Paramedic Finals Review PDF
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Helen Guzman
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This document is a review of paramedic final exam questions, covering topics such as vehicle safety, patient transport, emergency response, and triage protocols.
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REVIEW 1. Unless the fluid level is low, you should NOT uncap the brake fluid reservoir because D. Brake fluid absorbs moisture from the atmosphere 2. Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT B. Leaving the headlights on. 3. The p...
REVIEW 1. Unless the fluid level is low, you should NOT uncap the brake fluid reservoir because D. Brake fluid absorbs moisture from the atmosphere 2. Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT B. Leaving the headlights on. 3. The paramedic should NOT operate an emergency vehicle if he or she is taking a cold remedy or an analgesic. 4. Air ambulances are advantageous for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT D. the more experience of the flight paramedics. 5. in which of the following situations should a helicopter generally NOT be utilized? A. a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest who has been unresponsive to defibrillation. 6. Which of the following pieces of equipment typically does not require calibration? B. Cardiac monitor. 7. The motor oil level of the ambulance : should be checked prior to starting the engine. 8. When checking the ambulance engine, you note the odor of sewer gas. What should you do? Close the hood and take the ambulance out of service. 9. An ambulance should be remove from service immediately if you feel or hear: B. Brake fade. 10. High performance EMS systems typically use a fractile response time standard, in which: A. a significant fraction of all responses must be achieved within an established time. 11. A third service EMS system is one in which A public agency not affiliated with the fire department provides EMS service. 12. the goal of system status management is to: Minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically. 13. Upon arriving at a motor vehicle crash, the paramedic should look for safety hazards and then: evaluate the need for additional resources. 14. With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that: D. the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with concern for the safety of others. 15. The decision to use lights and siren when transporting a patient to the hospital is MOST dependent upon: C judgment on the part of the paramedic. 16. When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather: the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire. 17. General principles for backing up an ambulance include: stopping the vehicle if you lose sight of your spotter. 18. Which of the following disadvantages of using an air ambulance should concern you the LEAST when utilizing it for a critically injured patient? The cost that will be incurred. 19. When assisting with a helicopter landing at night, you should: avoid shining a spotlight up at the descending aircraft. 20. The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose is called disinfection. 21. You are operating an ambulance In emergency mode on a two way street. The driver in front of you will not yield accordingly. You should : remain behind the vehicle and anticipate that the driver may slam on the brakes. 22. A man tells you that he will be following the ambulance in his personal vehicle as you transport his wife to the ambulance. You should: Advise him to drive at normal speeds and ensure that he knows where the hospital is. 23. You are driving in the right hand lane while transporting a patient to the hospital in non-emergency mode. In your side view mirror, you notice that a small truck is tailgating you. What should you do? Maintain your current speed and advise the dispatcher to contact the police. 24. An ambulance and a fire engine are responding to a motor vehicle crash when both emergency vehicles approach a red light. After the fire engine clears the intersection and proceeds, the operator of the ambulance should: Come to a complete stop and then proceed after looking in all directions. 25. A helicopter has just landed to transport your critically injured patient to the hospital. The helicopter is configured so that the patient must be loaded from the rear of the aircraft. Unless otherwise directed by the flight crew, you should approach the aircraft from the front. 26. The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: is a request for the right of way. 27. When you are dispatched to an emergency, it is MOST important to determine which route will be used to arrive safely.' 28. When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should: use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible. 29. When responding to an emergency scene, you approach a sharp turn in the road. What should you do? Slow the vehicle to the posted speed limit and avoid braking during the turn. 30. As you approach the scene of a car crash, you see two badly damaged vehicles that are off the road to the right. Where should you park the ambulance? 100 feet past the crash site on the right side of the road. 31. command functions include all of the following EXCEPT the triage officer. 32. Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander? Authorizing medical treatment. 33. Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? In a unified command system, multiple agencies from multiple jurisdictions work together to develop a plan that involves shared responsibilities. 34. Prior to implementing any plans or operations at the scene of a multiple casualty incident, you should FIRST: notify your supervisor or the incident commander. 35. Broadly speaking, the finance section chief is responsible for: documenting all expenditures at an incident and seeking reimbursement. 36. At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. 37. Multiple-casualty equipment and supplies needed for airway control include all of the following, EXCEPT Large bore IV catheters for thoracic decompression. 38. the safety officer has the authority and responsibility to stop an emergency operation if he or she believes a rescuer is in danger. 39. When functioning at the scene of a major incident, communication should; be face to face to minimize radio traffic. 40. If an emergency physician is present at the scene of a mass casualty incident, He or she would be the LEAST likely to Assume control over complex rescuer operations. 41. Which of the following statements regarding the rehabilitation group is correct? In addition to meeting the responder's needs for rest, fluids and food, the rehabilitation officer must be prepared to conduct a defusing session if a responder shows signs of stress. 42. Because extrication and rescue are medically complex : the officers responsible for these functions usually function under a specialty branch of the incident command. 43. if a disaster requires a morgue unit leader, it is MOST important for the person who is assigned that function to be aware that some mass casualty incidents involving multiple fatalities may be crime scenes. 44. Which of the following injuries or conditions should be assigned the highest priority? Respiratory distress.' 45. According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if a manual airway maneuver restores breathing. 46. According to the JUMPSTART triage system, if an infant or child is not breathing, you should immediately assess for a pulse. 47. Which of the following statements regarding critical incident stress management at the scene of a mass casualty incident is correct? Rescuers should be encouraged, but not forced to report to the rehabilitation sector for a stress debriefing. 48. During an incident involving a building collapse, a paramedic is assigned eight rescuers under his authority. However, as the incident progresses, the paramedic finds that he is unable to effectively manage the personnel assigned to him. He should: divide tasks and delegate supervision of some tasks to one or more of the rescuers assigned to him. 49. you are caring for a patient with non-life threatening injuries in the treatment section of a multiple- casualty incident when you are approached by several TV reporters who are seeking details regarding the incident. You should: direct the reporters to the public information officer. 50. During an incident involving an explosion, you determine that two critically injured patients should be transported to a trauma center by air. After stabilizing the patients conditions to the best of your ability, you should notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone. 51. Upon arriving at the scene of a major incident, you can clearly see that there are numerous patients, some of whom are receiving care and other whom are walking around unattended. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: report to the staging area for further instructions 52. While triaging patients at a multiple casualty incident, you rapidly assess a patient and determine that she is conscious and alert, bit cannot feel or move anything below her umbilicus. You should place a yellow tag on her and move on the next patient. 53. Upon arriving at the scene of a multiple vehicle crash, you call for additional resources and begin triaging patients using the START triage system. The first patient you assess is a young male who is unconscious and apneic. After manually opening his airway, you note that he starts breathing shallowly. You should: categorize him as an immediate patient. 54. a man stormed into a daycare center and opened fire with a semiautomatic rifle. The scene has been secured by law enforcement, and you are in the process of triaging the injured children. The first child you assess, a 4 year old boy, is responsive and apneic but has a pulse. After manually opening the airway, he remains apneic. You should: provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status. 55. Which of the following interventions would MOST likely be performed while triaging patients with the SALT method? Needle chest decompression. 56. A single command system is one in which a single person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to the incident. 57. The transfer of command should occur. D. face to face, if possible, and in an orderly manner. 58. Occlusive dressings and large bore IV catheters for thoracic decompression are supplies used to address breathing issues at a multiple-casualty incident. 59. The FIRST step in START triage system involves directing all the walking wounded to an easily identifiable landmark. 60. Your unit is the first to arrive at the scene of a bus crash. As you approach the scene, you see multiple patients, some of them lying on the ground not moving and others walking around in a dazed state. You should: remain aware of the potential for hazards. 61. the most difficult part of any rescue is the simultaneous coordination of rescue and treatment. 62. with regards to rescue, it is MOST important for the paramedic to be able to understand and identify potential hazards and determine whether it is safe to gain access to the patient. 63. after the warm zone has been established, it should be demarcated with orange police or fire line tape. 64. Unique dangers associated with confirmed with confined spaces include limited ventilation. 65. Which of the following statements regarding the hot zone at a rescue scene is correct? The hot zone immediately surrounds the dangers of the rescue site and is only accessible by entry and rescue teams. 66. The scope and magnitude of a rescue incident should be reassessed frequently. 67. After a vehicle has been properly stabilized, the simplest way to gain access to a crash victim is to attempt to open the least damaged door. 68. During extrication of a seriously injured patient from his or her crashed vehicle, it is most important to provide emergency care while extrication is in progress if it is safe to do so. 69. Carbon monoxide binds to red blood cells and prevents them from transporting oxygen to all parts of the body. 70. Which of the following statements regarding an EMS provider's role during a trench rescue is correct? EMS providers should attempt to make contact with the patient, but should not enter the trench and attempt rescue. 71. Which of the following situations des NOT depict a technical rescue? Moving a 180 pound man from his living room to the ambulance. 72. Once the patient has been disentangled, your primary focus should be to safely remove the patient. 73. Packaging a patient is MOST accurately defined as preparing the patient for movement as a unit. 74. Which of the following items of personal protective equipment is not always required when performing a water rescue? Contamination protection. 75. When heavy extrication tools are required to force a damaged door open, you should avoid trying to force a door open if the patient is leaning against it. 76. The preferred initial method for disentangling a patient who is trapped between the seat and the steering wheel involves, trying to slide the seat back on its track. 77. The objective of dash displacement is to lift the dash up and move it forward. 78. As the first responding unit to arrive at the scene of a confined space rescue, what is the MOST important information to share with the technical rescue team when they arrive? Whether the incident has changed significantly since your arrival 79. The FIRST step in assuming the self-rescue position if suddenly immersed in fast moving water involves: rolling into a face up arched position with the lower back higher than the feet. 80. The MOST common swift rescue scenario involves: people who attempt to drive their vehicles across a flooded bridge. 81. Your initial attempt to rescue a person from the water should involve reaching out to the victim using any readily available object. 82. in contrast to low-angle rope rescues, high-angle rescues involve situations where the slope of the ground is greater than 45* and rescuers or patients are dependent on a life safety rope. 83. Descending on a fixed rope from a severe angle is called rappelling, 84. A 7 year old child was playing near a large pile of sand when the ground underneath her collapsed. You can hear her crying and asking for her mother. Until the technical rescue team arrives at the scene, you should: maintain verbal contact with the child, but avoid going near the edge of the trench. 85. You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear that a badly burned woman has been located by fire fighters on the side of the house opposite your ambulance. you should: stay where you are and have fire fighters bring the patient to you. 86. Upon arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck or train derailment. You should be MOST suspicious that a hazardous material is involved if: multiple patients are unconscious or are experiencing respiratory distress. 87. Which of the following would be of LEAST value when trying to determine the type of hazardous material a commercial tanker truck is carrying? Waybill 88. Department of Transportation (DOT) Class 8 chemicals are: corrosive. 89. Which of the following statements regarding the warm zone at a hazardous materials incident is correct? It may be necessary to perform urgent lifesaving care in the warm zone before a patient is fully decontaminated. 90. Level C personal protective equipment would be MOST likely be worn during transport of patients with the potential of secondary contamination. 91. The local effects of a hazardous material may present with blister formation. 92. The temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to cause a fire when an ignition source is present is called the flashpoint. 93. It is MOST important to park your ambulance upwind and uphill from a hazardous materials incident scene because: the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind. 94. In contrast to the lethal concentration of a chemical, the lethal dose is a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any other route other than inhalation. 95. Medical monitoring and rehabilitation of rescuers at the scene of a hazardous materials incident should routinely include all of the following, EXCEPT prophylactic IV boluses of an isotonic crystalloid. 96. When approaching an overturned tanker truck that is not displaying a warning placard, it is MOST important for the paramedic to maintain a high index of suspicion because tankers carrying small amounts of a hazardous material may not be required by law to display a warning placard. 97. Systemic effects following exposure to a hazardous material may be delayed for hours or even years. 98. Cyanide is a chemical asphyxiant, which means that it interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level. 99. You are one of the paramedics staffing the rehabilitation section at a hazardous materials incident when a hazardous materials technician brings you one of his coworkers, whose mental status is altered. According to the technician. His coworker was appropriately decontaminated in the warm zone. The patients skin is hot and moist, and he is confused and nauseated. You should suspect that he is suffering from heatstroke, administer high flow oxygen, and begin rapid transport. 100. After ensuring your own safety, which of the following is your next priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? Identify the hazardous material involved. 101. Which of the following statements regarding the transport of a hazardous material is correct? Even if the law does not require a truck to display a placard, the driver of the truck is required to carry documentation of the chemical being transported. 102. If you are the first unit to arrive at a scene and observe any signs suggesting that a hazardous materials incident has occurred, you should remain upwind from the scene if possible and immediately call the hazardous materials team. 103. When staging at an appropriate distance from the scene until the hazardous materials team arrives to investigate the chemical leaking from an overturned tanker, you should check the wind direction periodically and be prepared to relocate. 104. Department of Transportation (DOT) class 1 chemicals are: explosive. 105. Triage and emergency medical treatment should be performed in the cold zone 106. What level of personal protective equipment is typically worn by the hazardous materials decontamination team in the warm zone? Level B. 107. Secondary contamination with a hazardous material occurs when toxins are transferred to another person by contaminated objects. 108. The threshold limit/value of a chemical is the concentration that A person should never be exposed to. 109. If a sufficient concentration of a hazardous material mixes with air and reaches its lower flammable limit: the material can burn in the air or explode. 110. Patients showing signs of pulmonary edema secondary to inhalation exposure to a corrosive chemical, may need to be treated with a diuretic. 111. Following exposure to an industrial pesticide, a patient is responsive to pain only, is coughing up copious secretions, and has a heart rate of 40 beats/min. priority treatment for this patient includes: oral suctioning. 112. A commercial truck was involved in a wreck and is spilling anhydrous ammonia on the roadway. The incident commander has already established the hot, warm and cold zones as dictated by the chemicals involved. As one of the paramedics at the scene, you should anticipate that your role will MOST likely involve: performing triage and treatment in the cold zone. 113. You and another paramedic are transporting an unresponsive, apneic patient from a hazardous materials incident to the hospital. Because of her condition, she was only partially decontaminated at the scene. You will arrive at the hospital in approximately 10 minutes. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves. Avoiding intubation if possible, as this may expose the patients airway to contamination. 114. Following decontamination, a patient is presented to you by rescue personnel for transport. The patient is conscious and alert, and is in no obvious respiratory distress. The patient is emitting a pungent odor and has an orange chemical on her clothing. You should advise rescuers that the patient has not been adequately decontaminated. 115. the threshold limit value (TLV) is the maximum concentration of a toxin that someone can be exposed to for a 40 hour workweek over a typical 30-year career. 116. Sarin has an LD50 of 1,700 mg/70 kg. this means that this dose will kill 50% of people who are exposed to it. 117. Which of the following statements regarding radiation is correct? It is impossible to recognize the type of radiation emitted from a given source. 118. Bubonic plague is characterized by lymph node enlargement. 119. You were at the scene of an explosion at an office complex. There are a total of 15 casualties, including 2 deaths. In addition to injuries experienced by the explosion, most of the victims are complaining od nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. You must ensure that they have been properly decontaminated first. 120. What do tabun, sarin, soman, and VX agent all have in common? The onset of symptoms following exposure is immediate 121. All of the following are examples of domestic terrorism, EXCEPT the world trade center attack. 122. Which of the following statements regarding terrorism is not correct? the majority of terrorist attacks are impulsive and unplanned. 123. When triaging patients at the scene of an explosion, you should be especially aware of the fact that a secondary explosive device may be present. 124. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a building explosion. As you stage your ambulance, you can see that members of the FBI are present. You also see numerous victims lying on the ground outside the building. You should: stay where you are until you receive instructions from the staging officer. 125. The seizures associated with nerve agent exposure will continue until a MARK 1 antidote is administered. 126. While at the scene of an incident in which several patients were possibly exposed to lewisite, you are informed that an unresponsive patient with multiple blisters on his body and inadequate breathing is being brought to you for treatment. You should: ensure the patient has been decontaminated before initiating any treatment. 127. Radiation exposure that occurs through the body is most appropriately termed irradiation. 128. Ricin is derived from mash that is left from the castor bean. 129. The BEST way to protect yourself from the effects of radiation is to use time, distance, and shielding to your advantage. 130. in contrast to Sulphur mustard, lewisite and phosgene oxime exposures cause a rapid onset of signs and symptoms. 131. Whether ingested or inhaled, ricin poisoning causes fever, chills, and a headache. 132. A young woman presents with severe respiratory distress. She is conscious, but confused, and smells of freshly cut grass. Auscultation of her breath sounds reveals coarse crackles in all lung fields. And she is coughing up copious secretions. This patients clinical presentation is MOST consistent with exposure to phosgene. 133. which of the following statements regarding tabun is correct? tabun is half as lethal as sarin and 30 to 40 times more persistent. 134. The hazardous materials team has deemed it safe for you to enter and remove patients from an office building that has exploded. As you are moving the patients, it is most important to remain alert to the possibilities of a secondary explosive device. 135. Upon arriving at a scene in which the incident command system has already been established, you should. Locate the medical staging supervisor to receive your assignment. 136. A 21 year old woman presents with a severe headache, body aches, and a fever of 102.8 F. She tells you that she has returned from a humanitarian aid mission overseas a week and a half ago and began feeling ill yesterday morning. Given this patient's travel history and clinical presentation, you should expect her to develop a rash and blisters on her face. 137. Which of the following statements regarding a radiological dispersal device (RDD) is correct? An RDD is any container designed to disperse radioactive material and requires the use of an explosive device. 138. Which of the following chemical agents has the smell of freshly cut grass? Phosgene. 139. Viral hemorrhagic fevers include all of the following EXCEPT the plague. 140. Signs and symptoms of significant cyanide exposure include tachypnea. 141. You are caring for a 40 year old man who was exposed to an unknown chemical and has been appropriately decontaminated by the hazardous material team. The patient responds to pain only, is incontinent of urine and feces, and has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute and weak. Further assessment reveals that his breathing effort is poor and his blood pressure is low. After taking standard precautions, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves: assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen, performing intubation if necessary, establishing vascular access, applying the cardiac monitor, and administering atropine and pralidoxime. 142. Which of the following is a pre-incident indicator of terrorism? Increase in violent political activism. 143. Nerve agents block cholinesterase an essential enzyme of the nervous system. 144. Signs and symptoms of nerve agent exposure include all of the following EXCEPT tachycardia. 145. All of the following chemicals are vesicant agents, EXCEPT chlorine. 146. The "hazards approach to disaster planning involves: conducting comprehensive preplanning for all types of disasters. 147. A mutual aid agreement formally defines: the relationship between two or more agencies and the support that those agencies will provide to eachother when requested. 148. An EMS agency's public information officer should be trained to. Use the media to the agency's advantage. 149. What is the purpose of an ICS-211 form during the mobilization of personnel when a disaster occurs? To track who was mobilized and when and where they were assigned. 150. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason that transport of patients via helicopter would not be an option during the initial aftermath of a tornado? Changes in temperature and wind speed in the air? 151. A category 1 hurricane has sustained winds that are between 74 and 95 mph. 152. The primary emergencies during a volcanic eruption come from explosions in bubbling magma. 153. The number one killer of firefighters at the scene of a fire scene of a fire is/are cardiac events. 154. A lock out/tag out information sheet at the site of a new building being constructed contains information regarding the number of people and conditions in the danger zone. 155. If an EMS agency is providing relief to a neighboring community during a disaster, it is important to ensure that it has enough coverage in its home area of responsibility. 156. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration after an event? All personnel are accounted for. 157. While providing care to victims following an earthquake, you note that many of them are experiencing respiratory distress. This is MOST likely due to dust suffocation. 158. The intense heat of brush fires seals the soil surface, which makes mudslide, avalanches or landslides; Move even faster over terrain. 159. Which of the following injuries or conditions would you most likely encounter following a cave-in? hypoxia and hypothermia. 160. When functioning during a flash flood, tag lines should be used, which are: safety ropes tied around rescuers so they can be pulled to safety. 161. For the EMS provider, most of the problems associated with sandstorms and dust storms are directly related to the abrasive and visual effects. 162. When functioning during a heat wave, the paramedic should take small constant sips of water throughout the day. 163. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration during a pandemic? Personal protective equipment. 164. While staging at a sniper shooting, you hear of a police officer who has been shot in the leg and is bleeding profusely. You should: attempt to make verbal contact with the swat team and instruct them to apply a tourniquet 165. The unified command system allows representatives from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility. 166. During a disaster, all patients who are transported to the hospital should have: a patient care report written, in addition to a triage tag. 167. Fast moving water as low as 2 inches can easily move a car. 168. When functioning during cold weather, the paramedic should wear. Layered clothing. 169. During a pandemic, your agency has been called upon to be a point of distribution this means that you will house temporary supplies and provide inoculations and medications. 170. Which of the following statements regarding violence is correct? violence is not isolated to a particular socioeconomic class 171. All of the following are indicators of the potential of violence, Except. A large body build. 172. How should you position your ambulance upon arriving at the scene at the scene of a victim who was found slumped over the steering wheel of his or her car. At least 21 feet behind the parked vehicle, at a 10 angle to the drivers side, facing the shoulder. 173. If you unexpectedly find yourself in the middle of a domestic dispute, the situation would MOST likely deteriorate if you use an authoritative voice. 174. Youths usually join a gang for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT a psychiatric illness. 175. After concealing yourself and reassessing your position, you should: seek adequate cover 176. If you are under fire from a sniper who is on the roof of a building, and you are using a vehicle as cover, the MOST effective way of protecting yourself is to position yourself next to the front wheel so that the engine block and tire can both protect you. 177. If someone continues to intentionally block you from reaching a critically injured patient despite your initial request that he or she move, you should; take a side step and state, "if you don't get out of my way I'm calling the police." 178. Proper documentation of an incident in which a patient was injured during a crime should include all of the following, EXCEPT your estimate of when the injury occurred. 179. You are at the scene of a drive-by shooting in which a 19 year old man was shot in the chest. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. The patient conscious, has an actively bleeding entry wound to his left anterolateral chest, and is breathing with difficulty, you should provide only the amount of care needed to prevent his condition from deteriorating 180. You and your partner respond to a call for a domestic disturbance. You are both wearing high-level body armor. There are no indications of any weapons on premises. What should you do? Wait for law enforcement personnel to arrive and secure the scene. 181. When approaching a parked vehicle that is occupied by an apparently sick person, you should: determine how many people are in the vehicle, paying particular attention to the location of their hands. 182. When approaching a van at night to determine the driver, who is reportedly unconscious, is in need of medical assistance, you should: move 10 to 15 feet away from the passenger side and walk parallel to the van. 183. Your EMS systems' standard procedure for responding to any call involving violence, should be to: allow law enforcement to secure the scene prior to your entry. 184. Which of the following is the safest method for preparing to enter a residence? stand to the doorknob side of the door, knock, and announce that you are a paremedic. 185. One aspect of the technique of contact and cover involves: one paramedic making contact with the patient to provide care while the second paramedic obtains patient information from another person while gauging his or her level of tension. 186. Which of the following statements regarding clandestine drug labs is correct? some drug producers use fragmentation and incendiary devices and animal traps to protect their operations. 187. Gangs predominantly survive through selling drugs. 188. Which of the following objects or locations would NOT provide adequate cover from gunfire? Shrubbery. 189. If you are taken hostage, it is most important to control the instinctive anger that occurs when you are physically abused. 190. Which of the following statements regarding cover and concealment is correct? you have more options for concealment in the dark than during daylight hours. 191. the primary function of the tactical paramedic is to provide: care for law enforcement teams who make entry into violent situations. 192. If you believe that your life is in imminent danger, any action that gets you out of the situation is a reasonable level of force. 193. All of the following are examples of real or physical evidence, EXCEPT oral documentation left by a witness. 194. You receive a call to a residence in a rural area of your jurisdiction for a patient with an accure COPD exacerbation. Upon arriving at the scene, you knock on the door nd identify yourself. The patient , an elderly sounding man, tells you that you took to long to get to him and that you took too long to get to him and that he has a shotgun. You should immediately retreat to the ambulance and notify law enforcement. 195. At 10:20 PM, you are dispatched for a woman reportedly slumped over the steering wheel of her car alongside the highway, Upon arriving at the scene, you should park your ambulance at least 21 feet behind the patient's vehicle. 196. Upon arriving at the scene of a woman with chest pain, you enter the residence and begin to assess the patient. The patients husband, who is angry because of your response time, is standing in the corner clenching his fists. You should: quickly scan the area for the quickest escape route. 197. You are dispatched to recreational vehicle (RV) park for an unconscious patient, when you arrive at the scene, another resident of the park tells you that the patient, a young man, is in his RV and will not answer the door. After safely entering the RV, you find the patient lying supine near the rear of the vehicle. From a distance, you can tell that he is not breathing as you approach him, you see several bottles of Sudafed, a container of camping fuel, and a variety of glass containers with an unknown liquid in them. What should you do? Quickly remove the patient from the vehicle if it is safe to do so, begin CPR away from the RV and ask the resident to call the police. 198. Upon entering the residence of a man with a supposed heart attack, you find that you have been taken hostage by a young man who has a deer rifle. He orders you to sit down in the corner of the room, where other people have been taken hostage as well. You should do as your captor orders try to remain calm, and avoid doing anything to attract attention to yourself. 199. While interviewing a severely depressed woman, the patient suddenly lunges at you with her hands, it is not known if the patient has any weapons. Your MOST appropriate action should be to throw your patient care form directly at the patient's nose and egress rapidly. 200. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS system is correct? the paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls 201. A paramedic who is licensed in a particular state: is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician. 202. The main purpose of conditioning education is to remain current with the latest treatment guidelines. 203. Openness, honesty, and truthfulness are attributes that demonstrate integrity. 204. As an advocate for your patient, you must Act in the patients best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs. 205. you should prioritize the needs of your patient based on the injury or illness that requires the most urgent treatment. 206. When you transfer care of your patient to the hospital staff, it is most important to use discretion and protect the patients privacy. 207. When educating citizens who live in an area where EMS response times will be lengthy, the MOST important skill to teach them is rescue breathing and chest compressions. 208. a protocol is MOST accurately defined as a(n) treatment plan for a specific illness or injury. 209. Which of the following statements regarding protocols is correct? protocols are usually developed in conjunction with national standards. 210. the main purpose of research in EMS is to determine whether treatment is effective or ineffective. 211. a scientific approach to research in which a researcher controls, manipulates, and then measures one or more variables to ascertain how manipulating the variables affects the subjects is called experimental research. 212. the LEAST preferable and reliable method of selecting people to participate in a research study is convenience sampling 213. while you and your partner are en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you should expect the emergency medical dispatcher to: instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene. 214. You and your team are attempting to resuscitate a 50 year old woman in traumatic cardiac arrest. Your team consists of two EMT's and an AEMT. Which of the following tasks would be MOST appropriate to assign to the AEMT? IV therapy and fluid boluses. 215. If the receiving facility does not have adequate resources to take care of your patient, you should determine whether: there is an appropriate facility within a reasonable distance. 216. Common actions performed by the dispatcher after receiving an emergency call include all of the following. EXCEPT: determining if an ambulance should be dispatched. 217. Compared to an EMT, an AEMT has a more advanced knowledge of pathophysiology. 218. Being empathetic towards a patient means that you acknowledge the patients feelings. 219. if a paramedic is self motivated, he or she should NOT require maximum supervision at work. 220. All of the following are examples of injury prevention EXCEPT teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens. 221. When faced with a situation that is not addressed in your EMS system's protocols, you should: radio your medical director to obtain orders. 222. When deciding which medical facility is most appropriate for your patients needs, it is MOST important to: know the capabilities of all the hospitals in your area. 223. When educating the public regarding your EMS system, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT. Liken your job to EMS-related TV shows. 224. Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the EMS medical director? Responding to an emergency scene with paramedics. 225. Specific functions that the paramedic should perform prior to contacting medical control are called standing orders. 226. Which of the following statements regarding peer review is correct? peer review is not a tool to demean or belittle a fellow paramedic. 227. Possible stress points in the day-to-day operations of the EMS system that would likely be identified by a comprehensive CQI program include all of the following EXCEPT: personal finance issues. 228. the first part of EMS research is to identify a specific problem or question. 229. Research that is based on observation only, without an attempt to alter or change an event is called descriptive research. 230. Research that is based on a group of individuals at one point in time is called cross sectional research. 231. When research participants are advised of all the aspects of the project, the research project is said to be unblinded. 232. The qualitative method of gathering data for a research project: does not use numerical information and is the least accurate. 233. When using a group of subjects who range in age of 30 to 40 years, 3 years of age would be considered the midpoint. 234. In order to link research and evidence to patient care, one must: ensure that the quality of the evidence is sufficient to justify changing patient care protocols. 235. An unblinded research study is one in which: all research participants are advised of all aspects of the project. 236. You are dispatched to a residence at 3;00 AM for a 39 year old man with signs of a common cold. When caring for this patient. You should educate the patient and tactfully discuss why a cold is not an emergency. 237. A patient has requested to be transported to a specific hospital, however the hospital does not have the proper resources to meet the patients needs. You should determine if there is a more appropriate medical facility within a reasonable distance. 238. Upon arriving at a scene of a motorcycle crash, you are approached by an EMR. What is the MOST important the EMR should provide to you? Initial scene and patient assessment findings and any basic care that was provided to the patient. 239. before you are able to clean your uniform after taking care of a patient at a major motor vehicle crash, your unit, which is the only one available, is dispatched to a residence for a patient with chest pain. Though not bloody, your uniform is noticeably dirty and you are still sweating from the previous call. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is most correct? you should maintain a professional attitude and care for the patient to the best of your ability. 240. While caring for an elderly man with abdominal pain, you are very open with the patient and answer his questions honestly. These actions will MOST likely show the patient that you have integrity. 241. Prior to transporting a 66 year old woman with chest pain to the hospital, she expresses the need to retrieve her bible and say a prayer. You should be respectful of the patient's wishes and give her the time she needs. 242. You arrive at a convenience store to find a middle aged male in cardiac arrest. Your protocols provide for standing orders in this scenarios. This means that you should perform certain interventions, prior to contacting medical control. 243. What instructions or guidance would an emergency medical dispatcher MOST likely provide to a caller? How to control bleeding and perform CPR. 244. If an emergency medical responder is appropriately trained and competent, he or she should be able to recognize the seriousness of a patient's condition, provide basic life support care. 245. A major recommendation made by the 2009 national EMS education standards for paramedic training was the inclusion of a college level anatomy and physiology course as part pf the training program. 246. Performing the functions of a paramedic prior to licensure is unlawful. 247. A paramedic is considered a health care professional, and as such should: meet societal expectations whether he or she is off duty. 248. When responding to an emergency scene, it is MOST important to proceed in a manner that is timely and safe. 249. A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic carries out advanced pharmacologic skills 250. The fight or flight response is characterized by all of the following physiologic responses EXCEPT decreased sympathetic tone and pupil constriction. 251. Consequences of poor nutrition include all of the following EXCEPT: hair loss 252. Common signs of PTSD include all of the following, EXCEPT: feelings of guilt that you performed inadequately. 253. Which of the following is NOT a component of well being that is essential for a healthy life? Financial. 254. Burnout is a consequence of chronic, unrelieved stress. 255. The first thing you should do if you think you are beginning to experience symptoms of burnout is reexamine your beliefs and your ways of responding to stress. 256. All of the following are common triggers of distress, except planning a lengthy vacation. 257. At the scene of an incident involving multiple patients, an obviously depressed bystander needs to be brought back to reality and removed from the scene. 258. What is the recommended exercise for most adults? At least 30 minutes a day of moderate to vigorous exercise. 259. In which order do MOST people progress through the stages of grief? Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. 260. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of impending burnout? Requesting additional shifts. 261. Which of the following statements regarding a patient's reaction to an illness or injury and his or her cultural background is MOST correct? you will not be able to manage patient care well if you do not respect the culture of your patient. 262. It is most important for you to remember that an angry or resentful patient. Is acting in a manner due to fear of the situation. 263. The MOST effective way to deal with stress is to identify the stress triggers and take action to minimize their effects. 264. When attempting to control your own anxiety through controlled breathing, you should take deep breaths in throught the nose and out through the mouth 265. Which of the following habits will increase your exposure to injury from lifting your maximum weight? Routinely lowering the ambulance stretcher all the way to the ground. 266. Which of the following statements regarding distress is correct? distress is a learned reaction, based on the way the paramedic perceives and interprets a given situation. 267. People who overreact at the scene of an emergency, such as an incident with multiple casualties, will most likely Be compulsively talkative 268. Part of your therapeutic role as a paramedic includes: maintaining a calm and confident attitude. 269. When caring for a confused elderly patient, it is MOST important for the paramedic to: explain what he or she is doing at all times. 270. The BEST way for a paramedic to sustain energy is to carry numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly. 271. A patient with different cultural beliefs will not maintain eye contact with you. He is very pleasant, but looks down when answering your questions. What does this indicate? He is showing respect for your authority. 272. You arrive at the scene of an injured person. As you and your partner approach the patient , You see that he is bleeding profusely from a large laceration to his neck. As you are about to begin patient care, a man walks up and states and "I cut him!" you should; retreat from the scene to a safe area and immediately notify law enforcement. 273. When managing stress, it is important to avoid taking sleeping aids after a stressful event. 274. Foods made from eggs are considered part of what food group? Protein. 275. While caring for a woman with acute shortness of breath, your partner, a dedicated paramedic for many years, tells the patient that she should have driven herself to the hospital instead of calling EMS. Your partners behavior is MOST consistent with impending burnout. 276. You and your partner are caring for an 82- year old woman who is obviously confused at the situation. It is MOST important for you to carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patient. 277. When dealing with a grieving child, it is important to remember that children 9 to 12 years to age may want to know details of the incident. 278. The ability to remain calm and think clearly when everything else is in disarray is a trait of professionalism 279. Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct? the specific event that triggers a stress reaction varies from person to person. 280. When a patient calls for EMS for an apparent non-life-threatening condition, the paramedic should: recall that what he or she considered to be a nonemergency may be very emergent to the patient. 281. During a crisis the paramedic is able to focus and function, but afterwards, he or she may be left with nervous, excited energy that continues to build. This is indicative of a delayed stress reaction. 282. The ECG of a patient clearly indicates that he is experiencing a heart attack. The paramedic advises the patient of this, but the patient states, "no, I don't care what your machine says; its not my heart" this Is an example of denial. 283. As part of your personal health assessment, you should consider hereditary factors that can impact your health. 284. You have loaded a cardiac arrest patient onto the stretcher and are preparing to lift the stretcher. When doing so, you should take unnecessary equipment off the stretcher. 285. You should know your target heart rate ad attempt to achieve it every time you exercise. 286. When you enter a situation in which everyone is under stress, it is important to remember that: there is no guarantee that people are going to behave appropriately. 287. When a patient minimizes his or her symptoms by stating, "im fine", the paramedic should. Find a reliable informant among the patient's family or friends. 288. You and your team are attempting to resuscitate a 50-year-old man in cardiac arrest when his wife returns home. She immediately goes into a blind panic and begins screaming and crying. You should: separate her from the area and place her under the supervision of a calmer person. 289. Regardless of a paramedic's circadian rhythms, he or she should not overlook the need for rest. 290. In general, paramedics who do not experience burnout are those who have learned to value and respect themselves. 291. If you are approached by a coworker who has noticed a negative change in your behavior, you should: keep an open mind regarding what the coworker has noticed. 292. If a 30 year old man has a resting heart rate of 60 Beats/min and a maximum heart rate of 190 beats/min, his target heart rate is 151 beats/min 293. The statement "if I can just live long enough to see my son's wedding, I can die in peace" is indicative of the bargaining stage of the grieving process. 294. Any time you need to move a patient who cannot or should not walk, it is MOST important to consider: the need for extra help. 295. Chronic stress: Dry irritated skin. 296. Some health care professionals are reluctant to discuss death with patients because of their own anxiety about the subject. 297. Family members who are depressed following the loss of a loved one: typically do not want to be cheered up 298. A critical incident is MOST accurately defined as an incident that overwhelms the ability of the EMS worker or system to cope with the experience, either at the scene, or later. 299. Prolonged or excessive stress has been proven to lead to depression. 300. From an injury prevention standpoint, the term "intervention" is define as: specific prevention measures or activities designed to increase positive health and safety outcomes. 301. Which of the following is an example of a secondary injury prevention? Administering epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock. 302. With regard to injury prevention, effective educational techniques include all of the following, EXCEPT penalties. 303. A specific action intended to improve health and safety outcomes is called an intervention. 304. According to the haddon matrix, which of the following is an example of a Pre-event strategy used to prevent injury of a child who is riding in a motor vehicle? Avoid driving during high risk times. 305. Compared to adults, children have thinner skin. 306. The leading cause of kidney failure in Americans 20 years of age and older is diabetes. 307. When defining an injury problem in your community, it is MOST important to determine the most frequent causes of fatal and nonfatal injuries. 308. Which of the following is the BEST example of a teachable moment? Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed. 309. When organizing a community illness or injury program, you should FIRST: identify a lead person to coordinate the effort. 310. Which of the following results in the MOST years of potential life lost? Traumatic injury. 311. Air bags installed in an automobile are more likely to reduce injuries than educating people to wear their seat belts because air bags do not require a conscious effort on a person's part. 312. Which of the following statements regarding unintentional injuries and death is correct? they occur without the intent to cause harm. 313. Children are at higher risk for serious injury than adults because of proportionately larger head. 314. if a 16-year old child is killed in a car crash, how many years of potential life are lost? 49 315. the statement "the bicycle safety program will increase the rate of helmet use by children younger than 18 years of age from 30% to 50% within the next 18 months," is an example of a(n) outcome objective 316. in the next 18 months, 500 older adult community members will be offered the flu vaccine. This is an example of a/an process objective 317. according to the Haddon matrix, which of the following is a post event strategy to reduce the severity of an injury? the ambulance is outfitted with up-to-date equipment. 318. One of the MOST visible ways in which EMS professionals have interacted with public health agencies is through the provision of immunizations. 319. Which of the following is NOT a reason why EMS providers are in the ideal position to serve as advocates for injury prevention? Most EMS systems require their personnel to participate actively in injury prevention programs. 320. In 2016 the leading cause of death by unintentional injury was: poisoning 321. Which of the following is NOT an example of a passive injury intervention? Providing public education on the use of AED'S 322. An effective injury prevention program should focus on all of the following data, EXCEPT: current EMS call volumes. 323. Factors that can influence injury patterns in a child include all of the following, EXCEPT: number of relatives. 324. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of injuries that occur at school? Sports-related incidents. 325. The wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit is called: a tort 326. In a medical liability suit involving a paramedic, the plaintiff: usually seeks compensation for the injury he or she sustained. 327. Criminal laws that most likely apply to paramedics include all of the following EXCEPT inadequate patient care. 328. Assault on a patient occurs when the EMS provider instills the fear of immediate bodily harm in a patient. 329. Documenting a false statement that injures a person's good name or reputation constitutes: libel and defamation. 330. Which of the following is an example of slander? Telling the receiving facility that a patient is drunk. 331. The initial complaint filed against a paramedic or EMS system by a dissatisfied patient may not contain specific information about what the patient thinks went wrong. 332. Because a lawsuit may not begin until several years after the paramedic cares for a patient: it is essential to maintain good documentation on any call. 333. Most civil cases are resolved during a settlement process because: it is expensive and time consuming to take the case to trial. 334. Generally, the paramedic is not at liberty to disregard a physician's order unless: carrying out the order will cause harm to the patient. 335. Which of the following is an example of a protocol? Standing orders. 336. If a conflict arises between a paramedic and a physician bystander in the field, the paramedic should contact medical control to seek resolution 337. A reasonable paramedic should follow the same standard of care that a paramedic in a similar situation would. 338. Provisions of the medical practice act include all of the following, EXCEPT assigning medical directors to EMS systems. 339. Which of the following is an example of a quid pro quo type of sexual harassment? An employer promises an employee a raise if he or she engages in sexual intercourse. 340. If your EMS system receives a subpoena for a patient's protected health information, it would be MOST appropriate to notify legal council before releasing any information. 341. Which of the following is addressed in the EMTALA? Preventing medical facilities from denying medical screening and stabilization. 342. Historically, most EMTALA violations occurred when the patient did not have medical insurance. 343. When transferring a patient between medical facilities, it is MOST important for the paramedic to ensure that a physician or nurse accompanies the patient if the patient requires care beyond the paramedic's scope of practice. 344. Which of the following statement regarding emergency vehicle laws is correct? all state statutes require emergency vehicles to be operated in a safe and prudent manner. 345. When an ambulance collides with a citizen's vehicle at an intersection: the driver of the ambulance may be charged criminally. 346. Which of the following is NOT a required element needed to prove negligence? The patients condition was life threatening. 347. When determining whether or not a paramedic's actions were consistent with the standard of care, the court would be LEAST likely to: talk to patients to whom the paramedic has provided care in the past. 348. A paramedic's actions are considered to be grossly negligent if he or she willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care 349. Which of the following statements regarding the harm element of a negligence lawsuit is correct? A loss of earning capacity is a form of harm that the patient may claim 350. Abandonment occurs when: care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent. 351. What is the main legal risk of providing a tiered-response EMS system? Exposure to liability if the BLS crew makes an improper determination that a patient does not need ALS care. 352. The concept of consent refers to all of the following EXCEPT the severity of the patient's injury 353. Implied consent is based on the premise that a patient would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury 354. Which of the following patients is NOT an emancipated minor? 17 year old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents. 355. The BEST way for the paramedic to evaluate a patient's decision-making capacity is to: talk to the patient to determine if he or she understands what is happening 356. If a conscious patient with decision-making capacity refuses care for a potentially life threatening condition he or she cannot be treated without a court order. 357. Before asking a patient to sign a refusal form, the paramedic must: ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal. 358. General criteria for determining a patient's mental competence include all of the following EXCEPT the absence of cardiac dysrhythmias 359. If a patient has a potentially life threatening illness or injury and there is any doubt as to his or her decision making capacity, the paramedic should treat and transport, even if it is against the patient's will. 360. Which of the following statements regarding a psychiatric patient who is refusing transport is correct? if the patient's life is not in danger, only a police officer can authorize paramedics to restrain and transport the patient. 361. When determining the most appropriate hospital to which to transport a patient, the paramedic's FIRST consideration should be: the patient's clinical condition. 362. When functioning at a crime scene, it is important for the paramedic to: use caution and not disturb the scene unnecessarily. 363. While caring for a conscious and alert 49 year old man with a suspected myocardial infarction, you start an IV prior to obtaining the patient's consent. This action constitutes battery 364. Which of the following statements would be inappropriate when documenting your care with an emotional problem? "the patient's actions suggest the use of illicit drugs." 365. While providing care to a seriously ill public official who is semiconscious, a media representative arrives at the scene and inquires about the patient's condition. You should: Tell the media representative that you cannot disclose any information. 366. While en route to the scene of a patient In cardiac arrest. The driver of the vehicle in front of you does not hear your siren or see your lights. You should remain at a safe distance behind the vehicle and then pass the vehicle on the left side when it is safe to do so. 367. While attempting to resuscitate a middle aged woman in cardiac arrest, you perform effective CPR but do not evaluate the patient's cardiac rhythm until 10 minutes into the resuscitation attempt. When the cardiac monitor is finally applied, the patient is in asystole. The patient is transported but is pronounced dead upon arrival at the hospital. Which of the following statements is correct? the delay in evaluating the patient's cardiac rhythm constitutes a breach of duty and could be proven to be the proximate cause of her death. 368. A 40 year old man presents with bizarre behavior. His speech is slurred and he is very belligerent. his blood glucose level is 35 MG/DL. The patient tells you to get out of his house. You should: Remain professional and advise the patient that he is not legally capable of refusing EMS treatment. 369. You arrive at the scene of a shooting. The patient, a 19 year old woman, has a gunshot wound to the side of her head with a large amount of exposed brain matter. Further assessment reveals that the patient is apneic and pulseless. Law enforcement personnel advise you that the person who shot the patient is in their custody. You should: avoid unnecessary contact with the patient and document the findings of your visual assessment of the patient and scene. 370. A DNR order is MOST accurately defined as a written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate. 371. The surrogate decision maker: is legally obligated to make decisions as the patient would want. 372. A person wishes to be an organ donor. He or she must have witnessed informed consent, usually in writing. 373. A medical order for life-sustaining treatment, (MOLST) would MOST likely apply to a patient: With impending pulmonary failure but who is not in cardiac arrest. 374. You are caring for a 66 year old man with terminal cancer. He is conscious and alert without evidence of mental incapacitation. You offer him oxygen, but he refuses to accept it, stating "Just let me die with dignity!" You should respect the patient's wishes and ask him if he wants to be transported to the hospital. 375. 1-Compared to lower frequency bands, higher frequency bands: generally have less interference 376. 2-Biotelemetry is MOST accurately defined as: the capability to measure vital signs and ECG tracings and transmit them to a distant terminal 377. 3-At minimum, sending a 12-lead ECG of a patient with chest pain to the emergency department physician via telemetry would: decrease the time from diagnosis to treatment. 378. 4-Cellular telephones are more advantageous than regular two-way radios because cellular cellphones: incorporate GPS technology to help rescuers find the patient 379. 5-Mobile Transceivers: can have a line of sight range up to 15 miles 380. 6-A(n)_______receives a weak signal and retransmits it at a higher power on another frequency. Repeater 381. 7-Automatic crash notifications (ACN) systems can provide all of the following information about a car crash, EXCEPT: the principle direction of force at the impact point 382. 8-When transmitting the data over the radio, you should not disclose the patient's: date of birth 383. 9-Which of the following is a drawback of using the ten-code system when communicating by radio? The codes' meanings vary by jurisdiction 384. 10-When relaying medical information to a physician in person, you should: Include information that you did not provide during your radio report Enjoy and remember to do your own self study 1. 11-Which of the following patient data id NOT typically communicated during your radio report to the hospital? The patient's ethnicity 2. 12-If the EMD suspects that your patient has a life-threatening emergency, the EMD should make you aware of the situation and then: give prearrival instructions to the caller 3. 13-Using the International Phonetic Alphabet, how should you spell Dr. Wilson? WHISKEY-INDIA-LIMA-SIERRA-OSCAR-NOVEMBER 4. 14-It is important to remember that if a patient is not personally sensitive to modesty because of an impaired mental state: the patient's family likely will be 5. 15-Which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask a patient who has no medical training? "Do you have any breathing problems?" 6. 16-It would be appropriate to ask a patient a closed-end question when: you are trying to obtain medical history information 7. 17-If a patient avoids answering a specific question, you should: redirect him or her to the question to elicit a response 8. 18-If a patient asks for your advice regarding a treatment decision that his or her physician made, you should: advise the patient to consult with his or her physician 9. 19-If the wife of a critically ill man asks you if her husband is going to die, the MOST appropriate answer should be: "He is very sick, but we are doing everything we can to help him" 10. 20-If a patient provides an inappropriate response to a paramedic's question, it should be assumed that the patient: has an impaired cerebral function. 11. 21-A patient states "I can't catch my breath," and the paramedic responds, "You say you can't catch your breath, ma'am"? This is an example of: reflection 12. 22-Sitting in a chair next to a patient when conducting your interview promotes: trust 13. 23-When touching a patient as a form of reassurance, the paramedic should: touch the patient on a neutral part of his and her body 14. 24-An elderly man states that he is sad and depressed because his wife recently died of cancer. Which of the following statements from the paramedic demonstrates empathy? "I'm sorry, sir. I don't know how I would feel in your situation, but I'm sure it would be similar." 15. 25-Statements such as, "Please say more," of "Please feel welcome to tell me about that," are examples of: facilitation 16. 26-Asking a patient a question about how she is feeling today, you sense that she is having difficulty putting her feelings into words. You should: be patient and give the patient time to express her feelings 17. 27-If a patient mentions something in passing or avoids answering a specific question, you should: politely redirect his or her attention to that question 18. 28-If a patient is unable to tell you who he or she is, where he or she is, and what day of the week it is: you should suspect decreased blood flow to the brain 19. 29-Stereotyping an elderly, very young, or hostile patient during your attempt to communicate with him or her: works against effective communication 20. 30-Which of the following statements is an example of providing false reassurance? "I'm sure that you will be fine, but let us take you to the hospital just to be on the safe side 21. 31-If the paramedic is unable to defuse a hostile patient's anger, the paramedic should: request law enforcement personnel at the scene 22. 32-When communicating with older patients, it is MOST important to remember that: their illnesses may be more complex because they may have more than one disease process and may be taking several medications concurrently 23. 33-If apparent insists on monitoring your conversation with his or her adolescent son or daughter, you should: communicate the situation to the emergency department physician and document it accurately 24. 34-When the paramedic encounters a patient who has difficulty communicating, he or she should: enlist the help of a family member or primary caregiver 25. 35-Which of the following is MOST indicative of a patient who is about to attack you? Clenched facial muscles 26. 36-Islamic and Hindu cultures avoid: touching with the left hand 27. 37-When attempting to interview a potentially violent patient, you should: ensure that you are positioned between the patient and the door 28. 38-During the course of your interview, your patient begins making sexual innuendos to you. You should: ensure that another paramedic or EMT is present at all times 29. 39-Which of the following statements regarding 12-lead ECG telemetry is correct? Most newer systems use facsimile technology to allow transmission of 12-lead ECG's 30. 40-The use of telemetry to confirm cardiac rhythms before treatment: is less common as most EMS systems rely on paramedics to assess the cardiac rhythm and make independent treatment decisions 31. 41-In order for the paramedic to talk and transmit an EKG simultaneously on frequency, a _______ system is required: multiplex 32. 42-The use of ten-codes over the radio: is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS) 33. 43-Before you begin to transmit over the radio, you should check the volume and then: listen to make sure that the channel is clear of traffic 34. 44-When relaying critical information using the situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR) technique, which component would address the question, "what got us to this point?" Background 35. 45-If a patient is reluctant to share personal information with you, you should: explain why you need his or her name and date of birth 36. 46-Maintaining eye contact with a patient enables the paramedic to: evaluate the patient's neurologic status 37. 47-What is the benefit of communicating over an assigned tactical channel? It leaves the main dispatch channel open for other radio traffic 38. 48-The purpose of a closed-end question is to: elicit a specific response from the patient 39. 49-When asking a man a question about his chest pain, he responds in a disorganized manner. What should you do? Put his response into simpler terms and asks if he agrees with your synopsis 40. 50-Which of the following statements conveys empathy? "I understand how difficult this must be, I'm here to help you 41. 1-Which of the following is a subjective finding? A complaint of chest pressure 42. 2-In order to ensure that all recorded times associated with an incident are accurate, the paramedic should: radio the dispatcher after an event occurs 43. 3-The Most significant problem associated with making up your own medical abbreviations and documenting them on the patient care report is: an error in patient care 44. 4-The National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS); collects relevant date from each state and uses it for research 45. 5-Which of the following statements includes a pertinent negative? "The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting." 46. 6-Prior to submitting a patient care report to the receiving hospital, it is a MOST important for: The paramedic who authored the report to review it carefully 47. 7-When a competent adult patient refuses medical care, it is most important for the paramedic to: ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand 48. 8-Which of the following is a significant benefit of electronic documentation? The ability of the data to be shared between health care facilities 49. 9-Components of a thorough patient refusal document include: willingness of EMS to return to the scene if the patient changes his or her mind 50. 10-Additions or notations added to a completed patient care report by someone other than the original author: may raise questions about the confidentiality practices of the EMS agency 51. 11-All of the following are subjective findings, EXCEPT: Visible blood in the ear canal 52. 12:Data collected from the state EMS office for the purpose of research would likely NOT include: Average cost per call 53. 13-Which of the following incident times is NOT commonly documented on the patient care report? Time of primary assessment 54. 14-Which of the following statements is LEAST descriptive when documenting the events of a cardiac arrest call on your patient care report? "Followed ACLS protocols." 55. 15-The accuracy of your patient care report depends on all of the following factors, EXCEPT: The severity of the patient's condition 56. 16-For the purpose of refusing medical care, a patient's mental status may be considered impaired if he or she: makes nonsensical statements 57. 17-A poorly written patient care report: may raise questions by others as to the quality of patient care 58. 18-Anaccurate and legible patient care report: should be complete to the point where anyone who reads it understands exactly what transpired on the call 59. 19-Which of the following statements contains objective and subjective information? "The patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache." 60. 20-Which of the following data would a state EMS office be the LEAST likely to require an EMS agency to report? Patient gender 61. 21-Which of the following constitutes minimum data that must be included on every patient care report? Chief complaint, level of consciousness, vital signs, assessment, and patients age and gender 62. 22-Most EMS agencies require a double signature system any time a: controlled substance is checked, used, discarded or replaced 63. 23-If the paramedic is unable to complete his or her patient care report before departing the emergency department, he or she should: Leave an abbreviated form with pertinent data with the receiving provider and complete the patient care report as soon as possible. 64. 24-If you make an error when completing a written patient care report, you should: use different colored ink when drawing a line through the error 65. 25-In which of the following situations would the documentation on a patient acre report MOST likely be limited? Mass-Casualty incident 66. 1-Which of the following directional terms describes the front surface of the body? Ventral 67. 2-A vertical plane that is parallel to the median plane and divides the body into unequal parts is called the: midsagittal plane 68. 3-When asking a patient to supinate his or her hand, you would expect him or her to: place the hand palm up 69. 4-Which of the following prefixes are synonymous? Angi/o; vas/o 70. 5-The combing from encephala/o refers to the: brain 71. 6-An imaginary plane that divides the body into ventral and dorsal portions is called the: coronal plane 72. 7-Costohondritis is inflammation of the: cartilage part of the ribs 73. 8-The diaphragm resides within the: infrathoracic region 74. 9-What color does the root word poli/o describe? Gray 75. 10-An endogenous chemical is one that: occurs inside the body 76. 11-Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: posterior 77. 12-The most inferior portion of the heart is called the: Apex 78. 13-Movement of the distal point of an extremity toward the trunk is called: flexion 79. 14-Relative to the wrist, the elbow is: proximal 80. 15-A patient is place in the fowler position. In this position , the body is: sitting upright with the knees bent or straight 81. 16-The root word -phagia refers to: swallowing. 82. 17-What is the medical term for a woman who has been pregnant eight times? Octigravida 83. 18-An imaginary plane passing horizontally through the body at the waist, creating top and bottom portions, is called the: transverse plane 84. 19-What term pertains to the sole of the foot or palm of the hand? Volar 85. 20-In the anatomic position, all extremities are: extended 86. 21-A patient experiencing a stroke involving the left cerebral hemisphere has contralateral hemiplegia. This means that the patient: cannot move his right side 87. 22-What organ(s) lie in the periumbilical region? Small and large intestine 88. 23-What position is generally a position of comfort for patients who do not require spinal immobilization? Semi-Fowler 89. 24-A patient with blepharospasm has a spasm of the: eyelid 90. 25-The prefix melan—means: Black 91. 26-A patient with orchitis has inflammation of the: testicle 92. 27-Cardiomegaly is a term used to describe: An enlarged heart 93. 28-The root word cleid/o refers to the: clavicle 94. 29-A patient has a gunshot wound to just below the right nipple. How would you describe the injury location? Anterolateral 95. 30-The lateral aspect of the liver rests in what region? Hypochondriac 96. 31-The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer to the midline is: medial 97. 32-If the body is sliced so the result is a top and bottom portion, this is referred to as the: transverse plane 98. 33-Which of the following would be the MOST significant complication associated with incorrect use of medical terminology? Ineffective treatment could be rendered 99. 34-The Greek prefix burs/o refers to the: back 100. 35-Illium and Ileum are examples of: homonyms 101. 36-Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital anomaly involving _____ anatomic abnormalities of the heart: four 102. 37-Which of the following would be a proper way of documenting a drug dosage? 5mg 103. 38-Medical control requests you to administer 50 micrograms of a drug. You should recognize that this is equivalent to: 0.05mg 104. 39-The abbreviation "amp" refers to: ampule 105. 40-Something that is homogenous is: the same 106. 1-The substance that contains all the cellular contents between the cell membrane and the nucleus is called the: Cytoplasm 107. 2-The average total body weight content of a healthy human adult is approximately _____% of his or her body weight: 60 108. 3-Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis? Sacral 109. 4-The point where the first cervical vertebra(C1) articulates with the base of the skull is called the: Atlanto-occipital joint 110. 5-The Broca region of the left frontal lobe is responsible for the muscular actions that are associated with: Speech 111. 6-The olfactory nerve (CN 1)is responsible for: Smell 112. 7-The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves arise from the: autonomic nervous system 113. 8-The peripheral nervous system consists of the: somatic and autonomic nervous systems 114. 9-Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in: peripheral vasoconstriction 115. 10-The catecholamine epinephrine (adrenaline) has an affinity for: alpha and beta receptors 116. 11-Insulin and glucagon are produced in specialized groups of cells in the pancreas known as the: Islets of Langerhans 117. 12-Which of the following statements regarding type O blood is correct? It contains no surface antigens 118. 13-A portion of the immune system that recognizes foreign body substances is called a(n): Antibody 119. 14-The heart muscle lies within a space in the thoracic cavity called the: mediastinum 120. 15-Blood enters the right atrium of the heart from the: Vena cavae and coronary sinus 121. 16-What types of valves are the aortic and pulmonic? Semilunar 122. 17-The second heart sound (S2) represents: closure of the semilunar valves 123. 18-Nicotinic receptors are found: on skeletal muscle 124. 19-Afterload is defined as the: degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps 125. 20-Cardiac output is equal to: stroke volume multiplied by heart rate 126. 21-Increased myocardial contractility secondary to stretching of the myocardial walls is called the: Frank-Starling mechanism 127. 22-The pulmonary circulation is responsible for: ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated 128. 23-The two major veins that drain the head and neck of blood are the: Jugular veins 129. 24-End-diastolic volume is primarily a reflection of: venous return to the heart 130. 25-Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: is moved into or out of our lungs during a single breath 131. 26-Decrease in the PACO2 result in ________pH levels in the respiratory center and a(n) _________ in ventilation: increased, decrease 132. 27-The hypoxic drive, a backup system to control breathing, is stimulated when: arterial PaO2 levels decrease 133. 28-Noraml inhalation is the result of: negative pressure in the thoracic cavity 134. 29-A newborn's total body water content is approximately: 80% of total body weight 135. 30-Extracellular fluid accounts for what percentage of the total body water? 37% 136. 31-A(n)________ is a substance that can absorb or donate hydrogen ions: buffer 137. 32-The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means that it: allows only certain substances to pass through it 138. 33-Osmosis is the movement of a: solvent from an area of low solute concentration to one of high concentration 139. 34-The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient that requires energy is called: active transport 140. 35-If too much water moves out of a cell, the cell shrinks abnormally. This process is called: crenation 141. 36-Which type of nerve cells conduct electrical impulses toward the cell body? Dendrites 142. 37-The first two cervical vertebrae, in descending order, are called: atlas and axis 143. 38-The diencephalon, a region of the brain, contains which of the following structures? Thalamus and hypothalamus 144. 39-The limbic system, a portion of the cerebrum and diencephalon, contains structure that: Influence emotions and mood 145. 40-Of the 12 pair of cranial nerves, which two do NOT exit from the brainstem? Olfactory and optic 146. 41-Examples of steroid hormones are: cortisol and testosterone 147. 42-What is the action of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)? Stimulates hormone secretion from the adrenal cortex 148. 43-Glycogenolysis is the process in which: glycogen is converted to glucose 149. 44-What physiologic reaction occurs when a person's blood sugar level falls? Glucagon production is increased 150. 45-A bruit differs from a murmur in that a bruit: is auscultated over a main blood vessel 151. 46-What is the cardiac output of a person with a stroke volume of 60mL and a heart rate of 90 beats/min? 5.4L 152. 47-What is a function of the lymphatic system? Filtration of debris and bacteria from the blood 153. 48-Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar capillary membrane through a process called: Diffusion 154. 49-What happens when the PaCO2 of the arterial blood increases? pH decreases and respirations increase 155. 50-A pH of 7.30 indicates: Acidosis 156. 1-Which of the following conditions can cause edema secondary to decreased colloidal osmotic pressure in the capillaries? Liver Disease 157. 2-Which of the following conditions would cause a proportionate gain in both water and sodium? Steroid use 158. 3-Dehydration is generally a more serious concern in older adults than in younger adults because: total body water constitutes only 45% of body weight in older adults 159. 4-An isotonic fluid deficit is caused by a(n): decrease in extracellular fluid with proportionate losses of sodium and water. 160. 5-Ascites is defined as: an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. 161. 6-Edema in an upper extremity following a mastectomy is the result of: decreased lymphatic drainage 162. 7-Which imbalance would MOST likely be observed in a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone(SIADH)? Normal fluid volume with hyponatremia 163. 8-The study of the functioning of an organism in the presence of disease is called: Pathophysiology 164. 9-A patient with kidney or liver failure would MOST likely develop: an increase in isotonic fluid 165. 10-Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause hyponatremia? Diuretic use 166. 11-Hyperakalemia is defined as: an elevated serum potassium level 167. 12-All of the following factors would cause potassium to shift into the cell EXCEPT: increased vagal tone. 168. 13-A diabetic patient who failed to take his or her insulin and presents with peaked T waves on the cardiac monitor and muscle weakness id MOST likely: Hyperkalemic 169. 14-Which of the following represents an abnormal electrolyte serum level? Potassium, 5.9 mEq/L 170. 15-Half of the body's magnesium is stored in the: Bones 171. 16-Which of the following represents an abnormal electrolyte serum level? Magnesium, 2.4 mEq/L 172. 17-Carpopedal spasm that occurs during respiratory alkalosis is caused by a(n): intracellular calcium shift 173. 18-A patient who overdosed on heroin and is unconscious with slow, shallow respirations would MOST likely experience: an increased CO2 retention 174. 19-In the presence of infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called ________, which produce fever. Pyrogens 175. 20-Unlike bacteria, viruses: do not produce exotoxins or endotoxins 176. 21-Apoptosis is defined as: normal cell death 177. 22-Allergies are acquired following: initial exposure to an allergen 178. 23-An inflammatory condition of the respiratory system that results in intermittent wheezing and excess mucus production is called: Asthma 179. 24-Major risk factors for lung cancer include: cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos 180. 25-Early signs or systems of breast cancer include: a small, painless lump in the breast 181. 26-Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus: need exogenous insulin to survive 182. 27-Hemolytic anemia is a disease characterized by: increased destruction of red blood cells 183. 28-Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Hemophilia is an inherited disorder, is characterized by excessive bleeding, and occurs predominantly in males. 184. 29-Syncopy is probably NOT caused by a life-threatening dysrhythmia if it occurs: in a person whose cousin has syncope 185. 30-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by: enlargement or thickening of the heart muscle 186. 31-A person with normal total cholesterol level: is still at risk for coronary artery disease if his or her LDL levels are elevated 187. 32-Gout is a condition in which: uric acid accumulates in the blood 188. 33-Common signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: bloating after milk ingestion 189. 34-What disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastrointestinal tract, specifically the stomach: Peptic Ulcer Disease 190. 35-Muscular Dystrophy is characterized by: weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disability 191. 36-Early manifestations of Alzheimer disease include: memory loss and subtle personality changes 192. 37-Distributive shock occurs when: blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases 193. 38-Which of the following is an early sign of shock? Decreasing end-tidal CO2 194. 39-Which of the following statements regarding basophils is correct? Basophils release histamine in response to inflammation 195. 40-B lymphocyctes produce antibodies when they are activated by: Helper T cells 196. 41-Opsonization is a process in which: an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate its recognition by immune cells 197. 42-The two Most common cause of inflammation are: infection and injury 198. 43-Aspirin and NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain by: inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis 199. 44-The destruction of a blood clot is called: Fibrinolysis 200. 45-Interleukins function by: attracting white blood cells to the sites of injury and bacterial invasion 201. 46-When nerve cells and cardiac myocytes are injured: scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced 202. 47-Angiogenesis is defined as: the growth of new blood vessels 203. 48-A type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is: an acute reaction that occurs in response to a stimulus 204. 49-If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be: Idiopathic 205. 50-The resistance stage of the stress reaction is characterized by: stimulation of the adrenal glands to secrete hormones that increase blood glucose levels and maintain blood pressure. 206. By definition, infancy begins at: 1 month of age 207. By the age of 1 year, an infant's tidal volume ranges from: 10 to 15 mL/kg 208. In contrast to infants, toddlers: Have a slower respiratory rate 209. Teething is commonly accompanied by: fever 210. In conventional reasoning, school-age children: Seek approval from their peers and society 211. Which of the following statements regard9ing growth spurts in adolescents is correct? Boys generally experience this stage of growth later in life than girls do. 212. Which of the following physical changes occurs in adults over 25 years of age? Settling of the disks in the spine 213. Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? Middle adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided 214. The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to: atherosclerosis 215. Vascular compensation for changes in blood pressure decrease with age due to: reduced elasticity of the peripheral vessels secondary to decrease in the elastin and collagen 216. What is a "low normal" blood glucose level in a newborn? 45mg/dl 217. Barotrauma caused by bag-mask ventilation in an infant means that your ventilations: were too forceful 218. The_____ reflex happens when an infant is startled and opens his or her arms wide: Moro 219. An infant's sleep pattern is developed through the combination of: central nervous system development and parental efforts 220. In most infants, the primary method of communicating distress is: crying 221. Basic language mastery typically occurs by what age? 36 months 222. -Which of the following psychosocial changes is common during adolescence? Fixation on public image and fear of embarrassment 223. -Patients between 41 and60years of age are least susceptible to: acute immunosuppression 224. In late adults, the size of the airway _____ and the surface of the alveoli _______. Increases, decreases 225. -As the smooth muscles of the lower airway weaken with age: strong inhalation can collapse the walls of the airway, resulting in inspiratory wheezing 226. -Which of the following statements regarding the nervous system function in the older adult is true? Cerebral metabolism and oxygen consumption remain constant throughout life 227. -When assessing an older adult's pupils and ocular movements, you should recall that: it is not uncommon for lens deterioration to cause the pupils to be sluggish to react 228. An infant's fontanelles are typically fused by the age of: 24 months 229. At 2 months of age, an infant should be able to: track objects with his or her eyes 230. -Anxious avoidant attachment is observed in infants who are repeatedly: rejected 231. All of the following physical changes occur in school-age children, EXCEPT: their vital signs become the same as an adult 232. In general, normal psychosocial factors that affect life of a 35-year-old person include all of the following, EXCEPT: anxiety 233. Which of the following factors typically does NOT affect the vital signs of a 65-year-old patient? Living conditions 234. -You would MOST likely see an increased end-tidal CO2 reading in an otherwise healthy older adult because: residual volume increases with age, resulting in stagnant air remaining in the alveoli and hampering gas exchange 235. -According to the terminal drop hypothesis: mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death Module 2 CHAPTER 15 1. The ______ are pyramid-like structures that form the posterior attachment of the vocal cords - arytenoid cartilages. 2. All of the following factors would increase a person's repiratory rate EXCEPT - narcotic analgesic use. 3. A patient with respiratory splinting - is breathing shallowly to alleviate chest pain 5. All of the following conditions will cause an increase in the circulating levels of carbon dioxide in the blood EXCEPT - acute hyperventilation. 6. Hypoventilation causes an __ and leads to ____ - decreased minute volume, hypercapnia. 4. Interpulmonary shunting is defined as - the return of unoxygenated blood to the left side of the heart. 7. A patient with orthopnea - has dyspnea while laying flat. 8. Asymmetric chest wall movement is characterized by - one side of the chest moving less than the other. 9. In which of the following conditions would you be LEAST likely to encounter pulsus paradoxus ? - moderate asthma attack. 10. Which of the following clinical findings would be of LEAST significance in a patient experiencing respiratory distress ? - bp of 148/94 mm hg 11. A patient with a suppressed cough mechanism - is at serious risk for aspiration. 12. Biot respirations are characterized by - an irregular pattern of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea. 13. The average peak expiratory flow rate in a healthy adult is approximately - 550 ml. 14. When obtaining a peak expiratory flow rate for a patient with acute bronchospasm, you should - perform the test three times and take the best rate of the three readings. 15. An airway obstruction secondary to a severe allergic reaction - requires specific and aggressive treatment. 16. Complications of aspiration include all of the following EXCEPT - excess surfactant production. 17. Poor lung compliance during your initial attempt to ventilate an unconscious, apneic adult should be treated by - reopening the airway and reattempting to ventilate. 18. If an unresponsive patient does not have a gag reflex, an oropharyngeal airway - should be inserted whether the patient is breathing or not. 19. Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with CSF drainage from the nose following head trauma may - cause the device to enter the brain through a hold caused by a fracture. 20. Supplemental oxygen is indicated for any patient with - respiratory distress. 21. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct ? - oxygen supports the process of combustion. 22. When administering oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, you must ensure that the - patient has adequate tidal volume. 23. The venturi mask is MOST useful in the prehospital setting when - a COPD patient requires a long-range transport. 24. Hyperventilating an apneic patient - may decrease venous return to the heart. 25. Complications associated with the one person bag mask ventilation technique are most often related to - inadequate tidal volume delivery. 26. When two paramedics are ventilating an apneic patient with a bag mask device, the paramedic not squeezing the bag should - maintain an adequate mask to face seal. 27. Which of the following is an indicator of inadequate artificial ventilation when ventilating an apneic, tachycardic adult with a bag mask device ? - about 20 breaths per minute are being delivered. 28. The pressure relief valve on an automatic transport ventilator may lead to unrecognized hypoventilation in patients with all of the following conditions, EXCEPT - prolonged apnea. 29. CPAP is NOT appropriate for patients with - slow, shallow respiratory effort. 30. Which of the following patients may benefit from CPAP ? - alert patient with respiratory distress following submersion in water. 31. When administering CPAP therapy to a patient it is important to remember that - the increased intrathoracic pressure caused by CPAP can result in hypotension. 32. Which if the following is NOT proper procedure when inserting a nasogastric tube in a responsive patient ? - keeping the patients head in an extended position while inserting the tube. 33. In contrast to the nasogastric tube, the orogastric tube - is safer to use in patients with severe facial trauma. 34. All of the following are complications associated with orotracheal intubation EXCEPT - necrosis of the nasal mucosa. 35. A disadvantage of ET intubation is that it - bypass the upper airway physiologic functions of warming, filtering, and humidifying. 36. The opening on the distal side of the ET tube allows ventilation to occur - even if the tip of the tube is occluded by blood or mucus. 37. Normally, an adult male will require an ET tube that ranged from - 7.5 to 8.5 mm. 38. The procedure in which the vocal chords are visualized for placement of an ET tube is called direct - laryngoscopy. 39. In contrast to a curved laryngoscopy blade, a straight laryngoscopy blade is designed to - extend beneath the epiglottis and lift it up. 40. Before performing orotracheal intubation, it is MOST important for the paramedic to - wear gloves and facial protection. 41. Orotracheal intubation should be performed with the patients head - in the sniffing position. 42. Intubation of the trauma patient is MOST effectively performed - by two paramedics. 43. After properly positioning the patients head for intubation, you should open his or her mouth and insert the laryngoscope blade - into the right side of the mouth and sweep the tongue to the left. 44. The BURP maneuver usually involves applying backward, upward, and rightward pressure to the - lower third of the thyroid cartilage. 45. The BEST way to be certain that the ET tube has passed through the vocal cords is to - visualize the tube passing between the vocal cords. 46. You should insert the ET tube between the vocal cords until the - proximal end of the cuff is 1 to 2 cm past the vocal cords. 47. After inserting the ET tube between the vocal cords, you should remove the stylet from the tube and then - inflate the distal cuff with 5 to 10 ml of air. 48. If the ET tube has been positioned properly in the trachea - the bag mask device should be easy to compress and you should see corresponding chest expansion. 49. Capnography is a reliable method for confirming proper ET tube placement because - carbon dioxide is nor present in the esophagus. 50. If the ET tube is placed in the trachea properly, the colorimetric paper inside the CO2 detector should - turn yellow during exhalation. 51. The use of capnography in patients with prolonged cardiac arrest may be limited because - of acidosis and minimal carbon dioxide elimination. 52. Typically ETCO2 is approximately - 2 to 5 mm hg lower than the arterial PACO2. 53. What point (s) on the capnography waveform represent (s) a mixture of alveolar gas and dead space gas ?- B 54. What phase of the capnography waveform is called the expiratory upslope ? - B-C 55. On a capnographic waveform, point _____is the maximal ETCO2 and is the best reflection of the alveolar CO2 level - D. 56. Assessment of a patient in respiratory distress reveals capnographic waveforms that resemble a shark fin. What should you suspect ? - bronchospasm 57. Capnography can serve as an indicator of - chest compression effectiveness. 58. Which of the following would MOST likely cause a prolonged alveolar plateau ? - heroin overdose. 59. A Cormack-Lehane Class 3 airway is characterized by - visualization of the epiglottis only. 60. Before securing the ET tube in place with a commercial device you should - note the centimeter marking on the ET tube at the patients teeth. 61. Compared to orotracheal intubation, nasotracheal intubation is less likely to result in hypoxia because - it must be performed on spontaneously breathing patients. 62. The use of phenylephrine hydrochloride (neo synephrine) during nasotracheal intubation will - reduce the likelihood and severity of nasal bleeding. 63. When performing nasotracheal intubation, you should use an ET tube that is - 1 to 1.5 mm smaller than you would use for orotracheal intubation. 64. Digital intubation is absolutely contraindicated if the patient - is unconscious but breathing. 65. Digital intubation should be performed only on a patient who is ___ - unresponsive and apneic. 66. Transillumination guided intubation can be difficult or impossible to perform - in a brightly lit environment. 67. Once you have co