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StylishOmaha1982

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ATU Sligo

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biology reflexes physiology human body

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This document presents a series of true or false questions about reflexes and reflex arcs. The questions cover various aspects of somatic and visceral reflexes, receptor responses, and related concepts.

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1. Automatic responses to stimuli are generated by the nervous system and are called reflexes. T TrueCorrect answer F False 2. Question 2 0/1 All reflexes that result in automatic regulation of body function are visceral. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 3. Qu...

1. Automatic responses to stimuli are generated by the nervous system and are called reflexes. T TrueCorrect answer F False 2. Question 2 0/1 All reflexes that result in automatic regulation of body function are visceral. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 3. Question 3 1/1 Somatic reflexes involve smooth and cardiac muscle. T True F FalseCorrect answer 4. Question 4 1/1 Visceral reflexes involve adjustments of smooth and cardiac muscle, and response of glands to stimuli. T TrueCorrect answer F False 5. Question 5 1/1 A reflex arc is a neural pathway used in performing a reflex. T TrueCorrect answer F False 6. Question 6 0/1 The somatic reflex arc consists of all of the following components: a reactor neuron, an afferent neuron, a peripheral neuron, a motor neuron and an effector. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 7. Question 7 1/1 A receptor responds to the stimulus by contracting. T True F FalseCorrect answer 8. Question 8 0/1 Examples of a receptor include a neuromuscular spindle and a cutaneous end-organ. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 9. Question 9 0/1 A sensory neuron is also known as an efferent neuron. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 10. Question 10 0/1 An afferent neuron carries impulses through a peripheral nerve and posterior root thus leaving relaying information to the spinal cord. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 11. Question 11 1/1 An association neuron is also known as a motor neuron. T True F FalseCorrect answer 12. Question 12 1/1 An interneuron forms synaptic connections between the sensory and motor neuron in the gray matter of the spinal cord. T TrueCorrect answer F False 13. Question 13 0/1 An association neuron relays and processes a signal across only one synapse. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 14. Question 14 0/1 A motor neuron transmits nerve impulses from the central nervous system through the posterior root to the effector via a peripheral nerve. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 15. Question 15 1/1 An effector is a muscle or gland innervated by the motor neuron, responding to the stimulus by contracting. T TrueCorrect answer F False 16. Question 16 1/1 The knee jerk reflex is an example of a reflex arc with no interneuron. T TrueCorrect answer F False 17. Question 17 0/1 A reflex arc with no interneuron is termed polysynaptic. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 18. Question 18 0/1 A single-sided reflex arc is termed ipsiateral. They only involve afferent and efferent pathways on one side of the brain and spinal cord. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 19. Question 19 0/1 Contralateral reflexes use afferent pathways on the same side to the incoming stimulus. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 20. Question 20 0/1 The five key features of somatic reflexes incude: (a) function (b) radiation (c) synaptic excitement (d) inhibition (e) speed of reaction. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 21. Question 21 1/1 Classical physiology experiments used to be performed using the frog as a model. A frog with its brain destroyed but retaining an intact spinal cord is known as a 'pithed' frog. T TrueCorrect answer F False 22. Question 22 1/1 The spinal frog preparation can be used to test either of the followings; reflex radiation, reflex inhibition, synaptic fatigue reaction time of reflexes or functional nature of reflexes. T TrueCorrect answer F False 23. Question 23 0/1 Functional nature of reflexes demonstrates that changes in muscle tone, movement, and coordinated action are dependent on cognition. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 24. Question 24 1/1 Reaction time to a stimulus is influenced by the strength of the stimulus. T TrueCorrect answer F False 25. Question 25 0/1 Reflex radiation is a phenomenon observed when the foot of the spinal frog is subjected ti increasing titrations of an acidic solution resulting in a change in reflex pattern. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 26. Question 26 1/1 Reflex inhibition demonstrates how electrical stimulation can override a reflex action in the heart of the spinal frog observed in response to dipping the toes in an alkaline solution. T True F FalseCorrect answer 27. Question 27 1/1 Synaptic fatigue is a phenomenon observed when the sciatic nerve is overstimulted. T TrueCorrect answer F False 28. Question 28 1/1 Reflex testing is a fundamental clinical procedure used by physicians searching for possible systemic organ failure. T True F FalseCorrect answer 29. Question 29 0/1 Reflex studies can prove a useful aid in assessing a number of conditions including, damage to intervertebral disks, tumours, polyneuritis and apoplexy. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 30. Question 30 1/1 Clinically, reflexes are categorised as one of two types: (a) deep reflexes and (b) superficial reflexes. T TrueCorrect answer F False 31. Question 31 1/1 Deep reflexes include all reflexes elicited by a sharp tap on a tendon or muscle. T TrueCorrect answer F False 32. Question 32 0/1 Receptors for deep reflexes are located in tendon not muscle. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 33. Question 33 0/1 When the tendon is tapped, muscle relaxes which activates the muscle spindle therefore triggering the reflex response. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 34. Question 34 0/1 Superficial reflexes are withdrawl reflexes elicited by noxious or tactile stimulation. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 35. Question 35 0/1 Superficial reflexes can also be called jerk, stretch or myotactic reflexes. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 36. Question 36 0/1 Stroking or scratching the skin will not induce a response in superficial reflexes. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 37. Question 37 0/1 Hyporeflexia is a diminished response to stimuli often accompanied by marked muscle tone due to loss of inhibitory control by the motor cortex. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 38. Question 38 0/1 Hyporeflexia is often due to malnutrition, neurological lesions, ageing or deliberate relaxation. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 39. Question 39 1/1 Hyperreflexia is an exaggerated response to stimuli and can be induced by strychnine poisoning. T TrueCorrect answer F False 40. Question 40 0/1 Pathological reflexes are responses which occur in the muscle from which the stimulus originates. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 41. Question 41 0/1 Hoffman's reflex is a superficial reflex in which the response occurs only in the muscle that is stretched. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 42. Question 42 1/1 If the response to the stimulus to the Hoffman's reflex is broad then there is indication of pyramidal tract damage. T TrueCorrect answer F False 43. Question 43 1/1 To elicit the Hoffman's reflex, tap the patellar tendon just below the kneecap. T True F FalseCorrect answer 44. Question 44 0/1 When testing the Hoffman's reflex, if the thumb is abducted and relaxed but the fingers exhibit a twitch-like flexion, this indicates pathology. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 45. Question 45 1/1 The patellar reflex is a monosynaptic reflex which is also known as the knee reflex/jerk or quadriceps reflex. T TrueCorrect answer F False 46. Question 46 0/1 The Jendrassic manoeuvre involves the subject locking the fingers of both hands behind the body and pulling each hand against each other. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 47. Question 47 1/1 Clonus is characterised by a succession of spasms which follow a normal response to the patellar reflex and persist for a period of time. T TrueCorrect answer F False 48. Question 48 1/1 Clonus is a manifestation of hyporeflexia which indicates damage within the central nervous system. T True F FalseCorrect answer 49. Question 49 1/1 The patellar reflex functions through L3, L4 and L5 spinal nerves. T True F FalseCorrect answer 50. Question 50 0/1 The patellar reflex functions through L2, L3 and L4 spinal nerves. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 51. Question 51 0/1 The Achilles reflex is characterised by plantar flexion when the Peroneus tendon is dealt a sharp blow. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 52. Question 52 1/1 Stretching the Achilles tendon affects the muscle spindles in the triceps suurae, causing it to contract. T TrueCorrect answer F False 53. Question 53 1/1 Hyporeflexia of the Achilles tendon is often associated with hyperthyroidism. T True F FalseCorrect answer 54. Question 54 1/1 The Achilles reflex is functions through the SI and S2 spinal nerves. T TrueCorrect answer F False 55. Question 55 0/1 The Plantar flexion is a deep reflex. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 56. Question 56 0/1 The normal reaction to stroking the sole of the foot in an adult is plantar flexion without adduction of the toes. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 57. Question 57 0/1 Dorsiflexion starting in the big toe and spreading to the others (Babinski's sign) signifies damage to myelin in the fibres of the pyramidal tracts. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 58. Question 58 1/1 Babinski's sign can occur in adults during sleep and in epileptics immediately after a seizure, but usually indicates a lesion in the corticospinal tracts or peripheral nerve damage. T TrueCorrect answer F False 59. Question 59 0/1 It is considered abnormal in sleeping infants up to six months and disappears once myelinisation of nerve fibres is complete. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 60. Question 60 1/1 Plantar's flexion functions through S5 and S6 spinal nerves. T True F FalseCorrect answer 61. Question 61 1/1 A skeletal muscle fibre is innervated by a branch of a motor axon and under normal circumstances; a neuronal action potential activates all of the muscles innervated by the motor neuron. T TrueCorrect answer F False 62. Question 62 0/1 The activation of the motor neuron involves an action potential and relaxation of the muscle fibres. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 63. Question 63 0/1 During a muscle contraction there is synchronised activity in a number of fibres in the same muscle. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 64. Question 64 0/1 One way the nervous system controls a muscle is by adjusting the size of motor axons that fire, thus controlling the number of twitching muscle fibres. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 65. Question 65 0/1 The nervous system can control a muscle contraction by varying the frequency of action potentials in the motor axons or by adjusting the number of motor axons firing. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 66. Question 66 1/1 During continuous maximal muscle contraction all components required to maintain the contraction (from both nervous system and muscle itself) are used at rapid rate. T TrueCorrect answer F False 67. Question 67 0/1 The blood flow to the active muscle(s) is increased during maximal contractions to deliver oxygen and remove metabolites. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 68. Question 68 0/1 The electrical signal recorded from a contracting muscle is called an electrocardiogram or ECG, and this activity can be detected by electrodes placed on the skin. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 69. Question 69 1/1 An ECG is a series of regular waves whereas EMG activity is a chaotic burst of overlapping spike-like signals. T TrueCorrect answer F False 70. Question 70 0/1 Isotonic contraction of the muscle occurs when muscle contracts but does not shorten. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 71. Question 71 0/1 Isometric contraction of the muscle occurs when muscle contracts and shortens. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 72. Question 72 0/1 The first cardiovascular sound occurs simultaneously with the contraction of the ventricular myocardium and closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 73. Question 73 0/1 The second cardiovascular sound arises from the simultaneous closure of the ventricular and pulmonary valves at the start of ventricular systole. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 74. Question 74 1/1 The third cardiovascular sound is believed to arise from the ventricular walls and atrioventricular (AV) valves during systole. T TrueCorrect answer F False 75. Question 75 1/1 Abnormal heart sounds are collectively referred to as murmurs and are usually indicative of damaged valves. T TrueCorrect answer F False 76. Question 76 0/1 A common cause of heart murmur results from damage to the tricuspid valve associated with rheumatic fever, with the mitral valve next susceptible to damage. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 77. Question 77 1/1 Damaged valves often results in stenosis or regurgitation of blood flow. T TrueCorrect answer F False 78. Question 78 1/1 The four thoracic locations include the aortic area, the ventricular area, the pulmonic area and the mitral area. T True F FalseCorrect answer 79. Question 79 1/1 Listening to sounds within the body is referred to as auscultation. When considering auscultatory areas, it is important to note that they coincide with the anatomical locations of the various valves. T True F FalseCorrect answer 80. Question 80 1/1 The three methods used to monitor heart sounds are: (i) the stethoscope (ii) electronic recording and (iii) use of an audio monitor. T TrueCorrect answer F False 81. Question 81 1/1 Ventricles contract to push blood into the arterial system and then relax to fill with blood before pumping once more. T TrueCorrect answer F False 82. Question 82 0/1 The intermittent ejection of blood into the veins is balanced by a constant loss of blood from the arterial system through the capillaries. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 83. Question 83 1/1 When the heart pushes blood into the arteries there is a sudden decrease in pressure, which slowly declines until the heart contracts again. T True F FalseCorrect answer 84. Question 84 1/1 Blood pressure is at its highest immediately after the ventricle contracts (systolic pressure) and at its lowest immediately prior to the pumping of blood into the arteries (diastolic pressure). T TrueCorrect answer F False 85. Question 85 1/1 A non-invasive way to measure systolic and diastolic pressures a small catheter can be inserted into an artery and the catheter attached to a pressure gauge. T True F FalseCorrect answer 86. Question 86 1/1 A blood pressure cuff is placed low on the arm and inflated to stop arterial blood flow to the arm from the brachial vein. T True F FalseCorrect answer 87. Question 87 1/1 When the systolic pressure in the artery exceeds the cuff pressure, blood slowly flows to the arm through the partially collapsed artery. This flow can be heard through the stethoscope as sharp, tapping sounds called Korotkoff sounds. At this stage, the cuff pressure approximates systolic pressure. T TrueCorrect answer F False 88. Question 88 1/1 As cuff pressure is reduced further, the sounds heard through the stethoscope increase in intensity and then suddenly become muffled. The cuff pressure at the point of sound muffling approximates diastolic blood pressure. T TrueCorrect answer F False 89. Question 89 1/1 The disappearance of sound is commonly used to determine diastolic pressure. T TrueCorrect answer F False 90. Question 90 1/1 The pressure in veins situated above a horizontal plane through the frist costal cartilage is usually greater than atmospheric and the veins are distended. T True F FalseCorrect answer 91. Question 91 1/1 Venous pressure in a particular area may be raised id there is obstruction on any of the veins draining it, and may be lowered by movement of the adjacent muscles. T TrueCorrect answer F False 92. Question 92 1/1 The pressure in distended veins can be judged by palpitation. This pressure is mainly due to the hydrostatic effect of the blood column extending up to the heart. T TrueCorrect answer F False 93. Question 93 0/1 Note that relaxation of leg muscles squeezes blood into adjacent veins, and because the veins have valves helping maintain a single direction of flow blood, is moved onward towards the heart. This is often termed the muscle pump. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 94. Question 94 1/1 When venous pressure rises it causes the capillary blood pressure to rise and fluid exudes from the capillaries into the tissues, resulting in swelling or oedema. T TrueCorrect answer F False 95. Question 95 1/1 The pattern of electrical activity produced by each heart beat is called the electrocardiogram (ECG). T TrueCorrect answer F False 96. Question 96 0/1 Blood enters the ventricle chambers of the heart at a low pressure and leaves the atria at a higher pressure. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 97. Question 97 1/1 Blood returning from the body arrives at the right side of the heart and is pumped through the lungs to pick up oxygen and release carbon dioxide. This oxygenated blood then arrives at the left side of the heart, from where it is pumped back to the body. T TrueCorrect answer F False 98. Question 98 1/1 The combined electrical activity of the different myocardial cells produces electrical currents that spread through the body fluids. These currents are large enough to be detected by recording electrodes placed on the skin. The regular pattern of peaks produced by each heart beat cycle is called the electrocardiogram or ECG. T TrueCorrect answer F False 99. Question 99 1/1 The action potentials recorded from atrial and ventricular fibers are the same as those recorded from nerves and skeletal muscle. T True F FalseCorrect answer 100. Question 100 1/1 The cardiac action potential is composed of three phases: a rapid depolarization, a plateau depolarization (which is very obvious in ventricular fibers), and a repolarization back to resting membrane potential. T TrueCorrect answer F False 101. Question 101 1/1 On an ECG, the P-wave is produced by atrial depolarisation. T TrueCorrect answer F False 102. Question 102 1/1 On an ECG, the QRS complex is produced by atrial depolarization; ventricular repolarisation also occurs during this time. T True F FalseCorrect answer 103. Question 103 0/1 On an ECG, the T-wave is produced by atrial repolarisation. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 104. Question 104 0/1 On an ECG, the T-wave is produced by ventricular repolarisation. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 105. Question 105 0/1 Chest movements in humans may be recorded using any device which responds to the increase in chest circumference during inspiration. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 106. Question 106 0/1 A stethograph is used to measure respiratory movements. It consists of a flexible corrugated tubing filled with air. On inspiration the tubing is stretched and the volume decreases; air is displaced from the rubber tambour and the lever carrying the ink pen rises. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 107. Question 107 0/1 In a stethograph, the rising of the pointer indicates expiration and the fall of the pointer indicates inspiration. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 108. Question 108 1/1 A stethograph gives an indication of the respiratory rate only. T True F FalseCorrect answer 109. Question 109 0/1 A spirometer measures pulmonary volume changes occurring in the respiratory cycle. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 110. Question 110 1/1 As the subject breathes through the mouthpiece into the spirometer, it causes a floating container to rises and fall with each respiratory cycle. As the floating container rises and falls, respiratory movements can be recorded using a kymograph giving a record of pulmonary volume changes over a period of time. T TrueCorrect answer F False 111. Question 111 0/1 The volume of gas which moves on and out of the lungs during each normal respiratory cycle is termed aspiratory volume. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 112. Question 112 1/1 The average normal tidal volume is approximately 500 ml, however it is dependent on other factors such as sex, weight, and age. T TrueCorrect answer F False 113. Question 113 1/1 The volume of gas which can be drawn into the lungs during a maximum inspiration after filling the lungs with tidal air is known as inspiratory reserve volume (IRV). T TrueCorrect answer F False 114. Question 114 1/1 Inspiratory capacity (IC) is the minimum amount of gas that can be inhaled after a normal expiration. T True F FalseCorrect answer 115. Question 115 0/1 The sum of the tidal and inspiratory capacity is generally around 3000 ml. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 116. Question 116 0/1 The amount of air which can be inspired beyond the tidal volume is called expiratory reserve volume (ERV). T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 117. Question 117 0/1 Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is normally measured at 100 ml. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 118. Question 118 1/1 Residual volume (RV) is the amount of gas in the lungs that cannot be forcibly expelled. Thus, this is the volume, around 1200 ml, which is trapped in the alveoli, and its magnitude is often significant in the diagnosis of pulmonary impairment disorders. T TrueCorrect answer F False 119. Question 119 1/1 To calculate the vital capacity, minus the expiratory reserve from the expiratory reserve. T True F FalseCorrect answer 120. Question 120 0/1 The vital capacity is the maximum amount of gas that can be expired after a maximum inspiration. This volume is dependent on age, height and sex and the average is around 4500 n-A. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 121. Question 121 1/1 The sum of the expiratory reserve and residual volume will equal the functional residual capacity (FRC). T TrueCorrect answer F False 122. Question 122 1/1 The total lung capacity averages around 8 litres in an adult. T True F FalseCorrect answer 123. Question 123 0/1 Minute respiratory volume is the amount of tidal air that passes in and out of the lungs over 5 minutes. T Incorrect: True F FalseCorrect answer 124. Question 124 0/1 Functional residual capacity (FRC): This is the amount of gas which remains in the lungs after completing a normal respiratory cycle. It is the sum of the expiratory reserve and residual volumes. T TrueCorrect answer F Incorrect: False 125. Question 125 1/1 Expiratory reserve volume (ERV): This is the amount of air which can be expired beyond the tidal volume (i.e. the maximum amount of gas that can be forcefully expired after a normal expiration), which is normally around I 100 ml. T TrueCorrect answer F False 126. Question 126 1/1 Total lung capacity (TLC): This is the total volume of the lungs and is the sum of the vital capacity and the residual volume, averaging around 6 litres. T TrueCorrect answer F False

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