Final Class Questions PDF
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This document contains a collection of multiple-choice questions covering various medical topics, including fractures, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, osteopenia/osteoporosis, scoliosis, tendinitis/tendinosis, compartment syndrome, and muscular dystrophy. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of these medical conditions.
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FRACTURES: 1. What is the most common cause of a bone fracture? a. Osteoporosis b. A fall c. Car accidents d. Overuse 2. What are the Three healing stages of fractures in order? a. Inflammatory, reparative, remodeling b. Reparative, inflammatory, r...
FRACTURES: 1. What is the most common cause of a bone fracture? a. Osteoporosis b. A fall c. Car accidents d. Overuse 2. What are the Three healing stages of fractures in order? a. Inflammatory, reparative, remodeling b. Reparative, inflammatory, remodeling c. Remodeling, Inflammatory, reparative, d. None of the above 3. What is the primary method of diagnosing a fracture? a. X-Ray b. Palpation c. MRI d. PET Scan 4. Which of these is a Non-Straight line fracture? a. Oblique b. Transverse c. Longitudinal d. Greenstick 5. Most fractures take how long to heal? a. 10-12 weeks b. 4-6 weeks c. 12-15 weeks d. 6-8 weeks OSTEOARTHRITIS: 1. All the following are risk factors for Osteoarthritis EXCEPT: a. Young people b. Repeated stress c. Obesity d. Bone deformities 2. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis. a. True b. False 3. All the following are clinical manifestations of Osteoarthritis EXCEPT: a. Swelling b. Bone spurs c. Excessive ROM d. Pain 4. Primary Osteoarthritis has no known cause (idiopathic). a. True b. False 5. All of the following are ways to treat Osteoarthritis EXCEPT: a. Surgery b. Ice c. Exercise d. Intra-articular injections RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: 1. Which of the following joints is most affected by rheumatoid arthritis? a. Spine & neck b. Shoulder c. Ankles & toes d. Hands, wrists & knees 2. What role does a physical therapist play in managing rheumatoid arthritis? a. Manage pain, prevent deformities and improve mobility b. Provide surgical intervention c. Treat underlying autoimmune response d. Cure the disease 3. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Pain and stiffness in joints b. GI issues c. General fatigue d. Joints that are red/warm to touch 4. What is the primary cause of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Viral infection b. Poor diet c. Excessive autoimmune response d. Smoking 5. True or False: Rheumatoid arthritis is 2-3x more prevalent in men than women? ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS 1- What is the most important factor in being at risk for Ankylosing Spondylitis? A) Poor diet B) Immobility C) Presence of the HLA-B27 gene D) Older age 2- Ankylosing Spondylitis is more common in ______? A. Women B. Men C. Equal in both men and women D. Children 3- Ankylosing Spondylitis falls under the umbrella of which group of diseases? A. Cardiovascular Disease (CVD) B. Tendinopathy (TP) C. Spondyloarthoropathies (SpA) D. Infectious Disease (ID) 4- Treatment of Ankylosing Spondylitis includes ____? A. Posture training B. Flexibility training C. Strength Training D. All of the above 5- Ankylosing Spondylitis is most accurately diagnosed by which method A. CT Scan B. Radiograph (X-ray) C. Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA) D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) OSTEOPENIA/OSTEOPOROSIS 1. Which client is least likely to develop osteoporosis? a. a sedentary female b. a heavy smoker undergoing chemotherapy c. a 65 year-old on anti-seizure medications d. a weightlifting male with an increased body mass 2. At what age are women urged to have a bone density scan performed? a. 50 years b. 65 years c. 60 years d. 55 years 3. What is one exercise movement that osteoporotic patients are recommended not to perform? a. Balance exercises b. Strength training exercises c. High impact exercises d. Low-intensity aerobic activity 4. What is the gold standard assessment for diagnosing osteopenia and osteoporosis? a. Dual-Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) b. Qualitative Computed Tomography QCT c. Physical examinations d. Medial History 5. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of bone homeostasis? a. Growth factors b. Cytokines c. Hormones d. All of the above SCOLIOSIS 1. Curvatures of what degree are not expected to progress? ○ A. 50 degrees or less ○ B. 40 degrees or less ○ C. 30 degrees or less ○ D. None of the above, scoliosis always progresses 2. Scoliosis causes a muscular imbalance that is due to all EXCEPT: ○ A. The muscles on the convex side being overused ○ B. The muscles on the convex side being atrophied ○ C. The muscles on the concave side being weak ○ D. The muscles on the concave side atrophied 3. What exercise method does research show to be most effective at reducing Cobb angle? ○ A. Schroth Method ○ B. Core Stability Method ○ C. ADL Training Method ○ D. 3-Dimension Self-Correction Method 4. An individual with a primary diagnosis of Cerebral Palsy develops a curvature in their spine of 12°, secondary to their condition. What type of Scoliosis do they most likely have? ○ A. Idiopathic ○ B. Congenital ○ C. Neuromuscular ○ D. Degenerative 5. Which of the following is a goal of the physical therapists when treating a scoliosis patient? ○ A. Strengthen abdominal muscles ○ B. Recommend an anti-inflammatory medication ○ C. Straighten out the curve ○ D. All of the above PAGET’S DISEASE 1. __________ areas of resorption due to a significant increase in the number of abnormal osteoclasts and ____________ is disorganized and the bone develops in fragments. a) Mixed, Osteosclerosis b) Osteosclerosis, Osteoblastic c) Osteolytic, Osteosclerosis d) Osteolytic, Mixed 2. What is the most commonly used diagnostic tool for Paget’s Disease? a) CT b) Biochemical markers in the blood and urine c) X-ray d) MRI 3. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of Paget’s Disease? a) Bone pain b) Bone deformity c) Fractures d) Nerve deficits 4. What two nutrients should you take to help inprove your bone health? A: Vitamin D B: Calcium C: Phosphates D: A and B 5. True or false: You can take calcitonin to help improve your bone health? FIBROCARTILAGE TEARS 1. What is the gold standard for assessing fibrocartilage tears? a. Arthroscopy 2. What else does fibrocartilage utilize as mechanoreceptors other than chondrocytes? a. Fibroblasts 3. The fibrocartilage matrix formed during repair is more fibrous and less functional than the original tissue, what type of tissue will it become? a. Scar Tissue 4. Where are some common sites of fibrocartilage within the body? a. Tendons, Ligaments, Menisci 5. What are the functions of fibrocartilage? a. Resists compression and shear forces SPRAINS/STRAINS 1. Which statement is TRUE? a. Sprains and strains affect the same structures, but the name varies based on severity. b. Excessive range of motion is not a cause of sprains or strains. c. Sprains are damage to a muscle or tendon d. Strains are damage to a muscle or tendon. 2. In sports, where is the most common location of a Sprain. a. The knee b. The Wrist c. The ankle d. The elbow 3. What categorizes a Grade 3 sprain? a. Partial ligament damage b. Partial tearing of ligament c. full tear of ligament and loss of joint stability d. Can repair itself with rest 4. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of a sprain? a. Edema b. Abnormal ROM c. Muscle spasms d. Bruising 5. True/False: Ice has been shown to improve regeneration of muscle tissue following a strain. TENDINITIS/TENDINOSIS 1. What is the hallmark difference between tendinitis and tendinosis? a. Tendinitis is characterized by collagen degeneration; Tendinosis is characterized by inflammation of tenocytes b. Tendinitis is characterized by inflammation of the tenocytes; Tendinosis is characterized by collagen degeneration c. There are no differences d. None of the above 2. Clinically, it is easy to differentiate between tendinitis and tendinosis? a. True b. False 3. Which of the following are the symptoms of a grade 3 tendinopathy? a. No significant pain during activity but some discomfort post activity occurs b. Pain is severe enough to affect performance causing the volume of activity to be modified c. Pain before and after activity but not enough during activity to alter performance or volume d. None of the above 4. What is the primary goal of medical management of tendinosis through exercise-based therapy? a. Load maintenance/management b. Create functional scar tissue c. Reduce inflammation d. Stimulate collagen production 5. What interventions can a Physical Therapist implement to reduce symptoms of tendinopathy? a. Provide strengthening exercises b. Perform myofascial release C. Perform friction massage D. All of the above COMPARTMENT SYNDROME 1. What is(are) the type(s) of compartment syndrome? ○ a. Acute ○ b. Terminal ○ c. Chronic ○ d. A and B ○ e. A and C ○ f. B and C ○ g. All of the above 2. Acute compartment syndrome is more common in what population? ○ a. Males ○ b. Females ○ c. Same prevalence for each ○ d. It is unknown 3. What are the most common locations for compartment syndrome? ○ a. Proximal extremities (thigh and upper arm) ○ b. Head and Neck ○ c. Toes and Fingers ○ d. Distal extremities (forearm and calf) 4. True or false: Compartment syndrome is due to a decreased level of pressure within a muscular compartment ○ a. True ○ b. False 5. Treatment for acute compartment syndrome includes which of the following? ○ a. Increased exercise ○ b. Lotions and creams ○ c. Surgery ○ d. Treatment is not needed MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY 1.Which of the following is a risk factor for muscular dystrophy? C. Family history 2. Which of the following is responsible for the improper functioning of contractile filaments due to it’s own improper functioning/lack of? A. Dystrophin 3. Which of the following muscular dystrophy disorders have similar symptoms to each other? D. Duchenne & Becker 4. Trouble with hand movements and finger extension would indicate which of the following muscular dystrophy disorders? B. Distal 5. Which of the following muscular dystrophy disorders has the worst prognosis? C. Congenital MYASTHENIA GRAVIS 1. What type of receptors are affected in Myasthenia Gravis? A. Nicotinic cholinergic B. Muscariniccholinergic C. Beta-adrenergic D. Alpha-adrenergic 2. Which classification of Myasthenia Gravis would signify a patient who is having trouble breathing? A. TypeII B. TypeV C. TypeI D. Early-onset 3. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of Myasthenia Gravis A. Muscleweakness B. Troublebreathing C. Diplopia D. Hypertension 4. Which type of cell is the most relevant in the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis? A. Neutrophils B. T-cells C. B-cells D. Eosinophils 5. True or False: Old age is a primary predictor of death with myasthenia gravis TRUE FIBROMYALGIA SYNDROME 1. Which is not a core symptom of fibromyalgia? a. Generalized pain b. Sleep disturbances c. Headaches and migraines d. Fatigue 2. What is a benefit of aquatic therapy for individuals of fibromyalgia? a. Cold water improves muscle aches and pain b. Buoyancy relieves joint stress and pain c. Increase in nociceptor activation d. Decreases self-esteem 3. Fibromyalgia is a condition that: a. Cannot be explained by other medical condition b. Can be explained by other medical conditions c. Present for a short period of time d. Remains constant over time 4. With Fibromyalgia there is a. Tissue inflammation b. Decreases levels of excitatory neurotransmitters c. And increased level of on anti - nociceptive neurotransmitters d. Dopamine dysregulation 5. Fibromyalgia is a. More common in men b. Less common in women c. More common in women d. Seen equally in men and women