Ultrasound Exam Questions PDF

1. Coronal planes divide the body into unequal _________ and _________ sections. 2. When scanning in a coronal plane, the ultrasound beam enters the body from a) either an anterior or posterior direction. b) a posterior direction. c) a medial direction. d) either a right or left late...

1. Coronal planes divide the body into unequal _________ and _________ sections. 2. When scanning in a coronal plane, the ultrasound beam enters the body from a) either an anterior or posterior direction. b) a posterior direction. c) a medial direction. d) either a right or left lateral direction. 3. Transverse planes divide the body into unequal _______ and _______ sections. 4. When scanning in a transverse plane, the ultrasound beam enters the body from a) an anterior, posterior, right lateral, or left lateral direction. b) either an anterior or posterior direction. c) a right or left lateral direction. d) an anterior, posterior, or medial direction. 5. Sagittal planes divide the body into unequal _________ and ________ sections. 6. When scanning in a sagittal plane, the ultrasound beam enters the body from a) either an anterior or posterior direction. b) an anterior, posterior, right lateral, or left lateral direction. c) an anterior, posterior, or medial direction. d) either a right or left lateral direction. 7. The anatomic area(s) not seen in a coronal plane a) are lateral and medial. b) is superior. c) are anterior and posterior. d) is inferior. 8. The anatomic area(s) not seen in a transverse plane a) are lateral and medial. b) is medial. c) are superior and inferior. d) are anterior and posterior. 9. The anatomic area(s) not seen in a sagittal plane a) is posterior. b) is lateral. c) are superior and inferior. d) are anterior and posterior. 10. The ___________ of the structure being imaged ultimately determines which transducer frequency should be used. 11. When scanning, every effort should be made to position the area(s) of interest in the transducer’s ________________________ to obtain the best images. 12. The scanning planes used in sonography are the same as the _________________ body planes. 13. The oblique scanning plane affords visualization of the longest ______ of a structure 14. Why are accurate and reproducible measurements critical for good patient care? a) For ensuring that the organ or structure has truly stayed the same or increased or decreased in size b) So the clinician can determine whether a follow-up is needed c) To maintain the integrity of the department d) All of the above 15. What planes should be used to accurately measure the kidney? a) Sagittal and oblique transverse b) Oblique sagittal and transverse c) Oblique sagittal and oblique transverse d) Sagittal and transverse 16. The abdominal aorta is divided into  a) superior and inferior sections. b) suprarenal and infrarenal sections. c) visceral and extremity sections. d) SMA and IMA sections. 17. The aorta bifurcates into the a) common iliac arteries. b) external iliac arteries. c) internal iliac arteries. d) right lateral decubitus position. 18. What structure can sometimes be mistaken for the aorta? a) A loop of bowel b) The diaphragm c) The IVC d) The SMA 19. Patient prep for an aorta ultrasound is a) NPO for 12 hours. b) NPO for 10 hours. c) NPO for 8 hours. d) NPO for 4 hours. 20. If a 5-cm aortic aneurysm is found incidentally, the sonographer should a) tell the patient to call his or her doctor in 3 days for the results. b) send the patient to the ED. c) send the patient to his or her doctor’s office. d) keep the patient there until instructions are received from the referring doctor. 21. An aortic aneurysm is suspected when the aorta is great than a) 2 cm. b) 2.5 cm. c) 3 cm. d) 5 cm. 22. Most aneurysms are located a) between the diaphragm and CA trunk. b) between the diaphragm and SMA. c) infrarenal. d) at the bifurcation. 23. The AP dimension of the aorta is best measured in the a) sagittal plane. b) transverse plane. c) coronal plane. d) any of the above. 24. Which diameter is best measured in the transverse plane? a) AP b) Width c) AP and width d) No measurements are taken in the transverse plane. 25. The distal abdominal aorta is the portion a) that lies between the renal arteries and bifurcation. b) inferior to the SMA and superior to the IMA. c) inferior to the celiac trunk and superior to the IMA. d) that lies between the SMA and the bifurcation. 26. The best way to measure the aorta is a) outer to inner walls. b) inner to outer walls. c) inner to inner walls. d) outer to outer walls. 27. When measuring the aorta the cursors should be a) perpendicular to the floor. b) perpendicular to the walls of the aorta. c) parallel to the floor. d) parallel to the walls of the aorta. 28. When performing an aorta sonogram where are the AP measurements taken? a) Proximal, mid, distal aorta b) Proximal, mid, distal aorta and proximal iliac arteries c) Distal aorta only d) Proximal and distal aorta 29. When the aneurysm measures smaller than the previous study of 6 months ago the sonographer should a) look at the measuring techniques used on the last study. b) let the sonologist worry about it. c) not worry, because the aneurysm has decreased in size. d) fake the measurements to be consistent with the last study. 30. The biggest risk factor for rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm is a) its location. b) its size. c) the absence of thrombus. d) age of the patient. 31. The IVC lies ________ to the aorta. a) anterior b) posterior c) medial d) lateral 32. Which two vessels join to become the IVC? a) Common iliac veins b) External iliac veins c) Internal iliac veins 33. On inspiration the IVC a) increases in diameter. b) decreases in diameter. c) does not change. 34. Which of the following vessels empties directly into the IVC? a) Left renal vein b) Left ovarian vein c) Superior mesenteric vein d) Portal vein 35. The IVC receives unoxygenated blood from which of the following organs? a) Intestines b) Reproductive c) Spleen d.) Pancreas 36. Which veins allow the portal vein blood to empty into the IVC?  a) Renal b) Left portal c) Hepatic d) Phrenic 37. What vessel courses posterior to the IVC? a) Left renal vein b) Left renal artery c) Right renal vein d) Right renal artery 38. Which vein does not empty into the left renal vein? a) Splenic b) Left adrenal c) Left testicular d) Left ovarian 39. In a longitudinal view to differentiate the IVC from the aorta, the sonographer should look for a) the diameter of the aorta changing with respiration. b) the diameter of the IVC changing with respiration. c) the relationship of the vessel to the spine. d) echogenic walls. 40. If thrombus is discovered in the IVC, the sonographer should a) include images of the hepatic, renal, and iliac veins to see if they are involved. b) not add additional images without permission. c) perform a venous Doppler examination of both legs. d) immediately stop the examination and ask the sonologist what to do next. 41. The normal liver should measure a) 12 to 15 mm. b) 13 to 15 cm. c) 14 to 16 m. d) 15 to 16 km. 42. The connective tissue that surrounds the liver is a) Gleason’s capsule. b) Glisson’s capsule. c) Morrison’s capsule. d) Bertin’s capsule. 43. After birth, the umbilical vein atrophies and becomes the a) ligamentum teres. b) main lobar fissure. c) ligamentum venosum. d) left intersegmental fissure. 44. Which of the following divides the liver into right and left lobes? a) Ligamentum venosum b) Right intersegmental fissure c) Middle hepatic vein d) Proper hepatic artery 45. Using Couinaud’s classification the live is divided into _______ segments a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 46. The portal vein is formed by the splenic vein joining with the a) superior mesenteric vein. b) inferior mesenteric vein. c) left renal vein. d) left phrenic vein. 47. The common hepatic artery is a branch of the a) SMA. b) aorta. c) splenic artery. d) celiac axis. 48. The two vessels that supply blood to the liver are the a) hepatic artery and splenic vein. b) hepatic artery and portal vein. c) portal vein and splenic vein. d) hepatic artery and SMA. 49. The portal triad consists of a branch of the portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery, and a branch of the a) hepatic vein. b) portal artery. c) bile duct. d) IVC. 50. The liver should be more echogenic than the a) renal sinus. b) renal cortex. c) pancreas. d) spleen. 51. A difference between the hepatic and portal veins is a) the portal veins’ branches point to the heart and the hepatic veins point to the porta hepatis. b) hepatic veins run posterior to the portal vein. c) portal veins have echogenic walls and hepatic veins are borderless. d) hepatic veins are tortuous and portal veins are straight. 52. A normal variant of the right lobe is a a) Reidel’s lobe. b) Douglas’ lobe. c) Morrison’s lobe. d) Heister’s lobe. 53. To evaluate the dome of the liver the sonographer would a) angle the transducer upward at the xiphoid. b) angle the transducer upward at the curve of the right ribs. c) angle the transducer very laterally to the right from the xiphoid. d) angle the transducer very laterally to the left from the xiphoid. 54. The caudate lobe is posterior to the a) ligamentum teres. b) ligamentum venosum. c) main lobar fissure. d) IVC. 55. A replaced common hepatic artery originates from the a) aorta. b) celiac axis. c) SMA.  d) right renal artery. 56. The ROI for an elastography examination should be placed a) 2 to 3 cm from the transducer surface. b) 2 to 3 cm from the skin. c) 2 to 3 cm from Glisson’s capsule. d) wherever the best parenchyma is located. 57. Which value is reported? a) Median b) Mean c) Highest d) Lowest 58. How many measurements should be obtained in an elastography examination? a) 3 b) 5 - change this to 8 as 5 may be approved c) 10 d) 12 59. Typically, measurements are obtained from segments a) I or II. b) III or IV. c) V or VI. d) VII or VIII. 60. A liver elastography examination is performed to a) diagnose cirrhosis. b) verify a fatty liver. c) determine the degree of fibrosis. d) detect HCC. 61. What part of the gallbladder extends past the liver edge? a) Neck b) Head c) Body d) Fundus 62. The spiral folds in the cystic duct are called a) the valves of Heister. b) the valves of Rokitansky. c) Glisson folds d) Phrygian folds. 63. Junctional folds may mimic a) polyps. b) sludge. c) septations. d) gallbladder cancer. 64. Which of the following is considered to be an intrahepatic duct? a) Common hepatic duct b) Right hepatic duct c) Cystic duct d) Common bile duct 65. Which structure can be used to locate the gallbladder? a) Main lobar fissure b) Right intersegmental fissure  c) Ligamentum venosum d) Right portal vein 66. The best place to measure the gallbladder wall is the a) anterior wall. b) posterior wall. c) medial wall. d) lateral wall. 67. Which patient positions are required when performing a gallbladder examination? a) Supine and prone b) Supine and LLD c) Supine and RLLD - change to RLD d) Supine only 68. Which artifact can be confused for sludge? a) Mirror image b) Refraction c) Reverberation d) Slice thickness 69. The common and pancreatic ducts empty into the duodenum at the ampulla of a) Vater b) Oddi c) Heister d) Klatskin 70. The gallbladder wall should measure less than a) 1 mm. b) 2 mm. c) 3 mm. d) 4 mm. 71. Which is the most inferior part of the pancreas? a) Head b) Neck c) Body d) Tail 72. The CBD marks the ________ part of the pancreas. a) anteromedial b) posteromedial c) anterolateral d) posterolateral 73. Which part of the pancreas extends posterior to the SMV? a) Neck b) Uncinate c) Wirsung’s duct d) Santorini’s duct 74. Which part of the pancreas is the most anterior? a) Head b) Neck c) Body d) Tail 75. Which vessel runs along the posterior surface of the pancreas? a) SMV  b) SMA c) Left renal vein d) Splenic vein 76. Which part of the pancreas is the most superior? a) Head b) Neck c) Body d) Tail 77. The acinar cells produce a) pancreatic enzymes. b) insulin. c) bile. d) glucagon. 78. A normal pancreatic dust should measure a) 2 to 3 mm. b) 2 to 3 cm. c) 4 to 6 mm. d) 4 to 6 cm. 79. Which of the following structures may mimic the pancreatic duct? a) Superior mesenteric artery b) Superior mesenteric vein c) Anterior wall of the transverse colon d) Posterior wall of the stomach 80. If the pancreas cannot be seen because of gas, the sonographer should a) cancel the study. b) send for a CT examination. c) reschedule the patient for another day. d) give the patient water. 81. The kidneys are located in the a) peritoneum. b) pararenal space. c) perirenal space. d) omentum. 82. The kidneys and adrenal glands are surrounded by a) renal capsule. b) Gerota’s fascia. c) Glisson’s capsule. d) Morison’s membrane. 83. Which of the following muscles are posterior and medial to the kidneys? a) Psoas b) Quadratus lumborum c) Transversus abdominis d) Rectus abdominus 84. The average length of the adult kidney is a) 7 to 10 mm. b) 8 to 13 m. c) 9 to 12 cm. d) 10 to 15 km. 85. The space between the right kidney and the liver is called  a) Morison’s pouch. b) Douglas’s pouch. c) Gerota’s space. d) Glisson’s space. 86. The relationship between the echogenicity of the right kidney to the echogenicity of the liver is a) the normal liver is more echogenic than the renal sinus. b) the normal liver is more echogenic than the renal cortex. c) the normal liver is less echogenic than the renal cortex. d) the normal renal cortex is more echogenic than the liver. 87) Which of the following renal variants will manifest with an increased space between the renal pyramids? a) Prominent columns of Bertin b) Dromedary hump d) Fetal lobulations c) Junctional parenchymal defect 88) Which of the following renal variants is best appreciated in a transverse image? a) Prominent columns of Bertin b) Fetal lobulations c) Extrarenal pelvis d) Duplication of the collecting system 89) Which of the following is suggestive of a solitary kidney? a) Smaller renal size than normal b) Larger renal size than normal c) Larger renal sinus complex with cortical thinning d) Smaller renal sinus complex 90. When should the sonographer evaluate for ureter jets? a) When there appears to be a stone by the vesicle urinary junctions b) In the presence of a renal mass c) In all patients with hydronephrosis d) Routinely 91. A color or power Doppler perfusion image of the entire kidney should be obtained on a patient with a suspected a) renal mass. b) renal stone. c) aortic dissection. d) renal vein thrombosis 92. The kidneys should be evaluated for hydronephrosis in all patients who have a) a pancreatic mass. b) a liver mass. c) enlarged upper abdominal lymph nodes. d) retroperitoneal mass. 93. Bilateral ureteral jets are routinely seen in a) normal patients. b) patients with ureteral stones. c) patients with ureterovesical junction (VUJ) obstruction. d) patients with ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction. 94. The normal thickness of the renal cortex is approximately Change cm to mm: a) 4 mm. b) 6 mm. c) 8 mm.  d) 10 mm. 95. A renal cause for a pulsatile abdominal mass is a) horseshoe kidney. b) crossed ectopia. c) pelvic kidney. d) extrarenal pelvis. 96. The best patient position to see the kidneys is a) supine. b) prone. c) decubitus. d) all the above. 97. Mildly dilated tubular structures seen at the renal hilum in a transverse image most likely represent a) extrarenal pelvis. b) renal veins. c) renal artery ectasia. d) proximal ureters. 98. Color Doppler should be used to verify that a bump on the contour of the kidney is due to a) a dromedary hump. b) hydronephrosis. c) junctional parenchymal defect. d) duplication of the collecting system. 99. During a routine pelvic ultrasound, a woman is discovered to have a didelphic uterus. Scanning of the kidneys might show a) extrarenal pelvis. b) pelvic kidney. c) crossed ectopia. d) duplicated collecting system. 100. During a prostate sonogram it is discovered that the man has only one seminal vesicle. This prompted the sonographer to look for a) ipsilateral renal agenesis. b) contralateral renal agenesis. c) duplicated collecting system. d) crossed ectopia. 101. The excepted size difference between kidneys is a) 1 cm. b) 2 cm. c) 3 cm. d) 4 cm. 102. The normal adult spleen measures ______________ in length. a) 6 to 8 cm b) 12 to 14 cm c) 14 to 16 mm d) 16 to 18 mm 103. Which of the following statements concerning an accessory spleen is true? a) They are less than 1 cm. b) They can cause left upper quadrant pain. c) They can be easily confused with a tumor. d) They will be more echogenic than the normal spleen. 104. The most commonly damaged organ in blunt abdominal trauma is the  a) liver. b) spleen. c) left kidney. d) pancreas. 105. The sonographic appearance of the normal spleen is a) heterogeneous, midgray, with multiple anechoic tubular structures. b) heterogeneous, dark gray, hypoechoic relative to the liver. c) homogeneous, midgray, hyperechoic relative to the liver. d) homogeneous, dark ray, with a lobular outer contour. 106. Which one of the following statements is true? a) The spleen is medial to the pancreatic tail, lateral to the stomach, and posterior to the splenic artery. b) The spleen is lateral to the pancreas tail, anterior to the stomach, and anterior to the left kidney. c) The spleen is a retroperitoneal organ located in the left hypochondrium. d) The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ located in the left hypochondrium. 107. The splenic artery a) is a branch of the aorta. b) is a branch of the celiac axis. c) is posterior to the pancreas. d) is posterior to the splenic vein. 108. The spleen is a) ovoid with a convex superior surface and concave inferior surface. b) ovoid with a convex superior surface and convex inferior surface. c) ovoid with a concave superior surface and concave inferior surface. d) ovoid with a concave superior surface and convex inferior surface. 109. The splenic vein drains into the a) portal vein. b) left renal vein. c) IVC. d) inferior mesenteric vein. 110. The patient prep for a sonogram of the spleen is a) NPO after midnight. b) clear liquids after midnight. c) essential medications only with a tiny sip of water. d) No prep is required. 111. The formula to determine the volume of the spleen is a) l w h 2. b) l w h pi. b) l w h 0.5. c) l w h 5. 112. What do the numbers 9 and 11 refer to in the 1 3 5 7 9 11 rule? a) These are the ribs at the level of the splenic location. b) They are length and width measurements of the spleen. c) They are the AP and width measurements of the spleen. d) The weight of the spleen is between 9 and 11 oz. 113. The spleen is more echogenic than the a) liver and renal cortex. b) liver and renal sinus. c) renal cortex and renal sinus. d) renal cortex. 114. The normal thyroid gland is a) homogeneous, has mid-gray echogenicity, and is hyperechoic to the adjacent neck muscles. b) homogeneous, has mid-gray echogenicity, and is hypoechoic to the adjacent neck muscles. c) heterogeneous, has mid-gray echogenicity, and is hyperechoic to the adjacent neck muscles. d) heterogeneous, has mid-gray echogenicity, and is hypoechoic to the adjacent neck muscles. 115. The lobes of the thyroid are connected by the a) pyramidal lobe. b) isthmus. c) longus colli d) cricoid. 116. The longus colli muscle is located a) posterior to the thyroid lobe. b) anterior to the thyroid gland. c) posterolateral to the thyroid gland. d) anteromedial to the thyroid gland. 117. The best patient position to scan the thyroid gland is supine with the a) chin pointed down. b) head turned away and the chin down c) head extremely hyperextended. d) neck mildly hyperextended. 118. The thyroid gland is a) an exocrine gland. b) an endocrine gland. c) both an endocrine and an exocrine gland. d) a pseudo gland. 119. The lobes of the thyroid gland are bordered laterally by the a) common carotid artery. b) internal carotid artery. c) longus colli muscle. d) sternocleidomastoid muscle. 120. The thyroid gland is ________ relative to the strap muscles. a) hypoechoic b) hyperechoic c) isoechoic d) anechoic 121. The thyroid gland is located a) lateral to the trachea and inferior to the cricoid cartilage. b) medial to the trachea and superior to the cricoid cartilage. c) anterior to the trachea and posterior to the larynx. d) posterior to the trachea and superior to the larynx. 122. The thyroid gland is located in level a) IV. b) V. c) VI. d) VII. 123. A sonographic characteristic of Graves’ disease is a) thyroid inferno. b) lack of color Doppler in the thyroid.  c) pseudonodules. d) small gland. 124. The boundary between levels I and II is the a) posterior edge of the submandibular gland. b) posterior edge of the cricoid cartilage. c) anterior edge of the hyoid bone. d) anterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. 125. What is the position of the patient’s head while performing a neck mapping? a) Looking straight ahead b) Looking as far laterally as possible away from the sonographer c) Tilted to the side being examined d) Tilted away from the side being examined 126. What structure is used to separate the central neck from the lateral neck? a) Strap muscles b) Sternocleidomastoid muscles c) Carotid artery d) A line drawn down from the angle of the mandible 126. The sonographic appearance of a normal lymph node is a) round with a fatty hilum. b) oval with a fatty hilum. c) round and homogenous. d) oval and homogenous. 128. The patient position for a thyroid ultrasound study is a) with a pillow under the patient’s shoulders so that the neck can be hyperextended. b) with two pillows under the patient’s shoulders so that the neck can be hyperextended. c) supine with no pillow under the head. d) two pillows under the patient’s head.