Genetics Exam Outline PDF

Genetics and evolution exam Test 1 1. Genes exist in alternative forms called alleles. True or False 2. Human beings have 46 pairs of chromosomes. True or False 3. Human beings have 46 pairs of chromosomes. True or False 4. Nondisjunction happens only in sex chromosomes. True or Fals...

Genetics and evolution exam Test 1 1. Genes exist in alternative forms called alleles. True or False 2. Human beings have 46 pairs of chromosomes. True or False 3. Human beings have 46 pairs of chromosomes. True or False 4. Nondisjunction happens only in sex chromosomes. True or False 5. Patau's syndrome is also referred to as trisomy 18. True or False 6. Tri ploidy refers to an organism with four (4) sets of chromosomes. True or False 7. Chromosomes are carried on genes. True or False 8. A male human being has 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes and two non-homologous sex chromosomes. True or False 9. For sex determination in humans, the female is determined by the absence of the Y chromosome. True or False 10. Environmental factors can determine the sex of an organism. True or False 11. The end product of meiosis is used as gametes in syngamy. True or False 12. Primary nondisjunction happens during mitosis while secondary nondisjunction happens during meiosis. True or False 13. A pink flower resulting from a cross between a red and white flower is an example of codominance. True or False 14. If a test cross is conducted in corn with "T" representing tall plants and "t" representing short plants, and all the offspring resulted to be tall plants, then the genotype of the unknown parent was "TT". True or False 15. Sickle cell anemia is sex-linked. True or False 16. Trisomy is a case whereby the organism has an extra chromosome. True or False 17. In birds and butterflies hemizygosity is found only in males. True or False 18. A man with Turner's syndrome would have a genomic compliment of 45X. True or False 19. Dioecious plants have both male and female sexual organs on the same plant. True or False 20. In humans, the X chromosome is larger than the Y. True or False 21. Trisomy X is an autosomal disorder FALSE Multiple choice 1. If a person with Huntington's diseases (heterozygous) mates with normal person, what are the chances (percentage) of them having a child with the disease? a.50 b.0 c.75 d.100 2. If two individuals with brachydactyly, (both of whom are heterozygous) decide to have children, what percentage of their children would have brachydactyly? I. 0 II. 25 III. 50 IV. 75 a.50 b.75 c.25 d.0 3. What would be the chances of having an affected child if two heterozygous for Tay- Sachs disease mate? a.25 b.0 c.50 d.75 4. If an albino individual mates with a normal homozygous individual, what percentage of their offspring would likely be albinos? a.75 b.50 c.0 d.25 5. Edwards syndrome would be described as a. 2n-2 b. 2n+1 c. 2n-1 d. 2n+2 Genetics test 2 True or false 1. A-DNA is the normal DNA found in cells. True or False 2. Crossing over in prophase 1 does not occur between the x and Y chromosome. True or false 3. The genes responsible for color blindness and hemophilia are linked genes. True and false 4. Transformation can be used to determine gene linkage, gene order and map distance. True and false 5. Locus refers to the position of a gene on a chromosome. True or false 6. Bacterial conjugation is an example of a vertical gene transfer. True and false 7. A gene that codes for mRNA is called a protein-coding gene. True or false 8. DNA polymerization is catalyzed by DNA primase. FALSE 9. During translation, the tRNA brings the amino acid to the A-site of the ribosome. True or false 10. The nitrogenous base is attached to the 1’ carbon of the pentose. True or false 11. Karyotyping is used for detecting major chromosomal mutations. True or false 12. The specific sequence of base pairs that are transcribed is called a gene. True or false 13. The mRNA is built from the coding strand. FALSE 14. During transcription, the entire DNA molecule is transcribed into a mRNA that goes to the ribosome. True or False 15. Transcription proceeds bidirectionally. True or False 16. Both replication and transcription occur in the 5' to 3' direction. True or False 17. Phages can be used as vectors to transfer genetic material to bacterial cells. True or False 18. Phosphodiester bonds link two nucleotides together at their 5' and 3' carbon in the pentose. True or False 19. The mRNA message is read in sequential, non-overlapping groups of three's called nucleotides. True or False 20. Eukaryotes don't have introns hence the reason translation can start before transcription is finish. True or False Multiple choice 1. RNA contains which bases? a. thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil b. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil c. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil d. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine 2. A DNA's coding strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized? a. AACGUAACG b. TTGCATTGC c. AACGTAACG d. UUGCAUUGC 3. Which bases are NOT used during transcription? a. Adenine, Thymine & Uracil b. Guanine, Cytosine & Uracil c. Guanine, Cytosine & Uracil d. Adenine, Guanine & Uracil 4. The transcribing enzyme is a. RNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase c. amino-acyl transferase d. ligase 5. The process of _______________ joins exons in the primary transcript and the final "mature" mRNA are produced. a. RNA translocation b. RNA splicing c. RNA elongation d. RNA cleaving 6. In eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the: a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Cytoplasm d. Nucleus 7. Transcription occurs along a ____ template forming an mRNA in the ____ direction. a.5' to 3'; 5' to 3' b.5' to 3'; 3' to 5' c.3' to 5'; 5' to 3' d.3' to 5'; 3' to 5' 8. Which molecule contains the genetic code? a. rRNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. DNA 9. Which enzyme is NOT involved in DNA replication? a. Helicase b. DNA gyrase c. DNA polymerase d. Primase 10. The process of copying a gene's DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA is called a. translation b. replication c. transcription d. PCR 11. To initiate transcription, which of the following is NOT needed? a. The RNA polymerase b. The promoter c. The RNA primer d. The sigma factors 12. Transcription and translation of a gene composed of 30 nucleotides would form a protein containing no more than ___ amino acids. a.15 b.60 c.10 d.90 13. Of the ____ different possible codons, ____ specify amino acids and ____ signal stop. a. 64, 61, 3 b. 61, 60, 1 c. 20, 17, 3 d. 180, 20, 60 14. The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always a. UAA b. AUG c. UAG d. TAC 15. Which of the statement below is false? a. The genetic code is triplet. b. Degenerate codons specify the same amino acids. c. The genetic code is universal. d. The genetic code is overlapping. 16. The function of tRNA is to a. transcribes DNA b.travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides c. transport amino acids to the ribosome d. provides a site for polypeptide synthesis 17. What sequence on the template strand of DNA corresponds to the first amino acid inserted into a protein? a. UAA b. UAG c. AUG d. TAC 18. Which of the following is an example of the degeneracy of the genetic code? a. the first two bases specify the amino acid b. each codon specifies more than one amino acid c. the genetic code is not degenerate d. a given amino acid has more than one codon 19. A geneticist isolates a gene for a specific trait under study. She also isolates the corresponding mRNA. Upon comparison, the mRNA is found to contain 1,000 fewer bases than the DNA sequence. Did the geneticist isolate the wrong DNA? a. Yes, the mRNA should contain more bases than the DNA sequence because bases flanking the gene are also transcribed b.no, the mRNA was partially degraded after it was transcribed c. yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template and should be the same length as the gene sequence d.no, the final mRNA contains only exons, the introns were removed 20. Translation occurs in the: a. Nucleus b. Endoplasmic Reticulum c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria Test 3 True and false 1. The transcriptome can determine the success of a transformation event. True or False 2. The frequencies of alleles in a population can change through natural selection, mutation, and migration. True or False 3. Induced mutations are commonly used in the genetic improvement of plants. True or False 4. Some viruses can be used as mutagens. True or False 5. Translocation affects the C-value of an organism. True or False 6. A genome mutation in humans usually result in a miscarriage. True or False 7. A recombinant DNA molecule is comprised of spliced segments from different sources. True or False 8. In a reverse tandem duplication, a segment of the chromosome is duplicated, rotated 360 degrees and placed right next to the original segment. True or False 9. Climate change can lead to directional natural selection. True or False 10. Artificial selection can lead to a loss of biodiversity over time. True or False 11. Molecular pharming is an example of molecular cloning. True or False 12. Sympatric speciation occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. True or False 13. Spontaneous mutations usually occur during DNA replication. True or False 14. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is used to diagnose Covid-19. True or False 15. Karyotyping can be used to determine aneuploidies in an unborn child. True or False 16. Proteomics can be used to diagnose genetic disorders. True or False 17. Chromosomal inversions can be detected via karyotyping. True or False 18. Climate change can lead to speciation as well as a loss of biodiversity. True or False 19. In speciation, there has to be reproductive isolation. True or False 20. Convergent evolution can lead to speciation. True or False 21. Hybridization in animals can lead to speciation. True or False 22. Type I restriction enzymes are extremely important in recombinant DNA technology. True or False 23. Sequence analysis is used in Phylogenetics to classify organisms. True or False 24. Mutations are one reason for evolution. True or False 25. PCR mimics DNA replication whereby the complimentary strand is built in the 3' to 5' direction. True or False 26. In pericentric inversion, the centromere is included. True or False 27. Allopatric speciation results from geographic isolation. True or False 28. Sickle cell disease results from a point mutation. True or False 29. Population genetics study the frequencies of alleles in a population. True or False  30. Phylogenetic systematics is based on the evolutionary relatedness of organisms as well as DNA sequence alignment. True or False 31. Down's syndrome is an example of a genomic mutation. True or False 32. Disruptive selection can lead to speciation. True or False 33. The human genome project was completed in 2011. True or False Multiple choice 1. Which would not lead to chromosomal mutation? a. Deletion b. Duplication c. Inversion d. Translation 2. Which agent of evolutionary change would occur at the fastest pace? a. Genetic drift b. Spontaneous mutation c. Natural selection d. Artificial selection 3. How many DNA copies are made from one molecule after nine PCR cycles? a.81 b.1024 c.512 d.256 4. Which of the following is the most useful in comparative biology? a. None of these answers b. Sequence motifs c. Bacteriophage Lambda d. Sequence alignment 5. Which condition describes an aneuploid variation of 2N + 2? a. Monosomy b. Nullisomy c. Trisomy d. Tetrasomy Quiz # 1 1. Human beings have 23 chromosomes. True or false 2. Syngamy restores the diploid number. True or false 3. A sexual reproduction leads to descent with modification. True or false 4. True breeding individuals that contain only one specific allele are more monogynous. True or false 5. Germ cells do not go through mitosis. True or false 6. Genomics studies the structure and function of genes as well how these genes are passed from generation to generation. True or false 7. Meiosis I is similar to mitosis. True or false 8. The F5 generation is obtained from crossing two members of the F4 generations. True or false 9. A dihybrid cross is a cross whereby organism has three set of chromosomes. True or false 10. A reciprocal cross will always give the same results. True or false 11. All the children from a couple with cheeks dimples will also have cheek dimples because it is a dominant trait. True or false 12. All the children from a couple with cheek dimples will also have cheek dimples because it is a dominant trait. True or false 13. The end product of synapsis is used as gametes in fertilization. True or false 14. A homozygous dominant individual and a heterozygous individual will not likely have a child with sickle cell disease. True or false. Multiple choice 1. Humans have _____ pairs of chromosomes. a. 23 b. 8 c. 46 d. none 2. In a hybrid cross there are a. 16 different genotype, 9 gametic fusion, 4 phenotypes b. 16 possible gametic fusion, 9 different phenotype, 4 genotypes c. 16 possible gametic fusion, 9 different genotype, 4 phenotypes d. 16 different genotype, 9 phenotype, 4 gametic fusion 3. in a trihybrid cross, there would be_______ possible gametic fusion. a. 64 b. 36 c. 9 d. 27 quiz # 2 multiple choice 1. The unit for distance on a chromosome is a. cm b. mc c. mu d. um 2. which is an example of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria? a. Transfusion b. Conjugation c. Translocation d. All of the above 3. The pyrimidines are a. Guanine, cytosine, uracil b. Adenine, thymine, uracil c. Adenine, guanine, uracil d. Thymine, cytosine, uracil 4. Which statement is false? a. phosphodiester bonds are relatively strong hence the repeated sugar-phosphate-sugar- phosphate backbone of DNA and RNA is a stable structure. b. These phosphodiester bones are covalent bond. c. Purines and pyrimidines are ionic compounds and hence are joined together by ionic bonds. d. Two polynucleotide chains are joined by hydrogen bonds between pairs of bases in a double helix. Quiz # 3 1. Restriction endonucleases are capable of cleaving double- stranded DNA molecules at specific nucleotide pair sequences. True or false 2. Some restriction enzymes produce blunt ends while others produce staggered ends. True or false 3. Shuttle cloning vectors allow its replication in two or more host organism. True or false 4. Plasmid and bacteriophage lambda cloning vectors occur naturally. True or false 5. Somatic mutations are easily transmissible to subsequent generations. True or false 6. Ionizing radiation like x-rays and gamma rays can be used to induce mutations in cells. True or false Multiple choice 1 which is an example of restriction enzymes? a. Pbr322 & pUC19 b. EcoRI & HindIII c. BgIII & pUC19 d. None of the above 2. plasmids must have a. an ori sequence b. dominant selectable marker c. unique restriction enzyme cleavage sites d. all of the above 3. a mutation can occur resulting from DNA base pairs being a. added b. deleted c. substituted d. all of the above 4. which of the following is a cloning vector? a. sequence alignment b. bacteriophage lambda c. sequence motifs d. all of the above