (c) antibodies Question 7. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue ? (a) Spleen (b) Tonsils (c) Pancreas (d) Thymus Answer: (c) Pancreas Question 8. Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing ? (a) Pineal (b) Pituitary (c) Thymus (d) Thyroid Answer: (c) Thymus Question 9. Haemozoin is a (a) precursor of haemoglobin (b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells (c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells (d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells. Answer: (c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells Question 10. One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm. (a) Microsporum (b) Trichophyton (c) Epidermophyton (d) Macrosporum Answer: (d) Macrosporum Question 11. A person with sickle cell anaemia is (a) more prone to malaria (b) more prone to typhoid (c) less prone to malaria (d) less prone to typhoid. Answer: (c) less prone to malaria Question 12. Which of the following facrtors affect human health ? (i) Infections (ii) Silent mutation (iii) Life style (iv) Genetic disorders (a) (i), (ii)and(iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Answer: (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) Question 13. Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ? (a) Diphtheria (b) Flu (c) Cancer (d) Malaria Answer: (c) Cancer Question 14. Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ? (a) Typhoid and AIDS (b) AIDS and cancer (c) Pneumonia and malaria (d) Cancer and malaria Answer: (b) AIDS and cancer Question 15. Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by (a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Trichophyton (c) Salmonella typhi (d) Rhinoviruses. Answer: (c) Salmonella typhi Question 16. Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ? (a) Dysentery (b) Malaria (c) Plague (d) Both (a) & (c) Answer: (d) Both (a) & (c) Question 17. Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ? (a) Legionella spp. (b) Bordetella pertussis (c) Vibrio cholerae (d) Burcella melitensis Answer: (b) Bordetella pertussis Question 18. Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ? (a) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles (b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague (c) Cholera, typhoid, mumps (d) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits Answer: (b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague Question 19. The common cold is caused by (a) Rhino viruses (b) Streptococcus pnemoniae (c) Salmonella typhimurium (d) Plasmodium vivax. Answer: (a) Rhino viruses Question 20. Hepatitis B is transmitted through (a) sneezing (b) female Anopheles (c) coughing (d) blood transfusion. Answer: (b) female Anopheles Question 21. A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in malarial fever, is (a) interferon (b) haemozoin (c) hirudin (d) colostrum Answer: (b) haemozoin Question 22. Humoral immunity is associated with (a) T-cells (b) B-cells (c) macrophages (d) both (a) and (b) Answer: (b) B-cells Question 23. The antibody which can cross placental barrier is. (a) IgA (b) JgE (c) IgM (d) IgG. Answer: (d) IgG. Question 24. The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is (a) IgA (b) IgG (c) IgE (d) IgM Answer: (b) IgG Question 25. A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation. (a) antigen (b) antibiotics (c) exotoxin (d) endotoxins. Answer: (a) antigen Question 26. Passive immunity can be conferred directly by (a) vaccines (b) antitoxins (c) colostrum (d) both (b) & (c) Answer: (d) both (b) & (c) Question 27. Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ? (a) Activated and strong pathogenic antigens (b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens (c) Hyperactive and strong pathogen (d) Preformed antibodies Answer: (b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens Question 28. Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ? (a) Active immunisation (b) Passive immunisation (c) Auto-immunisation (d) Humoral immunisation Answer: (b) Passive immunisation Question 29. The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing (a) B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes (b) antibodies to the toxin (c) weakend pathogen (d) inactivated T-lymphocytes. Answer: (b) antibodies to the toxin Question 30. The injection given against the snake venom contains (a) antigenic proteins (b) preformed antibodies (c) attenuated pathogen (d) all of these. Answer: (b) preformed antibodies Question 31. Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of (a) auto-immunisation (b) passive immunisation (c) active immunisation (d) simple immunisation Answer: (c) active immunisation Question 32. During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the following hosts ? (a) Human (b) Female Anopheles mosquito (c) Male Anopheles mosquito (d) Both (a) and (b) Answer: (b) Female Anopheles mosquito Question 33. Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by (a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) E. coli (c) Streptococcus pneumoniae (d) Trichophyton. Answer: (a) Entamoeba histolytica Question 34. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ? (a) Plague (b) Amoebiasis (c) Leprosy (d) Whooping cough Answer: (b) Amoebiasis Question 35. An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the intestinal passage and whose eggs are excreted along with the faeces of infected person is ______. (a) Wuchereria bancrofti (b) Ascaris (c) Epidermophyton (d) Microsporum Answer: (b) Ascaris Question 36. Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by (a) Ascaris (b) E.coli (c) Wuchereria (d) Trichophyton Answer: (c) Wuchereria Question 37. Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ? (a) Lymphatic vessels (b) Respiratory system (c) Nervous system (d) Blood circulation Answer: (a) Lymphatic vessels Question 38. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ? (a) Filariasis (b) Amoebiasis (c) Typhoid (d) Pneumonia Answer: (a) Filariasis Question 39. Which of the following pairs correctly matches a disease and a pathogen causing it ? (a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi (b) Pneumonia – Haemophilus pneumoniae (c) Malaria – Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Ringworm – Entamoeba histolytica Answer: (a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi Question 40. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom as that of (a) Taenia, a tapeworm (b) Ascaris, a roundworm (c) Rhizopus, a mould (d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm, Answer: (c) Rhizopus, a mould Question 41. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms of _______. (a) elephantiasis (b) ringworm (c) ascariasis (d) amoebiasis Answer: (b) ringworm Question 42. Heroin is commonly called as (a) coke (b) crack (c) smack (d) charas. Answer: (c) smack Question 43. Which compound is formed by acetylation of morphine ? (a) Heroin (b) Cocaine (C) Tobacco. (d) Marijuana Answer: (a) Heroin Question 44. Marijuana is extracted from. (a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant. (b) ergot fungus (c) roots of hemp plant (d) cocoa plant. Answer: (a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant. Question 45. Charas and ganja are the drugs which affect (a) respiratory system (b) cardiovascular system (c) digestive system (d) nervous system. Answer: (b) cardiovascular system Question 46. Cocaine is obtained from (a) Erythroxylon coca (b) Papaver somniferum (c) Atropa belladona (d) Dature stramonium Answer: (a) Erythroxylon coca Question 47. Cocaine is commonly called as (a) smack (b) coke (c) crack (d) both(b)&(c) Answer: (d) both(b)&(c) Question 48. _______ is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with the trasport of the neuro-transmitter __________. (a) Cocaine, acetylcoline (b) Barbituarate, glutamate (c) Cocaine, dopamine (d) Barbiturate, glycine Answer: (c) Cocaine, dopamine Question 49. Whihc of the following plants possess hallucinogenic properties ? (a) Erythroxylon coca (b) Atropa belladona (c) Datura stramonium (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these Question 50. Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons nowadays ? (a) Opioids (b) Barbiturates (c) Cannabinoids (d) Lysergic acid diethly amides (LSD) Answer: (c) Cannabinoids Question 51. Which drug is used as medicine to help patients cope with depression and insomnia ? (a) Morphine (b) Amphetamines (c) Barbiturate (d) Both (b) and (c) Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c) Question 52. Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from (a) inactivated viruses (b) yeast (c) Haemophilus influenzae (d) Salmonella typhimurium. Answer: (b) yeast Question 53. Use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have controlled which of the following infectious diseases ? (a) Polio and tetanus (b) Diphtheria and pheumonia (c) Cancer and AIDS (d) Both (a) and (b) Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b) Question 54. The most abundant antibody produced against allergens is (a) IgE (b) IgA (c) IgG (d) IgM. Answer: (a) IgE Question 55. Which of the following cells actively participate during allergy ? (a) B-lymphocytes (b) Liver cells (c) Mast cells (d) Red blood cells Answer: (c) Mast cells Question 56. The drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy are (a) ati-histamine and adrenaline (b) histamine and thyroxine (c) adrenaline and a-interferon (d) all of these Answer: (a) ati-histamine and adrenaline Question 57. An auto-immune disease is (a) SCID (b) rheumatoid arthritis (c) myasthenia gravis (d) both (b) and (c). Answer: (d) both (b) and (c). Question 58. Which out of the following groups represent auto-immune disorders ? (a) SCID and diphtheria (b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever (c) AIDS and cholera (d) Hepatitis and leukaemia Answer: (b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever Question 59. The primary lymphoid organs are (a) spleen and thymus (b) bone marrow and thymus (c) bone marrow and lymph node (d) thymus and MALT. Answer: (d) thymus and MALT. Question 60. The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cells are (a) spleen and lymph nodes (b) bone marrow and thymus (c) Peyer’s patches and tonsils (d) both (a) and (c). Answer: (d) both (a) and (c). Question 61. Which of these glands is large at the time of birth but in adults, it reduces to a very small size ? (a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal (c) Thymus (d) Spleen Answer: (c) Thymus Question 62. AIDS is widely diagnosed by (a) Widal test (b) ELISA (c) PC (d) Chromatography. Answer: (b) ELISA Question 63. Which of the following day is celebrated as ‘World AIDS Day’ ? (a) 31st March (b) 1st March (c) Ist December (d) 31st December Answer: (c) Ist December Question 64. Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of (a) generating tumors (b) metastasis (c) contact inhibition (d) less number of mitochondrial^cristae. Answer: (c) contact inhibition Question 65. A person suffering from leukaemia has (a) tumors in adipose tissue (b) increased number of plasma cells (c) increased number of melanocytes (d) increased number of WBCs. Answer: (d) increased number of WBCs. Question 66. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in (a) fibroblasts (b) circulatory system (c) immune system (d) epithelial cells. Answer: (a) fibroblasts Question 67. A chemical carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is responsible for (a) skin cancer (b) pancreatic cancer (c) stomach cancer (d) lung cancer. Answer: (d) lung cancer. Question 68. Major factors that cause cancer are (a) oncogenes and polymorphonuclear leucocytes (b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes (c) MHC genes (d) cellular oncogenes and a-interferons. Answer: (b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes Question 69. Which of the following approaches are used for the treatment of cancer ? (a) Immunotherapy (b) Surgery (c) Radiotherapy & chemotherapy (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these Question 70. The substance given to cancer patients in order to activate their immune system and destroy the tumour is (a) histamine (b) interleukin (c) a-interferon (d) morphine. Answer: (c) a-interferon Question 71. In humans, receptors for opioids are present in (a) central nervous system (b) gastrointestinal tract (c) respiratory tract (d) both (a) and (b) Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)